Review on Medications: Part 5

Prilosec

Omeprazole Proton Pump Inhibitor

How often are proton pump inhibitors usually taken? a. Once daily b. Twice daily c. Three times a day d. Four times a day

Once daily

Which of the following auxiliary labels would be appropriate for a prescription of potassium chloride extended release capsules? A. Avoid sunlight B. Swallow whole; Do not chew or crush C. Take on an empty stomach D. This medication may impair your ability to operate a vehicle, vessel, or machinery

Swallow whole; Do not chew or crush *Potassium chloride extended release capsules should not be chewed or crushed.

What is the brand name for tiotropium? a. Flovent HFA b. Pulmicort Respules c. Spiriva handihaler d. Symbicort

Spiriva handihaler

Bupropion

Wellbutrin Antidepressant

Which of the following medications is considered a "high-alert" medication according to the Institute of Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)? A. amoxicillin B. insulin C. naproxen D. benzonatate

insulin *High alert medication

Humulin N

insulin NPH Type 1 diabetes

Novolog

insulin aspart Type 1 diabetes

A patient has been diagnosed as having type 1 daibetes mellitus; which of the following would be an appropriate medication? A. glyburide B. insulin glargine C. metformin D. rosiglitazone

insulin glargine *Indicated for type 1 diabetes mellitus *Glyburide, metformin, and rosiglitazone are indicated for type II diabetes mellitus

Lantus

insulin glargine Type 1 diabetes

Which of the following medications is indicated for hypertension? a. irbesartan b. omeprazole c. ciprofloxacin d. cyanocobalamin

irbesartan

All of the medications listed are indicated for asthma EXCEPT A. albuterol B. ipratropium C. isoniazid D. salmeterol

isoniazid *Indicated to treat tuberculosis Albuterol, ipratropium, and salmeterol are indicated to treat asthma

Which of the following medications if used during pregnancy may result in birth defect? a. amoxicillin b. clotrimazole c. isotretinoin d. methyldopa

isotretinoin

Which of the following drugs would be administered using "pulse dosing"? A. clotrimazole B. fluconazole C. itraconazole D. ketoconazole

itraconazole *administered by "pulse-dosing"

Xopenex

levalbuterol (bronchodilator)

___________is indicated for hypothyroidism. a. levothyroxine b. methimazole c. propylthiouracil d. radioactive thyroid

levothyroxine

Which of the following medications carries a boxed warning? A. albuterol B. levothyroxine C. montelukast D. pantoprazole

levothyroxine *Carries a boxed warning

Synthroid

levothyroxine hypothyroidism

What is the generic name for Victoza? A. liraglutide B. lurasidone C. vardenafil D. vilazodone

liraglutide *Generic name for Victoza *Lurasidone (Latuda) *Vardenafil (Levitra) *Velazodone (Viibryd)

Which of the following medications should have the auxiliary label "Avoid Alcohol; May cause Drowsiness"? A. brimonidine tartrate B. cephalexin C. furosemide D. lorazepam

lorazepam *Should have auxiliary labels "Avoid Alcohol; May Cause Drowsiness"

A pharmacy technician is reviewing the interaction of grapefruit juice on a variety of prescription medications. Drinking grapefruit juice will decrease the effect of which of the following medications? A. amiodarone B. atorvastatin C. carbamazepine D. losartan

losartan *Therapeutic effect is decreased when taken with grapefruit juice

What is the generic name for Serevent Diskus? A. albuterol B. beclomethasone C. salmeterol D. tiotropium

salmeterol *Generic name for Serevent Albuterol is the generic name for Proventil HFA or Ventolin HFA Beclomethasone is the generic name for Vancenase AQ Tiotropium is the generic name for Spiriva Handihaler

Which of the following medication should be taken at bedtime? A. alendronate with vitamin D B. hydrochlorothiazide C. pantoprazole D. zolpidem

zolpidem *Indicated for insomnia and should be taken at bedtime

Which of the following drug classifications should be taken with food or milk to avoid stomach distress? a. Beta blockers b. Cephalosporins c. NSAIDs d. Proton pump inhibitors

NSAIDs

Memantine

Namenda Alzheimers

A patient is picking up their prescription of warfarin and is purchasing a variety of dietary supplements. The pharmacy technician should bring it to the attention of the pharmacist when the patient purchases which dietary supplement? A. black cohosh B. echinacea C. garlic D. St. John's wort

St. John's wort *May decrease the effect of warfarin

A patient is prescribed enoxaparin; how should it be administered? A. Intravenously B. Orally C. Subcutaneously D. Topically

Subcutaneously *Enoxaparin is administered subcutaneously.

Which dosage form is described as "solid particles dispersed in liquid vehicle"? A. Emulsions B. Gel C. Lotion D. Suspensions

Suspensions *Even though both lotions and suspensions are dispersions, suspensions contain solid particles that are suspended in the vehicle while lotions contain insoluble particles.

A prescription for isotretinoin is presented to the pharmacy; what is the maximum number of refills permitted for this prescription? A. 0 B. 1 C. 6 D. 12

0 *Refills are no permitted on prescription isotretinoin.

What is the maximum number of refills permitted by law for the following prescription? Hydrocodone/acetaminophen 7.5 mg/325 mg #40 1 tab PO q 4-6 h prn pain A. 0 B. 1 C. 5 D. 12

0 *The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 does not permit refills for Schedule II controlled substances, which Hydrocodone/acetaminophen is classified as.

If 120 mL of a 2% (w/v) is diluted with water to 1 pint, what will be the strength of the dilution? A. 0.25 % B. 0.5 % C. 1.0 % D. 8.0 %

0.5 % (IS) X (IV)=(FS) X (FV) (2%) X (120 mL)= (FS) X (480 mL)

How many grams of hydrocortisone powder should the pharmacy technician weigh to prepare 1 pound of a 0.25% hydrocortisone cream? A. 1.14 g B. 1.2 g C. 113.5 g D. 120 g

1.14 g *0.25% means that there is 0.25 g in every 100 g 454 g equals 1 pound Cross-multiply with 0.25 g/100 g The final answer will be 1.135 g. Round up to 1.14 g

An individual wishes to purchase a 4-ounce bottle of guaifenesin with codeine, which is classified as an "exempt narcotic". How old must a person be to purchase this medication? A. 12 years B. 16 years C. 18 years D. 21 years

18 years *The Comprehensive Drug Abuse and Control Act of 1970 allows an individual age 18 years or older to purchase a 4-oz bottle of exempt narcotic every 48 hours.

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription order that has the following directions: "4 gtt in each ear tid". How many drops will the patient use each day? A. 8 B. 12 C. 16 D. 24

24 *4 drops/ear X 3 times/day Equals 24 drops/day

As long as the manufacturer's storage requirements are met, what is the beyond-use date of a multidose vial such as insulin injection after opening? A. 1 week B. 14 days C. 28 days D. 30 days

28 days

The following prescription is presented to the pharmacy. How many days will the prescription last the patient? Alendronate Plus D #4 1 tab po q week A. 4 days B. 7 days C. 28 days D. 30 days

28 days *Prescription for Alendronate Plus D will last 28 days.

The following prescription is presented to the pharmacy. How many capsules should be dispensed? Amoxicillin 250 mg 10 day's supply 1 cap PO TID A. 20 capsules B. 30 capsules C. 40 capsules D. 60 capsules

30 capsules *1 cap PO TID (three times/day) for 10 days

A medication is available as a 10 mg/5 mL suspension; how many milliliters are needed to give a dose of 30 mg? A. 10 mL B. 15 mL C. 20 mL D. 30 mL

30 mL *Cross-multiply: (10 mg/5 mL) X (30 mg/a mL)

A physician has a prescribed clarithromycin 500 mg PO bid for 10 days for community-acquired pneumonia. How many 250-mg tablets will the pharmacy technician need to dispense for this patient? A. 20 B. 40 C. 60 D. 80

40 *Half of 500 is 250= 2 tablets 2 tablets/dose X 2 doses/day X 10 days Equals 40

An opened vial of Novolin N is stable at room temperature for: a. 14 days b. 21 days c. 28 days d. 42 days

42 days

The following prescription has been presented to the pharmacy. How many tablets should be dispensed? Prednisone 5 mg Sig: 20 mg BID X 2 D 15 mg BID X 2D 10 mg BID X 2D 5 mg BID X 2D 5 mg QD X 2D 2.5 mg QD X 2 D A. 33 tablets B. 37 tablets C. 43 tablets D. 49 tablets

43 tablets *Prednisone 5 mg Sig: 20 mg BID X 2 D: (20 mg) X (2 times/day) X 2 days 15 mg BID X 2D: (15 mg) X (2 times/day) X 2 days 10 mg BID X 2D: (10 mg) X (2 times/day) X 2 days 5 mg BID X 2D: (5 mg) X (2 times/day) X 2 days 5 mg QD X 2D: (5 mg) X (daily) X 2 days 2.5 mg QD X 2 D: (2.5 mg) X (daily) X 2 days

What is the minimum amount of time that a patient must wait before purchasing another bottle of an exempt narcotic? A. 24 hr B. 48 hr C. 72 hr D. 96 hr

48 hr *A person must wait 48 hours after purchasing an "exempt" controlled substance before purchasing another bottle.

Which drug classification may decrease blood glucose levels in the body? a. Beta blockers b. Corticosteroids c. Oral contraceptives d. Thiazide diuretics

Beta blockers

A patient presents a prescription for furosemide 20 mg PO bid for 30 days. How many tablets should the pharmacy technician count out to fill this prescription? A. 15 tablets B. 30 tablets C. 60 tablets D. 90 tablets

60 tablets *furosemide 20 mg by mouth twice a day for 30 days 30 days X 2 times/day=60

Alprazolam is a schedule IV controlled substance. What is the maximum number of allowable refills on a prescription of alprazolam if authorized by a physician? A. None B. 5 C. 12 D. Unlimited

5 *Alprazolam is classified as Schedule IV medication under the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 Permitted to be refilled at the maximum five times within 6 months of the prescription being written

What is the maximum number of refills for a prescription of zolpidem if authorized by the physician? A. None B. 5 C. 6 D. 12

5 *Zolpidem is a Schedule IV controlled substance and may be refilled up to five times within 6 months of the date it was written

How many days will a prescription of 40 tablets last if the directions read "i-ii tabs PO q6h"? A. 5 days B. 7 days C. 10 days D. 15 days

5 days *(2 tablets/dose) X (4 doses/day)=5 days

Paroxetine

Paxil SSRI

Penicillin

Pen VK Antibiotic, Penicillin

Within how many days does a pharmacy have to fill a prescription of isotretinoin? A. 1 day B. 7 days C. 30 days D. 180 days

7 days *A pharmacy has 7 days from the date the prescription is written to fill isotretinoin, according to the Isotretinoin Safety and Risk Management Act of 2004

A physician prescribes amoxicillin 125 mg tid for 10 days. The pharmacy has in-stock amoxicillin 250 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters of amoxicillin oral suspension should the pharmacy technician dispense? A. 75 mL B. 100 mL C. 150 mL D. 200 mL

75 mL *125 mg X 3 times/day X 10 days= 3750 mg/10 days Cross multiply with 250 mg/5 mL. The final answer will be 0.75 Move the decimal 2 times to convert into milliliters (100), giving you 75 mL

The abbreviation "qs ad" appears on a prescription; what is its meaning? A sufficient quantity to deliver the correct dose B. A sufficient quantity for the right ear C. A sufficient quantity for the right eye D. A sufficient quantity to make

A sufficient quantity to make "qs ad" is a direction to the pharmacist in compounding a prescription meaning "to make up to" a given weights or volume of a substance.

Which therapeutic equivalent code is assigned to a medication in conventional dosage forms not presenting bioequivalence problems? A. A B. AA C. B D. B*

AA *Conventional dosage forms not presenting bioequivalence problems. *A: therapeutically equivalent *B: not therapeutically equivalent (B* requires further investigation by the FDA)

ProAir HFA

Albuterol Asthma

Which is the generic name for Fosamax? A. Alendronate B. Calcitonin-salmon C. Ibandronate D. Raloxifene

Alendronate *Generic name for Fosamax Calcitonin-salmon: Miacalcin Ibandronate: Boniva Raloxifene: Evista

Which of the following conditions is memantine indicated? A. Alzheimer dementia B. HIV C. Hypoglycemia D. Psoriasis

Alzheimer dementia *Memantine is indicated in treating Alzheimer dementia

Amoxicillin

Amoxil Antibiotic, Penicillin

A patient is being treated for hypertension with hydrochlorothiazide. Their physician has ordered a chemistry panel be performed on the patient. What will the lab results indicate? A. A decrease in the patient' blood sugar B. A decrease in the patient's blood urea nitrogen (BUN) C. An increase in the patient's blood sugar D. An increase in the patient's BUN

An increase in the patient's blood sugar *A patient being prescribed hydrochlorothiazide may see an increase in blood sugar.

Donepezil

Aricept Alzheimer's

Which therapeutic equivalence code is assigned to a drug product that is not pharmaceutically equivalent? A. A B. AA C. AB D. B

B *Product is not to be therapeutically equivalent to other pharmaceutically equivalent products A: therapeutically equivalent to other pharmaceutically equivalent products AA: not presenting bioequivalence problems AB: products meet necessary bioequivalence requirements

Which of the following drug classifications is contraindicated in a patient with kidney disease? A. Antacids B. Antitussives C. Nicotine replacement products D. Sleeping aid

Antacids *A patient with kidney disease should not take an antacid.

What is the generic name for Tenormin? a. Atenolol b. Carvedilol c. Albuterol d. Metoprolol

Atenolol

Lorazepam

Ativan Benzodiazepine

This medication is indication for hyperlipidemia and is taken once a day? a. Atorvastatin b. Clopidogrel c. Gemfibrozil d. Niacin

Atorvastatin

Which type of drug interaction occurs when a medication works against the action of another medication? A. Addition B. Antagonism C. Potentiation D. Synergism

Antagonism *Occurs when a drug works against the action of another drug. *Addition is the combined effect of two drugs. *Potentiation occurs when one drug increases/prolongs the effect of another drug. *Synergism is the joint action of drugs in which their combined effect is more intense/longer in duration that the sum of the effects of two drugs.

A patient complains of experiencing side effects, such as dry eyes, dry mouth, or difficult urination or defecation. These side effects are associated with which drug classification? A. Alpha-blockers B. Anticholinergics C. Beta-blockers D. Cephalosporins

Anticholinergics *Tendency to dry up all bodily secretions as a side effect

Trazodone

Desyrel Antidepressant

Which of the following is a valid DEA number? A. AD2865937 B. BD0865937 C. FD1865937 D. MD0865947

BD0865937 *How to solve a DEA number: 1. Add the first, third, and fifth digit 2. Add the second, fourth, and sixth digit. Multiply by 2. 3. Add the sum of Step 1 digits and Step 2 digits in order to get a final result. *If the second digit of the final result matches the seventh digit number of the DEA number, it is considered valid.

Albuterol is an example of a: a. Bronchodilator b. Corticosteroid c. Decongestant d. Mucolytic agent

Bronchodilator

Buspirone

Buspar Antianxiety

A pharmacy technician receives a prescription with the following signa: "1 supp pr qd". What is the route of administration? A. Applied to the skin B. By mouth C. By rectum D. By vagina

By rectum *pr= by rectum

Which of the following beverages should be avoided by the patient if they have been prescribed Sand immune? A. Carbonated beverages B. Chocolate milk C. Milk D. Orange juice

Carbonated beverages *Chocolate or regular milk and orange juice may be mixed with Sand immune at room temperature.

Celecoxib

Celebrex NSAID

Citalopram

Celexa SSRI

Which drug recall is classified as one in which there is a reasonable probability that the use of the medication will cause or lead to a serious adverse event or even death? A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV

Class I *Class I shows that there is a reasonable probability that use of the product will cause or lead to serious adverse effects or death. *Class II is one in which the probability exists that the use of the product will cause adverse health events that are temporary or medically reversible. *Class III means that the drug will probably not cause an adverse health event. *There is no such thing as a Class IV.

Which type of drug recall may cause temporary health problems and have a low risk of creating a serious problem? A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV

Class II *A class II drug recall causes reversible harm and is temporary A class I drug recall causes permanent harm or may be fatal to the patient A class III drug recall does not cause any harm to the patient There is no such thing as a class IV drug recall

Which of the following medications should NOT be crushed when being administered to a patient? A. Corgard B. Coreg CR C. Lopressor D. Tenormin

Coreg CR *Controlled release dosage form.

Carvedilol

Coreg, Beta blocker, hypertension

Which drug classification is fluticasone? A. Benzodiazepine B. Corticosteroid C. Electrolyte D. HMG CoA reductase inhibitor

Corticosteroid *Classified for Fluiticasone

Warfarin

Coumadin Anticoagulant

Losartan

Cozaar ARB

Which of the following may reduce the effectiveness of warfarin? A. Apple juice B. Cranberry juice C. Grapefruit juice D. Orange juice

Cranberry juice *Has the ability to decrease the effects of warfarin

Duloxetine

Cymbalta Antidepressant

Divalproex Sodium

Depakote neurologic

What auxiliary label should be used when taking benzonatate? a. Take with a meal or snack b. Do not chew or crush c. Do not take with grapefruit juice d. Take before meals

Do not chew or crush

Which warning should be applied when dispensing proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)? a. Do not chew or crush b. Do not take with grapefruit juice c. Do not take on an empty stomach d. Do not take with cranberry juice

Do not chew or crush

What do the last two numbers of a National Drug Code (NDC) number indicate? A. Drug manufacturer B. Drug product C. Drug package D. Drug quantity

Drug package *The last two digits of a NDC number indicates the drug package.

What is an example of an ACE inhibitor? a. Amlodipine b. Enalapril c. Nadolol d. Verpamil

Enalapril

Which of the following medications should be refrigerated? A. Epogen B. ProQuad C. Varivax D. Zostavax

Epogen *Must be refrigerated ProQuad, Varivax, and Zostavax must be frozen

Nexium

Esomeprazole Proton Pump Inhibitor

Which of the following drug classifications requires that a package insert be provided to the patient? A. Cephalosporin B. Estrogen C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug D. Proton pump inhibitor

Estrogen *Prescription for estrogens require a package insert to be provided to the patient every time a prescription is filled.

Which of the following drug classifications requires a patient product insert to be given to a patient when receiving a prescription? A. ACE inhibitors B. Beta blockers C. Estrogens D. Proton pump inhibitors

Estrogens *A patient product insert must be given to the patient receiving a prescription for estrogens.

Pepcid

Famotidine GERD

What is the maximum number of allowable refills for a prescription of acetaminophen/codeine? A. None B. One C. Five D. Six

Five *Acetaminophen/codeine is considered a Schedule III; maximum number of refills is 5 within 6 months of the date the prescription was written

Tamsulosin

Flomax Alpha 1 blocker

Flovent HFA

Fluticasone Asthma

A pharmacy technician should use which of the following when placing a pharmacy weights on a balance? A. Filter paper B. Forceps C. Latex powdered gloves D. Weighing papers

Forceps *Used to prevent oils from the hands from being deposited on the weight, which may alter the composition of the weight.

Alendronate

Fosamax Osteoporosis

Which of these medications is a loop diuretic? a. Triamterene/hydrochlorothiazide b. Hydrochlorothiazide c. Furosemide d. Tolterodine

Furosemide *Triamterene/hydrochlorothiazide is a K-sparing/thiazide diuretic; hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic; tolterodine is used to treat an overactive bladder

Lasix

Furosemide Loop Diuretic

A patient prescribed an NSAID medication has an increase likelihood of experiencing which of the following as a side effect? A. Atrial fibrillation B. Fever C. Gastrointestinal bleeding D. Hypotension

Gastrointestinal bleeding *A side effects of NSAIDs is gastrointestinal bleeding

Which of the following is an indication for timolol ophthalmic solution? A. Blepharitis B. Glaucoma C. Keratitis D. Stye

Glaucoma *Timolol ophthalmic solution is indicated to treat glaucoma.

A patient is taking carbamazepine for seizures. Which of the following may increase its effects? A. Dairy products B. Grapefruit juice C. Lettuce D. Fatty foods

Grapefruit juice *May increase the effects of carbamazepine

Microzide

Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)

Which of the following drug classifications have been deemed potentially inappropriate for use in older adults? A. Calcium channel blockers B. Corticosteroids C. Decongestants D. Hypnotics

Hypnotics *Deemed as potentially inappropriate medication to be used in older adults

Which of the following auxiliary labels should be affixed to containers to NSAIDs? I Take with food II Take with plenty of water III May cause photosensitivity IV Do not refrigerate a. I and II only b. I and III only c. II and III only d. II and IV only

I and II only

Where is an otic medication administered? A. In the ear B. In the eye C. In the rectum D. Under the tongue

In the ear *Otc refers to ear.

Interpret the following signa: Terconazole supp #7 i supp pv q hs for yeast infection X 7 nights A. Use one suppository vaginally at bedtime for yeast infection for 7 nights. B. Insert one suppository vaginally at bedtime for 7 nights. C. Insert one suppository vaginally at bedtime for yeast infection for 7 nights. D. Take one suppository at bedtime for yeast infection for 7 nights.

Insert one suppository vaginally at bedtime for yeast infection for 7 nights. *i (one) sup (suppository) pv (per vagina) q (every) hs (bedtime) for yeast infection X 7 nights

Humalog

Insulin Lispro Type 1 Diabetes

Which of the following medications is indicated for the treatment of diabetes? A. Januvia B. Lunesta C. Cipro D. Remeron

Januvia *Approved for treatment of type 2 diabetes Lunesta is indicated for insomnia Remeron is used to treat depression Cipro is an antibiotic

Levetiracetam

Keppra Anticonvulsant

Clonazepam

Klonopin Benzodiazepine

Potassium Chloride

Klor-Con, K-Dur, Micro-K Electrolyte

Furosemide

Lasix Loop Diuretic

Xalatan

Latanoprost Glaucoma

Which of the following medications must be monitored through a blood test? a. Buspirone b. Hydroxyzine c. Levothyroxine d. Pseudoephedrine

Levothyroxine

Escitalpram

Lexapro SSRI Antidepressant

Lidocaine

Lidoderm Topical Analgesic

Atorvastatin

Lipitor HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

Which of the following medications is an ACE inhibitor used in the treatment on congestive heart failure? a. Furosemide b. Lisinopril c. Losartan d. Metoprolol

Lisinopril

Metoprolol Tartrate

Lopressor Antihypertensive

Pregabalin

Lyrica Anticonvulsant

Morphine Sulfate

MS Contin Opioid Analgesic Musculoskeletal

A patient complains of experiencing sleep disorders; which of the following products would a pharmacist recommend to them? A. Chromium picolinate B. Ginseng C. Glucosamine D. Melatonin

Melatonin *Shown to be effective in assisting individuals to fall asleep, especially when travelling.

What is the generic name for Glucophage? a. Metformin b. Glipizide c. Sitagliptin d. Glyburide

Metformin

Lovastatin

Mevacor HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)

Microzide Thiazide Diuretic

Singulair

Montelukast Asthma

Ibuprofen

Motrin, Advil NSAID

Which of the following pieces of information is useful to verify that the correct medication has been selected from the shelf to fill a prescription? A. Expiration date B. Lot number C. NDC number D. NPI number

NDC number *Identifies the drug manufacturer, drug entity, and packaging. *It should be used when selecting the correct medication from the shelf.

Naproxen

Naprosyn, Aleve NSAID

Which of the following drug classifications is contraindicated if a patient has high blood pressure? A. Antacids B. Antitussives C. Nasal decongestants D. Nighttime sleep aids

Nasal decongestants *Contraindicated if a patient has high blood pressure

Gabapentin

Neurontin Anticonvulsant/Antineuralgic

Amlodipine

Norvasc (Calcium Channel Blocker)

What is the BUD for water-containing topical/dermal formulations? a. 7 days b. 14 days c. 21 days d. Not more than 30 days

Not more than 30 days

What is the BUD for water-containing oral formulation that is stored at a controlled cold temperature? A. 24 hours B. 48 hours C. Not more than 4 days D. Not more than 30 days

Not more than 4 days *According to USP 795, the BUD for water containing oral formulation is no more than 4 days when stored at a controlled cold temperature.

Which of the following drug classification has been identified as a high-alert medication in a long-term care facility? A. ACE inhibitors B. Bisphosphonates C. Antihistamines D. Oral anticoagulants

Oral anticoagulants *High-alert medication in a long term care facility

Oxycodone

OxyContin Opioid Analgesic

Protonix

Pantoprazole Proton-pump inhibitor GERD and esophagitis, heartburn

Which term encompasses the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination of a drug? A. Pharmacokinetics B. Pharmacognosy C. Pharmacology D. Pharmacopeia

Pharmacokinetics *Involves the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination (ADME) process. *Pharmacognosy: branch of knowledge where medicinal drugs are obtained from plants or other natural products. *Pharmacology: scientific study of the action of drugs on a living system. *Pharmacopeia: listing of approved drugs.

When measuring a volume less than 1.0 mL, the pharmacy technician should use which of the following pieces of equipment? A. Beaker B. Conical graduate C. Cylindrical graduate D. Pipette

Pipette *Should be used to measure a volume less than 1 mL. *Beakers and graduates are not precise enough to measure a small volume such as 1 mL. *A measuring device should not be used if the capacity greater than fives the amount of volume to be measured.

How should a pharmacy technician handle an item that is saturated with blood or body fluids? A. Incinerated at the facility B. Placed in a biohazard bag C. Placed in a sharps container D. Placed in a trash receptacle

Placed in a biohazard bag *According to USP 797, an item that is saturated with blood or body fluids should be placed in a biohazard bag.

Cytotoxic drugs from a pharmacy are disposed by which of the following methods? A. Discarding them in the pharmacy garbage B. Placing them in a sharps container C. Placing them in a specialized sharps container labeled "hazardous waste" D. Rinsing them down the sink or flushing down the toilet

Placing them in a specialized sharps container labeled "hazardous waste" *Cytotoxic drugs are disposed by placing them in a specialized "sharps container"

Clopidogrel

Plavix Antiplatelet

Pravastatin

Pravachol HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

Lisinopril

Prinivil, Zestril ACE inhibitor

Finasteride

Proscar Prostate Anti-inflammatory / 5-Alpha Reductase Inhibitor

A patient complains of experiencing bronchospasms. Their physician wishes to prescribe a beta-2 agonist for this patient. Which of the following medications would be appropriate? A. Advair Diskus B. Proventil HFA C. Singulair D. Spiriva Handihaler

Proventil HFA *Beta-2 agonist *Advair Diskus: combination of a beta-2 agonist and corticosteroid *Singulair: leukotriene inhibitor *Spiriva Handi haler: long-acting muscarinic antagonist

Risperidone

Risperdal Antipsychotic

Which USP term is assigned to the any temperature between 15 C and 30 C? A. Freezer B. Cold C. Cool D. Room temperature

Room temperature *Any temperature between 15 C and 30 C (59 F or 86 F). *Storage temperature terms assigned by the USP include the following: -Freezer (-25 C and -10 C) or (-13 F and 14 F) -Cold (not to exceed 8 C or 46 F) -Cool (any temperature between 8 C and 15 C) or (46 F and 59 F)

Which of the following does the superscription contain? A. Directions for usage B. Name of the medication prescribed, strength, and quantity C. Refill information D. RX symbol

RX symbol *Superscription

_________is a proton pump inhibitor indicated for the treatment of GERD. a. Metoclopramide b. Ranitidine c. Rabeprazole d. Sucralfate

Rabeprazole *Metoclopramide and ranitidine are H2 blockers; sucralfate is a coating agent. All are indicated in the treatment of GERD.

What is the route of administration for a prescription with the directions "i supp pr q6h prn"? A. Orally B. Rectally C. Urethally D. Vaginally

Rectally *pr: "per rectum"

Which drug schedule is meperidine classified? A. Schedule II B. Schedule III C. Schedule IV D. Schedule V

Schedule II *Meperidine is classified as a Schedule II control substance

A patient has been diagnosed with a major depressive episode; which of the following drug classifications would a physician prescribe? A. Barbiturate B. Benzodiazepines C. Hydantoins D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors *Indicated for depression *Barbiturates: indicated for sleep *Benzodiazepines: indicated for anxiety *Hydantoins: indicated for epilepsy/seizures

Quetiapine

Seroquel Antipsychotic

When taking an inhibitor, what should the patient do? a. Shake well b. Do not chew or crush c. Rinse mouth after use d. Take with a meal or snack

Shake well

A pharmacy technician receives the following prescription. Which of the following would be the proper directions for use to appear on the prescription label? Metformin 500 mg #60 1 Tab PO q 12 h for DM A. Take one tablet by mouth every 12 hours for diabetes mellitus. B. Take one tablet twice a day for diabetes mellitus. C. Take one tablet by mouth twice a day for diabetes mellitus. D. Take one tablet by mouth with food every 12 hours for diabetes mellitus.

Take one tablet by mouth every 12 hours for diabetes mellitus. *Take 1 tab (tablet) by mouth (PO) every (q) 12 hours (h) for diabetes mellitus (DM)

Interpret the signa for the following prescription: Naprosyn 500 mg #30 1 tab PO q 12 h for osteoarthritis A. Take one tablet every 12 hours. B. Take one tablet by mouth every 12 hours. C. Take one tablet by mouth every 12 hours as needed for arthritis. D. Take one tablet by mouth every 12 hours for osteoarthritis.

Take one tablet by mouth every 12 hours for osteoarthritis. *Take one (1) tablet (tab) by mouth (PO) every (q) 12 hours (h) for osteoarthritis

A prescription is written for hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg. Which of the following would be appropriate directions for use? A. Take one tablet by mouth at bedtime. B. Take one tablet by mouth in the morning with food. C. Take one tablet by mouth in the morning with orange juice. D. Take one tablet by mouth on an empty stomach.

Take one tablet by mouth in the morning with orange juice. *Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic and should be taken in the morning. Orange juice contains potassium, which would replenish the body's reserve due to the diuretic effect of Hydrochlorothiazide.

A prescription has the following signa: "1 tab PO bid X 14 d for URI". Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this signa? A. Take one tablet by mouth twice a day for 14 doses for URI. B. Take one tablet twice a day for 14 days for URI. C. Take one tablet by mouth twice a day for 14 days for upper respiratory infection. D. Take one tablet immediately, then one tablet twice a day for 14 days for upper respiratory infection.

Take one tablet by mouth twice a day for 14 days for upper respiratory infection. *1 (one) tab (tablet) PO (by mouth) bid (twice a day) X (times) 14 d (14 days) for URI (upper respiratory infection)

Which auxiliary label should be affixed to a prescription of naproxen? A. Refrigerate B. Shake well C. Take with food D. Take with orange juice

Take with food *Naproxen may irritate the stomach and should be taken with food to avoid stomach distress.

When taking alendronate, what should the patient do? a. Take with food b. Take with water c. Take with water and stay upright for 30 minutes d. Stay upright for 30 minutes

Take with water and stay upright for 30 minutes

Atenolol

Tenormin Beta Blocker

Acetaminophen/Codeine

Tylenol with Codeine #2, #3, #4

Topiramate

Topamax Anticonvulsant

Metoprolol Succinate

Toprol XL Antihypertensive-Beta Blocker

Travatan

Travoprost Glaucoma

Tramadol

Ultram Opioid Analgesic

Which of the following auxiliary labels should be affixed to a prescription of furosemide? A. Avoid antacids B. Avoid high-potassium foods C. Take at bedtime D. Use sunscreen

Use sunscreen *A side effect associated with furosemide is photosensitivity, and therefore a patient should wear sunscreen when exposed to sunlight.

Diazepam

Valium Benzodiazepine

A physician has written an order for a patient to receive an immunization for Zostavax at the pharmacy. What condition is the patient being vaccinated against? A. Hepatitis type A B. Influenza B C. Papillomavirus D. Varicella/zoster

Varicella/zoster *Zostavax is indicated as immunization against varicella-zoster

Sildenafil

Viagra Erectile dysfunction

hydrocodone/acetaminophen

Vicodin Opioid combination Analgesic

A deficiency of which vitamin may result in beriberi? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B1 C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D

Vitamin B1 *May lead to beriberi Deficiency of vitamin A: vision problems Deficiency of vitamin C: scurvy Deficiency of vitamin D: rickets

A deficiency of which vitamin will result in the patient experiencing scurvy? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B1 C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D

Vitamin C *A deficiency of vitamin C results in scurvy developing in the patient.

A patient should be warned about taking which vitamin when prescribed warfarin because of its effect on blood coagulation? A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin B6 C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin K

Vitamin K *Warfarin antagonist, which increases blood clots.

What term is assigned to a storage temperature of 30 C to 40 C? A. Cool B. Excessive heat C. Room temperature D. Warm

Warm *Temperature between 30 C and 40 C (86 F to 104 F) *Cool: 8 C to 15 C (46 F to 59 F) *Excessive heat: above 40 C (104 F) *Room temperature: 15 C to 30 C (59 F to 86 F)

Which of these adverse effects is associated with corticosteroids? A. Hypoglycemia B. Hypotension C. Hyperkalemia D. Water retention

Water retention *Common adverse effect associated with corticosteroids.

The Latin abbreviation Signa appears on a prescription; what is its meaning? A. Directions to the pharmacist B. Dispense as written C. Take this drug D. Write on label

Write on label *Meaning of Signa

Alprazolam

Xanax Benzodiazepine

Azithyromycin

Zithromax Antibiotic

What is the brand name for simvastatin? a. Crestor b. Mevacor c. Zetia d. Zocor

Zocor

Simvastatin

Zocor HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

Sertraline

Zoloft SSRI

Which of the following vaccines should be protected from light? A. DTaP B. Hep A C. PCV 13 D. Zostavax

Zostavax *Must be protected from light

A change in medication's solubility is due to A. bioequivalence B. a pharmacological incompatibility C. a physical incompatibility D. a therapeutic incompatibility

a physical incompatibility *Physical or chemical interactions between two or more ingredients that leads to visibly recognizable changes. *Examples of physical incompatibilities: insolubility of prescribed agent due to changes that results in decreased solubility.

What is the active ingredient in Tylenol? a. acetaminophen b. aspirin c. ibuprofen d. naproxen

acetaminophen

Which of the following medications is safe to take for a headache if the patient has peptic ulcer disease? A. acetaminophen B. acetylsalicylic acid C. ibuprofen D. naproxen sodium

acetaminophen *Safe for a patient to take for a headache fi they have peptic ulcer disease Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin), ibuprofen, and naproxen sodium are contraindicated for individuals with peptic ulcer disease.

Which of the following medications is classified as an antiviral agent? A. acyclovir B. azithromycin C. fluconazole D. nystatin

acyclovir *Antiviral agent *Azithromycin: macrolide antibiotic *Fluconazole and nystatin: antifungal agents

Which of the following drugs may be used prophylactically for influenza and Parkinson disease? A. amantadine B. bromocriptine C. levodopa-carbidopa D. selegiline

amantadine *Prevention of influenza and the treatment of Parkinson disease

A prescriber has ordered an INR test for a patient being prescribed warfarin. Which of the following medications will elevate the patient's INR values? A. amiodarone B. carbamazepine C. norethindrone/ethinyl estradiol D. vitamin K

amiodarone *Elevate a patient's INR results. *Carbamazepine, norethindrone/ethinyl estradiol (oral contraceptive), and vitamin K will decrease a patient's INR value.

A prescriber has authorized the pharmacy to substitute the generic for Lipitor; which of the following should be dispensed? A. atorvastatin B. fluvastatin C. pravastatin D. simvastatin

atorvastatin *Fluvastatin (Lescol) *Pravastatin (Pravachol) *Simvastatin (Zocor)

A prescription is written for the antibiotic Zithromax. The physician indicated "Voluntary Formulary" permitted on the prescription. Which of the following medications would be dispensed? A. azithromycin B. clarithromycin C. minocycline D. cephalexin

azithromycin *Biaxin (clarithromycin) *Minocin (minocycline) *Keflex (cephalexin)

When are H2 blockers usually taken? a. after meals b. before meals c. in the morning d. at bedtime

before meals

Which medication is indicated for opioid dependence maintenance? A. buprenorphine/naloxone B. butorphanol nasal C. solifenacin D. tramadol

buprenorphine/naloxone *Opioid dependence maintenance *Butorphanol: nasal indicated for pain *Solifenacin: indicated for overactive bladder *Tramadol: indicated for pain

Which of the following is not a side effect of Lithium? a. tremor b. thirst c. chest pain d. vomiting

chest pain

____________is indicated for depression and obsessive compulsive behavior and is taken once a day. a. citalopram b. divalproex sodium c. lithium d. methylphenidate

citalopram *Divalproex is indicated for bipolar disease and seizure disorders; lithium is indicated for bipolar disease; methylphenidate is indicated for ADHD

A pharmacy organizes its medications generally in alphabetical order. A physician has approved the generic for Celexa to be dispensed. Which generic should the pharmacy technician select to fill this prescription? A. citalopram B. phenelzine C. selegiline D. tranylcypromine

citalopram *Generic name for Celexa

Which of the following medications is classified as a benzodiazepine? A. clonazepam B. pantoprazole C. ranitidine D. rosuvastatin

clonazepam *Is a benzodiazepine Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor Ranitidine is an H2 blocker Rosuvastatin is an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor

Which of the following is the generic name for Plavix? A. celecoxib B. clopidogrel C. naproxen D. oxaprozin

clopidogrel *Celcoxib (Celebrex) *Naproxen (Naprosyn) *Oxaprozin (Daypro)

Which of the following drugs requires weekly complete blood cell counts (CBCs) prior to drug dispensing? a. clozapine b. prozac c. paroxetine d. sertraline

clozapine

Which of the following products can be purchased as an exempt narcotic if all conditions outlined by the federal Controlled Substances Act are met? A. butorphanol nasal B. chlorpheniramine/hydrocodone C. codeine/guaifenesin D. phenobarbital

codeine/guaifenesin *Exempt narcotic

All of the following drugs are classified as NSAIDs EXCEPT: A. colchicine B. celecoxib C. ibuprofen D. oxaprozin

colchicine *Action is unknown in treating gout *Celecoxib, ibuprofen, and oxaprozin are classified as NSAIDs

Which of the following insulins has a duration of action of 20-24 hours? A. aspart B. detemir C. lispro D. neutral protamine Hagedorn

detemir *Has duration of action of 20-24 hours Aspart and Lispro insulin has a duration of 3-4 hours Neutral protamine Hagedorn has a duration of 10-16 hours

Focalin XR is the brand name for which generic medication? A. atomoxetine B. bupropion C. dexmethylphenidate D. methylphenidate

dexmethylphenidate *Atomoxetine (Strattera) *Bupropion (Wellbutrin) *Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

A patient is being treated for a variety of cardiovascular conditions and prescribed digoxin, hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, and potassium chloride. The patient complains of seeing a green-blue halo. This adverse effect can be attributed to which medication? A. digoxin B. hydrochlorothiazide C. lisinopril D. potassium chloride

digoxin *May experience seeing a green-blue halo

A patient is experiencing psychosis and has been prescribed olanzapine. Which of the following medications if taken with olanzapine will minimize its adverse effect? A. cetirizine B. diphenhydramine C. fexofenadine D. guaifenesin

diphenhydramine *Will minimize the side effects associated with olanzapine

Which of the following is an example of a class III antiarrhythmic medication? A. dronedarone B. lidocaine C. propranolol D. verapamil

dronedarone *Classified as a class III antiarrhythmic *Lidocaine: class Ib *Propranolol: class II *Verapamil: class IV antiarrhythmic medication

This side effect can be found in a majority of medications that are used for treating the Nervous system? a. drowsiness and dizziness b. nightmares c. blurred vision d. fatigue

drowsiness and dizziness

Which of the following medications carries a boxed warning? A. enalapril B. gabapentin C. ergocalciferol D. latanoprost

enalapril *Carries a boxed warning

Which of the following medications is indicated for the treatment of depression? a. alprazolam b. escitalopram c. lorazepam d. ramelteon

escitalopram

A patient diagnosed with high cholesterol would be prescribed which of the following? a. atenolol b. diltiazem c. ezetimibe d. verapamil

ezetimibe *Prescribed for patients with high cholesterol. *Atenolol, diltiazem, and verapamil are indicted for hypertension.

vitamin B9

folic acid

A patient has been diagnosed with partial seizures; which medication is indicated for this condition? a. esomeprazole b. gabapentin c. olopatadine d. ritonavir

gabapentin *Indicated for partial seizures *Esomeprazole: treat GERD *Olopatadine: indicated for allergic conjunctivitis *Ritonavir: treat HIV infection

Which of the following fruits and fruit juices should be avoided while on calcium channel blockers and HMG-COA enzyme inhibitors? a. strawberry b. orange c. grapefruit d. pineapple

grapefruit *Exceptions include rosuvastatin, diltiazem, and amlodipine

According to MEDMARX, which of the following medications has been associated with a large number of medication errors? A. amoxicillin B. heparin C. ibuprofen D. prilosec

heparin *MEDMARX has identified the following medications as being involved in large number of medication errors: -insulin -morphine -potassium chloride -albuterol -heparin -vancomycin -cefazolin -acetaminophen -warfarin -furosemide

According to MEDMARX, which of the following medications has been associated with a large number of medication errors? A. heparin B. hydrochlorothiazide C. naproxen D. propranolol

heparin *large number of medication errors, according to MEDMARX

Which of the following medications is a diuretic? a. metoprolol b. hydrochlorothiazide c. losartan d. valsartan

hydrochlorothiazide

A patient has a blood pressure of 130/89; which of the following medications would be an appropriate treatment? A. amiodarone B. ezetimibe/simvastatin C. hydrochlorothiazide D. levalbuterol

hydrochlorothiazide *Indicated for hypertension

When should diuretics be taken? a. in the morning b. in the afternoon c. in the evening d. at bedtime

in the morning *creates an increase in urination

Where should Xalatan eye drops be stored? a. on the shelf at room temperature b. in the refrigerator c. in the freezer d. in a warmer

in the refrigerator

Which of the following medications has been associated with a high incidence of medication errors in community pharmacy? A. cephalexin B. ibuprofen C. metformin D. potassium chloride

metformin *According to the Institute of Safe Medication Practices (ISMP), metformin has been associated in a high incidence of medication errors in a community pharmacy.

Which of the following is the generic name for Glucophage? A. glipizide B. glyburide C. metformin D. pioglitazone

metformin *Glipizide (Glucotrol) *Glyburide (Micronase or DiaBeta) *Pioglitazone (Actos)

Which of the following medications is found on the list of "high-alert medications" issued by the ISMP for acute care settings? A. ciprofloxacin B. methotrexate (oral) C. naproxen D. prednisone

methotrexate (oral) *Found on the high-alert medications issued by the ISMP for acute care settings.

A prescriber wishes to prescribe a beta-blocker for a patient diagnosed with hypertension; which of the following would be an appropriate medication? A. amlodipine B. losartan C. metoprolol D. simvastatin

metoprolol *Beta-blocker indicated in treating hypertension *Amlodipine: calcium channel blocker *Losartan: angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) *Simvastatin: HMG CoA reductase inhibitor indicated for high cholesterol

Which of the following drugs is an antifungal medication? a. omeprazole b. miconazole c. lansoprazole d. pantoprazole

miconazole *Omeprazole, lansoprazole, and pantoprazole are proton pump inhibitors *Most antifungal medications end with the suffix -conazole; fluconazole, itraconazole; ketoconazole

Which of the following is available as a sublingual dosage form? A. amoxicillin B. divalproex C. nitroglycerin D. levothyroxine

nitroglycerin *Example of sublingual medication used in the treatment of angina.

Which of the following medications is exempted from being dispensed in a "child-resistant" container according to the Poison Prevention Act? A. amoxicillin B. digoxin C. levothyroxine D. nitroglycerin

nitroglycerin *The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 permits nitroglycerin to be dispensed in a non-child resistant container.

Which is the generic name for Zyprexa? A. nefazodone B. olopatadine C. olanzapine D. trazodone

olanzapine *Generic name for Zyprexa Olopatadine is the generic name for Patanol Nefazodone is the generic name for Serzone Trazodone is the generic name for Desyrel

Which of the following medications is an OTC proton pump inhibitor indicated for GERD? A. dexlansoprazole B. omeprazole C. pantoprazole D. rabeprazole

omeprazole *Omeprazole (Prilosec) is an example of an OTC proton pump inhibitor indicated for the treatment of GERD.

Which of the following can be used to treat depression? a. concerta b. paroxetine c. lisinopril d. metoprolol

paroxetine *Concerta in indicated for ADHD; lisinopril is an ace inhibitor and antihypertensive; metoprolol is a beta-blocker and antihypertensive

Which of the following medications is indicated for depression? A. amlodipine B. clopidogrel C. paroxetine D. saxagliptin

paroxetine *Indicated for depression *Amlodipine: hypertension *Clopidogrel: used to prevent a stroke *Saxagliptin: indicated for diabetes mellitus type II

Which of the following medications has a narrow therapeutic range? A. acetaminophen with codeine B. furosemide C. phenytoin D. prednisone

phenytoin *An example of a narrow therapeutic range

Which of the following medications should have the auxiliary label "Take with Food"? A. ampicillin B. captopril C. lansoprazole D. prednisone

prednisone *Should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal adverse effects

Which of the following medications should be tapered off prior to the being discontinued? A. fexofenadine B. isoniazid C. prednisone D. SMZ-TMP

prednisone *Should be tapered off it due to adverse effects they may experience if they are not.

Which of the following is the generic name for Lyrica? A. carbamazepine B. gabapentin C. pregabalin D. tramadol

pregabalin *Generic name for Lyrica *Tegretol (Tegretol) *Neurontin (Gabapentin) *Tramadol (Ultram)

According to the Combat Methamphetamine Act, which medication must be kept behind the pharmacy counter? A. diphenhydramine B. guaifenesin C. loperamide D. pseudoephedrine

pseudoephedrine *The Combat Methamphetamine Act requires that OTC medications containing pseudoephedrine be kept behind the counter.

The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act restricts the sale of which OTC medication? A. ibuprofen B. loratadine C. loperamide D. pseudoephedrine

pseudoephedrine *The sale of pseudoephedrine is regulated through the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act.

What is the generic name for Seroquel? A. atomoxetine B. metaxalone C. quetiapine D. risperidone

quetiapine *Generic name for Seroquel Atomoxetine is the generic name for Strattera Metaxalone is the generic name for Skelaxin Risperidone is the generic name for Risperdal

A patient who is taking Lipitor finds out that she is pregnant. Lipitor is FDA pregnancy category X. What should the patient do? a. continue the course of the medication because there is no evidence of risk to the fetus b. continue using the medication because the benefits outweigh the potential risks c. stop taking the medication immediately and tell the physician d. none of the above

stop taking the medication immediately and tell the physician *This medication may lead to fetal abnormalities

A patient comes to the pharmacy seeking a prescription refill. The patient dies not know their prescription number or the name of the medication; however, they know that is used to abort a migraine headache. After reviewing the patient's profile and speaking to the pharmacist, the pharmacy technician determines the patient is requesting which medication? A. glipizide B. raloxifene C. spironolactone D. sumatriptan

sumatriptan *Indicated to end a migraine headache

What auxiliary label should be used when taking an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor? a. take before meals b. take with meals c. take at bedtime d. take in the morning

take with meals

Which of the following medications should have the auxiliary label "Medications Causes Photosensitivity-Use Sunscreen"? a. erythromycin b. metronidazole c. penicillin d. tetracycline

tetracycline *Prescription bottles of tetracycline should bear an auxiliary label warning the patient of photosensitivity. *It has not been reported that photosensitivity occurs when a patient is prescribed the other medications.

Nasal decongestants are contraindicated in patients with A. bronchitis B. constipation C. GERD D. thyroid disease

thyroid disease *Nasal decongestants are contraindicated in patients with thyroid disease

Sprivia HandiHaler

tiotropium

Which of the following medications can be crushed? A. amoxicillin/clavulanate ER B. benzonatate C. triamterene/hydrochlorothiazide D. zolpidem ER

triamterene/hydrochlorothiazide *Can be crushed if necessary Amoxicillin/clavulanate ER and Zolpidem ER should not be crushed because they are long-acting dosage forms Benzonatate should not be crushed because the liquid in the capsule may numb the throat

Which of the following medications is indicated as a smoking cessation drug? A. buspirone B. imipramine C. varenicline D. venlafaxine

varenicline *Smoking cessation drug Buspirone is indicated for anxiety Imipramine (Tofranil) and venlafaxine (Effexor XR) are indicated for depression

What type of vitamin should be avoided when taking warfarin? a. vitamin A b. vitamin D c. vitamin E d. vitamin K

vitamin K

Which of the following medications may aspirin increase the effects of? A. cimetidine B. ketoconazole C. levothyroxine D. warfarin

warfarin *Aspirin may increase the effects of warfarin

Which of the following medications has a narrow therapeutic range? A. citalopram B. isotretinoin C. naproxen D. warfarin

warfarin *Narrow therapeutic range