Project Management Final

ROME provides a rough estimate of what a project costs before the actual project has started.

True

Resource leveling extends the project time and aims to minimize the period-by-period variations in resource loading by shifting tasks within their slack allowances.

True

Responsibility is an employee's duty to perform assigned tasks or activities.

True

SWOT analysis is a strategic method for identifying whether to use a component or a feature in a project.

True

Six Sigma asserts that continuous efforts to reduce process variation are important to overall performance and customer satisfaction in a project.

True

Supporting core RUP workflows include each of the following except

affirmation.

Project proposals include each of the following exceptProject proposals include each of the following except

an implementation plan.

The number of products or operations that are performed at the same time and the resulting degree of difficulty best defines

complexity.

The likelihood that the result obtained from the sample is within the level of precision defines level of

confidence.

The amount of cost budgeted for completed work of a given activity for a given period of time best defines

earned value.

Some projects fail due to the miscommunications between the users and the project managers in an organization.

True

Stakeholders are people involved in the project or those who have an impact on the project activities.

True

Stringent performance measures can lead to increased time, increased scope, and increased cost.

True

TMAP is a graphical representation of a series of ideas or thoughts or decisions of a person or a team.

True

The Delphi Technique may be used by project managers and the project team to discover what is actually known or not known about a specific topic.

True

The ability to plan projects effectively is an attribute of a project manager.

True

The flat organizational model promotes the involvement of employees through a decentralized decision-making process.

True

The overall success factor of a project is the realized value of the project that can be measured by the project stakeholders.

True

The primary purpose of a project audit is to find reasons for problems and issues in the project and answer questions posed by the customer, sponsor, executives, or other stakeholders.

True

The project management process helps individuals and organizations map a clear strategy to complete a project successfully.

True

When there is concern about some team members not participating, NGT can result in a high-quality decision-making process.

True

With the spiral model, activities are managed concurrently and more people are working on the project so the complexity of projects increases.

True

Projects relying on mature technologies for all industries to have equal access are classified as

Type A projects.

Which of the following provides the descriptions of activities that can be easily understood by the team members who are scheduled to carry out those activities?

WBS dictionary

A process control chart used to monitor the sample means of variables that result from a process and is often used in quality control best defines

X-bar charts.

Which of the following is a free, web-based project software package?

Zoho

Outputs of the WBS process include

a baseline of scope.

A specific task, or set of tasks, that is part of the scope of a project, uses up some of the resources of a project, and requires some finite time to be completed best defines

activity.

The actual amount spent in completing the work accomplished within a given time period best defines

actual costs.

Professional characteristics of a project manager include

adaptable to situations.

Unquantifiable costs relating to an identifiable source best defines

intangible costs.

Creating a smoother distribution of resource usage is the purpose of

resource leveling.

When working with project management software, factors that drive the calculation of time include each of the following except

task iterations.

For a construction project, ill-defined responsibilities are associated with the

team factor of the subcontractors category.

Which QFD step develops relationships between the technology requirements?

technical correlations

A detailed description of technology that is suitable for the actual design, development, and production processes of a project best defines

technical requirement.

Which QFD step focuses on what must be achieved to satisfy customer requirements?

technical requirements

Which of the following means the project is completed fully?

termination by extinction

A project charter should contain each of the following except project

test plan.

An example of a project is an accounting clerk entering journal entries.

False

An unstructured brainstorming process is accomplished when team members provide ideas in turn.

False

At the CMMI Level 1, an organization focuses on continuous process improvement.

False

At the CMMI Level 4, an organization typically does not provide a stable environment for developing and maintaining software.

False

Baseline management focuses on identifying, evaluating, documenting, and managing changes.

False

Delivery challenges, scaling of product or service, and complexity in processes are examples of functional risk.

False

Earned value is the budgeted amount of cost for work scheduled to be accomplished on a given activity for a given period of time.

False

An indirect cost rate is the percentage of a project's indirect costs to its direct costs and is a standardized method of charging individual projects for their share of indirect costs.

True

Labor strikes and walkouts are examples of external risks.

True

Meeting or exceeding customer expectations while maintaining a cost-competitive position is a necessary effort in organizations.

True

Project and organizational strategies have to be aligned for projects to succeed.

True

Project value refers to the overall worth of a project.

True

Projects escalate beyond control either by using extra resources or by failing to deliver value.

True

Project escalation occurs in

30 to 40 percent of all MIS projects.

If the optimistic time is 3, the most likely time is 5, and the pessimistic time is 7, then the expected time is

5.

Assuming a discount rate of 8 percent, what is the present value of $800,000 three years from now?

635,065.79

For an activity, assume the early start is 12, early finish is 27, late start is 19, and late finish is 34. What is the activity's slack?

7

QFD's graphical format documents

All of these

A project

All of these are correct.

When creating a WBS, you should keep in mind that

All of these are needed.

Advantages of the flat structure include

All of these.

An organization can be classified as

All of these.

Benefits of networking project activities include

All of these.

Benefits of project audits include

All of these.

Benefits of virtual and global teams include

All of these.

Crosby, Deming, and Juran suggest achieving outstanding quality requires

All of these.

Factors for using Agile methods include

All of these.

Kano product requirements include

All of these.

Models for project selection and prioritization include

All of these.

PDM is useful because it provides

All of these.

Project audits are conducted by

All of these.

Project managers or organizations may be viewed as

All of these.

Project processes can be accomplished by tools such as

All of these.

Quality in use is defined by

All of these.

Quantitative risk assessment methods include

All of these.

Resource planning steps include

All of these.

Stakeholders include

All of these.

Steps taken to complete resource planning include

All of these.

The change management plan includes

All of these.

The spiral model of software process involves

All of these.

The structure of the WBS should consider and reflect

All of these.

When selecting contractors or suppliers, information gathering documents include

All of these.

Which of the following project audit report questions addresses PMBOK's quality management knowledge area?

Are quality metrics developed, measured, and monitored?

Which of the following PMO competency continuum stages can be a separate business unit within an organization and has the responsibility for enterprise-wide project management activities?

Center of Excellence

A work breakdown structure is a hierarchical structure of potential risk sources that can be used effectively to structure, identify, and understand risks.

False

Which of the following prepares a detailed estimate from well-developed plans and real quotes?

DE

Six Sigma's problem solving methodology is called

DMAIC.

A tool to achieve aggregate opinions concerning real-world knowledge solicited from experts within certain topic areas best defines

Delphi technique.

After TMAP's brainstorming step, the project's scope cannot be changed.

False

A clear statement of project needs is an output associated with the planning phase.

False

A discovery audit is a controlled process for identifying potential problems and opportunities.

False

ISO 9002 deals with the requirements that an organization has to fulfill in order to meet the standards and provides a model for quality assurance in design, development, production, installation, and servicing for creation of new products, services, and systems.

False

If the SPI is .5, then the project is ahead of schedule.

False

If the SPI is equal to 1.5, then the project is behind schedule.

False

In a balanced matrix, the project manager assumes a full management role, authority, and accountability.

False

In a software project, the cost of designers, developers, and testers are examples of indirect costs.

False

In a weak matrix, the functional manager has a very small role and authority.

False

In fixed duration, the amount of work is a fixed value.

False

Location is one of the four barriers to learning from post-project reviews.

False

Losses of productivity and customer goodwill are examples of tangible costs.

False

Managers need to understand that technology makes projects successful.

False

Participating partners learning about each other's technology, data, and trade secrets is an advantage of the virtual structure.

False

Planned value, actual cost, and break-even analysis are three variables used extensively in organizations to calculate variances.

False

Poor internal communication is an epistemological barrier to learning from post-project reviews.

False

Project audits are usually initiated at ad hoc times.

False

Project costs do not contribute to the profit of an organization.

False

Resource allocation adjustments become less expensive later on in a project.

False

Restricted development means that project activities are packaged to fit time boxes.

False

Scorecard analysis is used to select and prioritize projects based on quantitative criteria.

False

Seven Sigma is oriented toward the solution of problems at the root level and the prevention of their recurrence.

False

Skill level refers to a variety of individual attributes including personality, temperament, needs, motives, and values.

False

Stage Project Implementation Review is conducted at the end of the project after project closure.

False

Sunk costs are entirely linked to the production of the final product.

False

TMAP is a tool to achieve aggregate opinions concerning real-world knowledge solicited from experts within certain topic areas.

False

The CMMI Level 3 uses an organization-wide software process database to collect and analyze data available from a project's defined software processes.

False

The ability to present outcomes effectively is a professional characteristic of a project manager.

False

The closure process verifies that the project has delivered the required outcomes and the stakeholder expectations have been met.

False

The cost resource variance is the schedule variance due to the difference between budgeted and actual units of resource.

False

The encourager role mediates the differences between team members.

False

The extreme programming model is very suitable for large projects.

False

The harmonizer offers to change position for the good of the group.

False

The purpose of the QFD planning matrix step is to establish a connection or relationship between customer requirements and technical requirements.

False

When compared to the traditional SDLC, changing scope is more costly with the iterative SDLC.

False

A family of standards that addresses quality management to help organizations to fulfill the quality requirements of the customer with applicable regulatory requirements while aiming to enhance customer satisfaction and achieve continual process and quality improvement describes the

ISO 9000 family.

The world's largest developer and publisher of international standards and is a network of the national standards institutes of 162 countries describes

ISO.

Which of the following WBS levels is used for scheduling?

Level 3

Which of the following WBS levels describes work packages?

Level 4

Which of the following is a prestigious award in performance for an organization?

Malcom Baldridge National Quality Award

Popular project management software packages include each of the following except

Microsoft Access.

Which of the following was chosen by Coca-Cola Bottling Co. Consolidated to improve their project cost estimations and use their resources effectively?

Microsoft Office Enterprise Project management Solution

A computerized mathematical technique that furnishes the decision maker with a range of possible outcomes and the probabilities of occurrence for any choice of action best defines

Monte Carlo simulation.

Which of the following measures the proportion of items in a sample that are defective?

P-charts

A project management tool used to schedule, organize, and coordinate tasks within a project best defines

PERT.

Which of the following expands the concept of a simple risk score based on occurrence, outcome, and detection of risks by adding the detection attribute to a risk event?

PFMEA

Which of the following is a collection of processes and knowledge areas generally accepted as best practices within the project management discipline?

PMBOK

Methods employed in estimating costs include each of the following except

ROI.

Which of the following provides a rough estimate of what a project costs before the actual project has started?

ROME

Which of the following provides the efficiency of the utilization of the resources allocated to the project?

RUE

A process improvement approach that is used to find and eliminate errors and defects, reduce cycle times, reduce cost, improve productivity, and meet customer expectations best defines

Six Sigma.

Which of the following uses "work in progress" to indicate the future of a project?

earned value analysis

A negative cost variance indicates the project is over budget.

True

A project has a beginning and an end.

True

A project is a set of activities to solve a problem or take advantage of an opportunity.

True

A project may be successfully managed but may not meet customer expectations.

True

A use case is a technique used in software projects to document the potential requirements of a new system or software.

True

Acceptance testing should provide an independent appraisal on the completeness and quality of the project.

True

According to some researchers, CIM may hinder creativity due to enforcement of standards, and cause organizations to be narrow-minded, to be totally focused only on serving customers, and to focus too much on cost efficiency.

True

According to the Kano model, customers regard the must-be requirements as prerequisites and do not explicitly demand them.

True

According to the Kano model, there is no feeling of dissatisfaction if the attractive requirements are not met.

True

Affinity diagram procedures include brainstorming an exhaustive list of ideas or issues.

True

Asking the customer to verify that every deliverable in the project plan has been completed according to the project requirements and scope is a common activity for a project closure checklist.

True

CPI is the most important tracking metric in EVA.

True

Complexity in a project is directly attributed to the scope of the project.

True

Corrective actions and preventive measures can bring a project back into compliance with the project management plan.

True

Cost is one of the major factors in a project's success.

True

Duration is defined as the total span of active working time that is required to complete an activity.

True

Estimating is the process of determining the cost of a project.

True

Every aspect of a project has a technical dimension and a human dimension.

True

Identifying new risks is associated with monitoring and controlling a project.

True

If projects demand better services for different types of markets, the department structure will work well.

True

If schedule variance is negative, it means it took longer to perform the activity than planned.

True

In projects, the Kano model can be employed to identify customer needs and functional requirements as well as during concept development.

True

The eight quality management principles identified by the ISO include each of the following except

accuracy.

Quality process analysis steps include each of the following except

activate contingency plan.

Which TMAP step maps the thought process to understand the unknowns?

ask DMAIC questions

A computer crashing is an example of a(n)

assignable cause.

Which of the following provides an opportunity for the project manager and the project team to uncover the issues, concerns, and challenges often encountered during the execution of a project?

auditing

A systematic process of objectively obtaining and evaluating evidence regarding assertions about economic actions and events best defines

auditing.

Advantages of the functional structure include each of the following except

authority and responsibility are well established.

A project manager has little formal authority and may provide some input to performance reviews in the

balanced matrix.

Recommendations for preparing fishbone diagrams include each of the following except

be selective about idea generation.

The baseline budgeted cost best defines

budget at completion.

The maximum price the client expects to pay a contractor regardless of cost overruns in a project best defines

celling price.

Which of the following refers to a project management process where changes to a project are formally introduced and approved?

change management

Deming, Juran, and other scholars found the common denominator in any quality system is

change.

A formal agreement between two parties, a contractor and a client, wherein the contractor agrees to perform a service and the client is obligated to pay for the service best defines

contract.

The process of determining the cost of a project best defines

cost estimation.

Which of the following provides guidance on how to develop, manage, and control costs throughout the project lifespan?

cost management plan

The ratio of rise and run of the project crash line describes

cost slope.

Which of the following compares cost deviations only and does not take schedule into account?

cost variance

Which of the following types of contracts pays the contractor allowable performance costs along with a predetermined percentage based on actual total costs?

cost-plus percentage fee contract

Shortening an activity is called

crash.

Risks associated with costs can be reduced by each of the following except

creating a project schedule and striving to adhere to it.

Which of the following is the longest path of the network, determines the total duration of the project, and is also the shortest amount of time necessary to accomplish the project?

critical path

During an audit, the collection of data is dependent on each of the following except

critical path.

A statistical method for identifying which factors influence specific variables of a product or process and which variable has the greatest effect best describes

design of experiments.

Basic reasons for creating dependencies of project activities include each of the following except

desirable dependencies.

Outputs from the cost management process include each of the following except

detailed system specifications.

Dependencies defined by the project team are

discretionary dependencies.

Types of proactive influence tactics include each of the following except

disintermediation

The purpose of the project charter is to

do all of these.

Which of the following creates requirements from "as-is" process documents?

document analysis

QFD does each of the following except

documents the flow of data through a system, where it is stored, and when it enters and leaves the system.

Which of the following compares actual and baseline duration?

duration variance

A scheduling approach driven by dates and deadlines best describes

duration-based scheduling.

A scheduling approach driven by the quantity of assigned resources best describes

effort-driven scheduling.

Which of the following roles spells out suggestions using examples?

elaborator

Successful project management requires each of the following except

end users with project management experience.

Delayed projects that are shelved for a period of time and then re-initiated again after a while describes

endless projects.

Which of the following roles concentrates the group's energy on forward movement?

energizer

The best estimate of the total cost at the completion of the project best defines

estimate at completion.

Dependencies involving relationships between the project and non-project activities best defines

external dependencies.

A technique to shorten the duration of a project to meet the target dates best describes

fast tracking.

Project costs can be classified as each of the following except as

feasible.

The availability and excellence of "bells and whistles" related to a product best describes

features.

A tool that allows teams to identify and graphically detail all possible causes related to a problem and discover root causes of the problem at hand best describes

fishbone diagram.

Garvin's eight dimensions of quality include each of the following except

flexibility.

An organizational structure where employees are grouped according to their specialties best defines

functional structure.

Constructing buildings as environmentally friendly and energy efficient as possible by using more recyclable and earth-friendly products best describes

green construction.

A quality audit needs to do each of the following except

identify the audit inspection steps.

Stages in the procurement cycle include each of the following except

implementation

Which of the following tactics offers praise, ingratiation, and self promotion?

impression management

Which TMAP step improvises the team thought process to form a thought map?

improve and link all responses to form a thought map

Project audits conducted early in the project or during its progress at a predetermined time are

in-process audits.

Disadvantages of the department structure include each of the following except

inability to respond quickly to changes that affect product, customer, or location.

Which of the following focuses on identifying the factors that influence proposed changes to a project, evaluating these influences, and managing the changes in real time during project implementation?

integrated change control

Core RUP workflows include each of the following except

integration.

Project risks can be classified as

internal risks.

A process capability index above 1 means that the process variability

is tighter than specifications and the process exceeds minimal capability.

Project audit areas include each of the following except

joint application development guidelines.

A process capability index equal to 1 means that the process variability

just meets specifications and the process is minimally capable.

When preparing an RBS for a construction project, the environment may be attributed to

legal factors that may affect the project.

CMMI Level 4 objectives include

manage measurable metrics and software goals.

Which of the following types of reviews is conducted to evaluate the status of a project in order to understand and allocate resources?

management reviews

An individual who is concerned about how work is completed and tries to get people to work together and perform better best describes

manager.

If prototype testing can be started only after the completion of the prototype, then this is an example of a(n)

mandatory dependency.

Which of the following is not an internal risk?

material shortage

An integrated organizational structure where teams are composed of employees from various specialized groups best defines

matrix structure.

Project documents associated with the time management knowledge area include

milestone list.

A sentence or short paragraph written by an organization to reflect its core purpose, identity, and values best defines

mission statement.

The foundation of successful projects includes each of the following except

money

Common tools and techniques used for developing a list of project risks include each of the following except

network diagrams.

The project lifespan stage where team members agree and start cooperating with some preconceived notions best describes

norming.

Risk Priority Number is computed as

occurrence * outcome * detection.

A potential benefit given up when one activity is selected over another best defines

opportunity costs.

Any process-related assets that can be used toward a project's success best defines

organizational assets.

A plan, method, or action employed to achieve the goals and objectives, which in turn achieve the mission of an organization toward the realization of its vision best defines

organizational strategy.

Which of the following roles defines and clarifies the team's position on project tasks and project-related issues?

orienteer

The amount of time a project will take to recuperate its investments best defines

payback analysis.

The execution or accomplishment of a project to fulfill customer requirements in accordance with the project scope best defines

performance.

PDCA stands for

plan, do, check, act.

Outputs for this phase include communication plans, change management plans, performance plans, and value plans.

planning

Which of the following project life span phases helps to identify certain technical problems and issues in a project that may require additional investigation?

planning

Developing schedules, milestones, and critical paths is associated with the

planning process group and time management knowledge area.

A process used to set the goals of a project, develop strategies to support an organization's strategic goals, and outline tasks and schedules to accomplish the project goals best defines

planning.

Which of the following tactics includes influencing the agenda of a meeting to include a project manager's own issues, influencing the decision makers to use criteria that will bias the decisions in favor of the project manager's interests?

political

During this phase, progress and success are measured, project documents are archived, lessons learned are captured, and project activities are formally closed.

post-implementation

The range in which the true value of the population is estimated best defines level of

precision.

Each of the following is an important project auditing activity except

preparing a revised scope document.

A systematic method to continuously augment how organizations conduct business and projects best defines

process improvement

Which of the following provide a visual model of how inputs, activities, and outputs of a process are linked and are the most fundamental of all process design and process improvement tools?

process maps

Which of the following consists of the features and functions that characterize a product, a service, a system, or a structure?

product scope

Categories of risk pertaining to project managers include

professional risk.

A systematic process of objectively obtaining and evaluating evidence of issues in a project and communication results best defines

project audit.

In CCPM, a definite amount of time that can be added at the end of the project is called

project buffer.

A document that formally recognizes a project and includes a problem statement, project objectives, benefits, process owners, and a project sponsor or a champion best defines

project charter.

The process of closing and ending a project best defines

project closure.

The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics of a project fulfill project scope best defines

project quality.

An uncertain event that if it occurs will have a positive or negative effect on the objectives of the project best defines

project risk.

Which of the following is the delivery of a project scope?

project schedule

The list of all activities of a project with intended start and end dates linked by dependencies and constraints of a project best defines

project schedule.

Which of the following defines a baseline for performance measurement?

project scope

A unique activity that adds value, expends resources, has beginning and end dates, and has constraints and requirements that include scope, cost, schedule performance, resources and value best defines

project.

Which stakeholders have high influence as well as high interest in the project?

promoters

Defining each risk by a set of standard parameters including likelihood or probability, severity or impact, detection process, and mitigation plans best defines

qualitative risk management.

A review of the quality plan to determine whether the project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures defines

quality audit.

Which of the following follows all the steps outlined in the process improvement plan in order to identify the improvements necessary to enhance the quality of a project?

quality process analysis

Project life span phases include each of the following except

reassignment

Which of the following roles acts as the secretary or minute-keeper?

recorder

Project documents associated with the scope management knowledge area include

requirement traceability matrix.

A capability of a system, product, or service to include the quantified and documented needs and expectations of the sponsor, customer, and other stakeholders best defines

requirement.

Which of the following establishes the requirements, requirement types, requirement attributes, and traceability of a project in order to manage project requirements?

requirements management plan

A table captured to map all the requirements of all stakeholders in order to track them until the project is complete best defines

requirements traceability matrix.

A comparison of the contingency reserves of schedule, resources, and budget at a particular time during the progress of a project with the original schedule, resources, and budget to determine if there are enough reserves in schedule, resources, or budget best defines

reserve analysis.

Risks that remain after the implementation of new or enhanced controls are called

residual risks.

A method to flatten the schedule when resources are over-allocated with a general idea to prevent team members from becoming over extended best describes

resource-leveling heuristic.

Projects can be categorized as any of the following except

resourceful.

Factors that can be used to evaluate scorecards include each of the following except

results.

The process that allows project managers to balance operational and economic costs of protective measures to achieve project success best defines

risk management.

A process to manage risks in a project is

risk monitoring and control.

A measure of the likelihood that an event described in the risk consequence portion of the risk statement will actually occur best defines

risk probability.

A function of the likelihood of a given threat and the resulting impact of that adverse event on the organization best defines

risk.

A document that determines the basic criteria for developing and maintaining the actual project schedule is the

schedule management plan.

The ratio of earned value to planned value best defines

schedule performance index.

A plan to implement a project using an ordered sequence of activities with time allotted for each activity best defines

scheduling.

The addition of scope after it is defined in the scope document best defines

scope creep.

Which of the following documents how the project scope will be defined, managed, controlled, verified and communicated to stakeholders?

scope management plan

Risks associated with scope can be reduced by each of the following except

setting deadlines and making sure to achieve those deadlines.

The amount of time that an activity in a project network can be delayed without causing a delay to subsequent activities or project completion best defines

slack.

A set of activities, methods, practices, and transformations that people use to develop and maintain software and its associated products that include project plans, design documents, code, test cases, and user manuals best defines

software process

A document that specifies a project's requirement in a complete, precise, verifiable manner and includes the procedures for determining whether the requirement is satisfied best defines

specifications.

A methodology used in incorporating the requirements of those who have an interest in a project best defines

stakeholder analysis.

Which of the following group building and maintenance roles expresses standards to be applied in evaluating the quality of team process?

standard setter

Project documents associated with the integration management knowledge area include

statement of work.

The project lifespan stage that kicks in after the team starts working together best describes

storming.

Projects that are essential to support the long-range mission are categorized as

strategic.

Incurred costs that cannot be changed by any decision and that cannot be recovered best defines

sunk costs.

The conceptual phase of any system or just the software facet of a system best describes the SDLC

systems investigation phase.

The expense that has been agreed upon by a contractor and a client best defines

target cost.

Managerial barriers to learning from post-project reviews include

time constraints.

Causing a delay to the whole project is called

total float.

The UP phase where the proposed, implemented system is deployed to end users best describes the

transition phase.

Which of the following illustrates whether and how much the project will be over budget or under budget at completion?

variance at completion

Deviation from an original plan best defines

variance.

The difference between the planned and the actual budget best defines

variance.

A big picture of the company consisting of a sentence or short paragraph that provides a broad, aspiring image of the future of the organization best defines

vision.

Which of the following provides a unified approach to initiate all activities of a project and the necessary information for work to begin?

work authorization system