radiography mock 2 practice

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Personnel dosimeters should be 1. Lightweight 2. Easy to carry 3. Made of durable materials A 1 only B 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3

What term describes the shortest exposure time that a particular AEC system can produce? A Backup time B Density controls C Minimum response time D mAs readout

C Minimum response time

Which of the following does the 15- to 20-degree medial oblique projection of the ankle demonstrate? A Talocalcaneal (subtalar) joint B Tarsal sinus (sinus tarsi) C Mortise D Talonavicular joint

C Mortise

Who has the obligation to maintain records of dosimeter reports? A the radiation worker B the department supervisor C the employer/health care facility D NCRP

C the employer/health care facility

The control badge measures background exposure during the 1. Transportation of badges 2. Handling of badges 3. Storage of badges A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3

Which of the major interactions between x-ray photons and tissue cells results in total absorption of the incident proton? A Compton scatter B Photoelectric effect C Bremsstrahlung D Coherent/Classical

B Photoelectric effect

When radiographing tissue having low subject contrast, what can be used to increase image contrast? 1. Iodine 2. Barium 3. Air A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3

Disposable materials wet with contaminated blood or body fluids should be placed where? A In a special container marked with biohazard symbol B In either a red bag or a special container C In a double red bag

A In a special container marked with biohazard symbol

For the lateral projection of the facial bones, the central ray should enter at what orientation to the mid-zygoma? 1. Perpendicular 2. Parallel 3. Tangential A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only

A 1 only

Unossified points at the junction of sutures on an infant's skull are termed 1. fontanels 2. wormian bones 3. sutural bones A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

A 1 only

Which of the following best describes the image below? 1. The image best demonstrates the scaphoid 2. The wrist is positioned using radial deviation 3. This image is most often taken in the AP projection A 1 only B 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

A 1 only

The amount of energy deposited, and resulting possible biologic damage, are related to which 3 of the following: 1. type of ionizing radiation 2. type of target/focus material 3. mass density of tissue 4. atomic number of tissue 5. SNR A 1, 3, and 4 B 2, 3, and 5 C 2, 4, and 5 D 1, 2, and 3

A 1, 3, and 4

During mobile radiography, the source-to skin (SSD) distance must NOT be less than A 12 inches B 15 inches C 20 inches D 24 inches

A 12 inches

If the distance between the ASIS and tabletop is less than 19 cm, the correct tube angle for an AP knee is: A 5 degrees caudad B 5 degrees cephalad C perpendicular D 10 degrees caudad

A 5 degrees caudad

In order to visualize the lateral border of the scapula free of superimposition in the AP projection, the arm should be placed in what degree of abduction? A 90 degrees B 30 degrees C 45 degrees D 60 degrees

A 90 degrees

The acronym ALARA stands for as low as reasonably A achievable B acceptable C allowable D allotted

A achievable

All of the following are true statements, except: A Antiicholinergenic drugs increase blood pressure and decrease heart rate. B An audible alarm from an infusion/medication pump usually signals that fluid is running low or its flow has been interrupted. C Avoid elevating the left arm when performing mobile chest X-rays within the first 48 hours following pacemaker insertion. D OR persons in sterile gown and gloves must pass each other back-to-back.

A Antiicholinergenic drugs increase blood pressure and decrease heart rate.

Needlestick injuries are avoided in which of the following ways? A Avoiding needle recapping B Using the "one-handed scoop" technique for recapping C Avoiding needle recapping but using the "one-handed scoop" technique if it is required D Using recapping and "one-handed scoop" techniques

A Avoiding needle recapping

Which of the following is NOT descriptive of C7 (vertebral prominens)? A Bifid tips B Extra-long spinous process C More horizontal spinous process D Landmark for radiographic positioning

A Bifid tips

What type of fracture is described as two or more fragments of bone that are splintered or shattered? A Comminuted B Complete C Compound D Impacted

A Comminuted

Which interaction between x-ray photons and matter involves an outer shell electron and only partial transfer of energy? A Compton scatter B Photoelectric effect C Bremsstrahlung D Coherent/Classical

A Compton scatter

Which interaction between x-ray photons and matter is most damaging to the diagnostic image? A Compton scatter B Photoelectric effect C Bremsstrahlung D Coherent/Classical

A Compton scatter

Which of the major interactions between x-ray photons and tissue cells is responsible for scattered radiation fog? A Compton scatter B Photoelectric effect C Bremsstrahlung D Coherent/Classical

A Compton scatter

Which of the major interactions between x-ray photons and tissue cells predominates in the diagnostic x-ray range? A Compton scatter B Photoelectric effect C Bremsstrahlung D Coherent/Classical

A Compton scatter

Which aspect of image quality does a grid influence? A Contrast B Size distortion C Shape distortion D Spatial resolution

A Contrast

What is the term that describes no data being collected from a damaged active matrix array? A Dropped pixels B Electronic noise C Incomplete charge transfer D Electronic memory artifact

A Dropped pixels

What part of the bony orbit does a blowout fracture affect? A Floor B Roof C Optic foramen D Zygomatic

A Floor

Which of the following is the type of fracture that is commonly found in children and shows a break only on one side of the diaphysis? A Greenstick B Salter-Harris C Bow D Plastic

A Greenstick

The centering point "2.5 in distal and perpendicular to the midpoint of a line between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis" identifies correct centering for the AP projection of what body part? A Hip B Pelvis C Knee D Elbow

A Hip

From this list of factors, select the 4 that have an effect on spatial resolution: I. Focal spot size II. anode heel effect III. SID IV. Filtration V. Motion VI. mAs VII. OID A I, III, V, VII B III, IV, V, VI C I, II, V, VII D I, II, V, VI

A I, III, V, VII

Select the correct/true statement: A If in doubt about the sterility of an object, it should be considered unsterile. B OR persons in sterile gown and gloves must pass each other front-to-front. C An area that is free of viable microorganisms is considered to be an unsterile field. D The use of physical restraints on adult patients does not require a physician's order.

A If in doubt about the sterility of an object, it should be considered unsterile.

How does mAs affect the digital receptor exposure? A It is directly proportional B It is inversely proportional C It has no relation D It is inversely proportional to the square of the exposure

A It is directly proportional

The terms libel and slander refer to the spreading of information that causes loss of reputation and/or defamation of character; what is the difference between the two terms? A Libel is written defamation; slander is verbal defamation B Libel is verbal defamation; slander is written defamation C Libel and slander both refer to spoken defamation D Libel and slander both refer to written/published defamation

A Libel is written defamation; slander is verbal defamation

What is the name of the crescent-shaped fibrocartilage discs located on the tibial plateau? A Medial and lateral menisci B Suprapatellar and infrapatellar bursa C Tibial medial collateral ligament (MCL) and femoral lateral collateral ligament (LCL) D Medial and lateral condyles

A Medial and lateral menisci

The superior facet of the superior articular process of C1 articulates with which of the following? A Occipital B Medial C Mandibular D Lateral

A Occipital

During CR image extraction, what is the device used to collect light emitted by storage plate phosphors? A Photodetector B Analog-to-digital convertor (ADC) C Charged-coupled device (CCD) D Thin-film transistor (TFT)

A Photodetector

What body position will demonstrate the left kidney parallel to the IR, as well as the right ureter free of superimposition? A RPO B LPO C Right lateral D Left lateral

A RPO

The digital imaging (DR or CR) post-processing function that allows the radiographer to add text to the image is called A annotation B windowing C indexing D leveling

A annotation

The rotational scheduling of personnel uses which of the cardinal principles of radiation safety? A Time B Distance C Shielding D Inverse square law

A Time

Which of the following is the usual way of obtaining a lateral projection of the proximal humerus in cases of trauma? A Transthoracic or Lawrence method B Grashey method C Lateromedial recumbent D Stetcher method

A Transthoracic or Lawrence method

What type of technique chart is based on the concept that kVp should be increased as anatomic part size increases? A Variable kVp-fixed mAs B Variable mAs-fixed kVp C Automatic exposure control D Anatomically programmed radiography

A Variable kVp-fixed mAs

Electrons are directed toward the output phosphor by the A electrostatic focusing lenses. B photocathode. C input phosphor. D photoanode.

A electrostatic focusing lenses.

All vascular access procedures require that the health care worker wear A gloves. B gown and gloves. C gloves and mask. D gloves, gown, and mask.

A gloves.

In C-arm imaging, positioning the x-ray tube above the patient A increases exposure to the eyes, head, and neck areas of the operator. B decreases exposure to the eyes, head, and neck areas of the operator. C increases exposure to the lower limbs of the operator. D decreases exposure to the lower limbs of the operator.

A increases exposure to the eyes, head, and neck areas of the operator.

Fluoroscopic magnification mode A increases patient dose. B decreases patient dose. C decreases mA. D decreases resolution.

A increases patient dose.

In radiography of long bones, every effort should be made to include both articulations associated with the injured bone, and A it is essential to include the articulation nearest the site of the injury . B it is essential to include the articulation distal to the site of the injury. C comparison views of the opposite side should always be obtained. D supplemental views should be taken at the discretion of the radiographer.

A it is essential to include the articulation nearest the site of the injury

The representation of reference luminance values that assess input intensities and assign predetermined VOI (values of interest/grayscale values) describes A lookup table. B windowing. C postprocessimg. D annotation.

A lookup table.

Characteristics of the primary x-ray beam include: A lower intensity at the anode end. B more energy at the cathode end. C lower frequency at the anode end. D more leakage at the cathode end.

A lower intensity at the anode end.

The name of the particularly radiosensitive male sex cell is A spermatogonia B ova C epithelial D muscle

A spermatogonia

The term that describes forward displacement of one vertebra upon the inferior vertebra is A spondylolisthesis B spondyl C spondylitis D spondylosis

A spondylolisthesis

The only articulation between the upper extremities and the thorax is the A sternoclavicular joint B sternocostal joint C acromioclavicular joint D costotransverse joint

A sternoclavicular joint

No safe dose of ionizing radiation refers to A the linear no-threshold model (LNT) B risk vs benefit C as low as reasonably achievable (ALARA) D effective dose limit

A the linear no-threshold model (LNT)

Which two bones separate the oral and nasal cavities? A the two maxillae B the two palatines C the vomer and perpendicular plate D the vomer and inferior nasal conchae

A the two maxillae

The x-ray tube most efficiently operates on A unidirectional/dc. B unidirectional/ac. C full wave rectification. D half wave rectification.

A unidirectional/dc.

Special puncture-proof containers are provided for discarding A used sharps. B broken glass. C unused medications. D medication containers.

A used sharps.

The name of the device that is used in quality assurance testing of monitor luminance is the 1. Photometer 2. Luminance meter 3. CRT A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B 1 and 2 only

Select the three correct statements from those listed below: 1. Weight-bearing feet are performed to demonstrate the structural status of the foot's transverse arch. 2. The dorsoplantar projection of the foot requires that the CR be directed 10° posteriorly to the base of the third metatarsal. 3. The AP projection of the toes should demonstrate significant overlapping of soft tissues. 4. The CR should be directed 5° to 7° cephalad in the lateral projection of the knee to superimpose the femoral condyles. 5. The 15° internal oblique ankle position best demonstrates visualization of the entire ankle mortise. 6. The tibia, fibula, and talus form the knee joint. A 1, 5, 6 B 2, 4, 5 C 3, 5, 6 D 2, 3, 4

B 2, 4, 5

The AP medial oblique projection of the foot requires what degree of obliquity? A 20° B 30° C 45° D 60°

B 30°

Which interaction between x-ray photons and matter produces a characteristic ray? A Compton scatter B Photoelectric effect C Bremsstrahlung D Coherent/Classical

B Photoelectric effect

The abbreviation of the fluoroscopic feature that changes kV and/or mAs according to part thickness is A ADC B ABC C PSP D DAP

B ABC

Which of the following is NOT one of the auditory ossicles? A Stapes B Cochlea C Malleus D Incus

B Cochlea

Which of the following is NOT considered one of the cardinal principals of radiation protection for personnel? A Distance B Collimation C Shielding D Time

B Collimation

What is the term used to describe radiation dose and volume of irradiated tissue? A Exposure index B Dose-area product (DAP) C Values of interest (VOI) D Exposure latitude

B Dose-area product (DAP)

Which of the major interactions between x-ray photons and tissue cells is most likely to occur with tissues having high atomic number? A Compton scatter B Photoelectric effect C Bremsstrahlung D Coherent/Classical

B Photoelectric effect

In very few exceptional circumstances, the radiographer may be exposed to the primary/useful x-ray beam A True B False

B False

When performing an axiolateral projection (horizontal beam lateral) of the hip, the CR must be directed perpendicular to the IR and which anatomical structure? A Femoral head B Femoral neck C Pubic symphysis D Lesser trochanter

B Femoral neck

What system is responsible for holding a patient's full medical information, ranging from hospital billing to the inpatient ordering system? A RIS B HIS C DICOM D PACS

B HIS

What is the possible diagnosis for a diabetic patient who has taken insulin, but no food, and has symptoms including tremors, perspiration, weakness, and hunger? A Hyperglycemia B Hypoglycemia C Tachycardia D Hypotension

B Hypoglycemia

From the following list, select the factor(s) that are most likely to have an impact on image contrast: I. part thickness II. pathology III. anode heel effect A I only B I and II only C II and III only D I, II, and III

B I and II only

Vital signs include which of the following? I. Body temperature II. Pulse rate III. Central venous pressure IV. Respiratory rate V. Arterial blood pressure A II, III, IV B I, II, IV, V C II, III, IV, V D I, III, V

B I, II, IV, V

Select the condition(s) that are likely to require an increase in exposure: I. Ascites II. Multiple myeloma III. Pleural effusion IV. Congestive heart failure V. Bowel obstruction A I, II, III B I, III, IV C II, IV, V D II, III, V

B I, III, IV

What is the term used to describe the use of various devices to help prevent patient movement during imaging procedures? A Restraint B Immobilization C Restraints and immobilization can be used interchangeably D None of the above

B Immobilization

Where should the petrous pyramids be projected in the PA axial projection (Caldwell method) of the skull using a 15° caudal tube angle? A In the upper two-third of the orbits. B In the lower two-third of the orbits. C Below the maxillary sinuses. D Filling the orbits.

B In the lower two-third of the orbits.

Zygapophyseal joints are best visualized in what cervical spine position? A Lateral hyperflexion and hyperextension B Lateral position C Anterior oblique D Posterior oblique

B Lateral position

The PA projection of the hand provides what type of projection of the first digit? A Lateral B Oblique C AP D PA

B Oblique

What part(s) of the axis (C2) articulate with the posterior aspect of the anterior arch of the atlas (C1)? A Articular pillars B Odontoid process/dens C Spinous process D Superior articular processes

B Odontoid process/dens

Which of the following projections for scoliosis would help to reduce radiation dose to the breast, thyroid, and reproductive organs? A Lateral B PA C AP D Oblique

B PA

Which interaction between x-ray photons and matter involves a low-energy (low kV) incident photon? A Compton scatter B Photoelectric effect C Bremsstrahlung D Coherent/Classical

B Photoelectric effect

Which of the following is evaluated by using a line-pair test tool? A Distortion B Spatial resolution C Scatter D Recorded detail

B Spatial resolution

What is used to erase the PSP? A Helium laser B Strong fluorescent light C Scintillator D Photometer

B Strong fluorescent light

What is the post processing function that removes bony structures or reduces the effect of scatter in order to increase image contrast? A Image magnification B Subtraction/addition C Windowing D Image inversion

B Subtraction/addition

Select the one incorrect statement below: A A primary display workstation is one that is used for image interpretation. B The higher/greater the bit depth in digital imaging, the lesser the number of gray shades. C Exposure field recognition errors usually occur from scattered radiation outside the VOI area, often as a result of improper alignment of part, x-ray beam, and IP. D Direct digital systems have a fixed spatial resolution that is determined by TFT detector element (DEL) size.

B The higher/greater the bit depth in digital imaging, the lesser the number of gray shades.

The bones of the pelvis unite to form a socket for the femoral head, called the A fovea capitis B acetabulum C pubic symphysis D ala

B acetabulum

The effects of radiation that are directly related to the dose received, which can occur months or years after exposure, are called A late stochastic effects B acute deterministic somatic effects C absolute risk D relative risk

B acute deterministic somatic effects

It is essential that mobile equipment used for imaging a patient with contact precautions be cleaned/decontaminated with an antiseptic solution A before imaging that patient. B after imaging that patient. C before entering the patient room. D after returning to the Radiology department.

B after imaging that patient.

The active ingredient in optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeters is A tin B aluminum oxide C copper D lithium fluoride

B aluminum oxide

An inflammatory condition of the vertebra wherein the spine may become completely rigid is termed A spina bifida B ankylosing spondylitis C spondylolysis D spondylolisthesis

B ankylosing spondylitis

The digital imaging postprocessing function that enables addition of text to an image is termed: A image flip B annotation C inversion D pixel shift

B annotation

When using an AEC system, the amount of preset radiation detection values can be adjusted by the A backup timer B density controls C mAs readout D APR

B density controls

Various combinations of mA and exposure time that produce the same mAs value should produce constant radiation output; this is termed A half-value layer B exposure linearity C exposure reproducibility D positive beam limitation (PBL)

B exposure linearity

In an AP external rotation projection of the shoulder, the greater tubercle should be seen in profile A superimposed over the humeral head B laterally C medially D partially superimposed by the glenoid cavity

B laterally

Which primary exposure technique factor is directly proportionate to the image receptor exposure? A kVp B mAs C SID D Tube filtration

B mAs

The PA and/or AP axial projection of the intercondylar fossa (tunnel view) requires the long axis of the tibia and CR to be A parallel B perpendicular C cephalic D caudal

B perpendicular

Within the x-ray circuit, the electrical device that operates on the principle of mutual induction and serves to increase voltage and decrease current is known as the A rectifier B step-up transformer C rheostat D autotransformer

B step-up transformer

In capacitor/condenser discharge mobile units, A the kV increases during the exposure. B the kV decreases during the exposure. C the mA increases during the exposure. D the mA increases before the exposure.

B the kV decreases during the exposure.

The tubercle of each of the first 10 pairs of ribs articulates with one A pedicle B transverse process C body D articular process

B transverse process

What pixel size has a 14" FOV and a 1250 matrix size? A 0.014 mm B 0.143 mm C 0.284 mm D 2.84 mm

C 0.284 mm

If the petrous pyramids are seen superimposed on the inferior aspect of the maxillary sinuses in the parietoacanthial projection, how should the technologist adjust the chin? 1. Elevate 2. Extend 3. Depress A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only D 1, 2 and 3

C 1 and 2 only

Which of the following results in higher radiation quantity and quality? A 100% voltage ripple B 13% voltage ripple C 1% voltage ripple D 3.5% voltage ripple

C 1% voltage ripple

The following are 3 types of protective apparel for personnel. 1. Lead aprons 2. Lead gloves 3. Thyroid shields 4. Personal Dosimeters A 1, 3, 4 B 2, 3, 4 C 1, 2, 3 D 1, 2, 4

C 1, 2, 3

Select the three correct statements from those listed below: 1. Long bone measurement examinations are usually performed to detect limb length differences between left and right sides. 2. A PA (left) wrist and hand image is usually made to determine adult bone age. 3. If both femoral articulations cannot be recorded on one IP, the radiographer should include the joint nearest the injury/pathology OR make two images: one from the hip down, the other from the knee up. 4. The two evaluation criteria for correct positioning of the lateral knee are femoral condyles superimposed and patellofemoral joint space open. 5. An AP projection of the knee should be centered to a point 0.5 in distal to the patellar base. 6. The CR should be directed midway between the malleoli for the AP projection of the wrist. A 1, 5, 6 B 2, 3, 4 C 1, 3, 4 D 2, 5, 6

C 1, 3, 4

Select the 3 types of personal radiation monitors from the list below 1. Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter (OSL) 2. Scintillation counter 3. G-M counter 4. Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) 5.personnel Digital Ionization Chamber A 1, 3, and 4 B 2, 3, and 4 C 1, 4, and 5 D 1, 3, and 5

C 1, 4, and 5

When using an AEC system, the backup time should be set at A 100% of the expected exposure time B 125% of the expected exposure time C 150% of the expected exposure time D 175% of the expected exposure time

C 150% of the expected exposure time

The advantages of coupling a CCD with the image intensifier output phosphor include 1. less sensitivity to light 2. less spatial distortion 3. higher DQE A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only

C 2 and 3 only

Which of the following types of radiation is/are produced when filament electrons strike structures other than the focal track within the x-tube? 1. Scattered radiation 2. Off-focus radiation 3. Exit radiation A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 only D 2 and 3 only

C 2 only

For examinations using stationary fluoroscopes, patient entrance exposure can be limited by maintaining a minimal source-to-skin distance (SSD) of A 30 cm (12 inches) B 15 cm (6 inches) C 38 cm (15 inches) D 25 cm (10 inches)

C 38 cm (15 inches)

The RPO position for the acetabulum requires what degree of obliquity? A 25° B 35° C 45° D 55°

C 45°

The radiographer adjusts flexion of the head on a line from the lower margin of the upper incisors to the base of the skull/mastoid tip perpendicular to the IR for the A AP Towne's skull. B AP skull projection. C AP C1-C2 projection. D PA axial skull.

C AP C1-C2 projection.

Which type of radiographic system displays preprogrammed exposure technique factors for the radiographer to choose or adjust? A AEC B PBL C APR D DAP

C APR

Which of the following are fundamental parts of the typical diagnostic X-ray tube? I. anode II. cathode III. vacuum glass envelope A I only B I and II only C All of the above D None of the above

C All of the above

Which type of shock is the most immediately life threatening? A Septic B Cardiogenic C Anaphylactic D Hypovolemic

C Anaphylactic

Which of the following is the term used to describe episodes of chest pain that occur when coronary arteries are unable to supply the heart with sufficient oxygenated blood? A Ischemia B Atherosclerosis C Angina pectoris D Infarct

C Angina pectoris

Which of the following radiographic procedures is a study of synovial joints and related soft tissue utilizing contrast media? A Endoscopy B Hysterosalpingography C Arthrography D Myelography

C Arthrography

Which of the following is a type of secondary radiation? A Scattered radiation B Leakage radiation C Both scattered and leakage radiation are types of secondary radiation D Neither scattered nor leakage radiation are types of secondary radiation

C Both scattered and leakage radiation are types of secondary radiation

Vertebra prominens is another name for A C 1/2 B C 3 C C 7 D T 10

C C 7

How does current flow within the x-ray tube? A AC to DC B DC to AC C Cathode to anode D Anode to cathode

C Cathode to anode

A common fracture of the distal radius, which type of fracture demonstrates posterior displacement of the distal fracture fragment? A Monteggia B Bennett's C Colles D Smith's

C Colles

The dose area product (DAP) meter that is used in digital imaging can be found right below what part of the x-ray tube system? A Protective glass B Anode C Collimator D Cathode

C Collimator

What type of transmission-based precaution is required for MRSA? A Airborne B Droplet C Contact D All of the above

C Contact

Which of the following cellular components has the greatest radiobiological significance? A Ribosomes B Mitochondria C DNA D RNA

C DNA

The best term to describe both early and late effects due to excessive radiation exposure to specific tissues in the body, such as the skin and the lens of the eye, are often identified as what type of effects? A Probabilistic B Negative C Deterministic D Stochastic

C Deterministic

What is the optimal body position for radiographic positioning of the paranasal sinuses to demonstrate air/fluid levels? A Recumbent B Decubitus C Erect D Trendelenburg

C Erect

Which of the following sources of radiation exposure is related to the use of medical imaging? A Terrestrial B Internal C Manmade (artificial) D Cosmic

C Manmade (artificial)

Select the one incorrect statement from those listed below: A The TG 18-QC test pattern is used for visual appraisal of monitor image geometric distortion. B Pincushion distortion is common in Cathode ray tubes. C Exposure reproducibility should be consistent to within 10%. D Exposure linearity between adjacent mA stations must be accurate to within 10%.

C Exposure reproducibility should be consistent to within 10%.

What is the medical term for a slipped disk? A Spondylolisthesis B Transitional vertebra C Herniated nucleus pulposus (HNP) D Spondylitis

C Herniated nucleus pulposus (HNP)

The AHA's: "A Patient's Bill of Rights" include which of the following? I. consideration of privacy II. the right to have an advance directive III. considerate and respectful care IV. ready access to all medical records V. the identity of physicians, nurses, and other healthcare providers A I, II, IV, V B II, III, IV, V C I, II, III, V D I, II, III, IV

C I, II, III, V

From the following list, select the factor(s) having an impact on image distortion: I. part thicknessII. x-ray tube angle III. kV selection IV. IR placement A II, III, IV only B II, IV only C I, II, IV only D I, III only

C I, II, IV only

The typical vertebra includes which of the following processes? I. Superior articular II. Lamina III. Spinous IV. Transverse V. Pedicle A I, II, III B II, III, IV C I, III, IV D I, IV, V

C I, III, IV

When viewing a lateral skull radiograph, incorrect positioning caused by rotation is evidenced by which of the following structures not being superimposed? I. mandibular rami II. orbital plates/roofs III. EAMs IV. sella turcica V. greater wings of sphenoid A I, IV, V B II, III, V C I, III, IV D II, III, IV

C I, III, IV

Which of the following are major types of acute radiation syndrome? I. Osseous II. Gastrointestinal III. Cerebrovascular A I only B I and II only C II and III only D All of the Above E None of the above

C II and III only

How is the minimum wavelength of the x-ray beam affected with added filtration? A It is increased. B It is decreased. C It is unaffected. D None of the above.

C It is unaffected.

What position should a non-ambulatory patient who is nauseated be placed in to avoid possible aspiration of vomitus? A Supine B Dorsal decubitus C Lateral decubitus D Trendelenburg

C Lateral decubitus

Which of the following pathologic conditions is demonstrated as multiple "punched-out" radiolucent lesions? A Osteogenic sarcoma (osteosarcoma) B Ewing sarcoma C Multiple myeloma D Osteoclastoma

C Multiple myeloma

The usual patient preparation for an upper gastrointestinal series is: A withhold preceding meal B no fluids after midnight C NPO after midnight D no solids after midnight

C NPO after midnight

Which of the following would a radiographer be guilty of if their patient fell off a stretcher with the side rails down outside of an x-ray examination room? A Assault B Battery C Negligence D Fraud

C Negligence

Arrange the following structures in order as they fill with air upon inspiration: A Trachea, pharynx, lungs, nose, bronchi, larynx B Pharynx, lungs, trachea, nose, larynx, bronchi C Nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs D Bronchi, lungs, nose, larynx, pharynx, trachea

C Nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs

What is the term used when treatment or medication is introduced into the body, other than through the digestive system? A Topical B Enteral C Parenteral D Buccal

C Parenteral

What is the term used to describe the picture elements within a matrix? A Grayscale B Quantum mottle C Pixel D Pixel pitch

C Pixel

A mottled or grainy appearance of a digital image caused by too few photons reaching the image receptor is termed A Quantum mottle B Fog C Quantum noise D Artifacts

C Quantum noise

Lumbar zygapophyseal articulations are demonstrated closest to the IR in the A lateral position. B left and right bending positions. C RPO and LPO positions. D RAO and LAO positions.

C RPO and LPO positions.

Which of the following aspects of image quality will be affected by mAs? A Contrast B Spatial resolution C Receptor exposure D Distortion

C Receptor exposure

Which are unique characteristics of the cervical spine C3-C6? 1. Transverse foramina 2. Overlapping vertebral bodies 3. Bifid spinous process tips A 1 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3

The outer fibrous portion of an intervertebral disk is the A herniated nucleus pulposus B intervertebral joints C annulus fibrosus D spinal canal

C annulus fibrosus

A tool/device available on some systems that terminates the x-ray exposure, thereby consistently controlling the amount of radiation reaching the IR is termed A anatomically programmed radiography (APR) B photomultiplier (PM) tube C automatic exposure control (AEC) D backup time

C automatic exposure control (AEC)

Select the best completion: It is most essential that mobile equipment be cleaned for mobile studies of compromised patients A before imaging that patient. B after imaging that patient. C before entering the patient room. D after returning to the Radiology department.

C before entering the patient room.

The vertebral fracture commonly associated with osteoporosis is known as a A chance fracture B clay-shoveler's fracture C compression fracture D Jefferson fracture

C compression fracture

An anterior dislocation of the humeral head is demonstrated on a scapular Y projection inferior to the A acromion process B scapular notch C coracoid process D acromioclavicular joint

C coracoid process

What kind of contamination/transmission can occur when an infectious individual, sneezes, coughs, speaks, etc. in the vicinity of a susceptible host? A contact B vehicle C droplet D vector

C droplet

The knees and hips are flexed, and knees supported for an AP projection of the lumbar spine in order to reduce the lordotic curve and better demonstrate A intervertebral foramina. B zygapophyseal joints. C intervertebral joints. D vertebral foramina.

C intervertebral joints.

The two basic types of contrast media are correctly described as A ionic and non-ionic. B barium and iodine. C positive and negative. D oral and IV.

C positive and negative.

The individual that receives and reviews personnel monitoring reports for safety compliance is the A lead technologist. B department administrator. C radiation safety officer. D chief radiologist.

C radiation safety officer.

Important function(s) of beam restriction include A reduce patient dose and improve spatial resolution B improve image contrast and reduce distortion C reduce patient dose and improve image contrast D improve image brightness and reduce distortion

C reduce patient dose and improve image contrast

The classifications of bones are: A articulating and non-articulating. B long, short and sesamoid. C short, flat, irregular and long. D cancellous and cortical.

C short, flat, irregular and long.

An adult male patient is evaluated in the emergency department and is found to have a pulse rate of 70 bpm, respiration rate of 29 breaths per minute, blood pressure of 118/75 mmHg, and SPO2 of 96%. The abnormal finding among these vital signs indicates A tachycardia B hypotension C tachypnea D bradycardia

C tachypnea

Which of the following are the primary functions of the picture archiving and communications system (PACS)? 1. Network communication between image acquisition modalities 2. Specialty image processing and annotation 3. Image storage A 1 only B 1 and 2 C 1 and 3 D 1, 2, and 3

D 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following matrix sizes would most improve the quality of the image and increase resolution? A 1024 × 1024 B 215 × 215 C 84 × 84 D 2050 × 2050

D 2050 × 2050

Select the three correct statements from those listed below: 1. The tarsal navicular lies immediately posterior to both the talus and the calcaneus. 2. The fourth metatarsal has a large tuberosity, commonly subject to trauma. 3. Acromioclavicular articulations are usually examined bilaterally in order to demonstrate small separations. 4. The CR should enter 1 in superior to the coracoid process for an AP projection of the glenohumeral/shoulder joint. 5. When the elbow cannot be extended for an AP projection of the elbow, the required (AP) anatomy is demonstrated in one AP with forearm parallel to IR, and another AP with humerus parallel to IR. 6. When epicondyles are not superimposed in a lateral projection of the forearm, the humerus and forearm are not on the same plane. A 1, 3, 4 B 2, 4, 5 C 2, 5, 6 D 3, 5, 6

D 3, 5, 6

What is the normal adult systolic range and normal adult diastolic range? A 100 to 140; 70 to 90 B 100 to 140; 60 to 80 C 90 to 130; 70 to 90 D 90 to 120; 60 to 80

D 90 to 120; 60 to 80

What is the normal adult systolic range and normal adult diastolic range? A 100 to 140; 70 to 90 B 100 to 140; 60 to 90 C 90 to 130; 70 to 90 D 90 to 120; 60 to 80

D 90 to 120; 60 to 80

What acronym serves as a reminder to the radiologic technologist to keep exposure to themselves and their patients to a judicious minimum? A BERT B LET C RBE D ALARA

D ALARA

Which of the following systems permits the radiographer to select a preprogrammed set of exposure factors? A AEC B PSP C TFT D APR

D APR

The document that names the individual who is authorized to make healthcare decisions for another is called a/an A Res ipsa loquitur B Respondeat superior C Implied consent D Advance directive

D Advance directive

In which of the following are both primary photons and secondary photons produced? 1. Characteristic interaction 2. Bremsstrahlung interaction 3. Compton interaction 4. Photoelectric interaction A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only D All of the above

D All of the above

Which of the following is the cardinal principle of radiation protection? A Distance B Shielding C Time D All of the above

D All of the above

What is the name for a small bone chip that breaks away when a joint is dislocated, or when a tendon is pulled? A Greenstick B Spiral C Comminuted D Avulsion

D Avulsion

In what type of interaction is the average energy of the photon one-third of the kVp selected at the control counsel? A Compton interaction B Photoelectric interaction C Characteristic interaction D Bremsstrahlung interaction

D Bremsstrahlung interaction

What is the name of the process that extends superiorly and posteriorly from the ramus of the mandible? A Alveolar B Coronoid C Coracoid D Condylar

D Condylar

Which portion of the following equation represents effective dose? Gy × Wr × Wt = EfD A Gy B Wr C Wt D EfD

D EfD

What anatomical structure connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx? A Cochlea B Stapes C Posterior semicircular canal D Eustachian tube

D Eustachian tube

An oblique hand image demonstrates foreshortening of the digits and poor visualization of the interphalangeal joints. How can this be corrected? A Using radial deviation B Using ulnar deviation C Placing the humerus and forearm on the same plane D Extending the fingers and supporting them parallel to the IR

D Extending the fingers and supporting them parallel to the IR

After selecting a suitable needle or intravenous catheter, which part of the needle is attached to the syringe? A Gauge B Bevel C Bore D Hub

D Hub

Vehicles of infection include which of the following? I. Contaminated water II. Food III. Blood IV. Drugs A I only B I and II C II and III D I, II, III, IV

D I, II, III, IV

Which of the following mathematical formulas is used to calculate the magnification factor? A MF = SOD ÷ SID B MF = OID ÷ SOD C MF = OID ÷ SID D MF = SID ÷ SOD

D MF = SID ÷ SOD

When sampling electronic signals, which theorem refers to the sampling frequency being greater than twice the frequency/bandwidth of the input signal? A Modulation transfer function (MTF) B Quantum noise (mottle) C Limiting spatial resolution (LSR) D Nyquist frequency

D Nyquist frequency

When individuals are exposed to radiation on a regular basis through their work and are at risk of receiving 10% or more of the annual effective dose (EfD) limit, which of the following is most commonly used to monitor their radiation exposure over time? A ALARA B A proportional counter C A radiation survey instrument D Personnel dosimetry

D Personnel dosimetry

Arrange the cycle of infection components in their correct order following the recognized reservoir of infection: A Transmission of disease; susceptible host; portal of exit; portal of entry B Portal of entry; transmission of disease; susceptible host; portal of exit C Susceptible host; portal of exit; transmission of disease; portal of entry D Portal of exit; susceptible host; portal of entry; transmission of disease

D Portal of exit; susceptible host; portal of entry; transmission of disease

The Grashey method requires what anatomic part, of the affected side, to be parallel to the IR? A Glenoid cavity B Scapulohumeral joint C Coracoid process D Scapula

D Scapula

Bones embedded in certain tendons, often present near various joints, are called which of the following? A Long B Flat C Short D Sesamoid

D Sesamoid

What is a common patellar fracture that is characterized by a star-like pattern of fracture lines radiating from the center? A Trimalleolar fracture B Epiphyseal fracture C Tuft/burst fracture D Stellate fracture

D Stellate fracture

What is the distribution of tissue densities and/or physiologic changes that are present in the anatomic part undergoing diagnostic study called? A Inherent contrast B Displayed contrast C Window width D Subject contrast

D Subject contrast

Select the one incorrect statement from those listed below: A PSPs must be erased after use to prevent any residual, or "ghost," image on subsequent images. B Either monochromatic helium neon gas lasers or a solid-state laser beams should be used to stimulate the PSP. C The image plate houses and protects the PSP. D The storage screens typically used in CR contain cesium iodide.

D The storage screens typically used in CR contain cesium iodide.

Which of the following is the medical term for hives, or an eruption of itchy wheals? A Ecchymosis B Urethritis C Edema D Urticaria

D Urticaria

Select the one incorrect statement from those listed below: A Exposure timer accuracy (greater than 10 ms) should be within 10% of the selected exposure time. B When evaluating kVp calibration, the measured kVp should be within +/- 5kV of the selected kVp. C The SSD in diagnostic mobile radiography must not be less than 30 centimeters. D When evaluating collimator accuracy, the illuminated light field must coincide with the actual x-ray field to within 5% of the SID.

D When evaluating collimator accuracy, the illuminated light field must coincide with the actual x-ray field to within 5% of the SID.

All of the following statements are true, except: A Open and closed mouth projections of the TMJ are often obtained to demonstrate range of anterior and inferior movement of the mandibular condyle in the mandibular fossa. B Both the AP axial projection (Towne method) and the PA axial projection (Haas method) demonstrate the dorsum sella and posterior clinoid processes within the foramen magnum. C The petrous pyramids should be projected within the orbits in the PA projection of the skull with the OML perpendicular to the IR. D When viewing a lateral skull radiograph, incorrect positioning caused by tilt is evidenced by the mandibular rami not being superimposed.

D When viewing a lateral skull radiograph, incorrect positioning caused by tilt is evidenced by the mandibular rami not being superimposed.

The term windowing refers to changes in A brightness B LUT C contrast/grayscale D all of the above

D all of the above

The term that defines the number of shades of gray that can be displayed within a pixel is A exposure latitude B dynamic range C exposure indicator D bit depth

D bit depth

The type of badge that is used to see if personnel monitors have been irradiated during transit time is called a/an A OSL B TLD C film badge D control

D control

A vasovagal response is characterized by A decreased heart rate and increased blood pressure. B increased heart rate and increased blood pressure. C increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure. D decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure.

D decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure.

To ensure continued reliability and effectiveness of protective aprons, they should NOT be stored A hung on an apron rack B draped over a storage bar C laid flat D folded

D folded

Which selection on the control console alters both absorption and transmission? A Focal spot size B mAs C Bucky selection D kVp

D kVp

According to CFR, Title 21, for continued awareness of patient exposure during fluoroscopic procedures, cumulative air kerma is displayed in what unit? A mR B R/min C mGyt D mGya

D mGya

The special type of markers required to properly label radiographs for an intravenous urography are called A directional markers B positional markers C contrast media markers D minute markers

D minute markers

The relationship between the plantar surface and the IR in the plantodorsal (axial) projection of the calcaneus is A horizontal B parallel C cephalad D perpendicular

D perpendicular

A device that measures, in candelas per square meter, the luminescence of image display monitors and their uniformity is knows as a(n) A photodetector B exposure indicator C photoconductor D photometer

D photometer

A characteristic displayed by certain materials that emit light when they are exposed to another type of light is known as A scintillation B fluorescence C photodetector D photostimulable luminescence (PSL)

D photostimulable luminescence (PSL)

Animals, people, food, water, and the soil are all examples of A microorganisms. B vectors. C bacteria. D reservoirs of infection.

D reservoirs of infection.

For dose-reduction purposes during C-arm fluoroscopic procedures, the x-ray tube should be positioned A to the left of the patient B over the patient C to the right of the patient D under the patient

D under the patient

If a patient has a DNI in place, which of the following will occur? A In the event of cardiac arrest, CPR will not be performed B In the event of respiratory arrest, the patient will not be intubated C In the event of respiratory or cardiac arrest, the patient has agreed to a "no-code" D In the event of respiratory arrest, a full code will be run

In the event of respiratory arrest, the patient will not be intubated


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