Quizzes Learning and Memory

The amygdala consists of many subnuclei but only neurons in the central amygdala are critical for memory modulation.

False

The amygdala is responsible for place-learning memories and it modulates epinephrine's effects in other brain storage sites.

False

The antisense methodology allows researchers to directly prevent transcription

False

The brain has specialized systems to store the different kind of memories, but the content of our experience does not matter to the brain.

False

The concept of consolidation is supported by the fact that old events are more vulnerable to disruption than new memories.

False

The consolidation period ends when the memory trace is no longer vulnerable to the disruption of ZIP.

False

The field electrode directly measures synaptic depolarization.

False

The in vitro preparation measures LTP in the intact animal.

False

The initial potentiation of a synapse requires that cofilin must be phosphorylated and actin filaments are cross-linked

False

The intracellular fluid loses positive ions when the neuron depolarizes.

False

The mTOR-TOP pathway is critical for the induction of LTP

False

The mTORC2 complex regulates protein synthesis but the mTORC1 complex regulates actin polymerization.

False

The recording electrode detects a single depolarizing synapse.

False

The reticulum theory is part of the neuron doctrine.

False

The sea slug Aplysia was used to study memory because of its vast neuronal networks and the richness of its memories.

False

The strength of the memory trace can be modified many hours after its formation.

False

The synaptic hypothesis assumes that synaptic strength can be decreased only by experience.

False

Ubiquitin molecules degrade protein

False

Under optimal conditions the enlargement actin pool will never exit the spine

False

When the neuron hypepolarizes the membrane potential becomes more positive.

False

When using antisense ODNs to block CREB translation, the antisense remains present at the injection site for days causing LTM to be impaired.

False

Working memory cannot be studied in animals, because they cannot communicate what problems they are trying to solve

False

ZIP erases established memories even at 25 days old and prevents the acquisition of new ones.

False

ZIP will erase taste-aversion memories only if injected at a specific time after acquisition.

False

What does the extracellular electrode record?

Field EPSP-positive ions leaving the recording field

What is the simple form of an LTP experiment?

First, a weak stimulus is applied to establish a baseline. Then a strong inducing stimulus is presented. The weak stimulus is then represented again.

What is the importance of NMDA receptors?

Glutamate must be able to bind to NMDA receptors for LTP to be induced

__ is the phenomenon in which the magnitude of a response decreases with repeated stimulation.

Habituation

What were the primary regions that were remove from H.M.'s brain?

He had his medial temporal lobes removed, including the hippocampus, amygdala, and some of the surrounding regions of the underlying neocortex (perirhinal cortex and parahippocampus).

What was Richard Morris' experiment? What was he trying to study?

He implanted a cannula to deliver NMDA receptor antagonist APV into the ventricular system of a rat where it would enter the CSF. He was testing the hypothesis that the initial formation of a memory trace depends on the activation of NMDA receptors

Who reported the first forgetting curve?

Herman Ebbinghaus

What are memory modulators?

Hormonal and other neural systems that are not part of the storage system, but they can influence the synapses that store the memory.

What do the concepts of learning and memory explain?

How behavior is changed by experience.

If a drug impaired performance at both the short and long retention intervals, it is possible that it interfered with what?

How the animal normally sampled the environment.

Erasing memories that associate environmental cues with taking a drug, such as cocaine, can prevent cravings and relapse.

True

Eric Kandel was successful at locating the site of a memory trace.

True

Extrasynaptic receptors are more mobile than those in the PSD.

True

Four hours after LTP is induced it can no longer be reversed by disrupting protein synthesis, transcription, the BDNF-TrkB pathway, or the translation of Arc into protein

True

Glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter

True

In older rats, the liver no longer releases glucose in response to epinephrine.

True

In order for synaptic vesicle to dock calcium must enter the presynaptic terminal.

True

Integrin receptors are activated during stabilization and they respond to molecules in the EC matrix

True

Ionotropic receptors protrude outside and inside the cell.

True

It is safe to conclude that C/EBPβ-protein-dependent processes operate at least 24 hours following training.

True

Learning and memory are theoretical concepts.

True

Limited retrograde amnesia produced by a concussion likely affects only memories in the active state

True

Memories in the active state are more vulnerable to disruption than memories in the inactive state

True

Memories in the active state decay more rapidly than memories in the inactive state

True

Memory formation can take place without the contribution of NMDA receptors

True

Morris used genetically engineered mice in the first study investigating the role of NMDA receptors in memory formation

True

According to multiple trace theory, the more often a memory is ___ the more indexes there are to represent it in the hippocampus.

recalled

The ___ tasks require the subject to make a judgment about whether something has previously occurred.

recognition memory

According to ___ theory anisomycin itself does not disrupt the memory trace.

reconsolidation

Allowing the monkey to eat either all the peanuts or all the grapes it wants ___ the value of ___

reduces; one of the rewards

In the radial arm maze methodology, if a rat revisits an arm that was never baited, it is making a ___ error

reference memory

The competing memory hypothesis assumes that the original CS-US association ___ and instead a new association, called a CS-noUS association , is produced.

remains intact

In the soma-to-nucleus cascade ___ are assumed to open ___

repetitive action potentials; voltage-dependent calcium channels (vdCCs)

Rats with damage to the habit system would adapt more rapidly to a discrimination reversal than rats with damage to the action system rats.

true

Recollection includes content that is supported by the episodic memory system, but familiarity does not.

true

Reward devaluation will not influence the behavior if it is controlled by the habit system.

true

Rodents can acquire a representation of a context that can be activated by a subset of the features that make up the episode.

true

Sensory information is most abstract and fully integrated at the hippocampus level.

true

Systems consolidation theory does not assume that repeated recall or repetition contributes to the memory becoming independent of the hippocampus.

true

The ITC-b cluster normally inhibits central amygdala neurons.

true

The cortical pathway provides richer representation of the experience compared to the subcortical pathway.

true

The episodic memory system must be critically involved in both the storage and retrieval of contextual information.

true

The fundamental outcome produced by extinction training is to change synaptic connections that will increase inhibitory control over neurons in the central amygdala.

true

The hippocampus automatically captures information including unintentional, incidental information.

true

The hippocampus provides an index for memory traces in other brain regions.

true

The neurotransmitter GABA released by ITCs prevents defensive behaviors.

true

The periaqueductal gray (PAG) produce freezing and analgesia.

true

The striatum is a part of the basal ganglia.

true

The subiculum is a part of the medial temporal hippocampal system.

true

The subiculum is the output region of the medial temporal hippocampus system.

true

To generate fear behavior the neurons in the central amygdala must be depolarized.

true

Tolman believed that instrumental behaviors are purposeful and organized around goals.

true

Tolman's theory placed a heavy emphasis on the value of the outcome produced by an instrumental behavior.

true

fMRI studies appear to support multiple trace theory and provide almost no evidence for the standard model.

true

Neutralizing the response of β integrins to extracellular ligands prevents enduring LTP normally produced by TBS, but it has no effect on the initial induction of LTP.

True

PKA inhibitors can block the development of long-lasting LTP.

True

PKA, PKC, and CaMKII are activated by calcium, a second messenger.

True

PKMz is perpetually active and it self perpetuates

True

PKMζ can enhance already established memories.

True

Pavlovian conditioning provides evidence that the brain learns to associate the occurance of the CS and the US.

True

Second messengers can be quickly synthesized

True

Short-lasting LTP normally produced by a weak induction stimulus can be converted into a long-lasting LTP if the weak stimulus is followed by antidromic stimulation.

True

Stabilization processes require about 15 minutes to complete

True

Stimulating the vagus nerve following inhibitory avoidance training can enhance the memory.

True

The amygdala consists of many subnuclei but only neurons in the BLA are critical for memory modulation.

True

The brain treats a reactivated memory as a novel experience, so it is modified/updated according to the new context.

True

The consolidation period ends when the memory trace is no longer vulnerable to the disruption of transcription and translation processes.

True

The details that make up an episode and the impact of the experience are stored in different brain regions.

True

The effect of anisomycin depends on the interval between training and the injection

True

The endocytotic zone is in close proximity to the PSD.

True

The formation of a memory trace begins when a behavioral experience activates a neuronal ensemble that represents the experience

True

The in vivo preparation measures LTP in the intact animal but the in vitro preparation measures LTP in brain slices.

True

The inducing stimulus initiates translation processes to generate new protein.

True

The ionic composition of the intracellular and extracellular fluid become more alike when the neuron depolarizes.

True

The loss of anchoring scaffolding protein, such as PSD-95, plays a role in the disruption of reactivated memories.

True

The mTORC1 complex regulates protein synthesis but the mTORC2 complex regulates actin polymerization.

True

The patient in Claparède's experiment didn't want to shake hands again.

True

Thorndikian conditioning provides evidence that animals learn to adapt their response based on the results of their actions.

True

To produce mRNA, signaling molecules enter the nucleus to phosphorylate transcription factors.

True

To rule out the possibility that a drug interferes with the way the animal normally samples the environment the drug should be administered immediately after training.

True

Transcription and translation inhibitors do not influence the initial generation and stabilization of LTP

True

Transcription and translation processes that support enduring memory traces take place over at least 24 hours.

True

When cofilin is phosphorylated, F-actin is more likely to remain in its filament state.

True

In animals, ___ provides the most useful paradigm to investigate the role of the hippocampus in new and old memories.

contextual fear conditioning

The episodic memory system must be critically involved in both the storage and retrieval of ___

contextual information

The feeling of remembering a retrieved memory trace depends on ___

contextual information

What is the dependent variable in inhibitory avoidance conditioning?

crossover latency

Thorndike believed that instrumental behaviors are purposeful and organized around goals.

false

When the membrane potential becomes more negative, the neuron is said to be

hyperpolarized

If propranolol is injected into the amygdala following place-learning task, the rat's memory for the platform location will be ___

impaired

The phosphorylation of CREB is ___ in old rats

impaired

In old rats ___ CREB phosphorylation is likely due to ___ glucose release in response to ___

impaired; reduced; training

Where in the neural circuit does the second level of integration take place?

in the entorhinal cortex

Activating PKA in the BLA following presentations of only the CS caused the fear response to ___

increase

The release of glutamate coupled with spike timing resulted in ___ for the duration of the experiment

increased spike size

What are the differences between mTORC1 mTORC2?

mTORC1 is sensitive to rapamycin and regulates protein synthesis: mTORC2 and it is insensitive to rapamycin and regulates actin polymerization.

The ___ pathway facilitates interactions between ribosomes and mRNAs and enables local translation of other mRNAs

mTOR

The spatial learning version of the water-escape task was developed to study how animals acquire ___ of their environments

map-like representations

In the case of Henry Malaison, the ___ were bilaterally removed.

medial temporal lobes

What is procedural memory?

memories that support learned skills (such as bike riding or skiing)

The ventral tegmental area is part of the ___ system

mesolimbic dopamine

Which brain structures are responsible for generating fear behaviors?

midbrain subcortical nuclei

___ are responsible for generating fear behaviors.

midbrain subcortical nuclei

Older memories have more copies of the index in the hippocampus than younger memories because ___

older memories have been reactivated more often than newer memories

LTP3 is produced when strong stimulation repeatedly ___ in the ___

opens vdCCs; soma

In its active state, LIMK ___ cofilin

Phosphorylates

Epinephrine is not found in neurons.

True

Where are glutamate receptors found?

along the membrane of dendritic spines

An immediate physical manifestation from Ca+ influx is

an enlarged spine head

Semantic memory is sometimes said to be free of ___

context

GluA1 KO mice display ___ and have impaired ___

long-lasting LTP; working memory

Learning and memory can never be ___ but they can be ___.

observed; inferred

Extinction neurons project to ITC-b cells.

true

Protein degradation by the UPS has no effects on STM, but it disrupts the consolidation of LTM.

False

Retrieving or reactivating the memory always makes it stronger.

False

Ribot believed that once the brain is injured, memories are lost in no particular order.

False

Santiago Ramon y Cajal and Camillo Golgi agreed that nerve cells are fused/continuous.

False

Second messengers are proteins.

False

Strychnine was used to inhibit memory modulation.

False

Synaptic depolarization occurs because negatively charged ions enter the neuron.

False

TOP mRNAs are a class of mRNAs that encode for protein that have specific synaptic functions

False

The CA1KO mouse was able to display LTP in the CA1 regions but not in the dentate gyrus

False

The Ebbinghaus retention curve remains stable for one hour.

False

While many neurons receive the sensory inputs provided by the fear-conditioning experience, only about ___ of them actually become part of the memory trace.

20%

How can you tell whether the correct response is an action supported by an expectancy or a habit supported by an S-R connection?

By changing the value of the reward.

The age of a memory trace is the only determinant of its vulnerability.

False

Every functional NMDA receptor has ___ subunits

GluN1

Which receptor subunit is required to form a functional receptor?

GluN1

The Doogie mouse is genetically engineered to overexpress ___ subunits

GluN2B subunits

Excitatory synapses respond to the neurotransmitter called

Glutamate

Question 15 options: If the Shaffer collateral fibers are stimulated, synaptic depolarization would be measured in

CA1 pyramidal cells

In R.B.'s case, neuropathological assessment of his brain indicated that the pathology was restricted to primarily to the ___

CA1 region of the hippocampus

The CA3 region is connected to the ___ region by the ___

CA1 region; Schaffer collateral fibers

Where in the hippocampus are pyramidal cells found?

CA3 and CA1 region

What are three important functions of associated with dimerizing N-cadherins?

(1) Align the presynaptic release component and postsynaptic density. (2)Enhance the response to a fixed amount of glutamate released by the presynaptic neuron; (3)Contribute to increasing the durability of the synapse.

What are the two functions of the post-synaptic density?

(1) Alignment of glutamate receptors located on the postsynaptic component with the presynaptic neurotransmitter release zone. (2) Positioning of other signaling molecules needed to modify synapses near glutamate receptors so that they can be rapidly activated.

What three molecules help to immobilize AMPA receptors in the PSD?

(1) CaMKII (2) a TARP called Stargazin, (3) PSD-95 scaffold proteins.

Name the two receptors that can release calcium from the ER into the dendritic compartment. What do they bind to?

(1) IP3Rs, which respond to the second messenger IP3; (2) RyRs, which bind to calcium.

A behavioral experience can have two independent effects. What are they?

(1) It can activate specific sets of neurons that represent and store the content of the experience; (2) It can activate hormonal and other neural systems that can influence the mechanisms that store the memory.

Long-lasting LTP depends two effects of the LTP-inducing stimulus. What are they?

(1) It initiates local translation and (2) genomic signaling cascades that transcribe new mRNA that can then be translated.

What are two important sites that CaMKII phosphorylates?

(1) It phosphorylates serine (P-serine) residues on the terminal of the TARP Stargazin. (2) It phosphorylates P2 (Ser 831) on GluA1.

What are the two conditions that need to be met for Ca+ ions to flow into the neuron?

(1) Ligand binding (glutamate) (2)Synaptic depolarization

Activating four sources can increase calcium levels. What are these sources?

(1) NMDAR, (2) vdCCs, (3) RyRs, (4) IP3Rs

According to the active state theory, there are two ways a memory trace can be put into the short-term active state. What are they?

(1) Novel experiences generate new active memory traces. (2) Retrieving or reactivating existing long-term memory traces will return these traces to the short-term active state.

What evidence indicates that the hippocampus provides processes that enable pattern separation?

(1) Rats lacking a hippocampus display more generalized fear than control rats; (2) Rats with damage to the dentate gyrus couldn't differentiate between identical objects when the special distance between the two was small.

What three observations support that extinction produces new learning?

(1) Spontaneous recovery can occur when there is a long retention interval between extinction and the test. (2) Renewal can occur when the context where extinction trials take place is different from the context in which training takes place, and the test occurs in the training context. (3) Reinstatement occurs if the US is re-presented without the CS.

What two problems make storing memories in the neocortex unfavorable?

(1) The associative connectivity problem and (2) The interference problem.

What is the evidence that the UPS is involved in memory consolidation?

(1) behavioral experiences that induce lasting memories increase ubiquitination and proteasome activity; and (2) drugs that block proteasome activity also prevent long-term memory formation.

What is the evidence that Arc is important for LTM?

(1) fear conditioning was found to increase Arc mRNA and protein levels in the lateral amygdala; and (2) Arc antisense infused into the lateral amygdala impaired memory for a fear-conditioning experience when the retention interval was 24 hours but not when the interval was 3 hours.

The basal nucleus contains two types of neurons. What are they and what are their respective functions?

(1) fear neurons that are active when fear behaviors are expressed and (2) extinction neurons that are active when fear has been extinguished. Fear neurons in the basal nucleus provide excitatory projections to the central nucleus and to neurons in the prelimbic region of the prefrontal cortex. Extinction neurons project to ITC-b cells.

What are the four research strategies used to study CREB's contribution to memory?

(1) genetic deletion of CREB, (2) CREB antisense, (3) genetic overexpression of CREB, and (4) CREB selection of neurons that participate in the memory trace.

List the key events that destabilize the synaptic basis of a memory trace starting with glutamate release.

(1) glutamate released (2) calcium levels increased via NMDA receptors and vdCCs (3) ubiquitination of scaffolding proteins and activation of CaMKII (4) proteasomes are phosphorylated and translocate to the spine (5) scaffolding proteins are degraded (6) AMPA receptor endocytosis (7) de-potentiation of the synapse.

What are the two main theories of forgetting?

(1) interference theory of forgetting and (2) active decay theory

Give two reasons why the ER is important in the context of synaptic plasticity.

(1) it is a calcium sink that can rapidly sequester or store free Ca2+, and (2) it is a calcium source that can release Ca2+ in response to second messengers.

What are the two important features of the DNMS task?

(1) new objects are used on every trial; and (2) the experimenter can vary the interval between the sample and the choice trial.

What properties of the hippocampus make pattern completion possible?

(1) patterns of activity in the neocortex are represented as an index and (2) activation of the index by a subset of this pattern can retrieve the entire pattern

What gives memories functional significance?

(1) repetition, (2) recall, (3) arousal

What two major findings illustrate the important local protein synthesis plays in L-LTP?

(1) stimulation delivered to the Schaffer collateral fibers can produce a relatively long-lasting LTP in dendrites separated from the soma (2) emetine selectively delivered to the soma does not influence L-LTP

Mossy fibers connect the dentate gyrus to the

CA3 region

What are the important properties of the episodic memory system?

(1) support of conscious recollection and storage of temporal-spatial contextual information for later retrieval, (2) ability to automatically capture episodic and incidental information, and (3) ability to acquire information about an event that occurs only once, yet protect the representations it stores from interfering with each other.

Which three components of the amygdala are relevant to the fear system?

(1) the basolateral amygdala (BLA), composed of the lateral (LA ) and basal(BA ) nucleus ; (2) the central amygdala (CE); and (3) intercalated cells (ITC-a and ITC-b), which release inhibitory neurotransmitters (GABA) onto their targets.

What are the two critical assumptions in the standard model of systems consolidation?

(1) the critical interaction between the MTH system and other cortical sites is required for only a limited time after learning, and (2) the MTH system-neocortical interaction is needed only to consolidate declarative memory, but not procedural memory

Which three brain regions have been linked to the action system?

(1) the dorsomedial striatum, (2) the basolateral amygdala, and (3) the prelimbic prefrontal cortex.

Describe the order of event caused by repetitive action potentials in the soma-to-nucleus cascade.

(1) voltage-dependent calcium channels (vdCCs) open, and (2) calcium enters the soma, then (3) Calmodulin is activated by Ca2+ to (4) induce the activation of nuclear enzymes such as CaMKIV that can (5) phosphorylate CREB protein

Name the five steps through which information flows in the neural system that supports the episodic memory systems.

(1.) Association cortices to (2.) Perirhinal/parahippocampal cortex to (3.) Entorhinal cortex to (4.) Hippocampus (5.) Back to the projection areas

The entorhinal cortex does not project to: A) The hippocampus B) The neocortex C) The parahippocampus D) The perirhinal cortex E) The entorhinal cortex projects to all of the above

B

According to the synaptic tag and capture hypothesis, A) Synapses tagged by weak or strong stimuli can capture plasticity products B) Only weak stimuli produce plasticity product C) A synapse never loses its tag, but plasticity products diminish over time D) Plasticity products are trafficked from the spine into the nucleus E) Both A and B

A

What are the three pools of actin and where are they located?

1) A dynaic pool that is located in the spine head near the PSD 2) A stable pool that is located at the base of the spine in the vicinity of the spine neck 3) An enlargement pool that is observed by releasing caged glutamate onto the spine

The synaptic tag and capture hypothesis is based on three assumptions. What are they?

1) A strong stimulus (SS) both tags a synapse and generates a genomic signaling cascade that leads to transcription and translation of proteins 2) The function of the tag is to capture the protein 3) A weak stimulus (WS) will tag a synapse, but cannot generate a genomic signaling cascade

Starting with the action potention, what is the order of the events that are involved in chemical transmission at the synapse?

1) Action potential; 2) Depolarization; 3) Opening of voltage gated calcium receptors; 4) Influx of calcium; 5) Docking of synaptic vesicles; 6) Release of neurotransmitter ; 7) Binding of transmitter to receptor; 8) Opening or closing of the receptor channel; 9) Synaptic depolarization or hyperpolarization

Describe at least two ways to prevent sustained spine growth following glutamate release?

1) Applying the NMDA receptor antagonist APV to prevent the changes in actin polymerization 2) Inhibiting the TrkB receptors to prevent BDNF from activating Arc transcription 3) Applying anisomycin to prevent mRNA translation

Describe two sources of evidence that BDNF is important for memory consolidation?

1) BDNF protein levels are increased in the hippocampus by contextual fear conditioning and place learning and in the BLA by fear conditioning; (2) Interfering with BDNF function by either the BDNF scavenger TrkB-IgG or the TrkB receptor antagonist K252a impaired the development of long-term memory.

What are the functions of phosphorylation?

1) Change a protein's location 2) Change its ability to associate with other proteins 3) Change a protein's enzymatic activity

What two brain regions are critical to the acquisition and maintenance of habits?

1) Dorsolateral striatum 2) Infralimbic prefrtonal cortex

List three differences between a short-term memory trace and a long-term memory trace

1) Duration 2) State 3) Vulnerability to disruption/decay rate

What are three methods to influence brain function?

1) Experimentally damaging a particular region of the brain 2) Injecting drugs 3) Genetic engineering

What is the correct order of signal transmission in signaling cascades?

1) First messenger 2) Second messenger 3) Kinases and phosphatases

What are two likely UPS targets in the spine?

1) GluA1 AMPA receptors 2) Scaffolding proteins

List five events involved in potentiating a synapse in the correct order

1) Glutamate binds to AMPA and NMDA receptors 2) Calcium levels increase in the spine and lead to depolarization 3) The Mg+ plug is removed from NMDA receptors 4) Influx of calcium is amplified by calcium released from the ER 5) Calmodulin is modified and it activates CamKII 6) CaMKII phosphorylates the TARP stargazin 7) Stargazin binds to PSD-95 proteins to trap GluA1 receptors in the PSD 8) CaMKII phosphorylates GluA1 receptors, enabling them to influx calcium

William James proposed that memories are established in three stages. What is the correct order?

After image—Primary memory—Secondary memory

Explain the functions and the effects of the UPS system in the different compartments of the neuron

1) In the spine compartment the UPS interacts with other post-translation processes to down-regulate existing proteins and prevent hyperpotentiated synapses 2) In the dendritic compartment, protein degradation processes likely degrade new locally translated protein and thereby limit the magnitude and duration of LTP 3) In the soma, they degrade repressor proteins that prevent the transcription of mRNAs needed to consolidate the synaptic changes that support LTP

Describe the two general ways in which PKMζ maintains potentiated.

1) It facilitates the release of non-synaptic pools of GluA2 AMPA receptors for insertion into the PSD, and 2) it interferes with the endocytic cycle that normally removes these receptors from the synapse.

What two forces operate to return synapses to their basal unpotentiated state?

1) Molecular degradation 2) Constitutive, endocytic processes that operate to cycle AMPA receptors out of the synaptic region

How do AMPA receptors allow more Na+ into the cell?

1) More receptors 2) Better trafficking of Na+ through receptor

What are the components of the hippocampus trisynaptic circuit?

1) Perforant path; 2) Dentate gyrus; 3) Mossy fibers; 4) CA3; 5) Schaffer collateral; 6) CA1

What are the two main goals of the consolidation stage?

1) To initiate the synthesis of new proteins 2) To consolidate the net gain in AMPA receptors

Describe the order of events in the synapse-to-nucleus signaling model.

1) the stimulation of a postsynaptic neuron first activates second messengers, which 2) can then activate protein kinases, which 3) can translocate into the cell nucleus where 4) they can phosphorylate CREB protein, and transcription is initiated.

What are the three stages in which memories emerge, according to William James?

1. After image 2. Primary memory 3. Secondary memory or memory proper

Increasing the number of AMPA receptors immobilized in the PSD post LTP-inducing stimulus requires two events. What are they?

1. Delivering a pool of these receptors to the extrasynaptic regions 2. Immobilizing or trapping a large number of these receptors in the PSD.

Memories evolve is four overlapping stages. What are they?

1. Generation 2. Stabilization 3. Consolidation 4. Maintenance

Roberto Manilow's used two strategies to prove that fear conditioning drive AMPA receptors into amygdala neuron synapses. What were they?

1. In one case he created identifiable GluA1 receptors and infected neurons in the amygdala with these receptors to show that fear conditioning would drive them into the synapse 2. He created dummy receptors to compete with endogenous receptors and showed that their presence impaired fear conditioning

What are the three components of a synapse?

1. Pre-synaptic component 2. Post-synaptic component 3. Synaptic cleft

In the original Lewis reactivation experiment there were 4 training conditions. What are they?

1.Rats that received ECS following reactivation 2.Rats that received no ECS following reactivation 3.Rats that received no reactivation but did receive ECS 4.Rats that received neither reactivation nor ECS.

What is the order of memory loss according to Ribot?

1. Recent 2. Autobiographical/Personal 3. Habits/Skills 4. Emotional memory

What are the four principles of the neuron doctrine?

1. The neuron is an anatomical unit. 2. The neuron is comprised of three parts. 3. Neurons are discrete. 4. Points of connection between neurons are called synapses.

If the average baseline fEPSP is 350mV and the fEPSP evoked by the test stimus after the inducing stimulus was presented is 500mV, what is the field EPSP % of baseline? Was LTP induced? Were the synaptic connections strengthened?

143%; yes and yes.

The increase in calcium in the dendritic compartment contributes to the ___ of new protein

1st wave

According to the unitary view: A) Both semantic and episodic memory depend on the MTH system B) Damage to the hippocampal formation will disrupt episodic but not semantic memory C) components of the MTH system are relatively dedicated to specific functions. D) All of the above E) None of the above

A

Following extensive training which of the following are false? A) The behavior is supported by the action system B) The behavior is supported by the habit system C) The habit system dominates the action system D) The action system still contains the information needed to support the instrumental response. E) Both a and d

A

Habits are A) not purposeful B) goal orientated C) based on expectancy D) sensitive to response-outcome contingencies E) both A and D

A

Inhibiting a molecule important for memory consolidation but not for memory formation will: A) Impair performance at a 24-hour retention interval B) Iimpair performance at a 1-hour retention interval C) Performance will be impaired at the 24-hour and the 1-hour retention interval D) There are other molecules that can make up for its contribution to memory, so performance will not be impaired E) None of the above

A

The fact that S-LTP is not blocked by protein synthesis inhibitors indicates that it depends A) only on post translation modification processes. B) on transcription processes. C) on transcription and translation. D) on extracellular pathways. E) Both a and b

A

The information that is processed through the hippocampus is then projected to: A) subiculum B) perirhinal cortex C) parahippocampal cortex D) neocortical regions E) all of the above

A

Which of the following are false? A) The hippocampus contains content B) The hippocampus receives converging inputs from wide spread regions of the brain C) The hippocampus sends information back to regions that project to it D) None of the above are false E) All of the above are false

A

Which of the following is a feature of the place-learning task? A) The platform remains in the same location in each trial B) The platform is visible to the rodent C) The rodent is always released from the same location inside the pool D) Both a and c E) All of the above

A

Which of the following is true according to indexing theory? A) Synapses are strengthened in the hippocampus B) Synapses are strengthened in the neocortex C) Synapses are strengthened in both the hippocampus and the neocortex D) Synapses are not strengthened in the hippocampus or the neocortex E) The strength of synapses is not addressed in the indexing theory.

A

Which of the following statements about intracellular space is true? A) Depolarization makes the intracellular space more positive and drives the neuron towards generating action potentials. B) Hyperpolarization makes the intracellular space more positive and drives the neuron toward generating action potentials. C) When the neuron hyperpolarizes the intracellular fluid and becomes more similar to the extracellular fluid. D) Depolarization makes the intracellular space more negative and drives the neuron towards generating action potentials. E) None of the above

A

Which of the following statements does not describe a second messenger? A) It is a type of protein with active and regulatory domains B) It relays signals from receptors to target molecules inside the cell C) It is readily made inside the cell D) It can activate kinases and phosphatases E) None of the above describes a second messenger

A

Which of the following statements is false? A) Calcium can be released from the endoplasmic reticulum. B) NMDA receptors are located on the endoplasmic reticulum. C) IP3 receptors are located primarily on dendritic endoplasmic reticulum. D) RYRs are located primarily on dendritic endoplasmic reticulum. E) None of the above are false

A

Which of these principles are not parts of the neuron doctrine? A) The brain functions as a reticulum B) The neuron is an anatomical unit C) The neuron has three parts D) Synapses are plastic E) Both A and D

A

What is the gill withdrawal effect?

A defensive behavior the sea slug displays when its siphon is stimulated.

What is time-limited retrograde amnesia?

A failure to remember an experience that happened just prior to the occurrence of the disrupting event while remembering older experiences

What is an immediate early gene?

A gene that is transcribed rapidly in response to strong synaptic activity because its transcription does not require the prior translation of some other protein

What is an engram?

A memory trace

In Malinow's AMPA receptor trafficking experiment, what was the difference between the rats in the paired condition and the rats in the unpaired condition?

After the training, rats in the paired condition had more GluA1 receptors trafficked into the plasma membrane than rats in the unpaired condition.

Systemic injections of anisomycin following training impair LTM, but have no effect on STM. Which of the following conclusions are not justified by this finding? A) LTM depends on new proteins synthesized in response to the behavioral experience B) STM depends on new proteins synthesized in response to the behavioral experience C) STM does not depend on new proteins synthesized in response to the behavioral experience D) STM depends only on post-translation modifications E) Both A and B

B

What is Slingshot? How does it affect actin?

A phosphatase that can dephosphorlate cofilin. More F-actin will be depolymerized into G-actin.

Use the following words to describe how PKMz potentiates the synapse in a few sentences: GluA2 pool, PKMz, NSF, PICK1

A pool of GluA2 receptors is trapped outside of the synapse by proteins interacting with C kinase 1 (PICK1). Release of this pool depends on a trafficking protein enzyme, NSF. When PKMz forms a complex with NSF and PICK1, the receptors are released for entry into the PSD.

What is LTP?

A potentiated response to the weak test stimulus.

What does the initial induction of LTP require, and what does the final consolidation stage involve?

A rapid disassembling of actin filaments; rapid crosslinking of filament actin

What is an excitatory synapse?

A synapse with a postsynaptic component that has dendritic spines containing glutamate receptors

What is CREB? Where is it found?

A transcription factor called cAMP-responsive, element-binding protein imporntant in both synaptic plasticity and long-term memory. It is found in the nucleus.

Question 4 options: PKMζ mRNA is prevented from translation by ___ protein

A translator repressor

Which of the following is true about the neural circuit established by extinction? A) Excitatory projections from the extinction neurons to the ITC-b cluster are strengthened B) Neurons in the central amygdala will be inhibited by the CS C) Synaptic connections linking neurons in the lateral nucleus to fear neurons are weakened D) Sensory inputs representing the CS excite neurons in the central nucleus

A, B

Which physiological changes can be caused by a danger signal? A) Increase in heart rate B) Analgesia C) Enhanced memory

A, B, C

Which of the following is true? A) Perineuronal nets emerge in rats around 3 weeks after birth B) Extinction will erase the fear associations if perineuronal nets are degraded after acquisition training C) Extinction will erase the fear associations if perineuronal nets are degraded before acquisition training. D) Extinction training erases fear association in rats less than 3 weeks old

A, C, D

Which of these are false about the soma-to-nucleus and synapse-to-nucleus signaling cascades? A) Second messengers play an important role only in the synapse to nucleus model B) Ca+ plays a major role in both signaling models C) CREB is phosphorylated in both signaling models D) Voltage-dependent calcium channels need to open in both signaling models

A,D

PKMz can traffic ___ into the PSD

AMPA receptors

Why does the AMPA receptor antagonist CNQX prevent both the induction and expression of LTP?

AMPA receptors are necessary for induction to influx sodium. They are necessary is necessary for expression, because the field potential evoked by the test stimulus measures sodium ions leaving the extracellular space and theoretically entering the cell through AMPA receptors.

What are the 3 types of ionotropic receptors glutamate can bind to?

AMPA, NMDA, Kainate receptors

Compare the unitary view and the modular view of the medial temporal hippocampal system.

According to the unitary view, the entire system is necessary for both episodic and semantic memory. According to the modular view, the hippocampal formation is not involved in semantic memory.

What is the complementary memory systems view?

According to this view, the hippocampal system learns rapidly, but when necessary, other systems learn more slowly to substitute the hippocampal function.

What is the name of one structural protein found within and below the PSD region?

Actin

What is an important role of actin in the spine?

Actin filaments provide tracks for motor proteins

Neurons in the prelimbic region are reciprocally connected to fear neurons in the basal nucleus to amplify the fear signal. What is the evidence for this statement?

Activation of neurons in the lateral nucleus by a cue paired with shock lasts only a few 100 milliseconds, but prelimbic neurons show a sustained response for the duration of the CS (tens of seconds) that correlates with the duration of the fear response. In addition, inactivating PL neurons greatly reduces the expression of fear behaviors.

What is the interference theory of forgetting?

Additional experiences overwriting existing memories or producing new memories that interfere with the retrieval of the older memories.

Epinephrine also know as ___ is secreted by the adrenal medulla into the ___

Adrenaline; blood stream

What is spontaneous recovery?

After a response is diminished by habituation, with the passage of time between stimulus presentations the response to that stimulus can recover.

What evidence supports the conclusion that the memory system that supports skillful behaviors is outside of the region of the brain that supports our ability to recollect the training episodes?

Amnestic patients who have no recollection of their training episodes can still perform.

What are ampakines?

Ampakines bind to a site on AMPA receptors and increase the duration of the channel opening when glutamate also binds to the receptor

What evidence supports the conclusion that the details that make up an episode and the impact of the experience are stored in different brain regions?

An amnestic patient can be reluctant to shake hands without remembering the episode when they were stung minutes before. H.M. could learn perceptual and motor task but could not remember the learning sessions.

Describe the methodology behind the Thorndike puzzle box.

An animal was placed into the box and it had to learn a particular behavior to escape—for example, to pull the ring attached by a rope to the door. The important feature of this methodology was that it arranged an explicit contingency between the animal's behavior and a change in the environment.

What is a transgenic animal?

An animal, in which a replacement gene is substituted for the original gene

The de novo protein synthesis hypothesis states that A) Short-term but not long-term memory depends on behavior initiating the synthesis of new protein B) Long-term memory depends on behavior initiating the synthesis of new protein C) Long-term memory depends on post-translation modifications D) Both A and B E) All of the above

B

Why has anisomycin been is used to study LTP.

Anisomycin is a general protein synthesis inhibitor. It is used to test the de novo protein synthesis hypothesis

Describe the influence of anisomycin on LTP

Applying anisomycin prevents the strong stimulus from producing L-LTP but leaves S-LTP intact.

What is the physical manifestation of a strengthened synapse?

As observed in LTP, it is an increase in the capacity of synapses to influx positive ions and thus depolarize.

How was strychnine, a lethal poison, used to study memory modulation?

At a low dose it is a stimulant and produces a state of arousal, and it was found to enhance memories produced by a variety of behavioral experiences.

What are the three parts of a neuron?

Axon, dendrites, soma

How does the function of a dendrite differ from that of an axon?

Axons transmit information whereas dendrites receive the signal.

According Thorndike's law of effect: A) Animals acquire an expectancy B) Animals learn an S-R habit C) The role of the reinforcer is to provide incentive for performance D) rewarding behavior weakens S-R connections. E) Both b and d

B

According the multiple trace theory of systems consolidation, which of the following statements is false? A) Regardless of its age, an episodic memory will always depend on the hippocampal system B) Remote episodic memories will survive complete damage to the hippocampal system C) Remote episodic memories will not survive complete damage to the hippocampal system D) Both new and old memories will be lost if damage to the hippocampus is complete E) Both episodic and semantic memories require multiple indexes

B

According to the predatory imminence gradient, when a potential predator is at a distance the rat will most likely: A) Flee B) Freeze C) Fight D) Do nothing

B

Clenbuteral injected into the basolateral amygdala should: A) Enhance the level of Arc protein in the hippocampus and impaired memory retention B) Enhance the level of Arc protein in the hippocampus and enhanced memory retention C) Reduce the level of Arc protein in the amygdala and impaired memory retention D) Reduce the level of Arc protein in the hippocampus and enhanced memory retention E) Not affect the level of Arc protein, and thus not affect memory retention.

B

During the initial 10-15 minutes after the LTP inducing stimulus is applied, signaling cascades modify which of the following? A) Second Messengers that activate kinases B) Proteins already present in the synaptic space C) First Messengers entering the cell D) Newly made proteins that support consolidation

B

Following water maze training, propranolol injected into the central nucleus of the amygdala should A) enhance retention performance B) have no effect on retention performance C) impair retention performance D) make it easier for the animal to learn the maze in a second training E) make it impossible for the animal to learn the maze in subsequent trainings

B

Genetically deleting the Ser 831 and Ser 845 phosphorylation sites on the GluR1 receptor should: A) Enhance the effect of norepinephrine on AMPA receptor trafficking B) Impair L-LTP and the effect of norepinephrine on AMPA receptor trafficking C) Enhance NMDA receptor function D) Enhance LTM E) Enhance STM

B

If the prelimbic prefrontal cortex is lesioned after the animal learns the instrumental response, a devaluation procedure will: A) reduce instrumental responding if training was extensive B) reduce instrumental responding if training was limited C) have no effect regardless of the amount of training.

B

Milner concluded that bilateral removal of H.M.'s temporal lobes resulted in A) Impaired cognitive function B) Limited retrograde amnesia C) Impaired short-term memory D) Intact long-term episodic memory E) All of the above

B

The idea that synaptic activity leads to the transcription of new plasticity product needed to build long-lasting LTP is called the A) translation hypothesis. B) genomic signaling hypotheses. C) post-translation modification hypothesis. D) local protein synthesis hypothesis. E) None of the above

B

The standard model of systems consolidation predicts that fMRI will show that the hippocampus will be A) will be more active during the retrieval of old memories than during the retrieval on new memories B) will be more active during the retrieval of new memories than during the retrieval of old memories C) will be equally active during the retrieval of old memories and new memories D) more active during the retrieval old semantic memories than during the retrieval of new semantic memories E) both a and d

B

What was the outcome of Claparède's experiment? A) The patient didn't remember he had hidden a pin in his hand, so they shook hands with him repeatedly B) The patient didn't remember he had hidden a pin in his hand, but they didn't shake hands with him again C) The patient remembered he had hidden a pin in his hand, but shook hands with him repeatedly anyways D) The patient remembered he had hidden a pin in his hand and didn't want to shake hands again E) None of the above

B

When the devaluation procedure is used following a limited amount of training, which of the following describes the most likely test result? A) Expression of the instrumental response will be enhanced B) Expression of the instrumental response will be decreased C) The treatment will have no effect on test performance

B

Which of the following are true? A) NMDA receptors are activated by calcium B) NMDA receptor channels allow calcium to enter the cell C) NMDA composed of the NR1/NR2A subunits remain open longer than those composed of NR1/NR2B subunits. D) Early in development the ratio of NR1/NR2B to NR1/NR2A containing NMDA receptors favors the NR1/NR2A complex

B

Which of the following is true according to indexing theory? A) The neocortex serves as the index B) The hippocampus serves as the index C) Both serve as the index depending on the type of memory

B

Which of the following represents the correct order of the events listed? A) NMDA receptors influx calcium; G-proteins are activated; second messenger is synthesized; RyRs open and release calcium B) Glutamate binds to mGluR1; G-proteins are activated; IP3 is synthesized; IP3Rs open and release calcium C) AMPA receptors bind to a first messenger; second messenger is synthesized; G-protein is activated; IP3Rs open and release calcium D) Glutamate binds to mGluR1; second messenger IP3 is synthesized; G-proteins are activated; IP3 binds to IP3 receptors; calcium is released E) None of the above

B

Which of the following statements about Arc is false? A) BDNF induced potentiation depends on Arc protein B) Arc transcription relies on the translation of other proteins C) Arc inhibition will prevent LTP consolidation D) Arc is an immediate early gene E) None of the above are false

B

Which of the following statements about NMDA receptors is true? A) NMDA receptors are activated by calcium B) NMDA receptor channels allow calcium to enter the cell C) NMDA receptors composed of the GluN1/GluN2A subunits remain open longer than those composed of NR1/NR2B subunits D) Early in development the ratio of GluN1/GluN2B to GluN1/GluN2A containing NMDA receptors favors the GluN1/GluN2A complex E) None of the above are true

B

Which of the following statements about spine growth is false? A) APV prevents the changes in actin polymerization and spine growth produced by the glutamate release alone B) APV has no effect on the changes in actin polymerization and spine growth produced by the glutamate release coupled with spike timing C) Anisomycin has no effect on initial spine growth but truncates the growth period and its maintenance D) Inhibiting the TrkB receptor prevents the sustained growth of spines that experienced both glutamate release and spike timing E) None of the above are false

B

Which of the following statements about synaptic response in LTP is true? A) Synaptic response to a weak stimulus is increased when preceded by a weaker stimulus B) Synaptic response to a weak stimulus is increased when preceded by a strong stimulus C) The repeated weak stimulus shows higher synaptic response than the strong stimulus D) Synaptic response to a weak stimulus is decreased when preceded by a strong or a weak stimulus E) None of the above

B

Which of the following statements is false? A) LTP development employs processes similar to those that support memory B) AMPA receptors are only found in the cell membrane, specifically the PSD. C) The endocytotic zone is responsible for AMPA receptor recycling. D) Constitutive trafficking processes help to increase synaptic strength. E) All of the above are true

B

Which of the following statements is false? A) Microdialysis was used to extract norepinephrine from the extracellular brain fluid B) Microdialysis was used to extract epinephrine from the extracellular brain fluid C) When a rat is both shocked and allowed to explore the avoidance training apparatus, there is an increase in the level of norepinephrine D) When a rat is either shocked or allowed to explore the avoidance training apparatus, there is no increase the level of norepinephrine. E) All of the above are true

B

Which of the following statements is false? A) No spine growth is observed during the generation stage B) Integrin molecules are activated during the initial induction C) Cofilin is phosphorylated during stabilization D) Myosin IIb motor proteins are activated during stabilization E) All are true

B

Which of the following structures is not part of the striatum? A) caudate nucleus B) globus pallidus C) putamen D) nucleus accumbens E) nucleus accumbens F) Both b and c

B

Which of the following is false? A) Extinction neurons project to ITC-b cells B) The central nucleus inhibits neurons in the midbrain C) The midbrain excites neurons in the central amygdala D) Fear neurons excite neurons in the central nucleus E) Fear neurons excite neurons in the prelimbic region

B, C

Which of the following brain regions is associated with the habit system? A) the prelimbic prefrontal cortex B) the infralimbic prefrontal cortex C) the dorsomedial striatum D) the basolateral amygdala E) the dorsolateral striatum

B, D

Who was responsible for the research on H.M.?

Brenda Milner

Neurons containing more ___ will likely win the competition for participating in the memory-supporting ensemble.

CREB

Which of the following statements about the epinephrine-vagus connection is false? A) The vagal nerve releases glutamate on neurons in the NTS B) Norepinephrine binds to adrenergic receptors on the vagus nerve C) Activated NTS neurons release glutamate onto neurons in the locus coeruleus D) Epinephrine binds to adrenergic receptors in the BLA E) Activated neurons in the locus coeruleus release norepinephrine

B, D

Which of the following explains why antisense methodology works for the study of long-term memory? A) It completely blocks all protein synthesis B) It can prevent the synthesis of a specific protein C) It can be used to study the role of a specific protein D) It is a transcription inhibitor E) It prevents post-translation modifications

B,C

Which of the following is true? A) The hippocampal index contains content B) The hippocampus can index content C) Memory content is contained in the cortex D) Hippocampal neurons do not know what type of information they are receiving

B,C,D

Which of the following brain regions is associated with the habbit system? A) the prelimbic prefrontal cortex B) the infralimbic prefrontal cortex C) the dorsomedial striatum D) the basolateral amygdala E) the dorsolateral striatum

B,E

Which of the following istatements about C/EBPb is false? A) It is a transcription factor that targets other memory genes B) It becomes detectable as soon as CREB is phosphorylated C) Its translation is necessary for enduring memory D) Using antisense ODNs to block its translation 1 hour prior to training has no effect on LTM E) Using antisense ODNs to block its translation has no effects on LTP if administered hours after training

B,E

What pathway is necessary for the spine to retain its newly acquired actin filaments and thus for an enduring LTP?

BDNF -> TrkB receptors -> Arc pathway

What are the sources of BDNF?

BDNF released from presynaptic neurons binds to TrkB receptors, found in the PSD of post-synaptic neurons, causing the additional release of BDNF from the postsynaptic cell. This results in positive feedback loops that helps sustain BDNF in the local extracellular region

What are the three immediate early genes targeted by CREB?

BDNF, Arc, and C/EBPβ.

Sustained increase in intracellular calcium is associated with the ___ pathway

BDNF-TrkB pathway

Applying antisense to Arc prevents ___

BDNF-induced potentiation

Why is the synaptic tag considered a state of the synapse and not a product of a single molecule?

Because actin dependent reconfiguration of the cytoskeleton in the spine is a crucial component of the tag

Why is self-perpetuation important for maintaining strengthened synapses?

Because all other proteins will eventually degrade

Why is it likely that memory maintenance molecules other than PKMz exist?

Because genetic knockout mice lacking PKMz display enduring LTP that can be prevented by ZIP

Sutherland's animal model studies of contextual fear conditioning provide no support for systems consolidation or multiple trace theory. Why?

Because he found that old and new memories are equally impaired by either partial or complete lesions of he hippocampus.

Why is glutamate a first messenger?

Because it binds to a cell surface receptor and initiates intracellular activity

Why is the NMDA receptor called and ionotropic glutamate receptor?

Because it binds to glutamate and allows ions to enter the cell.

Why is the activation of CREB a post translation modification?

Because it is a protein and is activated when phosphorylated.

Why is the psychological approach described as operating at a single level of analysis?

Because its only dependent variable is behavior.

Why do older memories have more copies of the index in the hippocampus than younger memories?

Because older memories have been reactivated more often than newer memories

Why does inhibiting the UPS interfere with consolidation?

Because the UPS is needed to degrade transcription inhibitors in the nucleus

According to multiple trace theory, when remote memories are spared it is for what reason?

Because with age, multiple indexes to the trace are established in the hippocampus.

Why is test behavior considered the window to the memory trace?

Because without a measurable behavioral test response, there would be no evidence that the training phase produced a memory trace

Can you provide examples of how episodes with overlapping information are somehow protected from interference by the episodic memory system?

Being able to remember where you parked today versus yesterday; being able to recall what you had for breakfast every day of the week

The flow of energy in cells is called ___

Bioenergenics

What is the similarity between a second training trial and a reactivation treatment?

Both appear to destabilize the memory trace

Why is Pavlovian conditioning important to the theoretical constructs of learning and memory?

By evoking the CR though the CS (which were previously unrelated events, such as a ringing bell and a salivating dog) we can "observe" the brain associating the occurrence of the CS and US.

At the synaptic level, how does ZIP reverse LTP maintenance?

By removing GluA2 receptors from the PSD

According to the standard model of systems consolidation, which of the following statements is false? A) The hippocampus plays only a temporary role in consolidation B) Memories are permanently stored in the neocortex C) Memories are permanently stored in the hippocampus D) Disruptive events primarily impact the MTH system E) Procedural memory is not subject to systems consolidation

C

Clenbuteral is a(n) A) adrenergic receptor antagonist B) synthetic glucocorticoid C) adrenergic receptor agonist D) sodium channel blocker E) AMPA receptor agonist

C

Damaging which of the following structures is likely to impair performance on the DNMS task in monkeys? A) Hippocampus B) Amygdala C) Rhinal cortex D) Both A and B E) All of the above

C

Following water maze training, propranolol injected into the basolateral region of the amygdala should A) enhance retention performance B) have no effect on retention performance C) impair retention performance

C

If the prelimbic prefrontal cortex is lesioned before the animal learns the instrumental response, a devaluation procedure will: A) reduce instrumental responding if training was extensive B) reduce instrumental responding if training was limited C) have no effect on instrumental responding regardless of the amount of training.

C

Lidocaine injected into the basolateral amygdala should: A) Enhance the level of Arc protein in the hippocampus and impair memory retention B) Enhance the level of Arc protein in the amygdala and enhance memory retention C) Reduce the level of Arc protein in the hippocampus and impair memory retention D) Reduce the level of Arc protein in the amygdala and enhance memory retention E) Not affect the level of Arc protein, and thus not affect memory retention.

C

Mishkin found that performance on the DNMS task is impaired by damage to A) the amygdala B) the hippocampus C) both the amygdala and hippocampus D) the rhinal cortex E) Both C and D

C

Mishkin originally used the DNMS task because he believed it A) measured the monkey's ability to differentiate between two objects B) measured the monkey's food preference C) was a measure of episodic memory D) was a measure of familiarity E) Both C and D

C

PKMζ likely plays and important role in the trace A) formation stage B) storage phase C) maintenance phase D) None of the above E) All of the above

C

The multiple trace theory predicts that fMRI will show that the hippocampus will be A) will be more active during the retrieval of old memories than during the retrieval on new memories B) will be more active during the retrieval of new memories than during the retrieval on old memories C) will be equally active during the retrieval of old memories and new memories

C

Which of the following is not an actin pool found in the dendritic spine? A) The dynamic pool B) The enlargement pool C) The temporary pool D) The stable pool E) None of the above is an actin pool found in the dendritic spine

C

Which of the following statements about CaMKII is false? A) CaMKII does not have a calcium binding site B) CaMKII has two domains, an autoinhibitory-regulatory domain and a catalytic domain C) Once Ca+-calmodulin leaves the binding site, CaMKII goes back to its inactive state D) When activated, the catalytic subunit can phosphorylate the Thr286 of the regulatory subunit E) All of the above are false

C

Which of the following statements about IP3 is true? A) IP3 requires calcium to enter the cell. B) IP3 is regulated by NMDA receptors. C) IP3 is regulated by mGluRs. D) IP3 binds to RYRs. E) None of the above are true

C

Which of the following statements about anisomycin is true? A) It prevents L-LTP because it is dependent on post-translational modifications. B) It prevents S-LTP because it is dependent on post-translational modifications. C) It prevents L-LTP because it is dependent on newly synthesized protein. D) It prevents S-LTP because it is dependent on newly synthesized protein. E) None of the above are true

C

Which of the following statements about mTORC1 and mTORC2 is false? A) mTORC2 is insensitive to rapamycin B) mTORC1 regulates protein synthesis C) mTORC2 regulates protein synthesis D) Rictor belongs to mTORC2 E) Both B and D

C

Which of the following statements about memories is true? A) Newly established memories are more resistant to disruption than older memories B) Old memories have shorter decay time than new memories C) Old memories are more resistant to disruption than new memories D) All of the above

C

Which of the following statements about metabotropic glutamate receptors is false? A) Metabotropic glutamate receptors have channels that allow IP3 to enter the cell. B) Metabotropic glutamate receptors are activated by calcium. C) Metabotropic glutamate receptors are couple to G proteins. D) Both b and c E) All of the above

C

Which of the following statements is false? A) Memory retrieval can activate the ubiquitin proteasome system B) Ubiquitin can tag scaffolding proteins C) Ubiquitin degrades protein D) Blocking the proteasome can prevent the need for reconsolidation E) Both C and D

C

Xestospongin is a selective IP3R antagonist. It would be expected to prevent A) calcium induced calcium release. B) the activation of mGluRs. C) mGluR activation from initiating local protein synthesis. D) the activation of voltage gated calcium channels. E) None of the above

C

Which of the following is false? A) The lateral hypothalamus is responsible for changes in heart rate B) The periaqueductal gray is associated with analgesia C) The thalamus directly connects sensory information with the midbrain D) The neurotransmitter GABA excites neurons in the central amygdala

C, D

IGF-2 is transcribed by

C/EBPb

Separate sets of Schaffer collateral fibers can synapse on dendrites belonging to the same

CA1 neuron

Compare the results of CREB deletion and CREB overexpression.

CREB deletion impairs LTM, but CREB overexpression can eliminate the impaired LTM normally found when the ITI is only 10 seconds.

What is CSF?

CSF is the substance that covers the brain and spinal cord and cushions them against impact. It also provides them with oxygen and nutrients and removes waste products

Describe the calpain-spectrin pathway that dissembles the actin cytoskeleton.

Ca2+ coming through NMDA receptors activate the protease calpain, which in turn degrades spectrin, a protein that crosslinks F-actin and making it more resistant to depolymerization.

When ___ activates the kinase, both the ___ and Thr286 are exposed.

Ca2+-calmodulin; catalytic domain

___ phosphorylates ___ and changes the channel, allowing it to influx calcium as well as sodium

CaMKII; P2 or Ser 831

What is the role of calmodulin?

Calmodulin serves as a surrogate for the second-messenger calcium.

How does LTP relate to memory?

Changes in synaptic strength measured as LTP are thought to support memory.

How was the importance of NMDA receptors established?

Collingridge applied APV (an NMDA antagonist) before the inducing stimulus or during the test phase.

AMPA trafficking is regulated ___ and by ___

Constitutively; synaptic activity

Which of the following is not a property of the episodic memory system? A) It supports conscious recollection B) It automatically captures episodic and incidental information C) It keeps similar episodes separate D) It supports motor skills and learning E) None of the above are properties of the episodic memory system

D

What is the evidence that active biological processes produce forgetting?

Continuously antagonizing NMDA receptors during the retention interval prevents the decay of LTP in the dentate gyrus and the forgetting of a spatial memory.

According to the active trace theory, which of the following statements is false? A) Memories in the inactive state are less vulnerable to disruption B) Only novel experiences generate active memory traces C) Retrieving a memory will further consolidate it D) Both B and C E) All of the above are false

D

In R.B.'s case, all of the following were true except that he had A) anterograde amnesia B) episodic memory impairment C) damage to the hippocampus D) damage to the rhinal cortex E) Both B and D

D

In order to ensure that ChR2 was only expressed in neurons activated by the fear conditioning: A) Blue light was used to activate the neurons B) Mice were maintained on doxycycline through out the experiment C) Mice were maintained on doxycycline prior to the conditioning phase D) Doxycylcline was removed from the diet only during the conditioning phases E) Both a and d

D

Neurons cannot A) receive info from multiple inputs B) Send info to organs and muscles C) Store info about past experiences D) They can do all of the above E) They cannot do any of the above

D

Rynandine is a selective RyR antagonist. So you would expect: A) It would prevent the activation of NMDA receptors B) It would block protein synthesis C) It would prevent LTP1 D) It would facilitate calcium induced calcium release

D

The field excitatory postsynaptic potential measures the A) Release of NT from the postsynaptic neuron B) Flow of negatively charged ions out of the neuron C) Flow of positively charged ions into the neuron D) Flow of positively charged ions out of the extracellular space E) All of the above

D

The region of the amygdala that most directly controls defensive responses is: A) Lateral amygdala B) Basal amygdala C) Intercalated neuron region D) Central region

D

We now believe that the DNMA task does not require: A) The amydala B) The hippocampus C) The perirhinal cortices D) Both A and B E) Both B and C

D

Which of the following is not part of the consolidation phase? A) Activation of G-protein-coupled mGluR receptors B) BDNF positive feedback loop C) Activation of the mTOR pathway D) PKMz reconfigures the trafficking of GluA2 AMPA receptors E) All of the above are part of the consolidation phase

D

Which of the following statements about Aplysia californica is false? A) Its brain or abdominal ganglion can be isolated from the body while still connected to sensory neurons that respond to stimulus. B) It has a very simple brain. C) It has almost visible neurons. D) Its behavioral responses are unique to its species. E) All of the above are true

D

Which of the following statements about LTP is true? A) RyRs are responsible for LTP1. B) IP3Rs are responsible for LTP3. C) Voltage dependent calcium channels are responsible for LTP3. D) Both a and c E) All of the above are true

D

Which of the following statements about inhibitory avoidance conditioning is true? A) Longer latencies reflect a stronger memory trace B) Crossover latency is the dependent variable C) As shock intensity increases, so does the response latency D) All of the above

D

Which of the following statements about the protein synthesis inhibitor emetine is true? A) When applied selectively to the soma of stimulated neurons, it did not influence L-LTP. B) When applied selectively to the apical dendrites, it blocked L-LTP in those dendrites. C) When applied selectively to the basal dendrites, it did not block L-LTP. D) Both a and b E) None of the above

D

Which of the following statements are not supported by new genetic engineering data? A) Enduring LTP does not require PKMζ B) ZIP is not selective for PKMζ C) Most of PKMζ found at synapses is synthesized in the nucleus D) Molecules other than PKMζ must participate in the maintenance of LTP E) None of the above are supported by new data

D

Which of the following statements are true? A) Proteins degrade proteasomes B) Proteasomes tag proteins for degradation C) Ubiquitin molecules degrade proteins D) Inhibiting the UPS system enhances early LTP E) All of the above are false

D

Where does local protein synthesis occur?

Dendrites

Where on the receiving neuron are the neurotransmitter receptors located?

Dendrites

Stimulating fibers in the perforant path results in synaptic activity that can be recorded in what hippocampal region?

Dentate gyrus

What drives the neuron toward generating action potentials?

Depolarization-the flow of positive ions into the cell.

What is the evidence that midbrain subcortical nuclei are responsible for generating fear behaviors?

Direct electrical stimulation of these brain regions can elicit fear behaviors, and damage to these regions impairs the expression of the behaviors.

Explain why genetic engineering is believed to be more precise than applying drugs in manipulating the molecules involved in memory.

Drugs are said to be "dirty," meaning they are not highly selective to the intended target and it si hard to control for the spread of the drug to other regions. Moreover, by using biotechnology to directly influence the genome, it is possible to modify or delete the gene for a particular protein or to transfer new genes into the genome

According to Thorndike's Law of Effect, the A) role of the reinforcer is to strengthen or weaken S-R connection B) animal purposely wants to escape the box. C) animal's behavior is not considered purposeful. D) habits are mediated by expectancies. E) Both a and c

E

According to Tolman's cognitive theory: A) Animals acquire an expectancy B) Animals learn and S-R habit C) The role of the reinforcer is to provide incentive for performance D) The role of the reinforcer is to strengthen or weaken S-R connections E) Both A and C

E

According to reconsolidation theory: A) Anisomycin disrupts the retrieved memory B) Anisomycin prevents reconsolidation of the memory trace C) Protein synthesis is necessary for reconsolidation D) Reconsolidation depends only on post-translation modifications E) Both B and C

E

According to reconsolidation theory: A) Retrieval weakens synaptic connection B) Retrieval initiates another round of protein synthesis C) Retrieval can disrupt consolidated memories D) Both A and C E) All of the above

E

According to the Conceptual Model for Actions and Habits: A) Habits are acquired before action B) Habits and Actions can coexist C) Actions must be assembled before a behavior can become a habit D) Habits replace actions E) Both b and c

E

According to the modular view: A) Components of the MTH system are relatively dedicated to specific functions B) Both semantic and episodic memory depend on the MTH system C) Damage to the hippocampal formation will disrupt episodic but not semantic memory D) Damage to the perirhinal cortex will disrupt both semantic and episodic memory E) Both A and D

E

According to the standard model of systems consolidation, damage to the hippocampal system will impair the retreival of: A) all memories. B) all episodic and semantic memories. C) old episodic and semantic memories. D) new episodic and semantic memories. E) new but not old episodic memories.

E

Actions are A) purposeful. B) not goal orientated. C) insensitive to response-outcome contingencies. D) based on expectancy. E) Both a and d

E

Following inhibitory avoidance training, norepinephrine injected into the basolateral amygdala should A) enhance retention performance, depending on dose and time B) enhance retention performance, regardless of dose and time C) impair retention performance, depending on dose and time D) have no effect on retention performance, regardless of dose and time E) Both A and C

E

If episodic and semantic memory belong the same Declarative Memory system then damage to A) the complete medial temporal hippocampus should impair both episodic and semantic memory B) the neocortical components of the medial temporal hippocampus should impair only semantic memory. C) only the hippocampal component should impair only episodic memory. D) only the hippocampal component should impair both episodic and semantic memory. E) Both a and d

E

If the infralimbic cortex is lesioned after extensive training: A) The action system will no longer support the instrumental behavior. B) The action system will control the instrumental response. C) The habit system will be dominated by the action system D) Both a and c E) Both b and c

E

In an LTP experiment which of the following is false? A) The independent variable is the intensity of the electrode B) The dependent variable is the fEPSP C) The inducing stimulus is used to establish a baseline D) The test stimulus is set to about 35-50% of maximal response E) A and C

E

In the DNMS task, on the test trial: A) The reward is located under the novel object B) The reward is located under the familiar object C) The monkey must choose the object that matches the sample D) The monkey must choose the new object E) Both A and D

E

Nifidipine is a voltage gated calcium channel blocker. So you would expect: A) It would prevent soma-to nucleus signaling B) It would faciltate synapse to nucleus signaling C) It would prevent LTP3 D) It would facilitate calcium induced calcium release E) Both A and C

E

The experiment by Natalie Tronson revealed that: A) retrieved memoires are not vulnerable to disruption B) anisomycin can produce side effects C) reactivated memories can be strengthened D) active memories are subject to bidirectional modification--can be strengthened and weakened E) Both C and D

E

The findings of Varga-Khadem with children who suffered damaged to the hippocampus at an early age: A) Support the unitary view of the medial temporal hippocampus system B) Support the modular view of medial temporal hippocampus C) Suggest that the children still had semantic memory but lack episodic memory D) Suggest that the children still had episodic memory lacked semantic memory E) both B and C

E

Only untagged synapses can capture PPs produced by a strong stimulus

False

To influence NMDA functions, Morris: A) Used a pharmacological approach B) Infused APV into the brain C) Tested rats in the space-learning swim task D) Implanted a cannula into a cerebral ventricle E) All of the above

E

When either an NMDA or vdCC antagonist is administered prior to memory reactivation: A) The memory trace associated with those synapses cannot be retrieved B) The memory trace is reactivated but is not destabilized C) The reactivated memory trace will require reconsolidation D) Anisomycin will have no effect on reconsolidation E) Both B and D

E

Which of the following about ECS is true? A) Rats that received ECS and reactivation were not impaired B) Rats that received ECS and reactivation were impaired C) Rats that received ECS only were impaired D) Rats that received ECS only were not impaired E) Both B and D

E

Which of the following about consolidation is true? A) Cellular consolidation takes place over a period of weeks B) Systems consolidation takes place over a period of weeks C) Cellular consolidation requires a few hours, as opposed to weeks D) Systems consolidation requires a few hours, as opposed to weeks E) Both b and c

E

Which of the following affects LTP stabilization, but not induction? A) Applying drugs that inhibit myosin IIb prior to TBS B) Inactivation of the kinase LIMK C) Phosphorylating cofilin D) Preventing N-cadherin dimerization E) All of the above

E

Which of the following is false according to indexing theory? A) Memories are stored in the hippocampus B) Memories are stored in the neocortical structures C) Overlapping memories create unique indexes in the hippocampus D) Overlapping memories can not be maintained by the neocortex E) Both a and b

E

Which of the following occur during the stabilizing phase of a potentiated synapse? A) The depolymerization function of cofilin is enhanced B) Calpain proteins are activated C) Phosphorylated GluA1 receptors are able to influx calcium D) The UPS is active and limites the extent of potentiation E) Both C and D

E

Which of the following statements about H.M. is true? A) He was the first person to have part of his brain surgically removed B) His memory was selectively impaired C) His memory for motor learning was intact D) Both A and B E) Both B and C

E

Which of the following statements about H.M. is true? A) The precise location of H.M. brain loss was known B) H.M.'s amnesia was restricted to his episodic memory C) H.M.'s general cognitive function was impaired D) H.M. did not display anterograde amnesia E) Both A and B

E

Which of the following statements about LTP is false? A) NMDA and AMPA receptors are required for the induction of LTP B) CNQX can inhibit induction, but not expression of LTP C) APV can inhibit induction, but not expression of LTP D) To express LTP NMDA and AMPA channels are crucial E) Both B and D

E

Which of the following statements about LTP is false? A) NMDA and AMPA receptors are required for the induction of LTP B) CNQX can inhibit induction, but not expression of LTP C) APV can inhibit induction, but not expression of LTP D) To express LTP, NMDA and AMPA channels are crucial E) B and D

E

Which of the following statements about LTP is true? A) AMPA receptors have been shown to be important in both the induction and expression of LTP B) NMDA receptors have been shown to be important in both the induction and expression of LTP C) AMPA receptors have been shown to be important in the induction but not the expression of LTP D) NMDA receptors have been shown to be important in the induction but not the expression of LTP E) Both A and D

E

Which of the following statements about LTP is true? A) S-LTP depends solely of post-translation modifications. B) L-LTP depends on transcription and translation processes. C) L-LTP depends on post translation modifications, transcription, and translation processes. D) Both a and c E) All of the above are true

E

Which of the following statements about PKMz is false? A) ZIP is to PKMz as the catalytic unit it to PKC B) PKMz and PKC are activated by second messengers C) ZIP prevents late stage LTP, but not initial induction D) ZIP prevents GluA2 AMPA receptors from being trafficked into the PSD E) Both A and B

E

Which of the following statements about PKMz is true? A) It can traffic AMPA receptors into the PSD and stay in a perpetually active state B) It can phosphorylate other proteins C) It can be synthesized in one synapse and captured in another D) It has an inhibitory binding site E) All of the above statements are true

E

Which of the following statements about ZIP is false? A) There is no time window constraining the effects of ZIP B) ZIP alters the acquisition of a new taste aversion memories C) ZIP erases taste aversion memories when injected into the insular cortex and the hippocampus D) ZIP targets PKMζ and other memory maintenance kinases E) Both B and C

E

Which of the following statements about memory and the mind is true? A) An LTP inducing stimulus produces a memory B) Memories result from behavioral experiences C) Behavior is the window to the mind D) Memories are directly observable E) B and C

E

Which of the following statements about memory is false? A) CREB deletion impairs LTM B) Blocking CREB translation impairs STM C) CREB overexpression can improve LTM under certain conditions D) Neurons that overexpress CREB do not compete successfully for selection in the neuronal ensemble that supports a fear memory. E) Both B and D

E

Which of the following statements about memory is false? A) Short-term memory traces are int he inactive state and easy to disrupt B) Long-term memory traces are in the inactive state and hard to disrupt C) Time limited retrograde amnesia is more likely to affect short-term memory D) Time limited retrograde amnesia is more likely to affect long-term memory E) Both A and D

E

Which of the following statements about memory modulators is false? A) They affect all memories, regardless of how old the memory is B) They are important for memory retrieval C) They influence the strength of the memory D) They influence synapses that store memories E) Both A and B

E

PKMz lack an inhibitor unit, so it is always inactive

False

PKMζ KO mice cannot acquire and maintain fear and place-learning memories.

False

Which of the following statements about opsins is true? A) Channelrhodopsins can excite neurons by depolarizing them B) Channelrhodopsins can inhibit neurons by hyperpolarizing them C) Halorhodopsin can inhibit neurons by hyperpolarizing them D) Halorhodopsin can excite neurons by depolarizing them E) Both A and C

E

Which of the following statements about the CA1KO mouse is true? A) GluN1 subunits are absent in the dentate gyrus B) GluN1 subunits are absent in the CA1 region C) LTP cannot be induced in the CA1 in slices D) LTP cannot be induced in the dentate gyrus E) Both B and D

E

Which of the following statements is false, according to the synaptic tag and capture hypothesis? A) Overlap in time refers to many synapses being potentiated at the same time B) Strong stimulation tags a synapse and generates a genomic signaling cascade C) The function of the tag is to capture the product D) Plasticity products can only be captured by strongly stimulated synapses E) Both A and D

E

Which of the following statements is true? A) Actions are flexible B) Habits are insensitive to response-outcome contingencies C) Habits are goal oriented D) Both a and b E) All of the above

E

Which of the following statements is true? A) Ionotropic receptors respond faster than metabotropic receptors. B) Only NMDA receptors influx calcium. C) NMDA receptors have an ion channel. D) mGluRs have an ion channel. E) Both a and c

E

Which of the following statements is true? A) Lidocaine injected into the central amygdala prevents memory modulation B) Lidocaine injected into the basolateral amygdala prevents memory modulation C) Propranolol is a b-adrenergic agonist D) Propranolol is a b -adrenergic antagonist E) Both B and D

E

Which of the following statements is true? A) Kinases are directly activated by first messengers B) Kinases modify other proteins via phosphorylation C) Phosphatases remove phosphates from proteins D) Both A and C E) Both B and C

E

Which of the following terms apply to glutamate? A) Neurotransmitter B) First messenger C) Ligand D) A and B E) All of the above

E

Which of these can be found in the dendridic region? A) endoplasmic reticulum and golgi elements B) transcription factors, ribosomal assemblies and mRNAs C) ribosomal assemblies and mRNAs D) Both A and B E) Both A and C

E

Which of these principles are parts of the neuron doctrine? A) Neurons are contiguous with each other, but not contiguous B) Neurons are continuous with each other, bot not contiguous C) The junction between the axon and dendrite is the synapse D) The junction between the dendrite and a blood vessel is the synapse E) Both A and C

E

Describe the composition of the NMDA receptor

Each receptor has four subunits, and they are some combination of the two classes GluN1 and GluN2

Impaired CREB activation is related in part to age-related changes in the adrenal response to arousal. What evidence supports this assertion?

Either epinephrine or glucose following training increased phosphorylated CREB in the dentate gyrus region of the dorsal hippocampus of young rats. However, only glucose increased levels of phosphorylated CREB in old rats.

What are the unconditioned stimulus, the conditioned stimulus and the conditioned response in fear conditioning?

Electrical shock, auditory stimulus, and freezing

___ are protein complexes that transport receptors to and from the plasma membrane.

Endosomes

___ containing AMPA receptors are mobilized to deliver the receptors to the ___ a region near the PSD.

Endosomes; perisynaptic region

Inhibiting the activity of myosin IIb prevents ___ but has no effect on ___

Enduring form of LTP; induction

Name the structures through which information flows into and out of the hippocampus.

Entorhinal cortex to dentate gyrus to CA3 to CA1 to subiculum and back to entorhinal cortex.

___ associated with drugs are one important contributor to relapse.

Environmental cues

What is the connection between the forebrain, hippocampus, amygdala, NTS, and locus coeruleus and epinephrine and norepinephrine?

Epinephrine in the blood stream binds to adrenergic receptors on the vagus nerve, which synapses on the NTS, which in turn synapses on the locus coeruleus (LC) and those neurons project to the forebrain, hippocampus, and amygdala.

Patients with selective damage to the hippocampus that was sustained in early childhood had impaired cognitive function and severe amnesia.

False

What are the dependent variables in the water-escape task?

Escape latency, path length, percent time spent in the target quadrant on a probe trial

What is the evidence for the role of the hippocampus in automatic information capture?

Even when nothing forces the normal rat to remember the location of the objects, if moved, the rat will explore the object as novel. Rats with damage to the hippocampus are not sensitive to the location of the objects changing.

What kind of a neurotransmitter is glutamate?

Excitatory

Phosphatases add phosphates to other proteins.

False

Potentiated synapses endure, because there is no pressure to return to their basal unpotentiated state.

False

Proteasome tag proteins for degradation

False

What is extinction?

Extinction refers to a method—the presentation of the CS without the US—and an outcome—the loss of the conditioned response by repeatedly presenting the CS alone.

The CS-noUS association can be thought of as a reconfigured fear circuit that allows the extinguished CS to suppress the central amygdala. Explain this assertion?

Extinction training strengthens synaptic connections linking the context and CS input to extinction neurons in the basal nucleus to ITCs and to neurons in the infralimbic prefrontal cortex that also projects to ITCs. Thus, when the CS is presented ITCs are activated and neurons in the central amygdala are inhibited.

Material located in the synaptic cleft is called

Extracellular matrix

AMPA receptors made up of GluA1 subunits have more than three phosphorylation sites.

False

According to active trace theory retrieving a consolidated memory is enough to disrupt it.

False

According to the neuron doctrine, neurons are contiguous and not continuous. James was the first one to directly related memory phenomena to specific brain regions.

False

According to the unitary view, the hippocampal formation is required for episodic memory but not for semantic.

False

Anisomycin inhibits processes essential to both L-LTP and S-LTP.

False

Application of a low frequency stimulus within a day after the TBS-inducing stimulus is sufficient to interrupt the development of a long lasting LTP.

False

Applying drugs that inhibit myosin IIb prior to TBS prevents the induction and stabilization of LTP.

False

C/EBPβ is a transcription factor that targets the CREB gene.

False

CREB KO mice have impaired STM and LTM, because plasticity products are depleted.

False

CREB antisense prevents the transcription of CREB protein.

False

CREB is an important translation factor found in dendrites.

False

CREB phosphorylation results in the immediate transcription C/EBPβ.

False

CREB targets only genes that contribute to memory consolidation.

False

Camillo Golgi would agree with the neuron doctrine.

False

Competitive antagonists, such as APV, can replace a ligand and cause conformational changes in the receptor.

False

Constitutive transcription and translation processes in the cell are only initiated after an LTP inducing stimulus has been applied.

False

Dendritic protein synthesis is insufficient to produce relatively long lasting LTP.

False

Epinephrine's role as a memory modulator is well established in animal models, but its role in human memory is unknown.

False

GluN1 subunits are not required to form functional NMDA receptors.

False

Glutamate receptors involved in LTP are found along the axon.

False

God, cat and cup are nonsense syllables.

False

Habituation and sensitization can only be observed in simple organisms.

False

IGF-2 continues to contribute to memory consolidation for about 12 hours.

False

In older rats, the adrenal gland no longer releases epinephrine in response to arousing events.

False

Inhibiting the UPS system inhibits LTP induction and prevents the late enduring phase of LTP

False

Intentionally damaging brain tissue can reveal valuable results about how the intact brain works

False

It is likely that the monkeys with damage to the hippocampus were using recognition based on recollection to perform the DNMS.

False

Korsakoff's syndrome can be described as retrograde amnesia.

False

LTP is memory

False

LTP only lasts a few second

False

Learning spines are larger than memory spines

False

Memory modulators are part of the memory storage system.

False

Neural cadherins can exist as either monomers or cis-stranded dimers, with equal adhesive properties.

False

Nonsense syllables always have hidden meaning.

False

One can't have a sense of familiarity without recollection.

False

What genetic engineering methods were used to study the role of NMDA receptors in memory formation?

Genetic engineering methods have been used to selectively delete or overexpress one of the NMDA subunits in mice.

AMPA receptors can be composed of several subunits. The subtype that is initially trafficked into the spine head during the generation of LTP is

GluA1

The immediate induction of LTP is due to trapping GluA1 type AMPA receptors, which are quickly replaced by ___

GluA2 AMPA receptors

The third wave of consolidation depends on the transcription factor C/EBPb and

IGF-2

How can you explain a WS producing L-LTP?

If a strong stimulus (SS) is delivered to synapses belonging to the same neuron, the synaptic tags produced by the weak stimulus will capture plasticity products (PPs) generated by the strong stimulus

How is the visible-platform task used to evaluate results observed in the place-learning task?

If a treatment has no effect on performance on the visible-platform task, then one would be more confident about concluding that the treatment influenced some aspect of memory. This is because the task makes no demand on spatial memory of the platform location.

What was the rationale for using the microdialysis methodology to study memory modulation by epinephrine?

If epinephrine released by the adrenal gland results in the release of norepinephrine into the BLA, the level of norepinephrine in the BLA should go up when rats are shocked after crossing to the dark side of the avoidance apparatus.

How can a weak stimulus (low frequency) be used to prevent the development of a long lasting LTP?

If it is applied within a minute of the TBS-inducing stimulus.

Why does separating the dendrites from the soma provide evidence for local protein synthesis?

If the dendrites are separated from the soma there is no way synaptic activity can signal the nucleus and there is no way for new plasticity products generated in the nucleus to reach the stimulated synapse.

Who is Robert Bolles?

In 1970 he developed the concept of species-specific defensive behaviors to describe the class of innate behaviors that are supported by the fear system.

What is the evidence that rodents can acquire a representation of a context that can be activated by a subset of the features that make up the episode?

In an experiment demonstrating that rats can retrieve a memory of an explored context, the control rats displayed no fear in context B, where they were actually shocked, but displayed fear in context A, where they had been allowed to explore and had received no shock.

What is the difference between short term and long-term habituation?

In long-term habituation, spontaneous recovery is greatly diminished.

Old rats are significantly impaired when the retention interval is seven days. Explain why. Is this impairment reversible?

In older rats, the liver no longer releases glucose in response to epinephrine. Glucose injections into the dorsal hippocampus following training completely reversed this impairment.

What is the role of anisomycin in reconsolidation theory and in active state theory?

In reconsolidation theory, it prevents the new round of protein synthesis, while in active state theory; it is the agent that disrupts the memory trace.

Where is the PKMz mRNA found and translated?

In regions of dendritic spines and is locally translated in the dendritic spine region

What is the evidence that the activation of the mTOR-TOP pathway is critical for synaptic changes?

In separate studies it was found that (1) impaired LTP is due to the failure of synaptic activity to translate TOP mRNA and (2) rapamycin- a drug that prevents the activation of mTOR- selectively impairs the late phase of LTP without influencing the initial induction

Where is the post-synaptic density located?

In the area of the postsynaptic spine that receives neurotransmitter.

Initial research showed that damage for both the hippocampus and the amygdala was necessary to impair episodic memory. What was wrong with those experiments?

In the process of removing both brain structures, researches unintentionally damaged another medial temporal lobe structure, the rhinal cortex.

How does reactivating a memory de-potentiate the synapses associated with that memory?

Increased calcium levels activate the UPS system, which degrades key scaffolding proteins and in result, there is a decrease in the surface levels of AMPA receptors.

What is the theta burst stimulation protocol modeled after?

Increased rate of pyramidal neuronal firing in rodents exploring novel environments

NMDA receptors are necessary for the ___ of LTP, but not for the ___ of LTP

Induction; expression

Why is the neural circuit that supports episodic memory described as having a loop-like structure?

Information carried forward to the hippocampus also is then projected back to the sites lower in the hierarchy that initially brought the information to the hippocampus.

How is PKMz different from PKC?

It lacks an inhibitory domain, so once translated it is persistently active and it does not require a second messenger to become active

What is the evidence that proteins translated in response to the mTORC1 signaling are important for the consolidation of long-term memory but not for producing a short-term memory?

Inhibitory avoidance procedure revealed that rapamycin selectively impaired performance when the retention interval was 24 hours but not when it was only 3 hours.

It is possible that forgetting is due to some degradation in PKMz signaling cascades. What evidence supports this possibility?

Injecting PKMz can prevent forgetting.

What is the cytosol?

Internal fluid of the neuron

Why was the purpose of multiple trace theory?

It aimed to explain why partial damage to the hippocampus could spare old remote episodic memories.

Why is the Rictor KO mouse useful?

It allows researchers to study the contribution mTORC2 to consolidation.

What is a major feature of the genomic signaling hypothesis?

It assumes that transcripts (mRNA) needed to sustain LTP are produced as a direct consequence of neural activity associated with the stimulus that induces LTP.

What is a nonsense syllable?

It consists of a vowel placed between two consonants and it is meaningless.

Define the medial temporal hippocampal (MTH) system.

It consists of the perirhinal, parahippocampal, and entorhinal cortices and the hippocampal formation.

What is the function of the endocytotic zone?

It contains complex molecules designed to capture AMPA receptors leaving the PSD and to repackage them in endosomes for recycling to the membrane.

What is the composition of the postsynaptic density?

It contains several hundred proteins that include glutamate receptors, ion channels, signaling enzymes, scaffolding proteins, and adhesion molecules.

Epinephrine molecules are too large to cross the blood brain barrier. How does epinephrine released into the blood influence memory modulation?

It does so in two different ways. One is by binding to receptors on the vagal nerve to cause the release of the neurotransmitter norepinephrine into the BLA. The other is by influencing glucose release by liver cells.

What is a post-synaptic potential?

It is a brief change in the resting membrane potential of the postsynaptic neuron that is caused by the flow of positive ions (sodium) into the cell through receptors located on the postsynaptic neuron.

What is APV and what is its function?

It is a competitive NMDA antagonist, and prevents glutamate from binding to NMDA receptors.

What is an antisense oligonucleotide? How is it used to study LTP?

It is a synthesized strand of nucleic acids that will bind to mRNA and prevent its translation. It was used to inhibit Arc to study its effects in LTP

Explain the term expectancy.

It is a three-term association (S1-R-S2) that includes a representation of the stimulus situation (S1) that preceded the response, a representation of the response (R), and a representation of the outcome (S2) produced by the response.

If there are more GluN1-GluN2B receptor complexes present in a tissue sample than GluN1-GluN2A receptor complexes, what was the likely age of the mouse?

It is likely a sample from a very young animal

fMRI studies appear to support multiple trace theory and provide almost no evidence for the standard model. How would you defend the standard model?

It is possible that brain imaging is capturing activation in the MTH system due to the neocortex projecting back to the hippocampus, rather than because of retrieval cues activating indexes.

What is glutamate?

It is the excitatory neurotransmitter that binds to glutamate receptors.

What is ubiquitination?

It is the process of tagging proteins for degradation with a polyubiquitin chain and then directing them to proteasomes

What is LTD?

It is the reduction in the field potential produced by weak long lasting inducing stimulus

Describe the function of pattern separation. What makes it possible?

It keeps representations of similar experiences segregated. It is possible because the similar (but different) inputs from neocortical structures are likely to converge onto different neurons in the hippocampus and similar patterns are likely to create different indices

The context preexposure paradigm allows researchers to study how rodents acquire ___

context representations

A patient with damage to the hippocampus has extensive amnesia for both old and new memories. Is this evidence for or against the standard model? Why?

It provides evidence against the standard model, because retrograde amnesia would have to be temporally graded if the standard model were correct.

What is the learning-performance distinction?

It recognizes the problem that the researcher has be sure that the treatment exerted its effect by its influence on the memory component and not on some other component process that could also influence performance

Describe the in vitro LTP preparation.

It requires dissecting a very thin tissue slice from the hippocampus and sustaining its function by placing the sample in chemical cocktail. A stimulating electrode is positioned to stimulate axons and a recording electrode is positioned to record the field potential.

Why is it important that manipulating the BLA affects Arc protein synthesis in the hippocampus?

It shows that activity in the BLA can modulate protein levels in other brain areas.

What is the function of the episodic memory system?

It supports the ability to consciously recollect and report on facts and events that people have experienced.

D-cycloserine (DCS) is an agonist for the NMDA glycine site. When it is given before or after extinction training, it facilitates the processes that produce extinction. How is it used therapeutically in people with acrophobia? What were the results?

It was given as a pill to patients along with exposure therapy and they reported a decrease in discomfort produced by exposure, their autonomic arousal decreased and they were more willing to expose themselves to heights compared to patients who received exposure therapy and placebo pill. These benefits persisted for three months after the treatment.

Why is emetine important?

It was used by Bradshaw and Bliss to strongly implicate local protein synthesis in the generation of long-lasting LTP.

What would be the effect of inhibiting the translation of Arc during the consolidation period?

It would return potentiated synapses to their unpotentiated state

Reconsolidation theory was proposed by ___

Karim Nader

What are the two types of proteins targeted by second messengers?

Kinases and phosphatases.

The Rho-ROCK GTPase pathway phosphorylates

LIMK

___ phosporylates cofilin

LIMK

Applying ZIP to hippocampal slices prior to the induction of LTP prevents ___ because it ___

Late phase LTP; inhibits PKMz

What is the relationship between transcription repressor proteins, the UPS system, and enduring LTP?

Late stage LTP depends on transcription events, which can be prevented by repressor proteins. UPS system must be active in order to degrade transcription repressor proteins, so LTP can endure

The process of acquiring information is called

Learning

___ provide the primary way to link stimuli to the neural systems that support fear behavior.

Learning and memory processes

What were the results of injecting lidocaine or clenbuterol into the BLA?

Lidocaine reduced the level of Arc protein in the hippocampus and the memory for the inhibitory avoidance experience was impaired. Clenbuterol, increased the level of Arc protein in the hippocampus and the memory for the training experience is strengthened.

What were the results reported by Broadbent and Clark ?

No matter what the condition, old contextual fear memories were not protected from disruption by hippocampal damage.

Question 15 options: LTP stands for

Long-term potentiation

When glutamate and ampakines both bind to the AMPA receptor the channel stays open ___

Longer

What is the evidence that other kinases or molecules can be targets of ZIP?

Memories can be erased in PKMz KO mice injected with ZIP.

Provide an example of working memory

Memorizing a list of groceries and discarding it from your memory once you are done shopping

What concept is evoked to explain the change from vulnerable to less vulnerable memory state?

Memory consolidation

To induce LTP in CA3 neurons, the stimulating electrode should be placed near the

Mossy fibers

Describe how actin filaments are broken down into smaller units. Why is this beneficial?

Myosin IIb motor proteins use actin as tracks, and when they move they exert a shearing force breaking filaments into smaller segments. These segments then can be used to assemble filaments elsewhere in the spine.

In Susan Sara's experiment, applying a(n) ___ within 90 minutes of reactivating the memory caused impairment.

NMDA antagonist

Synaptic changes that depend on NMDA receptors play a central role in the new learning that produces extinction. Defend this statement!

NMDA receptor antagonists can prevent extinction and the partial agonist DCS can facilitate extinction.

Richard Morris was the first researcher to directly investigate the role of ___ in memory formation

NMDA receptors

Extracellular Ca2+ can enter a dendritic spine through ___ and can enter ___ through ___

NMDA receptors ; the soma; vdCCs

LTP2 is induced when glutamate resulting from stronger stimulation binds to both ___ and ___

NMDA receptors; mGluR1s

LTP1 is induced when glutamate produced by a weak stimulus binds to ___ in the membrane and a small amount of Ca+ can influx into the spine and then bind to the ___. This results in ___.

NMDAR; RyRs; the release of additional Ca2+ into the spine from the ER

Expression of LTP depends on what?

Na+ ions entering the AMPA receptors

Question 16 options: When a neuron is being depolarized, the electrical potential between the extracellular electrode and the ground electrode will become more ___ because ___ ions are leaving the ECF.

Negative, positive

What are the two types of adhesion molecules linked to stabilizing LTP?

Neural cadherins (abbreviated as N-cadherins) and integrin receptors.

Camillo Golgi developed a method that allowed:

Neurons to be visualized

What is contained in synaptic vesicles?

Neurotransmitters

The observation that people with amnesia can recall events that took place long ago, but often times not ones that occurred within minutes of the accident indicates that

New memories are more vulnerable to disruption

Describe the de novo protein synthesis hypothesis.

New protein is synthesized by processes initiated by the inducing stimulus.

Does anisomycin have any effect on retrieved memories when the proteasome system is inhibited? Why is the result important?

No. It reveals how retrieval causes disruption and it shows that if scaffolding proteins were not degraded in the first place, the trace would be intact and new protein synthesis would not be necessary to maintain it.

Receptors found outside the PSD are referred to as ___ or ___ receptors.

Nonsynaptic or extrasynaptic receptors

What were the results in the adjacent-arm task?

Normal rats learned this task, but rats with damage to the striatum were quite impaired.

What is an example of a nonsense syllable?

Nuh, vag, boc

Provide an example of Pavlovian conditioning in drug addictions.

Often environmental cues become associated with some properties of the drug.

Briefly, what is Ribot's Law?

Old memories are more resistant to disruption than new ones are.

Explain how PKMz self perpetuates

Once translated, PKMz interacts with other proteins to remove the translator repressor and thereby facilitates translation of PKMz mRNA in dendritic spines where it was initially translated

What is the importance of the two distinct peak levels of BDNF expression?

One peak of BDNF occurs 1 hour after training and it is critical for fear response memory on 1-day and 7-day retention intervals. The second occurs 12 hours later, and supports the memory on the 7-day retention test.

What are the calcium sources important for LTP?

One source is the Ca2+ in the extracellular fluid surrounding the neuron. This Ca2+ enters the dendritic spines through NMDA receptors and enters the soma through vdCCs. The other calcium source is intracellular. Ca2+ stored in the ER. It can be released when calcium binds to the RyRs located on the ER in the spine or when IP3 binds to IP3Rs located on ER in the dendrite.

Which synapses can capture PPs?

Only tagged synapses

Describe Thorndike's Law of Effect theory.

Outcomes produced by behavior ultimately adapt the animal to the situation by strengthening and weakening existing stimulus-response (S-R) connections. Outcomes that are rewarding strengthen S-R connections, while nonrewarding outcomes weaken connections.

Protein kinase A (PKA) phosphorylates ___ to traffic the receptor to the ___ region.

P3 or Ser 845; extrasynaptic

___ phosphorylates the Ser 818 site (P1) and helps to anchor the receptor to the ___

PKC; PSD

Kinases such as ___ require a second messenger (SM) to become active. PKMz has no ___ so it does not require a second messenger to be catalytic and it is ___

PKC; inhibitory domain; perpetually active

As the GluA2 receptors are released into the spine they are free to recapture the ___ and then function as ___

PKMz-PICK1 complex; autotags

___ has emerged as a potential orchestrator of the maintenance of potentiated spines and its main function is to reconfigure the trafficking of ___

PKMz; GluA2 AMPA receptors

Neurons in the entorhinal cortex are connected to the dentate gyrus by the

Perforant path

What are perineuronal nets?

Perineuronal nets surround neurons (especially inhibitory neurons) and have been discovered to be key developmental regulators of plasticity.

What is the property of the brain that allows it to be modified by experience?

Plasticity

A major feature of the postsynaptic membrane in excitatory synapses is...

Post-synaptic density

How does the UPS system work?

Post-translation modifications bond a ubiquitin molecule to a protein (ubiquitination). A polyubiquitin chain marks the protein for delivery to the proteasome and protein degradation

Initial changes in the strength of synapses depend on ___ however, enduring changes require ___

Post-translational processes; new proteins (transcription and translation properties)

The region of the spine where the membrane is thickened and it contains scaffolding proteins and receptors is called the

Postsynaptic density (PSD)

Inhibiting ___ activity in the hippocampus prevents the loss of a reactivated contextual fear memory.

Proteasome

Name the three phosphorylation sites found on GluA1 subunits, what proteins can phosphorylates them, and what is their function?

Protein kinase A (PKA) phosphorylates the Ser 845 site (P3) to traffic the receptor to the extrasynaptic region. Protein kinase C (PKC) phosphorylates the Ser 818 site (P1) and helps to anchor the receptor to the postsynaptic density. CaMKII phosphorylates the Ser 831 site (P2) and changes the channel, allowing it to influx calcium as well as sodium.

What is a typical resting membrane potential?

Ranges from -50mV to -80mV.

What is the result of injecting an inactive form of PKMz 5 days after memory acquisition?

Rats displayed markedly delayed taste aversion

In the radial methodology maze task, how often do rats make either type of mistake?

Rats rarely make reference or working memory errors

Lewis used Pavlovian fear conditioning and ECS to test the vulnerability of consolidated memories. Describe the results.

Rats that received both the reactivation treatment and ECS were extremely impaired when given a full test the following day. ECS had no effect when it was presented in the absence of shock/reactivation.

Ebbinghaus observed that:

Recall continued to decline after an hour but at a slower rate

What did the first forgetting curve reveal?

Recall rapidly declined within the hour, but remained stable thereafter.

What is an important difference between recognition based on recollection versus recognition based on familiarity?

Recognition based on recollection relies on the episodic memory system the hippocampus, while recognition based on familiarity does not.

Provide an example of recognition without recall.

Recognizing a person as familiar without being able to recall information about the place and time you met them.

What is the fundamental difference between reconsolidation theory and active trace theory?

Reconsolidation theory says that the act of retrieval is enough in itself to disrupt an already established memory, while active memory trace theory says that retrieval makes a consolidated memory vulnerable to disruption due to other agents.

How do actin dependent spine morphology changes create a more stable synapse?

Regulation of calcium is altered because the broad head and short neck allow the spine to more rapidly diffuse or eliminate the increased calcium resulting from NMDA receptor activation

Which theory of instrumental behavior would be most consistent with the dopamine incentive hypothesis?

Tolman's expectancy theory

Korsakoff believed that amnesia could be due to either one of what two processes?

Retention failure or storage failure

What are the two pathways that regulate actin? How are they similar and different?

Rho-ROCK cascade and Rac-PAK cascade; both pathways activate LIMK, a kinase that phosphorylates cofilin and allows actin polymerization. Only the Rac-PAK cascade, activates processes that reorganize and crosslink actin filaments to make them resistant to depolymerization.

What is the relationship between the hippocampus, learning goals, episodic memory system, automatic capture, and incidental information?

The hippocampus isn't driven by our intentions or goals to capture information. It contributes to the episodic memory system by automatically capturing the information it receives as we attend to and explore the world, including incidental information that doesn't pertain to the task at hand.

Provide experimental support for the soma-to-nucleus model.

S-LTP can be converted into L-LTP by initiating action potentials without strongly stimulating synapses. First, CA1 neurons are weakly stimulated and then action potentials are initiated in the same CA1 cells antidromically. These action potentials alone also were sufficient to phosphorylate ERK and CREB protein.

___ produced by the weak stimulus depends on only ___ and ___ of existing proteins

S-LTP; post-translation modifications; rearrangements

Who is credited as the father of the neuron doctrine?

Santiago Ramon y Cajal

Question 16 options: Kinases are put into the active state by

Second messengers

According to active trace theory, memories can exist in either a ___ memory active state or ___ memory inactive state.

Short term; long term

How are episodic and semantic memory systems similar; how are they different?

Similar: We can intentionally retrieve information from them and in some sense declare we have the memory; Differ: but the content of semantic memory is not tied to the place or context where it was acquired.

What is a problem with the animal model for studying episodic memory?

Since episodic memory supports conscious recollection in humans, it is hard to tell if the particular tasks researchers use really measure episodic memory in animals.

Compare the single trace theory to the dual trace theory of forgetting curves.

Single trace theory proposes that the forgetting curve reflects the natural decay of the underlying memory trace. In contrast the dual trace theory proposes that the forgetting results from the decay of two memory traces. One decays rapidly the other much slower.

Where is intracellular calcium found?

Smooth ER

What types of consolidated memory can be erased by applying ZIP to the appropriate brain region?

Spatial memory, fear memory, inhibitory avoidance memory, instrumental response memory, object-location memory, taste-aversion memory

Compare the effects of the following treatments on spine morphology: (a) release of caged glutamate only; (b) the release of caged glutamate plus spike timing

Spine enlargement is initiated by the release of caged glutamate but does not endure. However, spine enlargement persists when caed glutamate is combined with spike timing

Theta-burst stimulation (TBS) that produces enduring LTP also increases

Spine size

According to ___ the associations that make up an expectancy contain information about relationships between stimuli and relationships between behavior and stimulus outcomes.

Tolman

Genomic signaling can occur via two pathways: ___ and ___

Synapse-to-nucleus; Soma-to-nucleus

Where is the extracellular matrix located?

Synaptic cleft- separates the pre-synaptic and post-synaptic components

The idea that synapses can be modified by experience is call what?

Synaptic plasticity hypothesis

The idea that synapses can be modified by experience is called the

Synaptic plasticity hypothesis

What are TOP mRNAs? Explain how they enhance translation capacity.

Terminal oligopyrimidine tracts mRNA that encode for proteins such as ribosomal proteins and elongation factors, which are part of the translation machinery. They are needed to synthesize other proteins that have specific synaptic functions

What are the two types of stimuli applied in a LTP experiment?

Test stimulus and inducing stumulus.

Why is the CA1 region of the hippocampus important for episodic memory?

The CA1 field is a final stage whereby information processed by other regions is sent out via the subiculum.

What is the Doogie mouse?

The Doogie mouse was genetically engineered to overexpress GluN2B subunits in the cortex and the hippocampus. Doogie mice displayed enhanced LTP, enhanced memory formation, and superior performance in behavioral tests.

What is calcium-induced calcium release (CICR)?

The ER that protrudes into the spine contains ryanodine receptors (RyRs), which bind to calcium entering through NMDA receptors. Thus extracellular Ca2+ is amplified and some of the post-translation modifications necessary to induce LTP are triggered.

Explain the term flexibility in the context of instrumental behavior.

The action system is flexible and designed to rapidly respond to changes in response contingencies. The habit system response adapts more slowly to incremental changes and has to unlearn existing S-R associations and or slowly acquire new ones

Use the following words to describe the endocytosis of GluA2 receptors in a few sentences: Trk, GkluA2, endocytotic zone, PSD, activation, NSF-PICK1 complex

The activation of Trk (tyrosine receptor kinase) receptors phosphorylates tyrosine sites on GluA2 AMPA receptors. This activity releases the receptors from the PSD into the endocytotic zone where they bond with the NSF-PICK1 complex for recycling

Explain why the following statement is false: "CREB antisense remains present at the injection site for days causing LTM impairment."

The antisense is only present for less than 20 hours, but rats show LTM impairment even 3 days after training. The impairment is not due to the antisense directly, but because CREB was unavailable at the time of the training to facilitate the transcription of new mRNAs needed to produce enduring memory.

What methodology could you use to prevent the translation of a specific protein?

The antisense methodology

What does the conditioned response demonstrate with regard to the behavioral index?

The association that links the CS and US representations.

What is the reasonable conclusion that can be made based on Saucier and Cain's observations? Did they disprove the role of NMDA receptors as crucial to memory formation?

The brain has redundant mechanisms that might substitute for each other and there are such mechanisms that can produce memories when NMDA receptors are not functional. No, it is possible that functioning NMDA receptors normally contribute to creating place memories.

In indexing theory, which brain area stores the experience and which provides the index?

The content of an experience is stored in neocortical regions of the brain and the hippocampus stores is information about how to retrieve the memories stored in the neocortex. To access that information, when this representation is activated it projects back to the neocortex to activate the pattern representing the entire experience.

What were the results and implications from systematically injecting the protein-synthesis inhibitor, anisomycin, prior to fear conditioning?

The drug had no effect at the 1-hour retention interval but impaired retention at the longer, 6- and 24-hour tests. These results are consistent with the idea that a short-term memory trace can be formed that does not depend on protein synthesis, while a long-term memory trace requires new proteins.

What is the relationship between the neocortex, a memory, and the hippocampus according to indexing theory?

The experience causes patterns of activity in the neocortex and that input is represented by modified synapses in the hippocampus.

What is the main advantage of the using invertebrates such as Aplysia is to study the neural basis of memory?

The experimenter has a good chance of locating the synapses that store the memory.

Explain why it is possible to induce LTP in the dentate gyrus of the CA1KO mouse, but not in the CA1 region of the brain. How does this affect the mouse's performance in the place-learning task?

The genetically engineered deletion targeted the NMDA receptors in CA1 pyramidal cell and not the dentate gyrus. Its memory was impaired and it could not learn to swim to the platform.

Either epinephrine or glucose can be injected to influence memory strength.

True

How does the discrimination reversal learning strategy tests the flexibility of the system that supports a particular instrumental behavior?

The idea behind this strategy is that the action system would facilitate learning changes in the outcome but the habit system would interfere because it is slow to change.

What is the multiple memory systems perspective?

The idea that memories are sorted and stored in specific brain regions depending on the content of the experience.

What is the synaptic plasticity hypothesis?

The idea that neuronal connectivity is not fixed, but remains modifiable throughout the lifetime of an individual.

___ must also initiate translation processes to generate new protein.

The inducing stimulus

Give two reasons why the following statement is problematic. "We already know how memories are made."

The information acquired by studying LTP comes from a highly artificial preparation, where 1) an electrical even is used to induce LTP, which bypasses all sensory inputs and 2) the tissue is revolved from the brain and gone through many steps to remain functional

Name the molecules necessary for the initial translation of PKMζ.

The kinases—CaMKII, P13, MAPK, PKA, mTOR—as well as actin filaments.

Describe the neural components of the fear system in as much detail as possible.

The lateral nucleus receives sensory input from the sensory thalamus, perirhinal cortex, and hippocampus that provides information about the current state of the environment. The basal nucleus contains both fear and extinction neurons. Neurons in the central amygdala control midbrain structures that support the expression of fear behaviors. When neurons in the central amygdala depolarize they activate the midbrain nuclei to generate defensive behaviors. An ITC-b cluster normally inhibits central amygdala neurons.

Explain the hierarchical structure of the episodic memory system?

The level of integration or abstraction of information increases as it flows from the associative cortices to the perirhinal and parahippocampal cortices to the entorhinal cortex and through the hippocampus.

What hypothesis is supported by experiments separating dendrites in the CA1 region of the hippocampus from their cell bodies have observed?

The local protein synthesis hypothesis

Henry Malaison wasn't the first patient to display amnesia for certain types of information. What was unique about his case?

The location of the brain damage was well recorded, which allowed researchers to better understand what brain areas are responsible for memory.

What is the primary strategy used to study PKMz?

The most common strategy is to pharmacologically inactivate PKMζ with ZIP.

What are plasticity products (PPs)?

The new mRNA and protein generated as a result of neural activity.

A major mechanism for the expression of LTP involved increasing ___ in the membrane of synapses

The number of AMPA receptors

What are the basic components of the synapse?

The presynaptic terminal, a synaptic cleft, and a postsynaptic dendrite.

What is the key outcome of the vagus connection?

The release of norepinephrine into the BLA.

Why is the reward devaluation strategy used?

The reward devaluation strategy is used to determine if the instrumental behavior is purposeful and goal directed.

Enduring memories are independent of the presence of PKMz

True

What is the importance of the holoenzyme structure of CaMKII?

The ring-like structure of the holoenzyme allows a subunit to phosphorylate its neighbor. This process of autophosphorylation enables the subunits to remain active even when Ca2+-calmodulin is no longer present. Thus, the holoenzyme can remain in a perpetually active state.

What are the differences between the subcortical pathway and the cortical pathway? Which one provides richer representations of the experience?

The subcortical pathway comes directly from the sensory thalamus, which is thought to provide a somewhat impoverished representation of the sensory experience. The cortical pathway carries information from the sensory thalamus to the neocortical regions of the brain including the perirhinal cortex and hippocampus, which also project to the lateral nucleus and provide a richer, more detailed representation.

What is the retention interval?

The time between the training experience that establishes the memory and the test used to retrieve the memory.

What evidence suggest that actin regulation is critical for memory formation?

The training procedure used to produce object-place recognition memory increases phosphorylated cofilin.

Why might Zip erase memories in PKMζ KO mice?

There are compensatory, redundant molecules for PKMζ that are also ZIP targets.

What important insight was implied by Ribot's hypothesis that memories dissolve in stages?

There are different categories of memory and they are supported by different neural systems.

Why is the resting membrane potential negative?

There are more negatively charged ions inside the neuron.

Why are behavioral systems necessary?

There are specialized behavioral systems designed to ensure that some particular need is met.

How are perineuronal nets connected to fear extinction?

These nets are not present during the period early in development when extinction training erases the fear memory but are present later in development when extinction produces new learning.

A drug inhibits molecule X and it impaired performance at the long, 24-hour retention interval but had no effect on performance at the short, 1-hour retention interval. What can be said about the contribution of molecule X to memory?

These results indicate that molecule X contributes to the consolidation of the long-term memory trace but is not required for short-term memory.

Duration of LTP increases with the number of...

Theta bursts

What is a benefit of larger spines?

They can endure for days

Why are learning and memory theoretical concepts?

They cannot be observed, they are inferred.

What is the difference between competitive and noncompetitive antagonists?

They occupy different sites on the receptor. Competitive antagonists prevent the endogenous ligand from binding to the receptor. Noncompetitive bind to another site and prevent the activation of the receptor.

What is the function of constitutive trafficking processes?

They regulate the continuous trafficking of AMPA receptors in and out of the PSD.

What conclusion was supported by the experiment that used diphtheria neurotoxin?

This experiment support the conclusion that neurons that overexpress CREB were the ones that won the competition to participate in to support enduring memories.

Defend or refute the following statement citing experimental evidence to support your argument: "GluA1 subunits are required for the initial early phase of LTP but not for the later developing phase."

This is true because, when stimulated by a stronger theta-burst protocol, slices from the GluA1 of KO mice display an enduring LTP equivalent to control mice, even though they do not display the early, short-lasting phase.

A normal rat will explore the object presented in the different context as if it were novel, but a rat with damage to the hippocampus treats explored objects as familiar. Explain these results.

This means that control animals had a memory of the object and the context in which it occurred, but rats with damage to the hippocampus did not.

Why was diphtheria neurotoxin used to study neuron competition in the lateral amygdala?

This neurotoxin selectively targets neurons that over express CREB.

How does Tolman's cognitive expectancy system differ from Thorndike's view?

Tolman believed that our brains detect and store information about relationships among all the events provided by a particular experience. He believed that instrumental behaviors are purposeful and organized around goals.

How does systems consolidation theory explain Ribot's law?

This theory assumes that events that disrupt memory target the medial temporal hippocampal system. As the memory ages it becomes liberated from this system—no longer dependent on the MTHS. Thus, old memories are less vulnerable than new memories because they no longer depend on this system for retrieval.

Why would one vary the interval separating training and the administration of a protein synthesis inhibitor such as anisomycin?

This would be done to be sure that the effect was selective for proteins synthesized in response to the memory inducing behavioral experienced and not just a nonselective effect of blocking protein synthesis.

Why would an increase in the population of AMPA receptors increase the f (EPSP)?

This would happen because with more AMPA receptors available to bind to glutamate more sodium ions would leave the extracellular fluid.

The Law of Effect originated with ___

Thorndike

The enhancing effect of epinephrine is ___ dependent

Time

What is a function of neurotrophic factors?

To activate the ERK-MAPK pathway.

What is the function of the inducing stimulus?

To change the strength of the synaptic connections.

What is the role of calpains?

To degrade actin networks so that GluA1 receptors can enter the PSD

What is the role of repetition in the trace-updating framework?

To further strengthen an established memory, repetition must destabilize the trace.

What is the function of ZIP?

To inactivate PKMζ

PKMz is a kinase. What is its function?

To phosphorylate other proteins

What is the function of a kinase?

To phosphorylate proteins and change their function.

What is the purpose of nonsense syllables?

To separate what the subject has already learned from what they are asked to remember.

Hermann Ebbinghaus invented nonsense syllables:

To study pure memory

The function of ribosomes is

To translate mRNA into protein

A memory trace can be weakened or strengthened according to ___

Trace updating

What two general processes are necessary for memory consolidation?

Translation and Transcription

What is the function of TARPs?

Transmembrane AMPA receptor regulatory proteins co-assemble with AMPA receptors and are critical to trapping them in the PSD.

___ selectively phosphorylate sites on GluA2 AMPA receptors, which makes them prone to ___

Trk receptors; endocytosis

Interfering with BDNF activating ___ receptors prevents the translation of TOP mRNAs and development of long-lasting LTP

TrkB

A behavioral experience that produces a memory is likely to result in more phosphorylated cofilin and more autophosphorylated CaMKII

True

A dog that salivates after a bell is rung is an example of a conditioned response.

True

AMPA receptors primarily influx Na+. However, NMDA receptors influx both Na+ and Ca2+.

True

According to reconsolidation theory retrieving a consolidated memory is enough to disrupt it.

True

According to the active memory theory, remembering an old, consolidated memory will return in to its active, short-term state.

True

According to the modular view, the entorhinal cortex is on top of the hierarchy for semantic memory.

True

According to the neuron doctrine, neurons are contiguous with each other.

True

According to the standard model of systems consolidation, damage to the hippocampus would not cause retrograde amnesia if it were damage weeks after the memory was consolidated.

True

According to the standard model of systems consolidation, the hippocampus is only Temporarily involved in the consolidation of episodic and semantic memories

True

Actin filaments are necessary for the initial synthesis of PKMz

True

Ampakines are neither agonists nor antagonists.

True

An enduring LTP can be established independent of any contribution from GluA1 receptors, but it requires GluA2 AMPA receptors

True

Anisomycin will disrupt a retrieved memory unless NMDA receptor and vdCCs are antagonized or the UPS system is inhibited.

True

Anisomycin's effects on retrieved memory depend on proteasome activity.

True

Applying anisomycin causes LTP produced by intense, high-frequency stimulation to resemble that produced by a weak-induction stimulus.

True

Arc antisense infused into the lateral amygdala impaired memory for a fear-conditioning experience when the retention interval was 24 hours but not when the interval was 3 hours.

True

Arc antisense prevents the consolidation of LTP

True

BDNF is synthesized, stored, and released from the presynaptic neuron, but it can also be released from dendrites

True

Behavior is the product of many subcomponent systems

True

Blocking the translation of Arc mRNA has no effect on the induction of LTP but prevents it from enduring

True

C/EBPβ is a transcription factor.

True

CNQX is capable of preventing the induction and the expression of LTP.

True

CREB is activated by post-translation modifications.

True

CaMKII does not have a calcium binding site.

True

Calcium activated Calmodulin that can play a role in the phosphorylation of CREB can be found inside and outside the nucleus.

True

Calcium is a second messenger

True

Degrading existing protein is just as important to LTP as the synthesis of new protein

True

Disrupting either the mTORC1 and mTORC2 complex will impair the development of long-term memory but have no influence on the formation of a short-term memory.

True

During synaptic depolarization, Na+ ions leave the extracellular space and enter the neuron.

True

When injected into the BLA following a reactivation treatment, anisomycin had no effect on the short-term memory test but produced a large impairment on the long-term memory test.

True

ZIP application prior to induction will prevent late phase LTP, but not initial LTP expression.

True

What is the structure of a kinase?

Two domains: a catalytic domain and an inhibitory domain

Rats were conditioned to two auditory-cue conditioned stimuli, CS1 and CS2. Only CS2 was presented during the reactivation phase 24 hours later. What is the effect of injecting U0126 prior to reactivation on CS1 and CS2? Why?

U0126 will only disrupt the memory associated with CS2, because only that memory trace was in the active state. Thus, it should have no effect on CS1.

Memory modulators influence only the storage of ___ acquired memories

Very recently

According to active trace theory the retrieval of a memory makes the trace

Vulnerable to disruption

What is an "adhesive zipper"?

When a N cadherin dimer from the presynaptic domain contacts an identical dimer from the postsynaptic domain.

Describe pattern completion.

When a subset or portion of the experience that originally established the memory trace is encountered, it can activate or replay the entire experience.

Explain the floor effect

When a treatment is hypothesized to impair the memory process that produces avoidance behavior, but the performance measure was too low to be further reduced by the drug

What is the function of channelrhodopsin and halorhodopsins?

When activated by blue light, channelrhodopsins (channel proteins) could be stimulated to open and close with millisecond precision and conduct positive ions with the result of depolarizing the neuron. Halorhodopsins, when stimulated with green light, conduct negatively charged chloride ions and thereby hyperpolarize the neuron

What is the connection between epinephrine, the "flight-or-fight" response, and memory modulation?

When an arousing event occurs, epinephrine is released by the adrenal medulla and it binds to receptors in the liver causing the release of glucose into the blood to support the flight-or-flight response, but in the brain that glucose helps to maintain transcription and translation processes that strengthen memory.

Describe the effects of applying latrunculin and cytochalasin before TBS and 20 minutes after?

When applied before TBS, these drugs prevent the formation of an enduring LTP, but do not influence initial induction. These drugs have no effect when applied 20 minutes after the induction stimulus.

What is the evidence for the neuro-hormonal circuit?

When epinephrine is administered to anesthetized rats it activates the vagal nerve, but this outcome is prevented when the beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist sotalol is applied.

The field potential measured by the extracellular recording has a negative slope. Why?

When synapses depolarize, positive ions move away from the recording field of the electrode and into the neuron.

What brought Vargha-Khadem and her colleagues to the conclusion that there was a disproportionate sparing of semantic memory compared to episodic memory in patients who suffered selective damage to their hippocampus early in life?

While they all developed normal language and social skills, their memory for everyday experiences was so poor that none of them could be left alone for any extended period of time.

As the nervous system develops, would you expect to see any changes in LTP induction?

Yes, because GluN2B subunits are replaced by GluN2A subunits, and they have different channel-opening properties. It is easier to induce LTP when the GluN2B subunit dominates

It is reasonable to expect that behavioral experiences that produce memories would engage the LIMK signaling pathway?

Yes, because actin polymerization is necessary for synaptic changes in LTP

Norepinephrine causes amygdala neurons in the BLA to generate a sustained release of glutamate onto neurons in the target storage sites. Do you agree with this statement? Why or why not?

Yes, because the adrenergic receptors that norepinephrine binds to are coupled to a G-protein complex, which cause downstream events that activate the cAMP-PKA pathway.

The associations that support action-based behavior are still present even after the behavior becomes a habit. Do you agree with this statement? Why or why not?

Yes, because when the infralimbic function was impaired the rats became sensitive to the value of the reward.

Did H.M.'s case provide evidence for the multiple memory systems view? Defend your answer.

Yes, he provided the foundation for the theory, because his anterograde and retrograde amnesia were restricted to certain kinds of content.

Does ZIP applied two or five hours following induction have any effects on LTP expression?

Yes, it will reverse late-phase LTP.

What is ZIP's function?

ZIP functions as the missing inhibitory domain for PKMz and thus can return it to an inactive, non-catalytic state in which it no longer can phosphorylate other proteins

Marr suggested that although the hippocampus can rapidly acquire information, it serves only as ___

a temporary memory store

As information is carried forward to the hippocampus it becomes more ___ and integrated

abstract/compressed

The mTORC2 complex regulates processes that contribute to the regulation of ___

actin

Spine size is largely determined by the ___

actin cytoskeleton

The initial induction of LTP requires a rapid disassembling of ___ while the final consolidation stage involves ___ of filament actin

actin filaments; crosslinking

Cocaine selectively interferes with ___ in spines located on neurons in the region of the brain that supports the action system.

actin reorganization

Cocaine and chronic stress have been found to interfere with the ___ system

action

If the response is controlled by the ___ system, devaluing the outcome should reduce the likelihood that the response will occur.

action

The prelimbic region is critical in the acquisition of the associations that support a(n) ___

action

What are the two categories of instrumental behavior?

actions and habits

Fear conditioning increased the presence of phosphorylated CaMKII in dendritic spines. This result means that the conditioning experience ___ this ___

activated; kinase

Norepinephrine is secreted by the ___ and it can act as a ___ in the brain

adrenal medulla; neurotransmitter

The liver cells contain ___ that initiate signaling that results in the liver secreting glucose into the blood an arousing event is experienced.

adrenergic receptors

Epinephrine in the blood stream binds to ___ located on the ___ nerve

adrenergic receptors; vagus

One reason the basolateral region of the amygdala (BLA) is believed to be the primary mediator of epinephrine's influence on memory because of its many ___ with other regions of the brain that store memories.

anatomical connections

Inhibiting proteasome activity in the basolateral amygdala can protect memories from the effect of ___

anisomycin

Pretreatment with ___, a protein synthesis inhibitor, prevents the strong stimulus from producing ___

anisomycin; L-LTP

The ___ methodology could be used to prevent the translation of a specific protein

antisense

The waveform produced by a current generator used to generate LTP is called the

artifact

The ___ assumes that extinction is due to the CS-alone presentation eliminating or erasing the original CS-US association.

associative loss hypothesis

The process by which CaMKII can remain in an active state is called

autophosphorylation

The ___ of ___ may be critical for the rapid formation of a memory but other processes can compensate for this contribution when multiple training trials occur

autophosphorylation; CaMKII

The striatum is the basic input segment of the ___

basal ganglia

The formation of a memory trace begins when a ___ activates a set of ___ neurons

behavioral experience; weakly connected

Where are clusters of intercalated cells (ITCs) located?

between the basolateral complex and the central amygdala.

When neurons expressing channelrhodopsin-2 were activated by a ___ the mice displayed fear in a context where they had never been shocked.

blue light

What is the evidence that the amygdala facilitates the storage of some memories but it is not needed to retain the memory?

both the place-learning and visible-platform versions of the Morris water-escape task can be learned and remembered even when the amygdala is significantly damaged, however, when a stimulant drug is injected into the amygdala following training, retention performance on both versions of the task is enhanced.

Systems consolidation refers to changes in the strength of the memory trace brought about by interactions between ___

brain regions

The release of ___ produced an initial change in spine volume, but no sustained spine growth

caged glutamate without spike timing

The ___ domain of a kinase adds phosphate groups to other proteins.

catalytic

___ is the process that initially forms the memory trace.

cellular consolidation

Neurons in the lateral hypothalamus (LH) produce ___

changes in autonomic responses

In its normal unphosphorylated state, ___ depolymerizes actin filaments

cofilin

Fear extinction is ___ specific

context

Intracellular calcium stored in the ER can be released into ___ when it binds to ___. Calcium can be released when ___ bins to ___.

dendritic spines; RyRs; IP3; IP3Rs

RyRs release calcium into the ___ and IP3Rs release calcium into the ___

dendritic spines; dendritic compartment

Hippocampal neurons in the ___ that were active during a contextual fear-conditioning experience expressed channelrhodopsin-2.

dentate gyrus

Inhibiting the UPS enhances initial LTP that ___

depends on local protein synthesis

When in a phosphorylated state cofilin no longer ___ F-actin

depolymerizes

The test stimulus has two functions. One is to establish a baseline and the second one is to act as a probe to

determine if the strength of the synaptic connections has changed

The ECS methodology did not advance understanding of memory, because it was already known that brain trauma can

disrupt recently established memories

According to the ___ with limited training instrumental behaviors are goal directed actions, but with practice, instrumental behaviors tend to shift from actions to habits, meaning they become insensitive to reward devaluation.

dominance principle

Damage to the ___ can prevent a behavior from ever becoming a habit.

dorsalateral striatum (DLS)

Exposure to ___ can cause a treated drug user to relapse.

drug related cues

Larger spines may no longer be eligible to be modified, because of their increased ability to ___

efflux calcium

The membrane potential is the difference between the ___ inside the neuron and its value in the ___

electrical charge; extracellular fluid

The injection of norepinephrine into the amygdala following the place-learning task will ___ retention performance

enhance

If the partial NMDA agonist DCS is injected either before or immediately after extinction training, the next day the rodents display ___ extinctio

enhanced

Inhibiting the UPS system prior to induction ___ the early phases of LTP

enhances

Pattern completion means that a subset of the original input pattern can activate the ___

entire original input pattern

Information flows into and out of the hippocampus, from and to the ___

entorhinal cortex

Human subjects were injected with ___ immediately following exposure to visual scenes and these subjects had ___

epinephrine; better recall

Studies of patients with selective damage to the hippocampus reveal that it is critically involved in

episodic memory

Recollection includes content that is supported by the ___

episodic memory system

The removal of Henry's medial temporal lobes disrupted what is called the ___

episodic memory system

The hippocampus is targeted because, it is critical for ___ and the ___ is targeted because it is critically involved in the storage of emotional memories

episodic memory; amygdala

In infant rats younger than 3 weeks, extinction seems to

erase some aspect of the fear memory

To prevent drug relapse in rats, Everitt tried to ___ the ___ by injecting Zif 268 antisense into the amygdala following CS alone presentations.

erase; CS/light-drug association

The prelimbic region is critical in the acquisition of the associations that support a habit.

false

The process of pattern completion enables similar experiences to be stored as unique memories.

false

The standard model of systems consolidation applies to declarative and procedural memory.

false

The action system acquires ___ whereas the system acquires ___

expectancies; stimulus-response associations

Rats have to both ___ and then receive ___ for norepinephrine to be released in the amygdala.

explore the environment; electrical shock

Fear acquisition training strengthens synapses that link the CS to fear neurons and fear extinction training strengthen synapses that link the CS to ___

extinction neurons

Researchers use ___ study patterns of brain activity produced when normal subjects are asked to retrieve episodic memories.

fMRI

AMPA receptors are needed only for memory acquisition, but NMDA receptors are required for both acquisition and retrieval.

false

According to Thorndike's Law of Effect, instrumental behavior is considered purposeful or goal directed.

false

According to the modular view, the entorhinal cortex is on top of the hierarchy for episodic memory.

false

According to the unitary view, components of the MTH system are relatively dedicated to specific functions.

false

By itself, electric shock will cause norepinephrine to be released in the amygdala.

false

Caroline and Robert Blanchard found that the predatory imminence gradient only applies to animal models.

false

Fleeing is the dominant and most effective defensive behavior in rodents.

false

Flexibility refers to the ability to recall only purposeful memories.

false

Henry Malaison could not learn and retain any new skills.

false

Inactivating prelimbic neurons does not affect the expression of fear behaviors.

false

Information from the perirhinal and parahippocampus cortices is next projected to the hippocampus.

false

Initial experiments by Mishkin revealed that damage to either the hippocampus or the amygdala had severe effect on DNMS performance.

false

Injecting an enzyme that degrades the perineuronal net into the BLA prior or after fear conditioning erases the fear memory in adult rodents.

false

Mark Bouton's research found evidence for the associative loss hypothesis.

false

Our episodic memory system can only be accessed if we intentionally initiate a search.

false

Rats with damage to the action system would adapt more rapidly to a discrimination reversal than normal rats.

false

Rats with damage to the striatum performed as well as control rats in the adjacent-arm task.

false

Remembering the plot of a book you read a few months ago is an example of working memory

false

Reward devaluation will not influence the behavior if it is controlled by the action system.

false

Sensory information at the neocortex level is well integrated, but not abstract.

false

The ITC-b cluster normally excites central amygdala neurons.

false

The activation of the entire memory by a subset of the original experience is called pattern separation.

false

The habit system adapts rapidly to changes in contingencies.

false

The hippocampus automatically stores only information that pertains to the task at hand.

false

The hippocampus stores the content of experiences.

false

The patient in Claparède's experiment could remember that there was a hidden pin.

false

The waveform representing action potential is called the

fiber volley

According to predatory imminence gradient, as the predator moves within striking distance the rat will ___

flee

The discrimination reversal learning strategy tests the ___ of the system that supports a particular instrumental behavior.

flexibility

When trying to assess the effect of a gene or drug on short-term memory, the retention interval is

four hours or less

In fear conditioning, shocked rats display more ___ than rats that were not shocked

freezing

___ is the dominant and most effective defensive behavior in rodents.

freezing

Neurons in the periaqueductal gray (PAG) produce ___

freezing and analgesia

Malinow's experiment showed that the memory for the fear experience, as measured by the rat's ___ depends on trafficking AMPA receptors with ___ into the membrane

freezing response; functional GluA1 subunits

Unlike adrenaline, ___ can directly enter the brain

glucocorticoids

If the response is controlled by the ___ system, then reward devaluation will not influence the behavior.

habit

Behaviors supported by S-R connections are called ___

habits

In memory retrieval, a subset of the initial input pattern can activate the ___

hippocampal index

In the brain, insulin growth factor-II (IGF-2) is mostly found in the

hippocampus

Question 5 options: Behavioral experiences that can produce enduring memories cause the rapid transcription of Arc in the ___

hippocampus

The general conclusion from neuroimaging studies is that recollection-based recognition is associated with the ___

hippocampus

Encountering components of a prior episode can activate the ___ which in turn projects back to the neocortex and activates the ___

hippocampus index; content of the episode or memory

Memory-producing behavioral experiences up-regulate the expression of BDNF mRNA in both the ___ and ___

hippocampus, basolateral amygdala

If a drug impaired performance at both the short and long retention intervals, it is possible that it interfered with

how the animal normally sampled the environment

The idea that the hippocampus binds inputs from coactive patterns of neocortical activity is called ___

indexing theory

Preventing the expression of the Zif268 protein in BLA completely eliminated the ability of the CS to ___

induced relapse

As the intensity of a(n) ___ increases so does the ___ LTP.

inducing stimulus; duration

___ inhibits the fear response by activating ITC-b cells.

infralimbic neurons

Optogenetics have been used to experimentally show the importance of the ___ in the habit system

infralimbic prefrontal cortex

According to reconsolidation theory, the very act of retrieval can potentially cause the memory to be lost, but retrieval also ___ another ___

initiates; round of protein synthesis

To prevent drug relapse in rats, Everitt tried to erase the CS-drug association by injecting ___ into the amygdala following CS alone presentations.

injecting Zif268 antisense

What is the evidence that perineuronal nets support processes that protect the synapses strengthened by fear conditioning from erasure?

injecting an enzyme that degrades the perineuronal net into the BLA prior to fear conditioning produced this result in adult rodents—following extinction training they did not display spontaneous recovery or renewal. However, injecting the enzyme after conditioning did produce this result—these mice displayed both spontaneous recovery and renewal.

The defensive behavioral system can be activated by ___ or by learned danger signals.

innate danger signals

ZIP will erase taste aversion memories, when injected into the ___ but not when injected into the ___

insular cortex; hippocampus

Sensory information received by the unimodel associative and polymodal associative areas is not well ___

integrated

Memories are the product of organisms ___ with their ___

interacting; environments

To cause CREB overexpression, a viral vector was used to deliver CREB into the

lateral amygdala

Thorndike found that escape latency gradually decreased as a function of trials, indicating that the animal had ___

learned to escape

In the conceptual model of instrumental learning the habit system is located in ___

level I

In the conceptual model of instrumental learning the action system is located in ___

level II

In the conceptual model of instrumental learning performance of the instrumental response depends upon the activation of the response representation in ___

level i

Old animals display a failure of the ___ to respond to epinephrine

liver

The mTORC1 complex regulates

local protein synthesis

The presence of translation machinery and mRNA in the local dendritic region supports

local protein synthesis

Paul Gold used a low-intensity shock so that rats were ___ and injected a dose of epinephrine that would mimic the level normally released by the adrenal gland in response to ___

minimally aroused, a more arousing shock.

Henry Malaison could learn and retain the skills needed to perform the ___ and rotary-pursuit tasks.

mirror tracing

The induction stimulus sets in motion a set of processes that ___ and rearrange ___ during stabilization

modify; existing proteins

According to the ___ damage to the hippocampus will disrupt episodic but not semantic memory.

modular view

Researchers who argue that semantic memories can be acquired even when the hippocampus is selectively removed believe in which view of the medial temporal hippocampal system?

modular view of the memory

After consolidation the memory trace has to overcome

molecular turnover

The idea that the brain sorts memories by their content is called the ___

multiple memory systems view

Studies using the fMRI method generally support the ___

multiple trace theory

Information flows to the highest level of integration and then loops back to the ___

neocortical areas

The ERK-MAPK pathway is activated by

neurotrophic factors

In Pavlovian conditioning, a ___ is paired with the ___.

neutral or conditioned stimulus; unconditioned stimulus

In the DNMS task, the monkey will find a reward such as a grape or a peanut if it chooses the ___ object

new

To ensure consolidation, ___ must be generated

new material

A retrieved memory trace is restabilized by ___

new protein synthesis

In their review of the human amnesia literature, Nadel and Moscovitch concluded that if the hippocampal system is severely damaged there is ___

no sparing of either remote or recent episodic memories

When using a lentivirus with a dominant negative gene to study PKMζ, the resulting protein is ___

non-functional

The dopamine neurons are located in the ventral tegmental area (VTA) and their fibers project into the ___ of the striatum

nucleus accumbens

Where is mRNA found in the neuron?

nucleus; soma; dendtites

___ allows scientist to control one type of cell without altering other types

optogenetics

Instrumental behavior is modified by the ___

outcome it produces

In the intact neuron, the UPS system serves to down-regulate ___ proteins

over-expressed

From the viewpoint of the episodic system, every episode of our lives is unique, even if it contains ___

overlapping information

The idea that a subset of the original input pattern can activate the entire original input pattern is called ___

pattern completion

When neurons in the central amygdala are activated, they activate neurons in the lateral hypothalamus and ___ and generate fear behaviors.

periaqueductal gray

___ support processes that protect the synapses strengthened by fear conditioning from erasure.

perineuronal nets

The general conclusion from neuroimaging studies is that familiarity is supported by the ___

perirhinal cortex

The lateral nucleus receives sensory input from the sensory thalamus, ___ and hippocampus that provides information about the current state of the environment.

perirhinal cortex

The process of ___ depends on the catalytic unit

phosphorylation

The regulator/inhibitory domain of a(n) ___ contains ___ which is unexposed when the kinase is in an inactive state.

phosphorylation site, Thr286

PKMz is a ___ that can be captured by weakly stimulated synapses

plasticity product

The state of cofilin regulates actin ___ and ___

polymerization and depolymerization

APV and the selective GluN2B antagonist ifenprodil ___ the extinction of the fear response.

prevent

Drugs such as b-lactone and epoxomycin can ___ proteasomes from ___ protein

prevent; degrading

When the protein synthesis inhibitory emetine was applied to the entire hippocampal slice, it ___ L-LTP, but when applied to just the soma it ___ L-LTP.

prevented; it did not block

Mark Bouton's research found evidence that extinction ___

produces new learning

An important function of the striatum is to ___

project back to the motor cortex

___ may be used to attenuate avoidance response in PTSD.

propranolol

Hermann Ebbinghaus invented nonsense syllables to study ___.

pure memory

What are the four differences between action and habit?

purpose, sensitivity to outcome, associative structure, flexibility

In inhibitory avoidance conditioning, it is assumed that the strength of the memory trace is reflected in the ___

response latency

What is the key independent variable manipulated to determine if a molecule is selectively involved in LTM but not STM?

retention interval

Forgetting the location of a book or a cup of coffee, only to remember it later, is an example of

retrieval failure

A blow to the head that produces amnesia for events experienced prior to the blow is an example of ___

retrograde amnesia

Declarative memory includes episodic memory and ___ memory

semantic

Making generalizations is a property of ___

semantic memory

CREB knockout mice displayed normal fear conditioning when the retention interval was ___ but were impaired when the retention interval was ___

short; long

The vagus nerve carries information about the body and synapses on a brain stem region called the

solitary tract nucleus or NTS

The ___ is at the center of what is sometimes called the cortico-striatal system.

striatum

The ___ is the output region of the MTH.

subiculum

The ___ of AMPA and NMDA receptors determines whether or not rodents are successful on working memory and reference memory tasks

subunit composition

According to the tag and capture hypothesis, a strong stimulus (SS) tags a ___ and generates a genomic signaling cascade that leads to ___ and ___ of proteins

synapse; transcription; translation

According to reconsolidation theory, when a memory is retrieved the ___ underlying the trace become unbound or weakened.

synapses

According to the tag and capture hypothesis, a weak stimulus (WS) can ___ synapses but it cannot generate new ___

tag; plasticity products

Henry Malaison had extensive anterograde and retrograde amnesia, but his short-term memory was intact.

true

Initial experiments by Mishkin revealed that damage to either the hippocampus or the amygdala had very little effect on Delayed Nonmatching to Sample (DNMS) performance.

true

Information processed by the striatum projects back to the motor cortex via the ___

thalamus

Ampakines cross ___ and bind to a site on the ___ receptor

the BBB; AMPA

As the nervous system develops, ___ subunits tend to be replaced by ___ subunits

the GluN2B; GluN2A

Tonegawa deleted ___ in ___ in the CA1 field of the mouse hippocampus

the GlyN1 subunits; pyramidal cells

When measuring fEPSP in the CA1 region dendrites, stimulation is delivered to

the Schaffer collateral fibers

What is the major assumption in the soma-to-nucleus signaling model?

the action potentials produced when a cell depolarizes open voltage dependent calcium channels near the soma that signal the nucleus.

___ plays an important role in attaching value to outcomes.

the basolateral amygdala

When investigating a drug or some other manipulation that is hypothesized to strengthen a memory trace, researchers should use low intensity shock to avoid ___

the ceiling effect

When the response measure is at its maximum, researchers should be wary of ___

the ceiling effect

The entorhinal cortex projects to two hippocampal regions. What are they?

the dentate gyrus and the CA1 region

Damage to ___ makes rats insensitive to reward revaluation.

the dorsomedial striatum (DMS)

In fear conditioning, the duration of ___ is an indicator of the ___ of the memory

the freezing response; strength

The idea that a behavioral experience can generate transcriptions of new genetic material is called

the genomic signaling hypothesis

According to Suzanne Corkin and new clinical data, damage to even just ___ produces a profound retrograde amnesia for both new and old episodic memories.

the hippocampal formation

Which brain region determines whether the CS activates extinction neurons or fear neurons?

the hippocampal system

___ sits at the top of a hierarchically organized system.

the hippocampus

What are the basic assumptions of indexing theory?

the hippocampus binds inputs from coactive patterns of neocortical activity and when activated by a subset of the original pattern occurs the index will activate the original input pattern.

Rats that had limited training were sensitive to the value of the reward, making fewer lever-pressing responses than the control rats. What conclusions can you make?

the lever press can be considered an action

According to the standard model of systems memory consolidation, older memory traces are stored in ___

the neocortex

Where does the first level of integration occur?

the perirhinal and parahippocampus cortices

Which brain region can serve to amplify the fear signal?

the prelimbic region

Instrumental behavior is modifies by the outcome it produces.

true

It is likely that the monkeys with damage to the hippocampus were using recognition based on familiarity to perform the DNMS.

true

Like the MTH system, the cortico-striatal system has return-loop organization.

true

Mark Bouton's research found evidence against the associative loss hypothesis.

true

Optogenetics provides strong support for the idea that the contextual fear memory trace depends on the hippocampus for the life of the memory.

true

Rats with damage to the habit system would adapt more rapidly to a discrimination reversal than normal rats.

true

Research subsequent to Mishkin's report led to the conclusion that it was the damage to ___ which drastically impaired performance on the DNMS task.

the rhinal cortex

Temporally graded retrograde amnesia following damage to the hippocampus would support ___

the standard model for systems consolidation

The existence of a memory trace is inferred when ___ influences behavior

the training experience

In viral vector systems, the desired new genetic material is the ___ and the promoter sequence is ___ that control the ___

the vector genome; the additional genetic elements; expression of the gene

___ is often used as a control task to evaluate alternative interpretations of the effect of some brain manipulation on performance in the place-learning task

the visible-platform task

The control rats in the context preexposure experiment displayed no fear in the context where ___but displayed fear in the context where

they were actually shocked; they explored and received no shock

What is the purpose of the Functional Magnetic Resonance Imagining method?

to measure regional changes in brain activity during a cognitive task

People who have no recollection of their ___ can still perform learned behavior.

training episodes

The inital potentiation of a synapse does not depend on either ___ or ___

transcription; translation

Some AMPA receptors are ___ and ___ for some period of time in the PSD, while others leave the PSD and are captured in the ___ for recycling.

trapped; immobilized; endocytotic zone

According to Thorndike's Law of Effect, instrumental behavior should not be considered purposeful or goal directed.

true

According to the modular view, the hippocampal formation is not required for semantic memory

true

Allowing the monkey to eat either all the peanuts or all the grapes it wants reduces the value of one of the rewards.

true

Behavioral systems are specialized and each has its own neural components.

true

Caroline and Robert Blanchard found that human defensive behavior resembles that observed in animal models.

true

Cocaine use and chronic stress could interfere with the action system and this could result in the habit system controlling instrumental behaviors.

true

Conscious recollection means that you have an awareness of remembering.

true

Conscious recollection requires intentional initiation of a search to access our episodic memory system.

true

Current neuroimaging studies support the modular view.

true

Damage to the hippocampus or the amygdala did not impair performance on the DNMS task.

true

Directly activating neurons that are part of the index can retrieve the memory in a living animal.

true

Discrimination reversal tests are thought to measure flexibility.

true

Endel Tulving argued that episodic memory should be considered as separate from declarative memory.

true

Every one agrees that the hippocampal component is critical for the initial acquisition and retrieval of episodic memories.

true

According to the ___ damage to the hippocampus will disrupt both semantic and episodic memory.

unitary view

A region of the brain that provides dopamine to the striatum is the ___

ventral tegmental area

The dopamine neurons are located in the ___ and their fibers project into the nucleus accumbens of the striatum

ventral tegmental area (VTA)

To determine if PKMζ could strengthen a weak memory, rats were trained with a taste-aversion protocol designed to produce a ___

weak taste aversion

According to multiple trace theory, when remote memories are spared it is because ___

with age multiple indexes to the trace are established in the hippocampus

In the radial arm maze methodology, if a rat revisits an arm, it is making a ___ error

working memory

Yadin Dudai injected ___ into the ___ and the hippocampus in order to study the effects of PKMz in memory maintenance.

zip; insular cortex