Private Pilot Study Session
18- When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on A- 118.0 and 118.8 MHz. B- 121.5 and 243.0 MHz. C- 123.0 and 119.0 MHz.
B
2- In which situation is advection fog most likely to form? A- A warm, moist air mass on the windward side of mountains. B- An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter. C- A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea.
B
22- What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane? A- Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions. B- Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. C- Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
B
23- When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced? A- Every 24 months. B- When 50 percent of their useful life expires. C- At the time of each 100-hour or annual inspection.
B
24- (Refer to Figure 22, area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°35'30"N latitude and 100°43'00"W longitude? A- Linrud. B- MAKEEFF. C- Johnson.
B
25- An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due? A- 1349.6 hours. B- 1359.6 hours. C- 1369.6 hours.
B
32- (Refer to Figures 33 and 34.) Calculate the weight and balance and determine if the CG and the weight of the airplane are within limits. Front seat occupants 350 lb Rear seat occupants 325 lb Baggage 27 lb Fuel 35 gal A- CG 81.7, out of limits forward. B- CG 83.4, within limits. C- CG 84.1, within limits.
B
38- A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of A- 100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft, that the pilot is using to tow a glider. B- 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider. C- 200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
B
43- How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day? A- Quick walk around with a check of gas and oil. B- Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer. C- Any sequence as determined by the pilot-in-command.
B
44- What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information? A- Tell the number of occupants on board. B- Identify themselves as pilots. C- State their total flight time.
B
50- During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is A- 1 mile. B- 3 miles. C- 5 miles.
B
54- Clouds are divided into four families according to their A- outward shape. B- height range. C- composition.
B
55- What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied? A- A decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture. B- The fuel/air mixture becomes richer. C- The fuel/air mixture becomes leaner.
B
6- If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code A- 0000. B- 1200. C- 4096.
B
60- With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts? A- The pilot in command must instruct the passengers to keep their safety belts fastened for the entire flight. B- The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing. C- The pilot in command has no obligation in regard to passengers' use of safety belts.
B
63- When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on A- 118.0 and 118.8 MHz. B- 121.5 and 406 MHz. C- 123.0 and 119.0 MHz.
B
64- What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance? A- It increases performance. B- It decreases performance. C- It has no effect on performance.
B
68- (Refer to Figure 14.) The intensity and type of icing reported by a pilot is A- light to moderate. B- light to moderate rime. C- light to moderate clear.
B
70- (Refer to Figure 38.) Determine the total distance required to land. OAT 32°F Pressure altitude 8,000 ft Weight 2,600 lb Headwind component 20 kts Obstacle 50 ft A- 850 feet. B- 1,400 feet. C- 1,750 feet.
B
71- Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition? A- Pilot-in-command. B- Owner or operator. C- Mechanic.
B
74- If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate A- lower than the actual altitude above sea level. B- higher than the actual altitude above sea level. C- the actual altitude above sea level.
B
79- (Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is A- 122.95 MHz. B- 126.0 MHz. C- 133.4 MHz.
B
8- (Refer to Figure 22, area 2.) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is A- 122.8 MHz. B- 122.9 MHz. C- 123.0 MHz.
B
82- The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by A- shifting the eyes quickly between the exterior visual field and the instrument panel. B- having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs. C- leaning the body in the opposite direction of the motion of the aircraft.
B
84- What is pressure altitude? A- The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error. B- The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92. C- The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.
B
86- To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the A- direction of motion of the aircraft parallel to the runway. B- longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion. C- downwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift.
B
89- Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with A- the controlling agency. B- all pilots. C- Air Traffic Control.
B
91- Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight? A- Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries. B- Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight. C- Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.
B
94- (Refer to Figure 48.) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is A- above the glide slope. B- below the glide slope. C- on the glide slope.
B
95- (Refer to Figure 48.) VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is A- off course to the left. B- above the glide slope. C- below the glide slope.
B
96- Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a A- Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating. B- Private Pilot Certificate. C- Commercial Pilot Certificate and a mechanic's certificate.
B
97- (Refer to Figures 33 and 34.) With the airplane loaded as follows, what action can be taken to balance the airplane? Front seat occupants 411 lb Rear seat occupants 100 lb Main wing tanks 44 gal A- Fill the auxiliary wing tanks. B- Add a 100-pound weight to the baggage compartment. C- Transfer 10 gallons of fuel from the main tanks to the auxiliary tanks.
B
99- (Refer to Figure 25, and Figure 29.) The VOR is tuned to Bonham VORTAC (area 3), and the aircraft is positioned over the town of Sulphur Springs (area 5). Which VOR indication is correct? A- 1 B- 7 C- 8
B
10- Where may an aircraft`s operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or Special light-sport airworthiness certificate? A- Attached to the Airworthiness Certificate. B- In the current, FAA-approved flight manual. C- In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.
A
11- Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed? A- V(FE). B- V(LOF). C- V(FC).
A
12- What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours? A- 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds. B- 1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds. C- 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.
A
16- (Refer to Figure 15.) In the TAF for KMEM, what does 'SHRA' stand for? A- Rain showers. B- A shift in wind direction is expected. C- A significant change in precipitation is possible.
A
17- A lighted heliport may be identified by a A- green, yellow, and white rotating beacon. B- flashing yellow light. C- blue lighted square landing area.
A
19- (Refer to Figure 41.) Determine the approximate ground roll distance required for takeoff. OAT 100°F Pressure altitude 2,000 ft Takeoff weight 2,750 lb Headwind component Calm A- 1,150 feet. B- 1,300 feet. C- 1,800 feet.
A
20- (Refer to Figure 12.) What are the current conditions depicted for Chicago Midway Airport (KMDW)? A- Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2 SM, rain. B- Sky 7000 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2 SM, heavy rain. C- Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 11, occasionally 2 SM, with rain.
A
3- Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (ADs) are complied with? A- Owner or operator. B- Repair station. C- Mechanic with inspection authorization (IA).
A
35- What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace? A- Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements. B- Recreational Pilot Certificate. C- Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.
A
37- Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the A- mature stage. B- downdraft stage. C- cumulus stage.
A
39- What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)? A- Continual flight into instrument conditions. B- Getting behind the aircraft. C- Duck-under syndrome.
A
4- The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by A- terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night. B- warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain. C- the movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.
A
42- (Refer to Figure 50.) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on A- Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right. B- Runway 22 directly into the wind. C- Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right.
A
49- (Refer to Figure 51.) The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a A- right-quartering headwind. B- left-quartering headwind. C- right-quartering tailwind.
A
52- How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller? A- The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM. B- The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates a constant blade angle. C- The throttle controls engine RPM as registered on the tachometer and the mixture control regulates the power output.
A
59- Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate A- location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation. B- location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and trend. C- large areas of low ceilings and fog.
A
62- The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the A- owner or operator. B- pilot in command. C- mechanic who performed the work.
A
65- How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter? A- Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude. B- Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher than true altitude. C- Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
A
7- (Refer to Figure 27, area 2.) What is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport? A- Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz. B- Contact UNICOM when 10 miles out on 122.8 MHz. C- Circle the airport in a left turn prior to entering traffic.
A
72- When a stressful situation is encountered in flight, an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out can cause a condition known as A- hyperventilation. B- aerosinusitis. C- aerotitis.
A
76- (Refer to Figure 52.) If more than one cruising altitude is intended, which should be entered in block 7 of the flight plan? A- Initial cruising altitude. B- Highest cruising altitude. C- Lowest cruising altitude.
A
78- To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, the pilot should refer to the A- Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories. B- Weather Depiction Chart. C- Area Forecast.
A
83- (Refer to Figure 35.) What is the maximum amount of baggage that may be loaded aboard the airplane for the CG to remain within the moment envelope? WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 Empty weight 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 250 -- Rear passengers 400 -- Baggage -- -- Fuel, 30 gal -- -- Oil, 8 qt -- -0.2 A- 105 pounds. B- 110 pounds. C- 120 pounds.
A
85- An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would A- experience avionics equipment failure. B- probably experience failure of the engine ignition system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting system, and avionics equipment. C- probably experience engine failure due to the loss of the engine-driven fuel pump and also experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require alternating current.
A
87- During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate? A- Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight. B- As long as the airspeed is constant. C- During turns if the bank does not exceed 18°.
A
88- (Refer to Figure 23, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate at night over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are A- 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud. B- 3 miles and clear of clouds. C- 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
A
9- Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is A- 200 knots. B- 230 knots. C- 250 knots.
A
90- During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action? A- Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture. B- Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check. C- Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation.
A
98- What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air? A- Evaporation and sublimation. B- Heating and condensation. C- Supersaturation and evaporation.
A
45- The destination airport has one runway, 08-26, and the wind is calm. The normal approach in calm wind is a left hand pattern to runway 08. There is no other traffic at the airport. A thunderstorm about 6 miles west is beginning its mature stage, and rain is starting to reach the ground. The pilot decides to A- fly the pattern to runway 08 since the storm is too far away to affect the wind at the airport. B- fly the normal pattern to runway 08 since the storm is west and moving north and any unexpected wind will be from the east or southeast toward the storm. C- fly an approach to runway 26 since any unexpected wind due to the storm will be westerly.
C
46- An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in a calm wind: 'TRAFFIC 9 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND...' Where should the pilot look for this traffic? A- South. B- North. C- West.
C
47- Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain? A- Constant altitude and airspeed. B- Constant angle of attack. C- Level flight attitude.
C
48- When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff? A- When visibility is less than 1 mile. B- When parallel runways are in use. C- When departing from a runway intersection.
C
5- (Refer to Figure 53.) Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal? A- Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and standard separation. B- Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and conflict resolution so that radar targets do not touch, or 1,000 feet vertical separation. C- Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.
C
51- The boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a A- frontolysis. B- frontogenesis. C- front.
C
53- A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to A- taxi at a faster speed. B- taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways. C- return to the starting point on the airport.
C
56- (Refer to Figure 28.) An aircraft departs an airport in the Pacific standard time zone at 1030 PST for a 4-hour flight to an airport located in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time? A- 2030Z. B- 2130Z. C- 2230Z.
C
57- (Refer to Figures 33 and 34.) Determine if the airplane weight and balance is within limits. Front seat occupants 415 lb Rear seat occupants 110 lb Fuel, main tanks 44 gal Fuel, aux. tanks 19 gal Baggage 32 lb A- 19 pounds overweight, CG within limits. B- 19 pounds overweight, CG out of limits forward. C- Weight within limits, CG out of limits.
C
58- (Refer to Figure 21.) Determine the magnetic course from First Flight Airport (area 5) to Hampton Roads Airport (area 2). A- 141°. B- 321°. C- 332°.
C
61- An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight: 'TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND...' Where should the pilot look for this traffic? A- Between directly ahead and 90° to the left. B- Between directly behind and 90° to the right. C- Between directly ahead and 90° to the right.
C
66- Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection will be due no later than A- September 30, 2015. B- September 1, 2016. C- September 30, 2016.
C
67- FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number? A- 60 B- 70 C- 90
C
69- Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will A- force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine. B- prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks. C- prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
C
73- What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course? A- The airplane pilot should give way to the left. B- The glider pilot should give way to the right. C- Both pilots should give way to the right.
C
75- If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with A- the mixture set too rich. B- higher-than-normal oil pressure. C- too much power and with the mixture set too lean.
C
77- If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is A- 1829 B- 1859 C- 1929
C
80- (Refer to Figure 17.) What wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 feet? A- 230° true at 56 knots. B- 230° magnetic at 56 knots. C- 230° true at 39 knots.
C
81- (Refer to Figure 52.) What information should be entered in block 12 for a VFR day flight? A- The actual time enroute expressed in hours and minutes. B- The estimated time enroute expressed in hours and minutes. C- The total amount of usable fuel onboard expressed in hours and minutes.
C
92- (Refer to Figure 9, area C.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind? A- Left aileron up, elevator neutral. B- Left aileron down, elevator neutral. C- Left aileron down, elevator down.
C
93- If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause A- a mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders. B- lower cylinder head temperatures. C- detonation.
C
1- (Refer to Figure 36.) Determine the approximate manifold pressure setting with 2,450 RPM to achieve 65 percent maximum continuous power at 6,500 feet with a temperature of 36°F higher than standard. A- 19.8" Hg. B- 20.8" Hg. C- 21.0" Hg.
C
100- Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts? A- Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue, Class D and E airspace are magenta. B- Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta. C- Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.
C
13- To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the A- fuel strainer drain. B- lowest point in the fuel system. C- fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.
C
14- For private pilot operations, a First-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on A- October 21, 2 years later. B- October 31, next year. C- October 31, 5 years later.
C
15- Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace? A- The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure. B- The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace. C- The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
C
21- VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished A- at a higher airspeed. B- with a steeper descent. C- the same as during daytime.
C
26- If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected? A- Stratus clouds with little vertical development. B- Stratus clouds with considerable associated turbulence. C- Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence.
C
27- The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting A- an increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM. B- a decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication. C- a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
C
28- (Refer to Figure 37.) Determine the maximum wind velocity for a 45° crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for the airplane is 25 knots. A- 25 knots. B- 29 knots. C- 35 knots.
C
29- What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of impulsivity? A- It could happen to me. B- Do it quickly to get it over with. C- Not so fast, think first.
C
30- Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged? A- Airspeed only. B- Altimeter only. C- Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.
C
31- (Refer to Figure 15.) In the TAF from KOKC, the "FM (FROM) Group" is forecast for the hours from 1600Z to 2200Z with the wind from A- 160° at 10 knots. B- 180° at 10 knots, becoming 200° at 13 knots. C- 180° at 10 knots.
C
33- What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night? A- The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace. B- The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder. C- The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.
C
34- (Refer to Figure 23, area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are A- 700 feet MSL to 12,500 feet MSL. B- 7,500 feet MSL to 17,999 feet MSL. C- 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.
C
36- The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will A- increase if the CG is moved forward. B- change with an increase in gross weight. C- remain the same regardless of gross weight.
C
40- A temperature inversion would most likely result in which weather condition? A- Clouds with extensive vertical development above an inversion aloft. B- Good visibility in the lower levels of the atmosphere and poor visibility above an inversion aloft. C- An increase in temperature as altitude is increased.
C
41- In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin? A- Partially stalled with one wing low. B- In a steep diving spiral. C- Stalled.
C