Prep You Domain I

Which of the following BEST assesses lower-body muscular strength? a) 1-RM squat b) 10-RM leg press c) Bodyweight squat d) Standing long jump

a) 1-RM squat

An appropriate warm-up for a brisk walk would be? a) A light walk b) Jogging c) Lateral shuffles d) Skipping

a) A light walk

Which joint movement occurs in the frontal plane? a) Adduction b) Extension c) Circumduction d) Flexion

a) Adduction

What muscles are antagonists to the bicep brachii, brachialis, and brachioradialis? a) Anconeus and triceps brachii b) Pronator quadratus c) Anconeus and supinator d) Pronator teres

a) Anconeus and triceps brachii

Which of the following is utilized to obtain critical client information? a) Client Intake Form b) Medical Clearance Form c) PAR-Q d) Personal Trainer-Client Agreement

a) Client Intake Form

Which of the following BEST describes shoulder impingement? a) Compression of the tendons in the subacromial space with shoulder joint motion b) Crushing of only the supraspinatus tendon and bursa in the suprahumeral space c) Increased shoulder pain when moving into shoulder horizontal abduction d) Increased shoulder pressure on the superior aspect of the acromion process

a) Compression of the tendons in the subacromial space with shoulder joint motion

A physiologic adaptation to aerobic conditioning in untrained individuals will result in a/an ________ in resting heart rate and a/an ________ in exercise heart rate at a submaximal effort. a) Decrease, decrease b) Decrease, increase c) Increase, decrease d) Increase, increase

a) Decrease, decrease

Which of the following actions takes place in the sagittal plane? a) Dorsiflexion of the ankle b) Opposition of the thumb c) Pronation of the forearm d) Depression of the scapulae

a) Dorsiflexion of the ankle

Flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, internal rotation, and external rotation are possible joint actions found in the: a) Hip joint b) Carpal-metacarpal joint c) Saddle joint d) Wrist joint

a) Hip joint

Which muscles function to rotate the lumbar spine? a) Internal and external obliques b) Quadratus lumborum and tensor fascia latae c) Erector spinae and multifidus d) Rectus abdominis and transverse abdominis

a) Internal and external obliques

Scoliosis is defined as: a) Lateral deviation of the spine. b) Medial deviation of the spine. c) Posterior deviation of the spine. d) A combination of kyphosis and lordosis.

a) Lateral deviation of the spine.

The muscles that depress the scapulothoracic joint are the: a) Lower trapezius and pectoralis minor b) Rhomboids and serratus anterior c) Upper trapezius and rhomboids d) Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor

a) Lower trapezius and pectoralis minor

When looking at postural alignment from a posterior view, the vertical line should pass through the ________. a) Midline of the body b) Ankle c) Scapula d) Knee joint

a) Midline of the body

The upper trapezius causes ________ rotation of the scapula and the lower trapezius causes ________ rotation of the scapula. a) Upward; upward b) Downward; retraction c) Upward; protraction d) Downward; upward

a) Upward; upward

Sean is performing barbell squats with the intent of building up his quadriceps muscles. To make the quadriceps perform MORE work and INCREASE the efficiency of the exercise, he should: a) Minimize the amount of trunk flexion at the start of the concentric phase. b) Maintain a cervical extension posture throughout the movement. c) Utilize the proper size weightlifting belt. d) Push up, utilizing the muscles around the hip joint.

a) Minimize the amount of trunk flexion at the start of the concentric phase.

The upper respiratory tract consists of ________. a) Nasal cavity, nose, and pharynx b) Trachea, larynx, and lungs c) Pharynx, larynx, and nasal cavity d) Pharynx, larynx, and lungs

a) Nasal cavity, nose, and pharynx

During pregnancy, resistance and flexibility exercises in the supine position should be avoided to prevent which of the following? a) Orthostatic hypotension b) Diaphoresis c) Ankle edema d) Exercise-induced hypertension

a) Orthostatic hypotension

Which of the following muscles inserts on the humerus? a) Pectoralis major b) Pectoralis minor c) Biceps brachii d) Rhomboid major

a) Pectoralis major

What assessments are MOST important to complete before beginning resistance training? a) Posture, functional movement, muscular strength, and endurance b) Health-history data to identify contraindications for exercise and the need for referral c) Cardio-respiratory fitness using the submaximal talk test to determine HR at VT1 d) Blood pressure, resting heart rate, body composition, and waist to hip ratio

a) Posture, functional movement, muscular strength, and endurance

Protraction and retraction movements are characteristic of the: a) Scapulothoracic joint b) Ankle joint c) Thoracic spine d) Wrist joint

a) Scapulothoracic joint

Which of the following BEST fosters exercise adherence and progression toward the client's goal? a) Setting a few attainable short-term goals b) Keeping clients focused on their primary long-term goals c) Setting several progressive goals on a weekly basis d) Helping clients focus on never missing a session

a) Setting a few attainable short-term goals

When looking at postural alignment from a lateral view, the vertical plumb line should be ________. a) Slightly anterior to the lateral malleolus b) Slightly posterior to the axis of the knee joint c) Through the mid thoracic vertebral bodies d) Slightly posterior to external auditory meatus

a) Slightly anterior to the lateral malleolus

The clavicle is _________ to the pelvis. a) Superior b) Anterior c) Posterior d) Inferior

a) Superior

During the contraction phase of a bicep curl, the palms are ___________. a) Supinated b) Pronated c) Everted d) Inverted

a) Supinated

Which of the following is an example of a short bone? a) Tarsal b) Sphenoid c) Ulna d) Ethnoid

a) Tarsal

Which of the following muscles is considered a prime mover for a lat pulldown exercise? a) Teres major b) Anterior deltoid c) Biceps brachii d) Pectoralis major

a) Teres major

The SAID (Specific Adaptations to Imposed Demands) Principle indicates that: a) The adaptation will be specific to the demands that the exercise places upon the individual. b) Hypertrophy can only occur if the specific reps are within a 12-20 range. c) The number of muscle spindles will increase according to the motor unit recruitment. d) The load and the volume of exercise must be specific to client goals.

a) The adaptation will be specific to the demands that the exercise places upon the individual.

Which of the following statements about flexibility is the MOST accurate? a) With age, collagen fibers become more rigid and more resistant to stretching. b) Males typically have more flexibility in the lower extremity than females. c) Any build-up of scar tissue after injury often causes flexibility to plateau. d) Flexibility naturally increases due to a decrease collagen levels.

a) With age, collagen fibers become more rigid and more resistant to stretching.

Which of the following is the MOST powerful method of marketing to potential clients? a) Word of mouth b) Complimentary consultations c) Direct mailers d) Website

a) Word of mouth

A 30-year-old potential client states she just had a physical and was informed by her physician that her total cholesterol and blood pressure looked great. You review her medical history and note she is taking vitamins and antihypertensive medication. Based on this profile, she would be considered as having how many risk factors? a) 2 b) 1 c) 0 d) 3

b) 1 This individual is considered as having one risk factor because she is on hypertensive medication

Which of the following best describes the scapular or caption plane? a) 30° lateral to the sagittal plane b) 30° anterior to the frontal plane c) In line with the sagittal plane d) In line with the frontal plane

b) 30° anterior to the frontal plane

A Personal Trainer may begin immediately training which of the following clients? a) A 45-year-old male client who has asthma b) A 42-year-old female client who has lumbar lordosis c) A 56-year-old female client who takes a calcium channel blocker d) A 49-year-old male client who has an abdominal hernia

b) A 42-year-old female client who has lumbar lordosis

What muscle group is strengthened when a client performs side-lying leg lifts? a) Adductors b) Abductors c) Internal rotation d) External rotation

b) Abductors

Which sport is performed primarily in the aerobic-oxidation system? a) Gymnastics b) Cycling c) 100-meter swim d) 200- to 440-meter dash

b) Cycling

Which of the following is considered a hinge joint? a) Humeroulnar b) Elbow c) Humeroradial d) Hip

b) Elbow

Respectively, lateral flexion and axial rotation are produced by which of the following muscles during unilateral contraction? a) Rectus abdominis; mid-trapezius b) Erector spinae; multifidus c) Piriformis; semispinalis d) Iliopsoas; erector spinae

b) Erector spinae; multifidus

Abruptly stopping exercise can cause: a) Removal of metabolic waste. b) Excessive drop in blood pressure. c) Reduce muscle soreness. d) Hypertension.

b) Excessive drop in blood pressure.

Concentric contraction of the triceps brachii muscle causes ____________ in the _____________plane. a) Extension; frontal b) Extension; sagittal c) Flexion; frontal d) Flexion; sagittal

b) Extension; sagittal

Which of the following joints favors mobility over stability? a) Ankle b) Glenohumeral c) Thoracic spine d) Knee

b) Glenohumeral

Which sport is performed primarily in the ATP (anaerobic) pathway? a) Swimming b) Golf c) Tennis d) 400-meter dash

b) Golf

Intermittent claudication refers to: a) Fluid buildup around the ankle joints during weight bearing. b) Pain that occurs in the lower extremities during walking and disappears after stopping. c) A constant pain that is felt in the anterior compartment of the lower leg. d) Pedal pulse pressures that vacillate between strong and weak.

b) Pain that occurs in the lower extremities during walking and disappears after stopping.

Performing a squat with a board placed under the heels results in which of the following? a) Assists in establishing neutral spine b) Increased force requirements of the quadriceps c) Lengthened gastrocnemius and soleus d) Minimized patellofemoral joint forces

b) Increased force requirements of the quadriceps A board placed under the heels during a squat increases quadriceps work since a mechanical disadvantage is created

Which of the following should be avoided in hypertensive clients? a) Concentric muscle contractions b) Isometric muscle contractions c) Eccentric muscle contractions d) Isokinetic muscle contractions

b) Isometric muscle contractions

You observe a long outward curve of the thoracic spine with an exaggerated curve. This postural deviation is known as: a) Flat back. b) Kyphosis. c) Sway back. d) Lordosis.

b) Kyphosis. The thoracic spine has a natural kyphotic curve. A postural deviation here of is technically known as "hyper kyphosis

During aerobic exercise with gradually increasing intensity, the point at which the increased demands for oxygen results in a nonlinear increase in ventilation corresponds with: a) VO2max b) Lactate threshold. c) Pulmonary ventilation. d) Aerobic capacity.

b) Lactate threshold.

Which exercise results in the greatest amount of torque from the muscles of the shoulder joint? a) Lateral raises in the frontal plane to 90°, humeral abduction with 30 lb dumbbells, elbows flexed 90° b) Lateral raises in the frontal plane to 90°, humeral abduction with 30 lb dumbbells, elbows extended c) Shoulder shrugs, using 50 lb dumbbells, elbows extended d) Shoulder shrugs, using 85 lb dumbbells, with elbows extended

b) Lateral raises in the frontal plane to 90°, humeral abduction with 30 lb dumbbells, elbows extended

An example of an open chain exercise is the: a) Pull-up b) Leg extension c) Squat d) Push-up

b) Leg extension

Marti is performing unilateral standing calf raises with a dumbbell held in the ipsilateral hand. You cue her to stand up tall and lean back slightly while performing the exercise to ________ and make the exercise ________, thereby increasing efficiency. a) Shorten the lever arm; easier b) Lengthen the lever arm; more difficult c) Lengthen the lever arm; easier d) Shorten the lever arm; more difficult

b) Lengthen the lever arm; more difficult

Which of the following muscles is superior to the latissimus dorsi? a) Erector spinae b) Levator scapulae c) Lower trapezius d) External oblique

b) Levator scapulae

A muscle that produces a low force and has a high contractile rate is classified as a __________ muscle. a) Unipennate b) Longitudinal c) Multipennate d) Bipennate

b) Longitudinal

The upper respiratory tract consists of ________. a) Pharynx, larynx, and nasal cavity b) Nasal cavity, nose, and pharynx c) Trachea, larynx, and lungs d) Pharynx, larynx, and lungs

b) Nasal cavity, nose, and pharynx

Which of the following muscles is involved in a dumbbell wrist curl? a) Extensor carpi ulnaris b) Palmaris longus c) Extensor carpi radialis d) Pronator quadratus

b) Palmaris longus

The gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris are located in which lower leg area? a) Anterior tibial compartment b) Posterior tibial compartment c) Deep posterior compartment d) Superficial posterior compartment

b) Posterior tibial compartment

Which muscles are prime movers for lateral flexion of the lumbar spine? a) Iliopsoas, rectus femoris, and tensor fascia latae b) Quadratus lumborum and internal and external obliques c) Rectus abdominis, transverse abdominis, and external obliques d) Iliocostalis, longissimus, and interspinalis

b) Quadratus lumborum and internal and external obliques

Deviations in which plane are referred to as "hyperlordosis"? a) Horizontal b) Sagittal c) Frontal d) Transverse

b) Sagittal

Which rotator cuff muscle(s) externally rotate the shoulder joint? a) Teres minor and infraspinatus b) Subscapularis and teres minor c) Subscapularis and teres minor d) Supraspinatus and infraspinatus

b) Subscapularis and teres minor

Which of the following groups of muscles describes the rotator cuff? a) Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, latissimus dorsi, and teres minor b) Supraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis, and infraspinatus c) Teres major, joint capsule, proximal portion of biceps tendon, and acromion d) Teres minor, teres major, rhomboid minor, and rhomboid major

b) Supraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis, and infraspinatus

Muscular endurance is defined as: a) A one-time maximal force that may be exerted and is localized to a joint or muscle group. b) The ability to apply a force repeatedly over time. c) The amount of motor units recruited in 8 to 12 reps. d) The number of muscle spindles recruited during a maximal contraction.

b) The ability to apply a force repeatedly over time.

Lordosis is defined as: a) The convexity of the spinal curve is lateral. b) The convexity of the spinal curve is anterior. c) The convexity of the spinal curve is medial. d) The convexity of the spinal curve is posterior.

b) The convexity of the spinal curve is anterior.

Pronation of the wrist joint occurs in: a) The sagittal plane. b) The transverse plane. c) The frontal plane. d) Multiple planes.

b) The transverse plane

Which of the following best describes the effect of length changes on the force-generating capacity of shortened muscles? a) They will have diminished force-generating capacity at their new lengths, but greater force-generating capacity at normal resting lengths. b) There is a greater force-generating capacity at the new length, but diminished force-generating capacity at normal resting length. c) The lengthened muscles generally have a higher force production throughout the full range of motion, as muscles are strongest when they are longest. d) The shortened muscles will produce the same amount of force as they did at normal length, only at a faster rate of movement.

b) There is a greater force-generating capacity at the new length, but diminished force-generating capacity at normal resting length.

A 30-year-old potential client states she just had a physical and was informed by her physician that her total cholesterol and blood pressure looked great. You review her medical history and note she is taking vitamins and antihypertensive medication. Based on this profile, she would be considered as having how many risk factors? a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 0

c) 1 This individual is considered as having one risk factor because she is on hypertensive medication

You discover the following information about Rosalyn, your new 54-year-old female client: BMI = 24.3 (68", 160 lbs) Total cholesterol: 190 mg·dL-1 HDL cholesterol: 62 mg·dL-1 Blood pressure: 128/84 mm Hg with antihypertensive medication Former smoker: quit 2 months ago Family history: Father diagnosed with coronary heart disease at age 54 Walks to work 8 minutes each way Based on this information above, you determine that Rosalyn has: a) 1 positive and 0 negative risk factors. b) 3 positive and 2 negative risk factors. c) 3 positive and 1 negative risk factors. d) 2 positive and 1 negative risk factors

c) 3 positive and 1 negative risk factors. Positive risk factors include hypertension, smoking, and family history. The only negative risk factor is HDL-C levels.

Which of the following best defines the precontemplation stage? a) A female with prediabetes is aware of her need to control her blood glucose levels b) A smoker is considering stopping given her recent health issues c) An overweight individual does not value the benefits of exercise d) An individual who has just been diagnosed with hypertension begins to research fitness facilities in her neighborhood

c) An overweight individual does not value the benefits of exercise

The volume of blood pumped by the heart in liters per minute is defined as__________. a) Diastolic blood pressure b) Stroke volume c) Cardiac output d) Systolic blood pressure

c) Cardiac output

An overweight individual expresses motivation to lose weight after the birth of his son. He is in which stage of change? a) Precontemplation b) Action c) Contemplation d) Preparation

c) Contemplation An individual is in the contemplation stage when he or she considers the consequences of a behavior and begins to consider making changes.

Because of recent death in his family, a client begins to consider beginning an exercise program. This is known as: a) Precontemplation. b) Action. c) Contemplation. d) Preparation.

c) Contemplation. Contemplation is a stage of change where an individual begins to think about behavior change.

Which of the following is a sign or symptom suggestive of cardiovascular disease? a) Dull pain in the low back while touching the toes b) Shortness of breath after climbing several flights of stairs c) Discomfort in the neck and jaw after carrying a heavy suitcase for a several minutes d) Dizziness after quickly moving from a lying to standing position

c) Discomfort in the neck and jaw after carrying a heavy suitcase for a several minutes

A 48-year-old female client has very tight gastrocnemius muscles. To facilitate permanent changes in the length of these muscles, in what position should the foot be placed and for what duration? a) Inverted position for 30 to 40 seconds b) Plantarflexed position for 30 to 40 seconds c) Dorsiflexed position for 60 seconds d) Everted position for 2 to 3 minutes

c) Dorsiflexed position for 60 seconds The gastrocnemius is lengthened when placed in a position opposite of the muscle acton. Since the gastrocnemius plantarflexes the ankle joint, a stretch would occur when placed in a dorsiflexed position. A 30 to 60 second stretch hold time is recommended for most adults. (less)

Which of the following is considered a hinge joint? a) Humeroulnar b) Humeroradial c) Elbow d) Hip

c) Elbow

The posterior deltoid performs ________ of the shoulder joint at approximately ________. a) Adduction, 0° b) Abduction; 90° c) Extension; 40° to 60° d) Extension, 70° to 90°

c) Extension; 40° to 60°

During the concentric phase of a hamstring curl, the hamstrings are __________. a) Abducted b) Extended c) Flexed d) Adducted

c) Flexed

A posterior pelvic tilt produces lumbar ________ and an anterior pelvic tilt produces lumbar ________. a) Flexion; flexion b) Extension; extension c) Flexion; extension d) Extension; flexion

c) Flexion; extension

A lateral lunge is performed in which plane of movement? a) Sagittal b) Transverse c) Frontal d) Horizontal

c) Frontal

Which of the following is an example of an enarthrodial joint? a) Radiounlar b) Acromioclavicular c) Glenohumeral d) Carpal-metacarpal

c) Glenohumeral

Which group of muscles function to extend the hip joint? a) Gluteus medius and hamstrings b) Piriformis and gluteus maximus c) Gluteus maxmimus and hamstrings d) Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius

c) Gluteus maxmimus and hamstrings

Your new client is ready to start training next week. You provide her with a service introduction packet which must include, at a minimum, which of the following forms? a) Medical Clearance Form, Personal Trainer-Client Agreement, and liability waiver b) PAR-Q, Personal Trainer-Client Agreement, and training log c) Health/Medical History Evaluation, Medical Clearance Form, and Informed Consent d) Health/Medical History Evaluation, liability waiver, and training log

c) Health/Medical History Evaluation, Medical Clearance Form, and Informed Consent

Which of the following is considered a normal response to resistance training for the chest? a) Stiff shoulders b) Pain in the anterior deltoid c) Mild soreness in the pec major d) Elbow inflammation

c) Mild soreness in the pec major

The intensity of work is represented by ________, amount of force is represented by ________, and displacement is represented by ________. a) Torque; acceleration; exercise selected b) Torque; velocity of motion; acceleration of motion c) RPE; resistance; ROM d) RPE; resistance; exercise selected

c) RPE; resistance; ROM

Rhabdomyolysis is a clinical pathology that is characterized by ________. a) Delayed onset muscle soreness b) Reduced lactic acid production c) Rapid breakdown of muscle tissue d) Mild muscle soreness

c) Rapid breakdown of muscle tissue

Which of the following is NOT considered a true joint? a) Glenohumeral b) Acromioclavicular c) Scapulothoracic d) Sternoclavicular

c) Scapulothoracic

Which of the following BEST describes the primary difference between standing and seated calf raises? a) Seated calf raises emphasize the gastrocnemius muscle, while the standing calf raise emphasizes the soleus muscle. b) The seated calf raise targets the soleus, while the standing calf raise targets the gastrocnemius and invertors. c) Seated calf raises emphasize the soleus muscle, while the standing calf raise emphasizes the gastrocnemius muscle. d) The seated calf raise targets the muscle primarily responsible for power in the lower leg, while the standing calf raise targets the muscle primarily responsible for endurance.

c) Seated calf raises emphasize the soleus muscle, while the standing calf raise emphasizes the gastrocnemius muscle.

Len is a 75-year-old client referred to you by a occupational therapist for strengthening of the lower leg muscle responsible for endurance in standing and walking. You would have Len perform ________ calf raises to emphasize his ________ muscle. a) Seated; gastrocnemius b) Standing; soleus c) Seated; soleus d) Standing; gastrocnemius

c) Seated; soleus

Regarding the goal setting theory, a client that has more ________ selected goals will have greater _________ motivation. a) Trainer, intrinsic b) Trainer, extrinsic c) Self-directed, intrinsic d) Self-directed, extrinsic

c) Self-directed, intrinsic

While supine, your client performs range of motion on the shoulder joint. She displays tightness in the infraspinatus and teres minor. You were led to this conclusion since the client was: a) Unable to abduct the arm to shoulder level. b) Able to internally rotate the shoulder joint to about 60°. c) Unable to externally rotate the shoulder joint past 60°. d) Able to reach overhead to the contralateral shoulder.

c) Unable to externally rotate the shoulder joint past 60°.

To build a successful client relationship, you should: a) Provide unsolicited advice for motivation. b) Offer excellent customer service and hospitality. c) Use a client-centered approach. d) Demonstrate your knowledge and professionalism frequently.

c) Use a client-centered approach.

A heart murmur that is clinically significant may be indicative of: a) Hypertension. b) Anemia. c) Valvular heart disease. d) Shortness of breath.

c) Valvular heart disease.

To fully stretch the quadriceps, the hip joint must be ________ and the knee joint ________. a) flexed; extended b) extended; extended c) extended; flexed d) flexed; flexed

c) extended; flexed

Please refer to client profile below: 45-year-old male Mother has hypertension Father had coronary bypass surgery at age 59 Quit smoking 20 years ago Walks dog 1 to 2 times per day, for 10 minutes per walk BMI: 29 kg/m2 Blood Pressure: 132/86 mm Hg Total serum cholesterol: 216 mg·dL-1 LDL cholesterol: 138 mg·dL-1 HDL cholesterol: 48 mg·dL-1 Fasting plasma glucose: 94 mg·dL-1 Goals: Lose 20 lb; increase muscle strength and cardiorespiratory fitness What is this client's "total score" for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease using the ACSM risk factor thresholds? a) 1 b) 3 c) 4 d) 2

d) 2 Risk includes age, sedentary lifestyle, and high LDL levels.

A range of ________ to ________ of one repetition maximum (1 RM) is recommended for optimizing strength gains. a) 80%; 95% b) 50%; 60% c) 60%; 75% d) 75%; 90%

d) 75%; 90%

Where does gas exchange occur in the respiratory system? a) Larynx b) Bronchi c) Pharynx d) Alveoli

d) Alveoli

Exchange of blood gases and other nutrients within various tissues occur in the ____________. a) Arterioles b) Veins c) Arteries d) Capillaries

d) Capillaries

Which movement occurs in the frontal plane? a) Flexion at the elbow b) Supination at the wrist c) Extension at the hip d) Elevation of the of the scapula

d) Elevation of the of the scapula

Which of the following increases functional capacity and may relieve symptoms of coronary artery disease? a) Circuit training b) Interval training c) Resistance training d) Endurance exercise training

d) Endurance exercise training

Which of the following muscles exerts an upward pull on the posterior surfaces of the pelvis resulting in a neutral pelvic position? a) Hamstrings b) Hip flexors c) Rectus abdominis d) Erector spinae

d) Erector spinae

Which of the following concepts, if applied, makes resistance training easier to perform? a) P = mv b) Newton's third law c) Newton's first law d) F = ma

d) F = ma

Movement toward the midline in the transverse plane describes which term? a) Abduction b) Horizontal abduction c) Adduction d) Horizontal adduction

d) Horizontal adduction

What joint action of the shoulder is performed during a reverse cable fly or a reverse dumbbell fly? a) Horizontal abduction b) Retraction c) Protraction d) Horizontal adduction

d) Horizontal adduction

Which of the following is an acute response to cardiorespiratory exercise? a) Increase in resting heart rate b) Decrease in cardiac output c) Decrease in blood pressure d) Increase in stroke volume

d) Increase in stroke volume

Which of the following form discusses the risk and benefits of performing assessments and exercise? a) Personal Trainer-Client Agreement b) Medical Clearance c) Client Intake Form d) Informed Consent

d) Informed Consent

A proper cool-down allows the body to help remove ________. a) Creatine b) Carbon dioxide c) Pyruvate d) Lactate

d) Lactate

An example of an open chain exercise is the: a) Push-up b) Squat c) Pull-up d) Leg extension

d) Leg extension

The resistance ________ and ________ of training need to be carefully progressed and monitored to limit muscle tissue damage. a) Sets; reps b) Load; rest c) Intensity; reps d) Load; volume

d) Load; volume

A potential client has been walking two miles, several times a week, for the past few months and would like to continue progress toward her goals. You suggest that she train with you for several sessions to teach her things she can do on her own. This would help reinforce which stage of change? a) Contemplation b) Action c) Preparation d) Maintenance

d) Maintenance The rationale for suggesting that she train with you for a few sessions is to give her more exercise "tools" to work with, as well as preserve her behavior to exercise.

The muscles that function to adduct the hip joint are collectively in which area of the hip? a) Lateral b) Posterior c) Anterior d) Medial

d) Medial

The muscles that abduct the shoulder joint are the: a) Anterior deltoid and pectoralis major b) Serratus anterior and subscapularis c) Levator scapula and upper trapezius d) Medial deltoid and supraspinatus

d) Medial deltoid and supraspinatus

Which of the following is considered the prime mover for both shoulder flexion and shoulder horizontal adduction? a) Latissimus dorsi b) Teres major c) Serratus anterior d) Pectoralis major

d) Pectoralis major

The muscles involved in a dumbbell fly and cable fly are the: a) Latissimus dorsi and teres major b) Anterior deltoid and latissimus dorsi c) Teres major and pectoralis major d) Pectoralis major and anterior deltoid

d) Pectoralis major and anterior deltoid

Impaired glucose tolerance is consistent with which of the following? a) Type 2 diabetes b) Dyslipidemia c) Type 1 diabetes d) Prediabetes

d) Prediabetes

During the concentric phase of extension at the knee joint, the ________ work as an agonist and the ________ work as the antagonist. a) Iliopsoas, gastrocnemius b) Gastrocnemius, iliopsoas c) Hamstrings, quadriceps d) Quadriceps, hamstrings

d) Quadriceps, hamstrings

For men, a 3-site skinfold assessment is taken on the ________ side of the body at the ________. a) Left; triceps, suprailium, and thigh b) Left; chest, abdomen, and thigh c) Right; triceps, suprailium, and thigh d) Right; chest, abdomen, and thigh

d) Right; chest, abdomen, and thigh

What type of blood pressure response to acute exercise is seen in children when compared with adults? a) SBP increases and DBP decreases. b) SBP decreases and DBP increases. c) SBP increases and DBP increases. d) SBP decreases and DBP decreases.

d) SBP decreases and DBP decreases.

Which of the following is considered a gliding joint? a) Atlanto-axial b) Scapulothoracic c) Ankle d) Sacroiliac

d) Sacroiliac

Running is done predominately in what plane of movement? a) Horizontal b) Transverse c) Frontal d) Sagittal

d) Sagittal

The elbow can performs movements in which plane? a) Transitional b) Horizontal c) Frontal d) Sagittal

d) Sagittal

Which plane of movement divides the body between the left and right? a) Transverse b) Horizontal c) Frontal d) Sagittal

d) Sagittal

The facet joints of the lumbar spine are oriented in the __________ which primarily allows ____________ motions. a) Frontal plane; flexion/extension b) Sagittal plane; rotation c) Transverse plane; side bending d) Sagittal plane; flexion/extension

d) Sagittal plane; flexion/extension

Which of the following is a similar site for both a male and a female when performing a 3-site skinfold test? a) Supraliac b) Chest c) Abdomen d) Thigh

d) Thigh