PrepU: Chapter 69: Management of Patients With Neurologic Infections, Autoimmune Disorders, and Neuropathies

Which client goal, established by the nurse, is most important as the nurse plans care for a seizure client in the home setting? The client will post emergency numbers on the refrigerator for ease of obtaining. The client will remain free of injury if a seizure does occur. The client will take the seizure medication at the same time daily. The client will verbalize an understanding of feelings that preempt seizure activity.

The client will remain free of injury if a seizure does occur. Explanation: All of the goals are appropriate, but the most important goal is the long-term goal to remain free of injury if a seizure occurs. Nursing interventions associated can include notifying someone of not feeling well, lowering self to a safe position, protecting head, turning on a side, etc. Also, the client may be at a risk for injury because, once a seizure begins, the client cannot implement self-protective behaviors. An established plan is important in the care of a seizure client. The other options are acceptable goals for nursing care.

The client with herpes simplex virus (HSV) encephalitis is receiving acyclovir. The nurse monitors blood chemistry test results and urinary output for signs of improvement in the patient's condition. renal complications related to acyclovir therapy. signs and symptoms of cardiac insufficiency. signs of relapse.

renal complications related to acyclovir therapy. Explanation: Monitoring of blood chemistry test results and urinary output will alert the nurse to the presence of renal complications related to acyclovir therapy. To prevent relapse, treatment with acyclovir should continue for up to 3 weeks.

Bell palsy is a disorder of which cranial nerve? Facial (VII) Vestibulocochlear (VIII) Trigeminal (V) Vagus (X)

Facial (VII) Explanation: Bell palsy is characterized by facial dysfunction, weakness, and paralysis. Trigeminal neuralgia, a disorder of the trigeminal nerve, causes facial pain. Ménière syndrome is a disorder of the vestibulocochlear nerve. Guillain-Barré syndrome is a disorder of the vagus nerve.

Which is the most common cause of acute encephalitis in the United States? St. Louis virus Western equine virus Herpes simplex virus West Nile virus

Herpes simplex virus Explanation: Viral infection is the most common cause of encephalitis. Herpes simplex virus is the most common cause of acute encephalitis in the United States. The Western equine encephalitis virus, West Nile virus, and St. Louis virus are types of arboviral encephalitis that occur in North America, but they are not the most common causes of acute encephalitis.

A 34-year-old patient is diagnosed with relapsing-remitting MS. The nurse explains to the patient's family that they should expect: Progression with clear relapses with or without recovery. Acute attacks followed by progression at a variable rate. Progressive disability from onset. Acute attacks with full recovery or residual deficit upon recovery.

Acute attacks with full recovery or residual deficit upon recovery. Explanation: With relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis, recovery is usually complete with each relapse. Residual deficits may occur and accumulate over time, contributing to a functional decline.

During a Tensilon test to determine if a patient has myasthenia gravis, the patient complains of cramping and becomes diaphoretic. Vital signs are BP 130/78, HR 42, and respiration 18. What intervention should the nurse prepare to do? Place the patient in the supine position. Administer atropine to control the side effects of edrophonium. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for the allergic reaction. Call the rapid response team because the patient is preparing to arrest.

Administer atropine to control the side effects of edrophonium. Explanation: Atropine should be available to control the side effects of edrophonium, which include bradycardia, sweating, and cramping.

Which drug should be available to counteract the effect of edrophonium chloride? Pyridostigmine bromide Azathioprine Atropine Prednisone

Atropine Explanation: Atropine should be available to control the side effects of edrophonium chloride. Prednisone, azathioprine, and pyridostigmine bromide are not used to counteract these effects.

A nurse is providing education to a client with newly diagnosed multiple sclerosis (MS). Which of the following will the nurse include? Avoid analgesic medication. Take moderate amounts of alcohol. Avoid hot temperatures. Avoid physical activity.

Avoid hot temperatures. Explanation: Fatigue affects most people with MS. Avoidance of hot temperatures may help control fatigue. A balance of rest and activity is a good strategy, but avoidance of any physical activity is not recommended. Avoidance of all alcohol is a good strategy. Analgesics may be required for pain management.

The nurse is caring for a client admitted with a diagnosis of septic meningitis. The nurse is aware that this infection is caused by which of the following? Leukemia Lymphoma Bacteria Virus

Bacteria Explanation: Septic meningitis is caused by bacteria. In aseptic meningitis, the cause is viral or secondary to lymphoma, leukemia, or human immunodeficiency virus.

Which is the primary medical management of arthropod-borne virus (arboviral) encephalitis? Preventing renal insufficiency Maintaining hemodynamic stability and adequate cardiac output Preventing muscular atrophy Controlling seizures and increased intracranial pressure

Controlling seizures and increased intracranial pressure Explanation: There is no specific medication for arboviral encephalitis; therefore symptom management is key. Medical management is aimed at controlling seizures and increased intracranial pressure.

The nurse is assessing a client newly diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Which of the following signs would the nurse most likely observe? Patchy blindness Loss of proprioception Diplopia and ptosis Numbness

Diplopia and ptosis Explanation: The initial manifestation of myasthenia gravis involves the ocular muscles, such as diplopia and ptosis. The remaining choices relate to multiple sclerosis.

The diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is based on which test? Magnetic resonance imaging CSF electrophoresis Evoked potential studies Neuropsychological testing

Magnetic resonance imaging Explanation: The diagnosis of MS is based on the presence of multiple plaques in the central nervous system observed with magnetic resonance imaging. Electrophoresis of CSF identifies the presence of oligoclonal banding. Evoked potential studies can help define the extent of the disease process and monitor changes. Neuropsychological testing may be indicated to assess cognitive impairment.

A nurse is assessing a newly admitted client with meningitis. Which of the following findings in this client is most likely? Negative Kernig's sign Increased intake Hyper-alertness Positive Brudzinski's sign

Positive Brudzinski's sign Explanation: A positive Brudzinski's sign is a common finding in the client with meningitis. When the client's neck is flexed, flexion of the knees and hips is produced. A positive Kernig's sign is usual with meningitis. The client will develop lethargy as the illness progresses, not increased intake or hyper-alertness.

A nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS). Which symptom does the nurse expect to find? Absent deep tendon reflexes Flaccid muscles Tremors at rest Vision changes

Vision changes Explanation: Vision changes, such as diplopia, nystagmus, and blurred vision, are symptoms of MS. Deep tendon reflexes may be increased or hyperactive — not absent. Babinski's reflex may be positive. Tremors at rest aren't characteristic of MS; however, intentional tremors (those occurring with purposeful voluntary movement) are common in clients with MS. Affected muscles are spastic, rather than flaccid.

A client with a tentative diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is admitted for a diagnostic workup. Myasthenia gravis is confirmed by: a positive edrophonium (Tensilon) test. Kernig's sign. Brudzinski's sign. a positive sweat chloride test.

a positive edrophonium (Tensilon) test. Explanation: A positive edrophonium test confirms the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. After edrophonium administration, most clients with myasthenia gravis show markedly improved muscle tone. Kernig's sign and Brudzinski's sign indicate meningitis. The sweat chloride test is used to confirm cystic fibrosis.

A neurologic deficit is best defined as a deficit of the: central and peripheral nervous systems with decreased, impaired, or absent functioning. peripheral nervous system with decreased or impaired functioning. central nervous system that affects one body system. central nervous system with absent functioning.

central and peripheral nervous systems with decreased, impaired, or absent functioning. Explanation: A client with a neurologic deficit may have decreased, impaired, or absent functioning of the central and peripheral systems.

A client with myasthenia gravis is admitted with an exacerbation. The nurse is educating the client about plasmapheresis and explains this in which of the following statements? Immune globulin is given intravenously. The thymus gland is removed. Antibodies are removed from the plasma. Mestinon therapy is initiated.

Antibodies are removed from the plasma. Explanation: Plasmapheresis is a technique in which antibodies are removed from plasma and the plasma is returned to the client. The other three choices are appropriate treatments for myasthenia gravis, but are not related to plasmapheresis.

A client who recently experienced a stroke tells the nurse that he has double vision. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate? Instill artificial tears. Alternatively patch one eye every 2 hours. Turn out the lights in the room. Encourage the client to close his eyes.

Alternatively patch one eye every 2 hours. Explanation: Patching one eye at a time relieves diplopia (double vision). Closing the eyes and making the room dark aren't the most appropriate options because they deprive the client of sensory input. Artificial tears relieve eye dryness but don't treat diplopia.

The nurse is expecting to admit a client with a diagnosis of meningitis. While preparing the client's room, which of the following would the nurse most likely have available? Equipment to maintain infection control precautions IV tensilon Nasogastric tubing Extra lighting

Equipment to maintain infection control precautions Explanation: An important component of nursing care for the client with meningitis is instituting infection control precautions until 24 hours after initiation of antibiotic therapy. Oral and nasal discharge is considered infectious. This client may well experience photophobia, so the lighting should be kept dim. IV Tensilon is used to diagnose myasthenia gravis.

A client has been diagnosed with a frontal lobe brain abscess. Which nursing intervention is appropriate? Initiate seizure precautions. Assess visual acuity. Assess for facial weakness. Ensure that client takes nothing by mouth.

Initiate seizure precautions. Explanation: A frontal lobe brain abscess produces seizures, hemiparesis, and frontal headache; therefore, the nurse should anticipate the need for seizure precautions. Facial weakness and visual disturbances are associated with a temporal lobe abscess. The client may experience expressive aphasia related to the abscess, but that does not indicate the need to ensure the client takes in nothing by mouth.

A client has a neurological defect and will be transferred to a nursing home because family members are unable to care for the client at home. While receiving a bed bath, the client yells at the nurse, "You don't know what you are doing!" What is the best reaction by the nurse? Discontinue the bath and resume it later. Request that the patient be cared for by another nurse. Explain that the client is getting good care. Accept the patient's behavior and do not take it personally.

Accept the patient's behavior and do not take it personally. Explanation: Anger is a defense or response to loss; the nurse should consider that the client is using displacement to deal with emotional pain. Having another nurse care for the patient might send a message to the client that may precipitate feelings of guilt or imply to the client that the nurse no longer wants to provide care. Discontinuing the bath abandons the client and would not encourage expression of feelings. Explaining that the client is getting good care is a defensive response that focuses on the nurse rather than the client.

A 45-year-old client is admitted to the facility with excruciating paroxysmal facial pain. He reports that the episodes occur most often after feeling cold drafts and drinking cold beverages. Based on these findings, the nurse determines that the client is most likely suffering from which neurologic disorder? Trigeminal neuralgia Angina pectoris Migraine headache Bell's palsy

Trigeminal neuralgia Explanation: Trigeminal neuralgia, a painful disorder of one or more branches of cranial nerve V (trigeminal), produces paroxysmal attacks of excruciating facial pain. Attacks are precipitated by stimulation of a trigger zone on the face. Triggering events may include light touch to a hypersensitive area, a draft of air, exposure to heat or cold, eating, smiling, talking, or drinking hot or cold beverages. It occurs most commonly in people older than age 40. Bell's palsy is a disease of cranial nerve VII that produces unilateral or bilateral facial weakness or paralysis. Migraine headaches are throbbing vascular headaches that usually begin to occur in childhood or adolescence. Headache pain may emanate from the pain-sensitive structures of the skin, scalp, muscles, arteries, and veins; cranial nerves V, VII, IX, and X; or cervical nerves 1, 2, and 3. Occasionally, jaw pain may indicate angina pectoris.

The nurse is caring for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which assessment finding would indicate the need for oral suctioning? Increased pulse rate, adventitious breath sounds Decreased pulse rate, abdominal breathing Increased pulse rate, respirations of 16 breaths/minute Decreased pulse rate, respirations of 20 breaths/minute

Increased pulse rate, adventitious breath sounds Explanation: An increased pulse rate above baseline with adventitious breath sounds indicate compromised respirations and signal a need for airway clearance. A decrease in pulse rate is not indicative of airway obstruction. An increase of pulse rate with slight elevation of respirations (16 breaths/minute) is not significant for suctioning unless findings suggest otherwise.

A client has been brought to the ED with altered LOC, high fever, and a purpura rash on the lower extremities. The family states the client was reporting neck stiffness earlier in the day. What action should the nurse do first? Ensure the family receives prophylaxis antibiotic treatment. Initiate isolation precautions. Administer prescribed antibiotics. Apply a cooling blanket.

Initiate isolation precautions. Explanation: The signs and symptoms are consistent with bacterial meningitis. The nurse should protect self, other health care workers, and other clients against the spread of the bacteria. Clients should receive the prescribed antibiotics within 30 minutes of arrival, but the nurse can administer the antibiotics after applying the isolation precautions. The nurse can use a cooling blanket to help with the elevated temperature, but this should be done after applying isolation precautions. Prophylaxis antibiotic therapy should be given to people who were in close contact with the patient, but this is not the highest priority nursing intervention.

You are the nurse caring for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). The client also has an ascending paralysis. Knowing the complications of the disorder, what should you keep always ready at the bedside? Nebulizer and thermometer Blood pressure apparatus Incentive spirometer Intubation tray and suction apparatus

Intubation tray and suction apparatus Explanation: Progressive GBS can move to the upper areas of the body and affect the muscles of respiration. If the respiratory muscles are involved, endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation become necessary. A spirometer is used to evaluate the client's ventilation capacity. A blood pressure apparatus, nebulizer, and thermometer are not required because generally a client with GBS does not show signs of increased blood pressure or temperature.

A client in a long-term nursing facility has severe dysphagia. Which of the following would best assist this client in preventing further complications? Placement of a colostomy tube Placement of a feeding tube Placement of a urinary catheter Placement of a tracheostomy tube

Placement of a feeding tube Explanation: Clients with severe dysphagia have difficulty swallowing and are at risk for aspiration. A feeding tube may need to be placed if the deficit is prolonged and if the client is unable to eat. Clients with severe dysphagia have difficulty swallowing and are at risk for aspiration. A feeding tube would be placed to address this deficit.

The nurse is assisting with administering a Tensilon test to a patient with ptosis. If the test is positive for myasthenia gravis, what outcome does the nurse know will occur? The patient will have recovery of symptoms for at least 24 hours after the administration of the Tensilon. Eight hours after administration, the acetylcholinesterase begins to regenerate the available acetylcholine and will relieve symptoms. Thirty seconds after administration, the facial weakness and ptosis will be relieved for approximately 5 minutes. After administration of the medication, there will be no change in the status of the ptosis or facial weakness.

Thirty seconds after administration, the facial weakness and ptosis will be relieved for approximately 5 minutes. Explanation: Thirty seconds after injection, facial muscle weakness and ptosis should resolve for about 5 minutes (Hickey, 2009). Immediate improvement in muscle strength after administration of this agent represents a positive test and usually confirms the diagnosis.

A nurse is teaching a client with multiple sclerosis (MS). When teaching the client how to reduce fatigue, the nurse should tell the client to: increase the dose of muscle relaxants. rest in an air-conditioned room. take a hot bath. avoid naps during the day.

rest in an air-conditioned room. Explanation: Fatigue is a common symptom in clients with MS. Lowering the body temperature by resting in an air-conditioned room may relieve fatigue; however, extreme cold should be avoided. A hot bath or shower can increase body temperature, producing fatigue. Muscle relaxants, ordered to reduce spasticity, can cause drowsiness and fatigue. Frequent rest periods and naps can relieve fatigue. Other measures to reduce fatigue in the client with MS include treating depression, using occupational therapy to learn energy-conservation techniques, and reducing spasticity.

A client arrives at the emergency department complaining of extreme muscle weakness after minimal effort. The physician suspects myasthenia gravis. Which drug will be used to test for this disease? Pyridostigmine (Mestinon) Edrophonium (Tensilon) Ambenonium (Mytelase) Carbachol (Carboptic)

Edrophonium (Tensilon) Explanation: Edrophonium temporarily blocks the breakdown of acetylcholine, thus increasing acetylcholine level in the blood, and relieves weakness. Because of its short duration of action, edrophonium is the drug of choice for diagnosing myasthenia gravis. It's also used to differentiate myasthenia gravis from cholinergic toxicity. Ambenonium is used as an antimyasthenic. Pyridostigmine serves primarily as an adjunct in treating severe anticholinergic toxicity; it's also an antiglaucoma agent and a miotic. Carbachol reduces intraocular pressure during ophthalmologic procedures; topical carbachol is used to treat open-angle and closed-angle glaucoma.

The nurse has been educating a client newly diagnosed with MS. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the education? "I will take hot tub baths to decrease spasms." "I should participate in non-weight-bearing exercises." "I will stretch daily as directed by the physical therapist." "The exercises should be completed quickly to reduce fatigue."

"I will stretch daily as directed by the physical therapist." Explanation: A stretching routine should be established. Stretching can help prevent contractures and muscle spasticity. Hot baths are discouraged because of the risk of injury. Clients have sensory loss that may contribute to the risk of burns. In addition, hot temperatures may cause an increase in symptoms. Warm packs should be encouraged to provide relief. Progressive weight-bearing exercises are effective in managing muscle spasms. Clients should not hurry through the exercise activity because it may increase muscle spasticity.

When caring for a client with trigeminal neuralgia, which intervention has the highest priority? Providing emotional support while the client adjusts to changes in his physical appearance Assisting with ambulation Encouraging the client to bathe with care Monitoring intake and output

Encouraging the client to bathe with care Explanation: Trigeminal neuralgia is a common disorder that causes severe pain along the trigeminal nerve (the nerve affecting the face) and surrounding areas. The nurse should encourage to the client to be gentle when bathing because performing facial hygiene can cause pain. The client's facial appearance doesn't change, so it isn't necessary to provide emotional support for changes in physical appearance. The nurse doesn't need to make monitoring intake and output and assisting with ambulation priorities because these parameters aren't affected by disorders of the trigeminal nerve.

The nurse is caring for a patient in the emergency department with an onset of pain related to trigeminal neuralgia. What subjective data stated by the patient does the nurse determine triggered the paroxysms of pain? "I was taking a bath." "I was putting my shoes on." "I was sitting at home watching television." "I was brushing my teeth."

"I was brushing my teeth." Explanation: Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition of the fifth cranial nerve that is characterized by paroxysms of sudden pain in the area innervated by any of the three branches of the nerve. Paroxysms can occur with any stimulation of the terminals of the affected nerve branches, such as washing the face, shaving, brushing the teeth, eating, and drinking.

The parents of a client intubated due to the progression of Guillain-Barré syndrome ask whether their child will die. What is the best response by the nurse? "Once Guillain-Barré syndrome progresses to the diaphragm, survival decreases significantly." "It's too early to give a prognosis." "There are no guarantees, but a large portion of people with Guillain-Barré syndrome survive." "Don't worry; your child will be fine."

"There are no guarantees, but a large portion of people with Guillain-Barré syndrome survive." Explanation: The survival rate of Guillain-Barré syndrome is approximately 90%. The client may make a full recovery or suffer from some residual deficits. Telling the parents not to worry dismisses their feelings and does not address their concerns. Progression of Guillain-Barré syndrome to the diaphragm does not significantly decrease the survival rate, but it does increase the chance of residual deficits. The family should be given information about Guillain-Barré syndrome and the generally favorable prognosis. With no prognosis offered, the parents are not having their concerns addressed.

While performing an initial nursing assessment on a client admitted with suspected tic douloureux (trigeminal neuralgia), for which of the following would the nurse expect to observe? Facial pain in the areas of the fifth cranial nerve Ptosis and diplopia Hyporeflexia and weakness of the lower extremities Fatigue and depression

Facial pain in the areas of the fifth cranial nerve Explanation: Tic douloureux (trigeminal neuralgia) is manifested by pain in the areas of the fifth (trigeminal) cranial nerve. Ptosis and diplopia are associated with myasthenia gravis. Hyporeflexia and weakness of the lower extremities are associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome. Fatigue and depression are associated with multiple sclerosis.

The nurse is assessing a client with meningitis. Which of the following signs would the nurse expect to observe?

Headache and nuchal rigidity Explanation: Headache and fever are the initial symptoms of meningitis. Nuchal rigidity can be an early sign. Photophobia is also a well-recognized sign in meningitis. Ptosis and diplopia are usually seen with myasthenia gravis. Hyporeflexia in the legs is seen with Guillain-Barre syndrome.

Which is the primary vector of arthropod-borne viral encephalitis in North America? Birds Ticks Spiders Mosquitoes

Mosquitoes Explanation: The primary vector in North America related to anthropoid-borne virus encephalitis is a mosquito. Birds are associated with the West Nile virus. Spiders and ticks are not vectors for arthropod-borne virus encephalitis.

The nurse is performing an initial nursing assessment on a client with possible Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which of the following findings would be most consistent with this diagnosis? Fever and cough Ptosis and muscle weakness of upper extremities Muscle weakness and hyporeflexia of the lower extremities Hyporeflexia and skin rash

Muscle weakness and hyporeflexia of the lower extremities Explanation: Guillain-Barre syndrome typically begins with muscle weakness and diminished reflexes of the lower extremities. Fever, skin rash, cough, and ptosis are not signs/symptoms associated with Guillain-Barre.

A patient has been diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis at a community living home. When should prophylactic therapy begin for those who have had close contact with the patient? Therapy is not necessary prophylactically and should only be used if the person develops symptoms. Within 48 hours after exposure Within 24 hours after exposure Within 72 hours after exposure

Within 24 hours after exposure Explanation: People in close contact with patients with meningococcal meningitis should be treated with antimicrobial chemoprophylaxis using rifampin (Rifadin), ciprofloxacin hydrochloride (Cipro), or ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin). Therapy should be started within 24 hours after exposure because a delay in the initiation of therapy limits the effectiveness of the prophylaxis.