Quiz 107.1.1 CompTIA Core 1 Practice Test WITH explanation

How many volts of electrical charge is applied to the drum of a laser printer? -1200 volts -300 volts -9000 volts -600 volts

-600 volts OBJ 3.7 - To ensure the positively charged toner is attracted to the laser printer's negatively charged drum during printing, a uniform negative charge of approximately 600 volts is applied to print the image on the paper.

Your laptop currently has a 128 GB SSD installed and currently running out of internal storage space. You want to upgrade the workstation with more internal storage to store additional videos, photos, and backups. Still, you don't want to sacrifice data access speed for increased storage. Which of the following is the BEST storage solution to store more data while maintaining fast data access speeds? 50 TB SAN 1 TB SSD 3 TB HDD 5 TB NAS

1 TB SSD OBJ 1.1 - Since you need an internal storage solution, you cannot use a NAS or SAN (since these are both network storage solutions). Instead, you have to select from the SSD or the HDD. In this question, we are primarily worried about the storage's speed being installed and not the storage size. Therefore, we should choose the 1 TB SSD (solid-state drive) over the 3 TB HDD (hard disk drive) due to its faster speeds.

Which port is used to connect to a POP3 server? 25 143 110 443

110 OBJ 2.1 - The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.

Which of the following is used to connect Cat 5e or above networks in an MDF or IDF? 66 punchdown block F type RJ-11 110 punchdown block

110 punchdown block OBJ 3.1 - A 110 punchdown block is a type of punch block used to terminate runs of on-premises wiring in a structured cabling system. The designation 110 is also used to describe a type of insulation displacement contact (IDC) connector used to terminate twisted pair cables when using a punch-down tool similar to the older 66 punchdown block. A 110 punchdown block provides more spacing between the terminals and is designed for Cat 5 networks to eliminate crosstalk between the cables. F type connectors are used for coaxial cables, not Cat 5e network cables. RJ-11 is used to terminate telephone lines, not Cat 5e network cables.

Which of the following ports should you block at the firewall if you want to prevent a remote login to a server from occurring? 143 80 22 21

22 OBJ 2.1 - Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication. The file transfer protocol (FTP) is the protocol used to transfer files across the internet over ports 20 and 21. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using port 80. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time.

Your desktop computer is currently running out of internal storage space. You want to upgrade the workstation with more internal storage to store additional videos, photos, and backups. Which of the following is the BEST storage solution to avoid having to expand again next year while still meeting your need to store more data? 50 TB SAN 3 TB HDD 5 TB NAS 1 TB SSD

3 TB HDD OBJ 3.3 - Since you need an internal storage solution, you cannot use a NAS or SAN (since these are both network storage solutions). Instead, you have to select from the SSD or the HDD. In this question, we are primarily worried about the size of the storage being installed and not the storage speed. Therefore, we should choose the 3 TB HDD (hard disk drive) over the 1 TB SSD (solid-state drive) due to its larger size.

Which of the following ports is used by LDAP by default? 427 3389 53 389

389 OBJ 2.1 - The lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) is a protocol used to access and update information in an X.500-style network resource directory. LDAP uses port 389. The service location protocol (SLP) is a protocol or method of organizing and locating the resources (such as printers, disk drives, databases, e-mail directories, and schedulers) in a network. This is an alternative protocol to LDAP in newer networks. SLP uses port 427. The remote desktop protocol (RDP) is a protocol used for the remote administration of a host using a graphical user interface. RDP operates over TCP port 3389. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53.

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 54 Mbps? 802.11g 802.11ac 802.11n 802.11ax 802.11b 802.11a

802.11a OBJ 2.3 - The 802.11a (Wireless A) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps. The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps. The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 3.5 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. The 802.11ax (Wireless AX or Wi-Fi 6) standard utilizes 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 9.6 Gbps. Wireless AC uses orthogonal frequency-division multiple access (OFDMA) to conduct multiplexing of the frequencies transmitted and received to each client to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless AC also has a version called Wi-Fi 6E that supports the 6GHz frequency instead of the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies used in Wi-Fi 6.

You had just bought a top-of-the-line smartphone 2 months ago. In the last week, though, the smartphone seems to be running slowly. About 3 weeks ago, a new version of the phone's operating system was installed. At first, everything was still working fine, but this week the smartphone is very sluggish. You brought the smartphone back to the store to diagnose the problem. They have run a full set of diagnostics on the smartphone's hardware, but no issues were found to exist with the hardware. What do you think is MOST likely causing the poor performance with this smartphone? The smartphone was set to airplane mode by mistake The newly installed operating system update is too resource-intensive for this smartphone's hardware The internal storage device of the smartphone is faulty A lot of the apps on the device are performing an update based on the newer OS being released

A lot of the apps on the device are performing an update based on the newer OS being released OBJ 5.5 - The most likely cause for the slowdown of this top-of-the-line smartphone is that too many apps are simultaneously trying to perform an update, and it is overwhelming the processor and memory. This commonly occurs within a week or two of a newly installed OS version. For example, if we upgrade from iOS 14 to iOS 15, all of the apps are updated and recoded to support the newer OS version. They are usually released within 1-2 weeks of the newly released version. Since the hardware passed all the diagnostics, the problem cannot be the internal storage. The OS update isn't too resource-intensive since it is only a two-month-old top-of-the-line device.

Which of the following types of optical discs can support storing a 20 GB file on a single piece of media? CD-RW SD DVD-R BD-R

BD-R OBJ 3.3 - A Blu-ray disc can store up to 25 GB for a single-layer disc or 50 GB for a dual-layer disc. A CD can store up to 700 MB. A DVD can store 4.7 GB for a single-layer disc or 8.5 GB for a dual-layer disc. An SD card is a type of memory card and is not considered an optical disc.

You are troubleshooting a laptop's display for a customer. The customer states that parts of the picture remain on the screen even after a full shutdown or reboot. You update the device drivers and recalibrate the display, but the problem remains with the laptop's display. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem with the display? Distorted geometry Burn in Dead pixels Incorrect device drivers

Burn in OBJ 5.4 - Burn-in or image persistence is a discoloration of areas on an electronic display that causes a non-uniform use of the pixels that appears as an image remains after the screen is turned off or rebooted. While LCD and LED displays are not as likely as plasma and CRT monitors to suffer from burn-in, burn-in can still occur.

You have been asked to run to the store and purchase a network cable for your boss's new laptop. They need a network cable that supports at least 750 Mbps. Which of the following network cables should you purchase to meet the bandwidth required at the lowest price? CAT 5e CAT 7 CAT 6 CAT 5

CAT 5e OBJ 3.1 - You should purchase a CAT 5e cable since it can support up to 1000 Mbps (1 Gbps) of bandwidth and is the cheapest option provided that will meet your boss' bandwidth requirements. CAT 5 cables only support 100 Mbps. Therefore, it won't meet the requirements. CAT 6 and CAT 7 cables will support 1 Gbps and 10 Gbps, respectively, but they are more expensive than CAT 5e cables. Therefore, the CAT 5e cable is the best choice for the requirements provided.

Dion Training has just installed a new web server and created an A record for DionTraining.com. When users try entering www.DionTraining.com, though, they get an error. You tell their network administrator that the problem is because he forgot to add the appropriate DNS record to create an alias for www to the domain's root. Which type of DNS record should be added to fix this issue? AAAA CNAME PTR NS

CNAME OBJ 2.6 - A CNAME record is a canonical name or alias name, which associates one domain name as an alias of another (like beta.diontraining.com and www.diontraining.com could refer to the same website using a CNAME). An MX record is used for outgoing (SMTP) and incoming (POP3/IMAP) traffic. An A record associates your domain name with an IPv4 address. An AAAA record associates your domain name with an IPv6 address.

A technician is building a new computer for Dion Training. The technician installs the motherboard, processor, memory, hard drives, and case fans, then they attempt to connect the cables to the appropriate connections. When the technician powers on the system, the fans spin, and the motherboard's LEDs light up. Unfortunately, the computer does not successfully complete the POST and the monitor remains blank. Which of the following did the technician likely forget to connect to the motherboard? CPU 8-pin power cable Case fan 4-pin power cable Motherboard 24-pin power cable SATA 15-pin power cable

CPU 8-pin power cable OBJ 5.2 - Based on the scenario, it is most likely that the technician forgot to connect the 8-pin CPU power cable. Without the CPU receiving power, the POST test cannot be run and the system will not boot up. If the motherboard power cable was not connected, then the motherboard's LED would not be lit. If the SATA 15-pin power cable was not connected, the system could still complete the POST and a "bootable device not found" error would be displayed on the monitor. If the case fan's power cables were not connected, the fans would not be spinning. Therefore, the right answer must be that the CPU power cable was not properly connected by the technician.

Which of the following tools is used by a technician to remove the jacket or sheathing from a wire when building a cable? Punchdown tool Crimper Cable stripper Cable tester

Cable stripper OBJ 2.8 - A cable stripper is used to remove the plastic jacket from an ethernet cable to access its internal wires (twisted pairs). A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics. Punchdown tools are used to connect an ethernet cable to the back of a patch panel, a punchdown block, or the back of a network wall jack. A crimper is a tool used to attach an RJ-45 plastic connector to an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) or shielded twisted pair (STP) cable. It pushes a portion of the plastic into the jacket of the cable to hold it in place.

Dion Training's office uses a shared networked printer that is accessed via a print server. Tamera attempted to print 3 documents to the printer. After the first documented printer, the printer stopped printing and the other two documents never came out of the printer. What is your FIRST step to try and get the printer to start printing again? Update the printer drivers on the user's workstation Restart the user's workstation Replace the USB cable on the printer Clear the print queue on the print server

Clear the print queue on the print server OBJ 5.6 - Often, a network printer connected to a print server will stop printing if the print queue becomes too full or a single print job in the queue has failed. A good first step in troubleshooting these kinds of issues is to clear the current jobs in the print queue and then try reprinting again. Since the printer is accessed via a print server, it is unlikely that restarting the user's workstation or updating the print drivers on their workstation will fix the printing issue. A networked printer usually uses an ethernet cable such as Cat 5e and not a USB cable for connection to the network.

You just rebooted your Windows 10 workstation, and the desktop's background picture looks strange. Upon closer examination, you notice that only a few hundred unique colors are being shown in the image. Which of the following settings should you reconfigure? App size Resolution Color depth Refresh rate

Color depth OBJ 5.4 - Color depth is either the number of bits used to indicate the color of a single pixel in a bitmapped image or video frame buffer or the number of bits used for each color component in a single pixel. In Windows 10, you can display up to 32-bits of color depth if your monitor supports it. A larger color depth number allows more unique colors to be displayed. If you only have 4-bit color, for example, you can only have 16 colors. With an 8-bit color depth, you can see 256 colors. Normally, most Windows systems are set to 16-bit (65,536 colors), 24-bit (16.7 million colors), or 32-bit (4.2 billion colors).

You work for a bank interested in moving some of its operations to the cloud, but it is worried about security. You recently discovered an organization called CloudBank that was formed by 15 local banks as a way for them to build a secure cloud-based environment that can be accessed by the 15 member banks. Which cloud model BEST describes the cloud created by CloudBank? Community cloud Public cloud Hybrid cloud Private cloud

Community cloud OBJ 4.1 - Community Cloud is another type of cloud computing in which the cloud setup is shared manually among different organizations that belong to the same community or area. A multi-tenant setup is developed using the cloud among different organizations belonging to a particular community or group with similar computing concerns. For joint business organizations, ventures, research organizations, and tenders, a community cloud is an appropriate solution. Based on the description of 15 member banks coming together to create the CloudBank organization and its cloud computing environment, a community cloud model is most likely described. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A private cloud contains services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. A hybrid cloud is a cloud computing environment that uses a mix of on-premises, private cloud, and third-party public cloud services with orchestration between these platforms. This typically involves a connection from an on-premises data center to a public cloud.

You have just connected an external monitor to a laptop for one of Dion Training's employees. You now need to configure the laptop to mirror the internal laptop display to this monitor. Which of the following should you do next? Restart the laptop Configure the display settings in the operating system Enable the DisplayPort Turn the monitor off and on again

Configure the display settings in the operating system OBJ 1.3 - Once the external display/monitor has been connected, you need to configure the display settings from within the operating system. The other options provided will not cause the displays to be mirrored as per the customer's request. Some laptops have a special hotkey reserved for mirroring the internal display to an external monitor, as well.

Which of the following types of connectors are used to terminate a serial cable for an external modem? DB-9 RJ-45 RJ-11 LC

DB-9 OBJ 3.1 - DB-9 connectors are designed to work with the EIA/TIA 232 serial interface standard, which determined the function of all nine pins as a standard so that multiple companies could design them into their products. DB-9 connectors were commonly used for serial peripheral devices like keyboards, mice, joysticks, and data connectivity. Today, the DB9 has mostly been replaced by more modern interfaces such as USB, PS/2, Firewire, etc. However, there are still many legacy devices that use the DB-9 interface for serial communication. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines. An RJ-45 connector is used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable. A ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector is used to terminate a fiber optic cable.

Which of the following components would require you to de-solder the old part from the laptop to install and solder in a new one? Cellular Card Screen Battery DC jack

DC jack OBJ 1.1 - It is relatively common for the DC jack to fail over time. The DC jack can become loose over time, or the jack itself can become separated from the motherboard. Replacing a DC jack requires disassembling the laptop, de-soldering and removing the old jack, then soldering the new jack into place. Most laptop DC jacks are specific to the manufacturer and the laptop model. Cellular cards are usually installed in a Mini PCIe expansion card slot and are not soldered to the motherboard. The screen and the battery are not soldered in most laptops and can be replaced by removing and replacing screws. Some manufacturers have begun soldering screens and batteries in some of their models, but this is still not considered common practice. A DC jack is always solder to the motherboard in a laptop, therefore it is the best answer to this question.

You just installed ten new monitors for the accounting department. Karen just called the help desk complaining that her monitor has a single black-colored square on her screen that won't go away. What is MOST likely the issue with Karen's LED display? Distorted image Dead Pixel Artifact Faulty inverter

Dead pixel OBJ 5.4 - A dead pixel occurs when an entire pixel or a group of subpixels remain dark even when they are supposed to be on. Since this implies that the pixel or group of subpixels are no longer powering on, they are harder to fix than stuck pixels. In most cases, dead pixels are lost forever. Even though this is a new monitor, it could still have been defective and have a dead pixel.

The touch screen on your Windows 10 laptop is not working properly. You have been asked to troubleshoot the laptop. What should you check FIRST? Device manager System configuration Performance monitor Digitizer settings

Digitizer settings OBJ 5.5 - Most laptops have a digitizer and an LCD screen if they are touchscreen devices. The digitizer is a piece of glass glued to the LCD's surface and is used to capture your touches and translate them into input for your system. If the touch screen is not working, but the display doesn't look cracked or broken, this is often a sign that the digitizer settings are incorrect or the digitizer is defective.

Jason, a computer technician, is troubleshooting a motherboard. He has determined that the motherboard needs to be replaced in the laptop. Which of the following next step should be performed next? (Choose TWO) Use portable power driver to remove screws Documentation of all screws and locations Read owners' manual for procedures and steps to avoid breaking the warranty Disconnect laptop keyboard before disconnecting the battery

Documentation of all screws and locations Read owners' manual for procedures and steps to avoid breaking the warranty

A gaming computer system has 32 GB of RAM, a 1 TB HDD, a multicore CPU, and a dedicated GPU. The customer wants to increase the speed and performance of the system. Which of the following actions would you recommend performing? Adding more RAM to the system Conduct performance tuning in Windows Enter BIOS to enable overclocking of the CPU Increase the video graphics speed in the Control Panel

Enter BIOS to enable overclocking of the CPU OBJ 3.4 - To further increase the system's performance, the system should be configured for overclocking the processor by entering the BIOS setup program and increasing the CPU clock speed using the Overclocking feature. Overclocking your CPU can make your processor run significantly faster by applying the right settings and having adequate cooling. Overclocking does typically lower the lifespan of a CPU, though. This system already has ample RAM (32 GB) and a dedicated GPU. A graphics card cannot be increased in speed using the control panel.

You are troubleshooting a Windows 10 workstation for a customer. You have identified the problem and performed a quick backup of the system. What is the NEXT step in the troubleshooting methodology? Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution Establish a theory of probable cause Document findings, actions, and outcomes Test the theory to determine the cause

Establish a theory of probable cause OBJ 5.1 - For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

You are troubleshooting a customer's printer that is attached to their workstation by a USB cable. The printer is powered on, but it fails to print. You question the customer, but they claim that nothing has changed on the computer or the printer since it was printing earlier today. Which of the following should you do NEXT to determine the root cause of the printer failure? Update the print drivers on the Windows workstation Examine the workstation and printer for any obvious indicators of failure Unplug and reattach the printer cables and reboot the workstation Replace the printer with a new model and dispose of the broken printer

Examine the workstation and printer for any obvious indicators of failure OBJ 5.1 - You should always question the obvious when establishing the theory of probable cause. In this case, you have not fully identified the problem yet, so you must establish a theory and test it. For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

You have been asked to install a network cable inside a conduit placed underground and connected to two buildings located about 1 KM apart. Which of the following cable types should you choose? Coaxial Fiber Shielded Plenum

Fiber OBJ 3.1 - A fiber optic cable is a network cable that contains strands of glass fibers inside an insulated casing. They're designed for long-distance, high-performance data networking, and telecommunications. If you are dealing with connecting two networks over a long distance (over a few hundred meters), you should use a fiber optic cable. Shielded and plenum copper cables can only cover a distance of approximately 100 meters in length. Coaxial cables can cover a maximum distance of 200 to 500 meters in length.

You are troubleshooting a workstation with four identical memory sticks installed, one in each of the slots labeled 1, 2, 3, and 4. The motherboard has a marking near the memory slots that says, "quad-channel support." Based on what you observe, how many channels are being used by the motherboard's memory? One channel Three channels Two channels Four channels

Four channels OBJ 3.2 - Since the motherboard says it supports quad-channel, and four sticks of memory are installed, it would be using four channels. By using a motherboard that supports a quad-channel memory controller, the motherboard is able to transfer up to 256-bits of memory per transactions (4 x 64-bits) to increase the bandwidth available for data transfer.

Which of the following cellular technologies uses a subscriber identity module (SIM) card to identify the subscriber on a provider's cellular network? GSM WMN PRL CDMA

GSM OBJ 1.4 - The global system for mobile (GSM) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a SIM card to identify the subscriber and network provider. The code division multiple access (CDMA) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a method of multiplexing a communications channel using a code to key the modulation of a particular signal. A wireless mesh network (WMN) is a wireless network topology where all nodes, including client stations, can provide forwarding and path discovery to improve coverage and throughput compared to using just fixed access points and extenders. The preferred roaming list (PRL) is a database built by CDMA service carriers to indicate which radio bands should be used when connecting to a cell tower.

Which of the following cloud services provides access to Docs, Sheets, Drive, and other productivity tools using a subscription-based pricing model? iTunes iCloud Microsoft 365 Google Workspace

Google Workspace OBJ 1.4 - Google Workspace is a collection of cloud computing, productivity and collaboration tools, software, and products developed and marketed by Google. Microsoft 365, formerly Office 365, is a line of subscription services offered by Microsoft which adds to and includes the Microsoft Office product line. Apple's online cloud storage and file synchronization service for macOS and iOS devices is called iCloud. The service provides a centralized location for mail, contacts, calendar, photos, notes, reminders, and files online. Apple's iTunes is a media player, media library, Internet radio broadcaster, mobile device management utility, and the client app for the iTunes Store. It is not a cloud-based solution for synchronization.

Your company hosts all of the company's virtual servers internally in your data center. If a total failure or disaster occurs, the server images can be restored on a cloud provider and accessed through a VPN. Which of the following types of cloud services is your company using in this scenario? Community PaaS Public IaaS Private SaaS Hybrid SaaS

Hybrid SaaS OBJ 4.1 - Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is a type of cloud computing service that offers essential compute, storage, and networking resources on-demand, on a pay-as-you-go basis. Since the company is hosting all of its servers as virtual machines, they could quickly restore their datacenter capabilities by restoring the VM images to a public cloud IaaS solution and then connecting to them using a VPN. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a complete development and deployment environment in the cloud, with resources that enable you to deliver everything from simple cloud-based apps to sophisticated, cloud-enabled enterprise applications. Software as a Service (SaaS) allows users to connect to and use cloud-based apps over the Internet. Common examples are email, calendaring, and office tools (such as Microsoft Office 365). SaaS provides a complete software solution that you purchase on a pay-as-you-go basis from a cloud service provider.

Dion Training wants to order some new laptops for their video editors. The video editors want to ensure the display has the best color accuracy when using a 60 Hz refresh rate. Which of the following types of displays should the company purchase to meet this requirement? Plasma TN VA IPS

IPS OBJ 1.2 - An in-plane switching (IPS) LCD panel uses technology designed to resolve the quality issues inherent in TN panel technology, including strong viewing angle dependence and low-quality color reproduction. IPS displays have great color accuracy, but they do not support higher refresh rates sought after by gamers. A twisted nematic (TN) LCD panel uses technology where the panel is black when no electric current is running through the liquid crystal cells because the cells align themselves in a twisted state. When an electric current is applied, the liquid crystal cells untwist, allowing light to pass through, resulting in a white display screen. TN displays can be made with high refresh rates of 120 Hz or 144 Hz which makes them popular with gamers. A vertical alignment (VA) LCD panel uses technology designed to have liquid crystals lay perpendicular to the glass substrate when power is removed and in a vertical position when voltage is applied. This allows light to move through the liquid pixels when voltage is applied and the image is then produced. VA displays are a good middle-ground between IPS and TN panel displays. A plasma display is a type of flat panel display that uses small cells containing plasma with ionized gas that responds to electric fields. Plasma displays create excessive heat and are not as energy efficient as an LCD, LED, or OLED display.

What type of cloud service provides instant access to servers and switches, quickly provisioned, and available for management over the internet? DaaS SaaS IaaS PaaS

IaaS OBJ 4.1 - Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is an instant computing infrastructure, provisioned, and managed over the internet. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. IaaS quickly scales up and down with demand, letting you pay only for what you use. It helps you avoid the expense and complexity of buying and managing your physical servers and other data center infrastructure. Each resource is offered as a separate service component, and you only need to rent a particular one for as long as you need it. A cloud computing service provider manages the infrastructure while you purchase, install, configure, and manage your software. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

Jason booted up a Windows 10 laptop and noticed that the icon appears very large and the image appeared blurry. What is the most LIKELY cause of these issues? Incorrect color depth Incorrect cable used Faulty digitizer Incorrect resolution

Incorrect resolution OBJ 5.4 - This is likely a screen resolution problem. Each LCD/LED has a native resolution that fits perfectly on the screen. If a resolution other than the native resolution is used, the screen could become squished, distorted, or have black vertical or horizontal lines filling up the excess space. For example, if the computer rebooted into Safe Mode, it will default back to an 800x600 pixel resolution instead of the 16:9 ratio of 1920x1080 pixels used by modern laptops. This is also referred to as VGA mode.

A user is complaining about slow data speeds when they are at home in a large apartment building. The user uses Wi-Fi when they get home, and the device works fine on other wireless networks they connect to. Which of the following actions should the user take to increase their data speeds? Enable MAC filtering on their WAP Turn off WI-Fi and rely on their cellular data plan Increase the Wi-Fi signal being transmitted by their WAP Upgrade to a new smartphone

Increase the Wi-Fi signal being transmitted by their WAP OBJ 2.7 - Slow data speeds can be caused by too much interference or a weak signal. Try changing the channel on Wi-Fi routers to less-used channels or boost the signal being transmitted, and the performance should increase. Alternatively, if the cellular signal is too low, you can install a signal booster or microcell in the home or office. Enabling MAC filtering would block devices attempting to connect to the Wi-Fi. Turning off the Wi-Fi and using their cellular data plan might be a valid workaround, but it does not solve the issue of the Wi-Fi not functioning properly at home. Upgrading the smartphone would not increase the speed of their home Wi-Fi, as their current smartphone already operates at faster speeds on other Wi-Fi networks.

The Chief Financial Officer has asked Maria for a recommendation on how the company could reduce its software licensing costs while still maintaining the ability to access its application server remotely. Which of the following should Maria recommend? Use a Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) application on a Windows 10 desktop Install and deploy Windows 10 Home edition on each user's thick client Use a Virtual Network Client (VNC) on a Windows 2019 server Install and deploy thin clients without an operating system for each user

Install and deploy Windows 10 Home edition on each user's thick client OBJ 4.1 - A thin client is a small device that can operate with or without an operating system installed on the client device. Instead, it can boot directly from a network-based operating system on a common server and access applications on the company's application server. This type of architecture can drastically reduce the need for operating system licenses and reduce deployment costs. A thin client runs from resources stored on a central server instead of a localized hard drive. Thin clients work by connecting remotely to a server-based computing environment where most applications, sensitive data, and memory are stored.

Linda wants to reduce the number of monitors, keyboards, and mice required to control the multiple servers she manages in the data center. Which of the following devices should she install to allow a single keyboard or mouse to control multiple systems? KVM Video mirroring device PS/2 splitter USB splitter

KVM OBJ 3.1 - A KVM (or Keyboard, Video, and Mouse) is a simple and easy to use hardware switching device that allows for multitasking on a single device. A KVM gives you the ability to connect 2 to 64 physical computers to a single set of hardware devices, such as a keyboard, monitor, and mouse. KVMs can be directly connected to the systems being controlled over USB, known as local remote. Modern KVMs can also operate over the network using KVM over IP, common in large datacenter implementations. A PS/2 connector is an older serial communication connector used for mice and keyboards. A PS/2 splitter allows both a mouse and keyboard to be connected to a single PS/2 port on a single system. A video mirroring device is used to send a duplicate copy of the video display signal to two or more monitors simultaneously. A USB splitter or USB hub is a device that connects to a USB port to allow additional USB devices to be connected to the PC, essentially increasing the number of USB ports available.

Which of the following devices would allow you to control and provide input commands to multiple servers within the same server rack using a single set of input devices? Touchpad Keyboard Mouse KVM

KVM OBJ 3.1 - A keyboard video mouse (KVM) switch is used to support a single set of input and output devices controlling several PCs. A KVM is typically used with servers but 2- port versions allow a single keyboard, mouse, and display to be used with two PCs. Generally, a single KVM installed in each server rack allows the administrator to quickly switch between physical servers within the rack using the same keyboard, mouse, and monitor. A touchpad is an input device used on most laptops to replace a mouse. The touchpad allows the user to control the cursor by moving a finger over the pad's surface. A mouse is an input device that is used to control the movements of a cursor and to select objects on the screen. A keyboard is an input device that is used to enter data into a computer using different key layouts based on the geographical region in which it is used.

Which of the following settings must be enabled on a mobile device to embed the GPS position into a photograph when using your device's camera? Location services FDE MDM Security profile

Location services OBJ 1.4 - Location services enable the device to know its position using its internal GPS receiver or its approximate location using its cellular radio. To embed the GPS position into a photograph, location services must be enabled. Mobile device management (MDM) software suites are designed to manage the use of smartphones and tablets within an enterprise. Full device encryption (FDE) is used to encrypt the user and system data stored in the device's internal storage. The encryption key is stored in a protected portion of the device and can be used to remotely wipe the device if it is lost or stolen. A security profile is used to apply different permissions and functionality to an employee's mobile device and is usually configured by an MDM.

Dion Training has just installed a brand new email server. Which of the following DNS records would need to be created to allow the new server to receive email on behalf of diontraining.com? PTR MX A CNAME

MX OBJ 2.6 - An MX record is used for outgoing (SMTP) and incoming (POP3/IMAP) traffic. An A record associates your domain name with an IPv4 address. An AAAA record associates your domain name with an IPv6 address. A CNAME record is a canonical name or alias name, which associates one domain name as an alias of another (like beta.diontraining.com and www.diontraining.com could refer to the same website using a CNAME).

What type of connector is most often used to connect to an older smartphone? USB-C Mini-USB USB Type B Micro USB

Micro USB OBJ 1.3 - Micro USB is a miniaturized version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) interface developed for connecting compact and mobile devices such as smartphones, MP3 players, GPS devices, photo printers, and digital cameras. Micro USB connectors exist or have existed in three forms: micro A, micro B, and micro USB 3. Mini USB was introduced with USB 2.0 and was used with digital cameras and early tablets. Mini USB is not commonly used in modern devices. Recently, though, the industry moved to the USB Type C (USB-C) connector for smartphones and many other devices as it is faster and easier to connect. USB-C is the default standard used in USB 3.1 with a 24-pin connector. The connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction. USB Type B is a large form factor USB connector usually reserved for connecting to older printers and scanners.

Which of the following types of power supplies allows the installer to attach or remove cables from the power supply as needed to reduce cable clutter inside the computer's case? Redundant power supply 750 watt rated power supply Dual voltage power supply Modular power supply

Modular power supply OBJ 3.5 - A modular power supply will allow the user to attach or detach cables to the power supply as needed. This helps reduce the cable clutter inside of the case and increases airflow for cooling. A redundant power supply is when a single piece of computer equipment operates using two or more physical power supplies. Each of the power supplies will have the capacity to run the device on its own, which will allow it to operate even if one goes down. A 750-watt power supply is commonly used in gaming computers since they have high-powered graphics cards. A dual voltage power supply allows the power supply to use either 115 VAC or 230 VAC as its input.

You are working as part of a PC refresh team installing 150 desktop computers in Dion Training's new offices. When you boot up the 72nd desktop you installed, you smell a foul-smelling chemical odor. You sniff the air again and confirm the smell isn't a burning smell. Upon opening the case, which component should you inspect for damage and expect to replace? GPU Motherboard Power supply System fan

Motherboard OBJ 5.2 - A foul smell is usually indicative of a distended capacitor. Capacitors are small electrical components on the motherboard. Therefore you should inspect the motherboard for replacement. If there was a burning smell, then the power supply should be the first component inspected.

A workstation is having intermittent issues and continues to receive system errors or freeze. You believe that the problem is being caused by the workstation's motherboard, not getting the proper amount of power to it, and you want to perform a test to confirm your theory. Which of the following tools should you use to determine if the proper amount of power is being supplied to the motherboard? Cable tester Loopback plug POST card Multimeter

Multimeter OBJ 5.2 - A multimeter can measure the voltage, amperage, and resistance of a circuit. A multimeter can be a hand-held device useful for basic fault finding and field service work or a bench instrument that can measure electricity with a high degree of accuracy. Using a multimeter, you can determine the exact voltage being supplied to the motherboard from the workstation's power supply. A POST card is a plug-in diagnostic interface card that displays progress and error codes generated during the power-on self-test of a computer. A loopback plug is used to test a port. When you connect a loopback plug to a port, you should see a solid connection LED. You can also use the loopback plug in conjunction with diagnostic software. A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics.

Which of the following technologies would allow your laptop to share content with a mobile device wirelessly using touchless transfer? NVMe mPCIe NFC USB-C

NFC OBJ 1.1 - Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. Mini PCIe (mPCIe) are smaller form factor versions of standard PCI Express expansions cards used with laptops and other small form factor computing devices. Mini PCIe expansion cards provide the ability to add wireless networking or cellular data cards to a laptop. Non-volatile memory express (NVMe) is an interface for connecting flash memory devices, such as SSDs, directly to a PCI Express bus. NVMe allows much higher transfer rates than SATA/AHCI. USB-C is the default standard used in USB 3.1 with a 24-pin connector. The connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction.

Dion Training wants to replace any remaining old CRT displays used in the company with a type of screen that produces less voltage and is more energy-efficient. Additionally, the new screen type selected should not contain a backlight. What type of display technology should they select? OLED LED Plasma LCD

OLED OBJ 1.2 - An organic light-emitting diode (OLED) display is a type of LED flat panel display device that uses organic compounds that emit light when subjected to an electric current. An OLED display works without a backlight because it emits visible light. Thus, it can display deep black levels and be thinner and lighter than a liquid crystal display (LCD). In low ambient light conditions (such as a darker room), an OLED screen can achieve a higher contrast ratio than an LCD, regardless of whether the LCD uses cold cathode fluorescent lamps or an LED backlight. An OLED will consume around 40% of an LCD's power, displaying a primarily black image. For most images, it will consume 60-80% of the power of an LCD. A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. The LCD panel is backlight by a cold cathode fluorescent (CCFL) bulb. LCD panels are used on laptops and have replaced CRT monitors as the main type of computer display screen for desktops, as well. A light-emitting diode (LED) display is an LCD panel that uses a LED backlight instead of a CCFL backlight to provide its light source. A plasma display is a type of flat panel display that uses small cells containing plasma with ionized gas that responds to electric fields. Plasma displays create excessive heat and are not as energy efficient as an LCD, LED, or OLED display.

AGP PCI PCIe x16 PCIe x4

PCIe x16 OBJ 3.4 - The area circled indicates the PCIe x16 (PCI Express x16) slots. PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has some PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. Graphics cards almost exclusively rely on PCIe x16 expansion slots for their connectivity. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

PBQ with circled medium PCIe port PCIe x16 PCIe x8 PCIe x4 PCIe x1

PCIe x8 OBJ 3.4 - The area circled indicates the PCIe x8 slot on this motherboard. PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has some PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

You want to create a new mobile application and develop it in the cloud. You just signed up for a cloud-based service provider's offering to allow you to develop it using their programming environment. Which of the following best describes which type of service you have just purchased? PaaS DaaS IaaS SaaS

PaaS OBJ 4.1 - Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides the end-user with a development environment without all the hassle of configuring and installing it themselves. If you want to develop a customized or specialized program, PaaS helps reduce the development time and overall costs by providing a ready to use platform. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. Software as a Service (SaaS) is ca loud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

Jason's son has broken the RJ-45 port of his laptop by sticking clay into it, and there are no wireless networks available in his office building. The manufacturer of the laptop said the port cannot be replaced for at least a week. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate workaround to get the laptop connected to the wired network at Dion Training's office quickly? Enable NIC teaming to increase your bandwidth Replace the motherboard since it contains an integrated RJ-45 port Disable airplane mode and use the integrated 802.11ac adapter Purchase and use a USB to RJ-45 adapter

Purchase and use a USB to RJ-45 adapter OBJ 1.1 - Since the RJ-45 port on the laptop is most likely an integrated port on the motherboard, you will have to wait for the manufacturer to replace the motherboard for you. To get back onto the wired network at the office the quickest, you should purchase an external (USB) wired network adapter. These usually are small devices that will allow you to plug a wired network cable with an RJ-45 connector into the external adapter and connect it to the laptop using a USB port. This works just like the integrated RJ-45 adapter but can be installed in just a few seconds. Alternatively, you could use a port replicator or docking station if there was one available at the office. NIC teaming allows the grouping of multiple physical Ethernet network adapters into one or more software-based virtual network adapters for increased performance or fault tolerance. This would require multiple physical network interface cards to be installed in your laptop already, which is not the case in this scenario. Replacing the motherboard would work if you had one available, but the process can be time-consuming. It would be quicker and easier to simply use an external (USB) wired network interface adapter, instead. Airplane mode and 802.11ac adapters are used with wireless networks, therefore it cannot solve this issue since the office building does not have a wireless network available.

Which of the following servers would best be classified as an AAA server? Web server DNS server RADIUS server DHCP server

RADIUS server OBJ 2.4 - An authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) server is a server used to identify (authenticate), approve (authorize), and keep track of (account for) users and their actions. AAA servers can also be classified based on the protocol they use, such as a RADIUS server or TACACS+ server. A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server is a server configured with a range of addresses to lease. Hosts can be allocated an IP address dynamically or be assigned a reserved IP address based on the host's MAC address. The server can also provide other configuration information, such as the location of DNS servers. A domain name system (DNS) server is a server that hosts the database of domain names and the IP addresses mapped to those names. Each DNS server is authoritative for certain domain names that their organization owns. A web server is a server that accepts requests through HTTP or HTTPS for a webpage and delivers the webpage and other requested resources to the user.

A client is attempting to power on their computer, but it keeps booting to the incorrect hard drive. Which of the following actions should you perform to attempt to fix this problem? Press F8 repeatedly during the boot process to enter the boot menu Reconfigure the boot order within Windows Unplug any external hard disks Reconfigure the boot order within the BIOS/UEFI

Reconfigure the boot order within the BIOS/UEFI OBJ 5.3 - If the system still fails to boot up from the correct drive, then go into the BIOS/UEFI setup program and check the existing boot order settings. If they are in the wrong order, reconfigure them to ensure the usual boot device is listed first in the list and then restart the computer. There is no need to unplug the external hard disks since you can simply change the boot order in the BIOS. The F8 key will allow the user to choose to boot into Windows in regular or safe mode. This worked by default in Windows 7, 8, and 8.1, but need to be enabled before it will work in Windows 10. The technician cannot configure the boot order in Windows without first booting into Windows from the hard drive, so the technician would still need to reconfigure the boot order in the BIOS/UEFI first.

What type of Virtual Desktop should be chosen to reduce capital expenditures and have the hardware maintained by the cloud service provider? Remote hosted virtual desktops Local hosted virtual desktops Local virtual appliances Remote virtual appliances

Remote hosted virtual desktops OBJ 4.1 - A remote hosted virtual desktop (HVD) is a full, thick-client user environment run as a virtual machine (VM) on a server and accessed remotely. Using a hosted virtual desktop allows a company to utilize the cloud for its desktop infrastructure, reduce its maintenance cost, and shift capital expenses (such as new desktops) to operational expenses (monthly fees to pay for virtual desktop services). Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

Your friend just gave you his old laptop. Whenever you turn on the laptop, though, a blank screen appears and asks you to enter an administrative password before the computer attempts to boot up. Unfortunately, your friend never gave you the password for this laptop. Which of the following actions should you take to resolve this issue and get past this password screen? Remove the CMOS battery, wait a few minutes, reinsert the battery, then power on the laptop Press and hold the power button down for a few minutes, then attempt to power on the laptop Disconnect the hard drive from the motherboard for a few minutes, reconnect it, and then power on the laptop Remove the laptop's battery, wait a few minutes, reinsert the battery, and then power on the laptop

Remove the CMOS battery, wait a few minutes, reinsert the battery, then power on the laptop OBJ 5.2 - This blank screen asking for the administrative password appears to be a BIOS password required to be entered before the laptop is allowed to boot from the hard disk. Your best option is to clear the CMOS forcibly to remove the BIOS password from a workstation or laptop. To clear the CMOS, you must remove the CMOS battery from your computer, wait a few minutes, reinsert the CMOS battery, and then attempt to power on the computer again. This will cause the information stored in the CMOS (for example, BIOS settings and passwords) to be erased and restored to its default configuration. Removing and reinserting the laptop's battery will not reset the BIOS password. Disconnecting and reconnecting the hard drive will not reset the BIOS password.

Which of the following devices could be used to extend transmissions of a signal over longer distances by receiving and retransmitting a given signal at the lowest cost? Switch Repeater Router Firewall

Repeater OBJ 2.2 - A repeater is an electronic device that receives a signal and retransmits it. Repeaters are used to extend transmissions so that the signal can cover longer distances or be received on the other side of an obstruction. Repeaters may be wired or wireless, and they rebroadcast whatever signal is received through their transmitter. A firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. A firewall typically establishes a barrier between a trusted internal network and an untrusted external network, such as the internet. A switch is a network device that receives incoming data into a buffer, then the destination MAC address is compared with an address table so that data is only sent out to the port with the corresponding MAC address. In a switched network, each port is in a separate collision domain. A router is a network device that links dissimilar networks and can support multiple alternate paths between locations based upon the parameters of speed, traffic loads, and cost. Routers are used to logically divide networks into subnets.

A client contacts the service desk because their laptop will not charge when plugged in. The client states that the laptop runs properly while connected to the wall outlet, but if they unplug it, then the laptop immediately powers off. Which of the following do you recommend to solve this issue? Replace the battery Replace the power adapter Connect the laptop to a 220v outlet Replace the DC jack

Replace the battery OBJ 5.5 - This scenario indicates a defective or failed battery. Since the battery will not charge, but the laptop can stay on while connected to the wall outlet, this indicates it is not an issue with the DC jack, the power adapter, or the wall outlet.

You are working as a technician for a college. One of the professors has submitted a trouble ticket stating that the projector connected to the workstation in his classroom displays artifacts on the screen. The image is displayed on the screen is bright and appears to be displayed with the right size and in the right position, but the artifacts are obscuring certain portions of the image. What is the FIRST thing you should do to remove the artifacts from being displayed on the screen? Increase the contrast on the projector Replace the bulb in the projector Update the video driver on the workstation Modify the workstation's video resolution

Replace the bulb in the projector OBJ 5.4 - Visual artifacts displayed on the screen are often caused by a projector bulb near its end of life or if the projector bulb is defective. Therefore, you should attempt to replace the bulb in the projector to see if this solves the visual artifact issues described in this question. Changing the contrast would increase or decrease the brightness of the image, but it wouldn't remove the artifacts. The video driver on the workstation and the resolution would affect the entire image, not just a small portion of it containing the artifacts.

USB connector Reset jumper Audio connector Fan power

Reset jumper OBJ 3.4 - The area circled indicates the reset jumper on this motherboard. A reset jumper is a small plastic block with a metal connection inside. To reset the motherboard's BIOS, you would connect the jumper over this area to make an electrical connection between the two pins. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

A client states that their computer is experiencing slow performance when reading or writing to the hard drive. You have already verified that it is not a system (software) performance issue, and the system is not overheating. Which of the following would be the BEST action to take in attempting to fix this problem? Run the disk repair tool Backup the hard drive Clean the cooling fans of the system Upgrade the memory of the system

Run the disk repair tool OBJ 5.3 - Slow performance can be a symptom of overheating or other problems. Since we eliminated overheating as the cause, the issue is most likely caused by a file system problem. To fix this problem, you should try running the disk repair tool or run the Disk Defragmenter tool (for non-SSD devices) to optimize the file system and read/write performance. Since there are no grinding or clicking sounds being observed, it is unlikely that the hard drive will fail soon making backing up the hard drive a lower priority. The system cooling fans are not the issue otherwise the system would be overheating.

Which of the following network types would be used to create a dedicated, independent high-speed network to interconnect and share pools of storage devices to multiple servers? SAN WLAN WAN MAN

SAN OBJ 2.7 - A storage area network (SAN) is a dedicated, independent high-speed network that interconnects and delivers shared pools of storage devices to multiple servers. A storage area network often uses Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE), Fibre Channel, or Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) connections to achieve the speeds necessary to support SAN operations. A wireless LAN (WLAN) connects computers within a small and specific geographical area using the 802.11 protocols for their wireless connections. A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a computer network that interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic region of the size of a metropolitan or city area. A wide area network (WAN) is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. Wide area networks are often established with leased telecommunication circuits.

You have been asked to set up the corporate email on several mobile devices for Dion Training's employees. The employees will use their mobile devices to send their emails when out of the office. Which of the following mail protocols should you configure to allow the employees to send their mail? SMTP HTTPS POP3 IMAP

SMTP OBJ 1.4 - You should configure SMTP since it is the only protocol used to send emails. POP3 and IMAP are used to receive emails. HTTPS is used for web browsing, not for receiving emails. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.

Natalie has been asked to install an extra 8 GB of RAM into an employee's laptop. Which type of module should she select? SDRAM DIMM SODIMM RAMBUS

SODIMM OBJ 1.1 - Laptops and integrated PCs usually use SODIMM memory due to the memory module's smaller footprint. A small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) can be purchased in various types and sizes to fit any laptop, router, or other small form factor computing device. For the exam, if you are ever asked about installing memory in a small form factor device or a laptop, the answer will usually be SODIMM. A dual in-line memory module (DIMM) comprises a series of dynamic random-access memory integrated circuits. A DIMM is used in workstations and printers due to its larger size and shape. SDRAM (synchronous DRAM) is a generic name for various kinds of dynamic random access memory (DRAM) that are synchronized with the clock speed that the microprocessor is optimized for. This tends to increase the number of instructions that the processor can perform at a time. Rambus dynamic random access memory (RDRAM) is a memory subsystem designed to transfer data at faster rates. RDAM is made up of random access memory (RAM), a RAM controller, and a bus path that connects RAM to microprocessors and other PC devices. Rambus has not been used for several years and is considered a legacy technology.

A network technician has been asked to make the connections necessary to add video transported via fiber optics to the LAN within a building. There will be one fiber connector for the Tx port and another connector for the Rx port. Which of the following type of connectors should be used to connect the fiber optic cables? MTRJ RJ-45 ST RJ-11

ST OBJ 3.1 - Straight Tip (ST) fiber connections are commonly used in fiber optic connections in LAN networking applications. MTRJ is commonly used to connect fiber optic cables to a switch or router, but it uses a single connector that houses the Tx and Rx connections. RJ-45 is used by twisted-pair copper cables for local area network and ethernet connections. RJ-11 is used by twisted-pair copper cables for telephone applications.

You have signed up for a web-based appointment scheduling application to help you manage your new IT technical support business. What type of solution would this be categorized as? DaaS IaaS PaaS SaaS

SaaS OBJ 4.1 - Software as a Service (SaaS) is ca loud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center.

You have just been hired as a consultant for the Navy to select the best form of internet connection for a ship crossing the Atlantic Ocean. The ship must remain connected to the internet for the entire duration of its voyage. Which of the following types of connections do you recommend? Satellite Fiber Cable Cellular

Satellite OBJ 2.7 - Satellite systems provide far bigger areas of coverage than can be achieved using other technologies. A Very Small Aperture Terminal (VSAT) microwave antenna is aligned to an orbital satellite that can either relay signals between sites directly or via another satellite. While satellite internet does have some latency issues, it is the only option that will provide coverage while crossing the ocean. Cable and fiber cannot be used since you cannot keep the ship plugged in and drag the cable behind you. Cellular won't work once you get further than about 5 miles from the coastline due to the lack of cellular towers.

Several users at an adjacent office building report intermittent connectivity issues after a new flag pole was installed between the two offices. The network technician has determined the adjacent office building is connected to the main office building via an 802.11ac bridge. The network technician logs into the AP and confirms the SSID, encryption, and channels are all correct. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of this issue? Bandwidth saturation Incorrect antenna type DHCP exhaustion Signal attneuation

Signal attenuation OBJ 5.7 - The most likely reason is signal attenuation from the new flag being placed between the signal path which may be obstructing the line-of-sight between the antennas. Based on where the flag is precisely located, it is possible to only block the signal when the wind is blowing in a certain direction. This would lead to the intermittent connectivity experienced by the users caused by the signal attenuation when the flag is blocking the communication path between the antennas. DHCP exhaustion occurs when the DHCP server runs out of available IP addresses and stops issuing DHCP bindings. If DHCP exhaustion occurred, the users would not have received an IP address and they would have no connectivity instead of intermittent connectivity. The question does not mention anything about the antennas being moved or replaced recently, so it is unlikely to be an issue with the antennas since they worked previously with the same wireless network and distanced. Bandwidth saturation occurs if too many devices are on one WAN link, but nothing in the question indicates that more users have been added and causing an issue.

You are configuring a print server on the network. Which type of IP address should you configure it with? APIPA Link-local Static Dynamic

Static OBJ 2.5 - A static IP address should be used for servers to ensure they are easy to find, access, and manage on the network. When configuring a static IP address, you need to include the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server's IP address. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly. A dynamic IP address is configured automatically by a DHCP server when a new host joins the network. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. An APIPA address is also known as a link-local address.

Jason's laptop is having some issues when he is typing. He opened a Word document and attempted to type "The quick brown fox jumped over the lazy dog," but the screen displayed "Theqickbrwnfxjmpedverthelazydg" instead. It appears the O, U, and space bar are not functioning. What is most likely the issue? Defective backlight Incorrect keyboard drivers Stuck keys on the laptop Sticky keys are enabled

Stuck keys on the laptop OBJ 5.5 - Based on the keyboard only acting incorrectly with a few keys, it is likely the keyboard has some stuck keys caused by dirt or debris. If crumbs get under a key, it will cause it not to work properly. Due to the large size of the space bar key, it is often the first key to get stuck. To fix this, you should hold the laptop at a 90-degree angle to the desk and spray compressed air under the keys while rapidly clicking the stuck key to dislodge any dirt or debris. Stuck keys are different than sticky keys, though. Sticky keys are a Windows function that ignores a certain key is pressed and held for too long, such as the shift key being held down for 10 seconds. Whether working or defective, the backlight would not affect the keyboard typing and displaying the right keys to the screen. A keyboard's drivers would usually affect special keys (like volume or brightness), not standard keys like letters or the space bar.

A salesperson wants to set up their laptop to ensure that files can be reached anywhere they travel for business. They want to access the file both on their laptop and through a web browser using the company's cloud file sharing platform. Which of the following applications should be installed on their laptop to meet this requirement? Synchronization application Antivirus software An emulator Virtual box

Synchronization application OBJ 4.1 - Using a synchronization app can allow the files to be stored on both the laptop and the cloud service while maintaining the latest versions in both places. This allows a user to synchronize content between all of their own devices as well as share their cloud storage content with other users. Multiple users can simultaneously access the content to work collaboratively, or they can access it at different times. Each user's changes are typically marked with a flag or color highlighting to indicate who made changes to what content.

Which of the following wiring standards should be used when installing ethernet cabling in an office or data center? RS-232 RG-6 RJ-11 T-568 B

T-568B OBJ 3.1 - The T568A and T568B standards are used when installing ethernet cabling. If both ends of the cable use T568A, the cable being created is called a straight-through or patch cable. If one end of the cable is T568A and the other is T568B, then the cable is called a crossover cable. By default, the Department of Defense uses T568A writing on both ends of a cable, and most other organizations use the ANSI/TIA/EIA standards that use T568B on both ends of the cable. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines. A DB-9 connector is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet.

Which of the following is the third step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology? Identify the problem Test the theory to determine the cause Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution Document findings, actions, and outcomes

Test the theory to determine the cause OBJ 5.1 - For the exam, it is important that you are able to list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

You are working as a network technician and have been asked to troubleshoot an issue with a workstation. You have just established a theory of probable cause. Which of the following steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology should you perform NEXT? Test the theory to determine the cause Verify full system functionality Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem Identify the problem

Test the theory to determine the cause OBJ 5.1 - The next step would be to "test the theory to determine the cause" since you just finished the "establish a theory of probable cause" step. The troubleshooting steps are to (1) Identify the problem, (2) Establish a theory of probable cause, (3) Test the theory to determine the cause, (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects, (5) Implement the solution or escalate as necessary, (6) Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures, and (7) Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned.

Jason left his smartphone in his car while running into a convenience store to grab a cold drink on a sunny day. When he got back to the car, his smartphone would not turn on. Which of the following issues most likely occurred? The digitizer is broken The smartphone is overheated The battery is depleted The smartphone has no connectivity

The smartphone is overheated OBJ 5.5 - Smartphones are designed to operate between 32 and 95 degrees Fahrenheit (0 to 35 degrees Celsius). If a smartphone is left in a car on a sunny day, it is likely to become overheated and shut down until it returns to a normal temperature range. If this occurs, the smartphone should remain off until it cools down to the normal range.

You are troubleshooting a network connection issue between the wall jack in a user's office and the switch in the communications closet. When you plug a network cable into the wall jack, there is no connection. You check the switch in the communications closet to determine if the wall jack is properly connected to the switch. Unfortunately, none of the cables in the communication closet are labeled. Which of the following tools should you use to determine which cable in the communications closet is connected to the wall jack in the user's office since none of the cables are properly labeled? Tone generator and probe Multimeter Punchdown tool Loopback plug

Tone generator and probe OBJ 2.8 - A tone generator is connected to a wall jack and sends a repeating signal over the cable. The probe can then be used to detect which cable is attached to the wall jack by detecting the signal being sent by the tone generator. The probe needs to be near or touch the cable with the tone generator attached to identify it positively. While a multimeter could be used (in resistance mode) to determine if two ends of a cable are attached to the same cable, the distance between the user's office and the communication closet would prevent a multimeter from being used in this case. A tone generator is connected to a wall jack and sends a repeating signal over the cable. The probe can then be used to detect which cable is attached to the wall jack by detecting the signal being sent by the tone generator. The probe needs to be near or touch the cable with the tone generator attached to identify it positively. Punchdown tools are used to connect an ethernet cable to the back of a patch panel, a punchdown block, or the back of a network wall jack.

What is the MOST common connector type used when connecting a USB cable to the back of a printer? Mini-USB Type B Type A Micro-USB

Type B OBJ 3.1 - The most common USB connector used to connect to a printer is USB Type B. This connector has a large square-shaped male connector that is connected to the rear of the printer. A USB Type A connector is often used to connect to the workstation or computer itself. This question specifically asked which connector is being attached to the printer. Micro USB is a miniaturized version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) interface developed for connecting compact and mobile devices such as smartphones, MP3 players, GPS devices, and digital cameras. Mini USB was introduced with USB 2.0 and was used with digital cameras and early tablets.

Which of the following types of USB connections can support data rates of up to 12 Mbps? USB 3.0 USB 2.0 USB 1.1 USB 3.1

USB 1.1 OBJ 3.1 - USB 1.1 can support data rates up to 12 Mbps. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.

Which version of USB can operate at speeds of up to 5 Gbps? USB 2 USB 1.1 USB 1.0 USB 3

USB 3 OBJ 3.1 - USB 3 can support speeds of up to 5 Gbps. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at the slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power

What type of connector can be inserted into the port in either direction without damaging the port? USB Type B USB Type A FireWire USB Type C

USB Type C OBJ 3.1 - A USB Type C (USB-C) is a 24-pin USB connector with a rotational symmetrical connector, which means it can be plugged into the port in either direction. USB-C makes it easier and more convenient to plug into a USB-C female port than previous versions like Type A and Type B. FireWire and USB Type B use a d-shaped connector that can only be inserted in one direction. USB Type A uses a rectangular connector with a protrusion on one half of the connector to force insertion in only one direction.

You have just installed a new hard disk drive into your computer, but the motherboard does not recognize it within the BIOS/UEFI. You have verified the drive is properly connected to the motherboard and the power supply with the correct cables, but it still is not recognized. Which of the following actions would BEST solve this problem? Update the firmware of the motherboard Format the new hard drive as NTFS Format the new hard drive as FAT-32 Configure a RAID in the BIOS/UEFI

Update the firmware of the motherboard OBJ 5.3 - This type of error (drive not recognized) is usually the result of the motherboard's firmware not supporting a newer hard drive model or the cables not being properly connected. Since we already established that the cables were properly connected, we have to consider the firmware as the issue. To troubleshoot this issue, you should restart the computer and enter the BIOS/UEFI configuration. If the BIOS/UEFI does not recognize the hard drive, then the motherboard's firmware will need to be updated. If the BIOS/UEFI cannot detect the hard drive, then the operating system cannot detect the drive either (since it relies on the underlying BIOS/UEFI to make the connection). This means that you cannot format the hard drive or configure a RAID.

Susan, an executive at Dion Training, will be traveling to Italy for a conference next week. She is worried about remaining connected to the internet while overseas and plans to use the Wi-Fi in her hotel room and the local coffee shop with her laptop. Which of the following should she purchase and configure before leaving for Italy to ensure her communications remain secure regardless of where she is connecting from? Local mobile hotspot International data roaming data on her cellphone Local SIM card for her smartphone VPN

VPN OBJ 2.6 - While Wi-Fi is available almost everywhere these days, it is not safe to use it without first configuring and using a VPN. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) connects the components and resources of two (private) networks over another (public) network. This utilizes an encryption tunnel to protect data being transferred to and from her laptop to the Dion Training servers and other websites. The other options are all focused on connecting her cellphone but would still not be considered safe without a VPN being utilized. A local mobile hotspot should be used to provide internet connectivity to the laptop (if she uses this instead of the hotel and coffee shop Wi-Fi). Still, for best security, it should also use a VPN when using this connection.

Previously, the library only had a small wired network that relied on statically assigned IP addresses. You just finished installing all of the wireless access points. You configured a server to automatically provide an IP address to wireless clients when connecting to one of the wireless access points. To test the new wireless network, you turn on your wireless adapter on your laptop and connect to the network. Your laptop is automatically assigned an IP address of 192.168.1.12 from the DHCP server, and you can ping the default gateway of 192.168.1.1. You open a web browser and attempt to connect to diontraining.com, but you cannot connect and instead receive an error. You attempt to ping the IP address for the Google DNS server (8.8.8.8) and are successful. Which of the following should you attempt to do NEXT to resolve this issue?

Verify that the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server OBJ 5.7 - Since you are already connected to the wireless network and can ping the gateway using its IP address, you already know the SSID and DHCP are properly configured (therefore, you should not select these options). It is a poor security practice to disable the firewall, so it is not recommended that you choose this option. Since we cannot access a website using its domain name (diontraining.com), we can successfully ping a remote server using its IP address (8.8.8.8). This indicates that your laptop has not been properly assigned a DNS server to use by the DHCP server. Therefore, you need to verify the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server to the clients when it assigned them their IP address configuration information.

A military contracting firm is worried about proprietary corporate information being removed from the company's network. To combat this, they have created strict rules regarding what types of information can leave their office building. Unfortunately, your solution will require that the workstation be taken back to your off-site repair shop to solve the workstation's problems fully. What is the NEXT thing you should do to fix this workstation? Remove the internal hard disk drive and then take the workstation with you to your repair shop to fix it Format the hard drive of the workstation to delete all proprietary data before taking the workstation to your repair shop Ask the employee who usually works on the workstation if you can take it to your repair shop Verify the contracting firm's corporate polices regarding the removal of a workstation for repairs

Verify the contracting firm's corporate polices regarding the removal of a workstation for repairs OBJ 5.1 - You should always verify the company's corporate policies you are working with for any specialized procedures or requirements involved when you are asked to work on a machine containing proprietary information. Based on their corporate policies, they may require you to remove the hard drive, delete the information on the hard drive, or follow other technical or administrative procedures before you can remove the workstation from their facility. It is not simply enough to ask the employee who normally works on that computer since they may not be authorized to make that decision (based on their corporate policies).

Dion Training's multifunction laser printer recently had a paper jam. An employee pulled the paper out of the rollers to clear the jam. Unfortunately, the device still has a paper jam error displayed on the screen and will not print. You have been called to fix this issue. Which of the following should you attempt FIRST? Update the drivers on the print server Replace the toner cartridge Replace the pickup rollers Verify the paper path and its sensors are not blocked

Verify the paper path and its sensors are not blocked OBJ 5.6 - Often, employees will pull the jammed paper out of a printer to clear a paper jam. This can lead to small bits of paper being left in the path or in front of a blockage sensor. As a technician, you should always check the entire path is clear and the sensors are not blocked first if the printer claims there is a paper jam as this is the most likely cause of a continued paper jam error.

Which of the following resources is used by virtual machines to communicate with other virtual machines on the same network but prevents them from communicating with resources on the internet? Virtual external network Virtual internal network DNS Network address translation

Virtual internal network OBJ 4.2 - Most virtual machines running on a workstation will have their own virtual internal network to communicate within the virtual environment while preventing them from communicating with the outside world. You may also configure a shared network address for the virtual machine to have the same IP address as the physical host that it is running on. This usually relies on network address translation to communicate from the virtual environment (inside) to the physical world (outside/internet). If you are communicating internally in the virtual network, there is no need for DNS or an external network.

Which of the following types of memory relies on temporary storage space on the hard drive that is used when there is insufficient physical memory available to perform a given task? SODIMM VRAM ECC Virtual memory

Virtual memory OBJ 3.2 - Virtual memory is an area on the hard disk allocated to contain pages of memory. When the operating system doesn't have sufficient physical memory (RAM) to perform a task, pages of memory are swapped to the paging file. This frees physical RAM to enable the task to be completed. When the paged RAM is needed again, it is re-read into memory. VRAM (video RAM) refers to any type of random access memory (RAM) specifically used to store image data for a computer display. A small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) can be purchased in various types and sizes to fit any laptop, router, or other small form factor computing device. Error checking and correcting or error correcting code (ECC) is a type of system memory that has built-in error correction security. ECC is more expensive than normal memory and requires support from the motherboard. ECC is commonly used in production servers and not in standard desktops or laptops.

Dion Training's office is outside of the service area for traditional business internet connectivity. Jason wants to ensure the office has a 1 Gbps connection to the office with under 10 ms of latency. To achieve this, he ordered a business class microwave service. Which of the following types of internet connection types did he order? DSL Cable Fiber WISP

WISP OBJ 2.7 - A wireless internet service provider (WISP) provides microwave and cellular connections to businesses using line of sight (LOS) technologies. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user's home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network's high bandwidth. "Fiber to the X" (FTTx) is commonly used to describe where the fiber connection ends between the service and the subscriber. The closer the fiber is to the user's network, the faster the service. FTTH (fiber to the house) provides fiber directly to the user's home network making it the fastest option. Traditionally, you will find a 1 Gbps connection or higher with FTTH. FTTN (fiber to the node) or FTTC (fiber to the curb/cabinet) provides fiber only to the local area or neighborhood but then uses copper cabling from the node/cabinet/curb to the home network, which slows down the network (generally, 100-200 Mbps). HFC (Hybrid Fiber Coax) is similar to FTTN/FTTC, except that coaxial cable is used from the cabinet to the home to increase the speed (generally 300-500 Mbps).

A computer technician is replacing a failed power supply in a customer's gaming workstation that contains multiple hard drives and a dedicated graphics card. Which of the following are the two most important things for the technician to consider when selecting a power supply replacement for this system? (Select TWO) Number and type of connectors Wattage rating Dual voltage Dual rail

Wattage rating Dual rail

Which of the following technologies could be used in an unlicensed long-range fixed wireless system? Bluetooth Cellular Wi-Fi NFC

Wi-Fi OBJ 2.3 - Long-range fixed wireless can be licensed or unlicensed depending on the frequencies and power levels being utilized. For example, an 802.11 wireless network could be established using a directional antenna to connect two buildings over several miles using unlicensed frequencies and minimal power levels (under 200 mW) which are under the FCC limits. Alternatively, a microwave link can be established in the 4.91 GHz to 5.97 GHz unlicensed frequency range using a point-to-multipoint microwave antenna and transceiver system. Conversely, a user could purchase a licensed cellular fixed wireless system that requires a license from the FCC to operate to ensure they are not interfering with other users and services in the same frequency band.

Which of the following is a proprietary wireless communication protocol operating in the 800 MHz to 900 MHz frequency band and is primarily used for home automation? Zigbee NFC Bluetooth Z-Wave

Z-Wave OBJ 2.4 - Z-Wave is a wireless communications protocol used primarily for home automation. Z-Wave creates a mesh network topology, using low-energy radio waves to communicate from one appliance to another. Devices can be configured to work as repeaters to extend the network but there is a limit of four hops between a controller device and an endpoint. This allows for wireless control of residential appliances and other devices, such as lighting control, security systems, thermostats, windows, locks, swimming pools, and garage door openers. Zigbee is a low-power wireless communications open-source protocol used primarily for home automation. Zigbee uses radio frequencies in the 2.4 GHz band and a mesh topology. Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices.