Research Questions
1. "Confidence limits" are: A. Mean +/- Standard error B. Median + Standard error C. Mean + Range D. Mean standard deviations
A
1. A method of analyzing qualitative data that involves an interactive approach to testing research hypothesis: A. Analytic induction B. Axial coding C. 'Blind' review D. Inquiry audit
A
1. Which is the most appropriate statistical technique used to test for significant differences between two group means from data gathered by a repeated measures design? A. Paired t-testCopyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz B. Student's t-test C. Mann-Whiteny U test D. ANOVA E. Pearson correlation
A
10. A study to determine the psychometric properties of The Vellore Screening Instrument for Dementia - Informant version reported reliability coefficient of the instrument as: intra-class correlation coefficient = 0.995; 95% CI, 0.981-0.998. This values refers to:copyright@ nursingplanet.com/Quiz/nursing_research_quiz20.html A. Inter-rater reliability B. Split-half reliability C. Test, re-test reliability D. Internal consistency
A
10. Investigations in which samples from a general population are studied over time with respect to some phenomenon is termed as A. Trend studies B. Action research C. Outcome research D. Meta-anlysis
A
10. Kuder-Richardson formula is a method of calculating: A. internal consistency reliability for a rating scale when the items are dichotomous= B. internal consistency reliability for a rating scale when the items are continuous C. inter-rater reliability D. test-retest reliability
A
10. Number of births divided by total population includes men women and children (1000s) is: A. Crude birth rate B. General fertility rate C. Age-specific fertility rates D. Total period fertility rate
A
12. Basic principles that are accepted as being true on the basis of logic or reason, without proof or verification is termed as: A. Assumptions B. Hypothesis C. Constructs D. Propositions
A
2. Data collection about everyone or everything in group or population and has the advantage of accuracy and detail: A. Census B. Survey C. Probability sampling D. Cluster sampling
A
2. Structural Equation Modeling (SEM) is also known as: A. LISREL B. Cluster analysis C. Factor analysis D. Correspondence Analysis
A
3. Case fatality rate is: A. Ratio B. Proportion C. Numerator is always constant D. Numerator and denominator is are two separate quantities
A
3. Prevalence of disease in a community can be found out by: A. Case control study B. Cohort study C. Cross-sectional study D. Experimental study
A
3. What is the Z-score for 97.5th percentile in a distribution? A. +1.96 B. -1.96 C. +2.5 D. 0.05
A
4. A correlation coefficient used to indicate the magnitude of a relationship between ordinal-level data: A. Kendall's tau B. phi coefficient C. Wilk's lambda D. F-ratio
A
4. A correlation present in different groups is reversed when the groups are combined which is often encountered in social-science and medical-science statistics: A. Simpson's paradox (Yule-Simpson effect)= B. Guttman Model C. Cronbach's α D. Kendall's Coefficient of Concordance
A
5. Ten babies are born in a hospital on same day. All weight 208 kg each. Calculate the standard deviation. A. Zero B. One C. Minus one D. 0.28
A
5. True about prevalence are all, except: A. Rate B. Specifically for all old and new cases C. P = Lx D D. Prevalence of two types
A
6. A descriptive metric that characterizes the standardized difference (in SD units) between the mean of a control group and the mean of a treatment group is: A. Effect size B. LSD C. Beta D. Chi-square copyright
A
6. Blood pressure samples from two community are best campared by: A. Paired t-test B. Student's t-test C. Chi-square test D. Cohort study
A
6. Mean of 25 variables is 2, Standard deviation is 2, Standard error of mean is: A. 0.4 B. 0.2 C. 2.0 D. 10
A
7. Cholesterol value are obtained in a group of people before and after giving drug A. the appropriate statistical test used to analyze the data is: A. Paired t-test B. Unpaired t-test C. Fischer's test D. Chi-square test
A
7. Factorial ANOVA is employed to address the research question focusing the difference in the means of: A. One DV and two or more than two IVs B. One DV and one IV C. More than two DV and one IV D. More than two DVs and two DVs
A
7. Residents of three villages with three different types of water supply were asked to participate in a study to identify cholera carriers. Because several cholera deaths had occurred in the recent past, virtually everyone occurred in the time submitted to examination. The proportion of carriers in each village who were carriers was computed and compared. The study is a: A. Cross-sectional study B. Case-control study C. Concurrent-cohort study D. Noon-concurrent case control study
A
8. A statistical measure of inter-rater reliability is: A. Cohen's Kappa B. Cronbach's α C. Kuder-Richardson coefficient D. Odds-ratiocopyright
A
8. Calculate standard error for population of size of 25 persons suffering from fever of history of 8 days and with standard deviation of 2. A. 0.4 B. 0.2 C.0.% D. 1.6
A
8. Calculate the mode of 70, 71, 72, 70, 70. A. 70 B. 71 C. 71.5 D. 72
A
8. Study of a person who has already contacted the disease is called: A. Case control B. Cohort C. Control cohort D. Longitudinal
A
8. Which is a characteristic of qualitative research methods? A. Naturalistic inquiry copyright@ currentnursing.com B. Random sampling C. Introduction of a treatment D. Use of a control group
A
8. Which of the following is a method of integrating the findings of prior research studies using statistical procedures? A. Meta-analysis B. Secondary analysis C. Content analysis D. Grounded theory
A
8. Which statistical test is more appropriate when there are more than two levels of independent variables to determine which group means are significant? A. ANOVACopyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz B. Regression C. Chi-square test D. RMANOVA
A
9. A method of refining a hypothesis or theory in a qualitative study that involves the inclusion of cases that appear to deconfirm earlier hypotheses: A. Negative case analysis B. Open coding C. Quasi-statistics D. Theoretical sampling
A
9. A statistical expression of magnitude of relationship between two variables or magnitude of difference between two groups: A. Effect size B. Eignvalue C. p-value D. z-score
A
9. Parameters of sensitivity and specificity are used for assessing: A. Criterion validity B. Construct validity C. Discriminant validity D. Content validity
A
1. Which of the following statements are true about survival analysis? A. Survival analysis has a dichotomous (binary) outcome B. Survival analysis analyzes the time to an event C. Kaplan-Meier curves applied in survival analysis D. Cox proportional hazards models are used in interpreting results.
A,B,C,D
3. The stages of sampling process comprises: (Multiple Response Question) A. Defining the population B. Specifying sampling frame C. Specifying sampling method D. Determining the sample size E. Sampling and data collection
A,B,C,D,E
1. The type of research focused on finding a solution to an immediate practical problem is termed as: A. Basic research B. Applied research C. Explanatory research D. Descriptive research
B
10. An investigator was to study the association between maternal intake of iron supplements (yes or no) and birth weights (in grams) of newborn babies. He collects relevant data from 100 pregnant women and their newborns. What is the appropriate statistical investigation in this context? A. Chi-square test B. Unpaired or independent t-test C. Analysis of variance D. Paired t-test
B
10. Secondary attack rate reflects: A. Severity B. Communicability C. Fatality D. Infectivity
B
13. A fundamental ethical principle that seeks to prevent harm and exploitation of, to maximize benefits for, study participants is: A. Justice B. Beneficence C. Nonmalificence D. Coercion
B
2. A number of cases of malaria are collected over 10 years with extreme variation in data. The best measure to calculate average is: A. Arithametic mean B. Mode C. Geometric mean D. Median
B
2. The number of new cases that occur within a specific population within a defined time interval is: A. Point Prevalence B. Incidence C. Period prevalence D. Lifetime Prevalence
B
3. A type of graph which displays the median value by a horizontal bar surrounded by 50% of scores shown within a box: A. Histogram B. Box plots C. Frequency polygon D. Normal distribution
B
3. Friedman's test is: A. Parametric equivalent test of chi-square test B. Non-parametric analogue of ANOVA in paired/repeated measures design C. Non-parametric procedure used to test the differences between three or more independent groups D. Parametric procedure used when comparing proportions
B
3. In a population study for malaria over the past few years, the number of case reported were 20, 5000, 100, 80, 60, 70, 40, 60, 80. The average is best represented by: A. Arithemetic mena B. Mode C. Geometric mean D. Median
B
3. Limits of confidence of a hypothesis is determined by: A. Power factor B. Level of significance C. 1-power factor D. 1-level of significance
B
3. Which of the following is TRUE about features of quasi-experimental research design? A. Manipulation. control group, randomization B. Manipulation, but no control group or randomization C. No manipulation of independent variable D. Use of correlational approach
B
4. Maturation threat is a threat to: A. External validity B. Internal validity C. Factro validity D. Content validity
B
4. The statistic used to explain the chances of being exposed to a risk among those with the diagnosis divided by exposure to the risk among those without the diagnosis is: A. Phi coefficient B. Odds ratio C. Chi square D. Kappa
B
4. True about case control study are all, except: A. Quick results B. Incidence rate measure C. Proceeds from effect to cause D. Relatively inexpensive
B
4. When the researcher is not allowed control of the treatment variable and cannot achieve randomization because of ethical considerations, institutional policies or other situational factors, the researcher chooses: A. True experimental studies B. Quasi experimental studies C. Exploratory studies D. Qualitative studies
B
5. 'Emic perspective' refers to: A. Outsider's view B. Insider's view C. Etic perspective D. Holistic view
B
5. In a community of 3000 people, 80% are Hindus, 10% Muslims, 5% Sicks, 4% Christians, and 1% Jains. To select a sample of 300 people to analyze food habits, ideal sampling method would be: A. Simple random sampling B. Stratified random sampling C. Systematic random sampling D. Inverse sampling
B
5. Study of lung cancer in non-smokers is: A. Unifactorial B. Multifactorial C. Passive smocking also increases risk of cancer D. Beedi smokers carry higher risk than cigarette smokers
B
5. The extent to which it is possible to make an inference that independent variable is truly influencing the dependent variable and relationship is not spurious, refers to: A. External validity B. Internal Validity C. Internal consistency D. Reliability
B
5. When establishing the psychometric properties of an instrument, what is NOT true about stability aspect of reliability? A. Stability refers to agreement of measuring instruments over time. B. Stability refers to homogeneity and Cronbach's α and Kuder-Richardson coefficient are also measures to calculate it. C. To determine stability, a measure or test is repeated on the same subjects at a future date. D. The Spearman-Brown coefficient equal to or greater than 0.70 are usually considered sufficient for establishing stability. E. Methods to determine stability include test, re-test reliability and parallel, equivalent or alternate forms reliability
B
6. . What is NOT true about statistical power? A. In Statistical Power, effect size is also known as Cohen's d B. Statistical power is used to explain the cause of an effect. C. Statistical power reflects the power to detect a genuine effect 80% of the time. D. Statistical power reflects the sensitivity of our test.
B
6. A branch of qualitative research associated with the field of anthropology: A. Ethnography B. Anthropology C. Etymology D. Epistemology
B
6. Product-moment correlation coefficient is also known as: A. Spearman's rho B. Pearson r= C. phi coefficient D. Reliability coefficient
B
6. The standard deviation of a sampling distribution is referred to as the: A. Test statistic B. Standard error C. Confidence interval D. Test of signaifiance
B
8. A hypothesis which a researcher tries to disprove is: A. Research hypothesis B. Null hypothesis C. Alternate hypothesis D. Positive hypothesis
B
8. In a community with prevalence of HIV 5%, if the sensitivity is 95% and specificity is 95% of ELISA, what is the predictive value of the test? A. 100% B. 50% C. 25% D. 0%
B
8. Which of the following statements about power of a test is FALSE? A. Power of the test refers to probability of detecting a predefined clinically significant difference. B. Power of a test explains the risk of a false-positive finding C. Power of the test is usually set at (1-20%) 80% D. Power = 1 - βcopyright
B
9. All are true about case control studies, except: A. Relative risk can be calculated B. Less expensive C. Suitable for rare diseases D. Backward study
B
9. In a population of 100 females the mean hemoglobin concentration was 10 and standard deviation was 1. The standard error is: A. 0. 01 B. 0.1 C 0.5 D. 1.6
B
9. In epidemiology research, If the relative risk is greater than 1.0, the group with the suspected risk factor: A. have a lower incidence rate of the disorder. B. have a higher incidence rate of the disorder. C. is having no relationship with the risk factor. D. None of the above
B
9. Which statistical test makes the sphericity assumption? A. Between-group one-way ANOVA B. Within-groups one-way ANOVA C. Mann-Whitney U test D. Student t-test
B
1. A sampling process where each element of the population that is sampled is subjected to an independent Bernoulli trial which determines whether the element becomes part of the sample during the drawing of a single sample: A. Simple Random Sampling B. Stratified Random Sampling C. Poisson sampling D. Multistage Sampling
C
1. A statistic calculated in ANOVA: A. Chi-square B. Correlation coefficient C. Eta-squared D. t-statistic
C
1. A study to establish reliability of Mini Mental-State Examination reported that Cronbach's α measure of reliability was 0.91. This finding refers to the A. Equivalency Reliability B. Stability Reliability copyright@ nursingplanet.com/Quiz/nursing_research_quiz20.html C. Internal Consistency D. Interrater Reliability
C
1. A useful measure of lethality of an acute infectious disease is: A. Attack rate B. Incidence rate C. Case fatality rate D. Mortality rate
C
1. Calculate the median of trhese ten values. 1.9. 1.9, 1.9, 1.9, 2.2, 2.3, 2.4, 2.4, 2.4, 2.4 A. 1.9 B. 2.1 C. 2.25 D. 2.4
C
1. Declaration of Helsinki (1964/1975) is related to: A. Qualitative research B. Genetics research C. Ethical standards in research D. Statistical methods in research
C
1. The ratio between the incidence of disease among exposed and non-exposed is called: A. Causal risk B. Attributable risk C. Relative risk D. Odd's ratio
C
10. The process of "matching" allows: A. The matched variables to evaluated B. For Selecting the case and control group with the same known confounding variables C. Matching of factors in doubt D. To avoid focusing on variables desired
C
10. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of qualitative research? A. Seek to explore phenomena B. Emergent design C. Positivist paradigm D. Use semi-structured methods
C
10. Which statement about sampling error (S.E.) is wrong? A. S.E. is proportional to the population variance B. S.E. is inversely proportional to the sample size C. S.E. is obtained by dividing sample size by standard deviation D. S.E. is a statistical constant which measures the dispersion of the sample means is around the total population mean
C
11. Which of the following data collection method has better subjectivity? A. Self-reports B. Observation C. Biophysiologic measures D. Questionnaires
C
14. A method of data collection in which several rounds of questionnaires are mailed to a panel of experts, focusing on their opinions or judgment concerning a specific topic of interest is: A. Focus group interview B. Meta-analysis C. Delphi technique D. Secondary analysis
C
2. "Above all, do no harm". This principle encompassed in the ethical dimension of: A. Human dignity B. Justice C. Beneficence D. Anonymity
C
2. Sum of all squares of deviation from the mean is called: A. Mean B. Mode C. Variance D. Standard Error
C
2. The process of identifying and holding in abeyance any preconceived beliefs and opinions one has about the phenomena of understanding is: A. Bricolage B. Content Analysis C. Bracketing D. Bricoleur
C
3. A regression-based procedure for testing causal models, typically using non-experimental data: A. Cohen's kappa B. Factor analysis C. Path analysis D. Multitrait-multimatrix method
C
4. A sampling method which involves a random start and then proceeds with the selection of every kth element from then onwards (where k= population size/sample size): A. Simple random sampling B. Stratfied random sampling C. Systematic sampling D. Snowball sampling
C
4. Malaria incidence in a village in the year 2000 is 430, 500, 410, 160, 270, 210, 300, 350, 4000, 430, 480, 450. Which of the following is the best indicator for assessment of malaria incidence in that village by the epidemiologist? A. Arithemetic mean B. Gemetric mean C. Median D. Mode
C
4. Virulence of a disease is indicated by: A. Proportional mortality rate B. Specific mortality rate C. Case fatality ratio D. Morbidity rate
C
5. The phi coefficient is used for correlations between A. Two continuous variables B. Two set of means C. Two dichotomous variables. D. Two rating scales
C
6. In biomedical research survival analysis is typically used to evaluate A. Incidence of a disease B. Point Prevalence C. Life expectancy D. Lifetime Prevalence
C
6. What is NOT true about Kuder-Richardson coefficient (KR-20)? A. KR-20 is used to estimate homogeneity of instrument. B. R-20 is used when items have a dichotomous response, e.g. "yes/no". C. KR-20 is used to estimate the concordance between two or more observers scores of the same event or phenomenon. D. KR-20 is based on the consistency of responses to all of the items of a single form of a test.
C
7. In statistics, spread of dispersion is described by: A. Median B. Mode C. Standard deviation D. Mean
C
8. A reliability index that estimates the homogeneity of a measure composed of several items or subparts: A. Tukey's Test for Nonadditivity B. Spearman's correlation coefficient C. Cronbach's α D. Intra-class correlation coefficient
C
9. In an epidemiological study, the incubation periods obtained were 2, 5, 8, 10, 25, 10, and 30. The median is calculated to be: A. 50 B. 22.5 C. 10 D. 5
C
1. Studies that produce basic estimates of the rates of disorder in a general population and its subgroups is: A. Qualitative epidemiology B. Analytic epidemiology C. Experimental epidemiology D. Descriptive epidemiology
D
10. Among the measure of dispersion which is the most frequently used: A. Range B. Mean C. Median D. Standard deviation
D
2. A statistical procedure used to test the significant difference in proportions, used when the sample size is small or cells in the contingency table have no observations: A. MANOVA B. McNemar test C. Chi-square test D. Fisher's exact test
D
2. For interpreting the value of t using a t-distribution table, the factors that must be known are: Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz A. The degrees of freedom B. Whether hypothesis is one or two-tailed C. The significance level D. All of the above
D
2. In an outbreak of cholera in a village of 2,000 population, 20 cases have occurred and 5 died. Case fatality rate is: A. 1% B. 0.25% C. 5% D. 25%
D
2. The principles of ethics in nursing research include: A. Beneficence B. Respect for human dignity C. Justice D. All of the above
D
2. What is NOT true about construct validity? A. Construct validity is very much an ongoing process as one refines a theory. B. Construct validity is the degree to which an instrument measures the trait or theoretical construct that it is intended to measure. C. Multitrait-multimatrix method is a method to establish construct validity. D. Estimate Cronbach's alpha to establish construct validity.
D
2. Which is false about cohort study? A. Incidence can be measured B. Used to study chronic diseases C. Expensive D. Always prospective
D
3. A design that unfolds in the course of a qualitative study as the researcher makes ongoing design: A. Experimental design B. Quasi-experimental design C. Exploratory design D. Emergent design
D
3. Three factors are important regarding the rights of the participants include all except: A. Confidentiality B. Anonymity C. Voluntary participation D. Jurisprudence
D
4. Carry-over effects are related to: A. Factorial design B. Pretest-posttest design C. Solomon four-group design D. Repeated measures design
D
4. The tendency in qualitative research to derive a complex array of data from a variety of sources, using a variety of methods is referred as: A. Auto-ethnography B. Snowball sampling C. Recursive abstraction D. Bricolage
D
4. What is not true about range? A. Range equals to the difference between highest and lowest scores B. Range is inclusive of the two extreme scores C. Range is a measure of dispersion D. Range equals to the standard error of mean
D
4. Which is true about cluster sampling? A. Every month case is chosen fro study B. A natural group is taken as sampling unit C. Stratification of population D. Involves use of random numbers
D
5. A statistical index describing the magnitude of relationship between two dichotomous variables: A. p-value B. eta-squared C. t-value D. phi- coefficient
D
5. Considerations for choosing sample size include: A. The degree of precision required B. Method of sampling C. Way in which results will be analyzed D. All of the above
D
5. Post-hoc tests of the one-way ANOVA are all, except: A. Least significant difference (LSD) B. Scheff's testCopyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz C. Turkey's b test D. Kolmogrov-Smirnov test
D
5. Which of the following is NOT true about Bland Altman technique? Bland Altman technique, A. suggests that if the differences are within the mean ± 1.96 S.D. are not clinically significant, the two measurement methods may be used interchangeably. B. is employed to assess agreement between two methods of clinical measurements. C. may be constructed to assess agreement between finger stick and earlobe glucose results. D. may be employed to calculate internal consistency of a scale.
D
6. Descriptive epidemiology is study in relation to: A. Time B. Place C. Person D. All of the above
D
6. T-test makes following assumptions, except: A. Level of measurement of the DV must be at least interval B. DV is normally distributed in the population C. The variances of the sample are not significantly different D. The Independent Variable (IV) is at the nominal level of data
D
6. Temporal association between a risk factor and the disease relates to: A. Does-response relationship B. Duration - response relationship C. One to-one relationship D. Cause and effect relationship
D
6. Which of the following is considered as a threat to internal validity of a research? A. The Hawthorne effect B. Novelty effect C. Experimenter effects D. Maturation E. Measurement effects
D
7. A systematic method for continuous monitoring of diseases in a population, in order to be able to detect changes in disease patterns and then to control them is: A. Conditional probability B. Screening C. Prevalence D. Surveillance
D
7. Percentages in the segments are indicated by: A. Bar charts B. Histogram C. Pictogram D. Pie charts
D
7. The power of a statistical test is influenced by: A. Size of the effect B. Sample size C. Beta (β) D. All of the above
D
7. What is NOT true about effect size? A. ES is required to determine the sample size. B. Thresholds of >0.2 (small), >0.5 (moderate) & >0.8 (large) are suggested for effect size for a two-group comparison (Cohen) . C. Effect size shows us the magnitude of our effect relative to SD. D. Effect size is independent of sample size.
D
9. Characteristics of content validity include all, except: A. Content of the measure is justified by other evidence. B. Content validity entire range or universe of the construct. C. Content validity is usually evaluated and scored by experts in the content area.copyright@ nursingplanet.com/Quiz/nursing_research_quiz20.html D. Content validity is a form of criterion related validity. E. A CVI (content validity index) of .80 or more is desirable.
D
9. Intra-class correlation coefficient (ICC) is calculated: A. Construct Validity B. Test-Retest Reliability C. Criterion Validity D. Inter-rater Reliability
D
9. The term used to indicate the placebo effect in which the knowledge of being included in a study cause people to change their behaviours, thereby obscuring the variable of interest: A. Internal validity B. Maturation C. Manipulation D. Hawthorne effect
D
15. The principle of beneficence include all the following, EXCEPT A. Freedom from harm B. Freedom from exploitation C. Benefits from research D. Risk/benefit ratio E. The right to self-determination
E
3. Techniques used to assess reliability of instruments based on observational measures include all, EXCEPT: A. Cohen's kappa B. ANOVA C. Interclass coeficient D. Rank order correlations E. Chi-square statistic
E
5. Factors Affecting Power include: A. . Size of the effect B. Standard deviation of the characteristic C. Bigger sample size D. Significance level desired E. All of the above
E
7. Internal consistency measures include: A. Item-total correlations B. Split-half reliability C. Kuder-Richardson coefficient D. Cronbach's alpha E. All of the above
E
7. Sampling bias or the error resulting from taking a non-random sample of a population include: A. Pre-screening B. Self-Selection Bias C. Selection from a Specific Area D. Exclusion bias E. All of the above
E
7. Which of the following is NOT a qualitative method of research? A. Ethnography B. Case Study C. Survey/Sampling D. Discourse/Text Analysis E. Meta-Analysis
E
7. Which of the following is NOT related to dealing with extraneous variables in a quantitative research? A. Randomization B. Repeated measures C. Homogeneity D. Blocking E. Bracketing
E