Review on Medications: Part 5
Prilosec
Omeprazole Proton Pump Inhibitor
How often are proton pump inhibitors usually taken? a. Once daily b. Twice daily c. Three times a day d. Four times a day
Once daily
Which of the following auxiliary labels would be appropriate for a prescription of potassium chloride extended release capsules? A. Avoid sunlight B. Swallow whole; Do not chew or crush C. Take on an empty stomach D. This medication may impair your ability to operate a vehicle, vessel, or machinery
Swallow whole; Do not chew or crush *Potassium chloride extended release capsules should not be chewed or crushed.
What is the brand name for tiotropium? a. Flovent HFA b. Pulmicort Respules c. Spiriva handihaler d. Symbicort
Spiriva handihaler
Bupropion
Wellbutrin Antidepressant
Which of the following medications is considered a "high-alert" medication according to the Institute of Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)? A. amoxicillin B. insulin C. naproxen D. benzonatate
insulin *High alert medication
Humulin N
insulin NPH Type 1 diabetes
Novolog
insulin aspart Type 1 diabetes
A patient has been diagnosed as having type 1 daibetes mellitus; which of the following would be an appropriate medication? A. glyburide B. insulin glargine C. metformin D. rosiglitazone
insulin glargine *Indicated for type 1 diabetes mellitus *Glyburide, metformin, and rosiglitazone are indicated for type II diabetes mellitus
Lantus
insulin glargine Type 1 diabetes
Which of the following medications is indicated for hypertension? a. irbesartan b. omeprazole c. ciprofloxacin d. cyanocobalamin
irbesartan
All of the medications listed are indicated for asthma EXCEPT A. albuterol B. ipratropium C. isoniazid D. salmeterol
isoniazid *Indicated to treat tuberculosis Albuterol, ipratropium, and salmeterol are indicated to treat asthma
Which of the following medications if used during pregnancy may result in birth defect? a. amoxicillin b. clotrimazole c. isotretinoin d. methyldopa
isotretinoin
Which of the following drugs would be administered using "pulse dosing"? A. clotrimazole B. fluconazole C. itraconazole D. ketoconazole
itraconazole *administered by "pulse-dosing"
Xopenex
levalbuterol (bronchodilator)
___________is indicated for hypothyroidism. a. levothyroxine b. methimazole c. propylthiouracil d. radioactive thyroid
levothyroxine
Which of the following medications carries a boxed warning? A. albuterol B. levothyroxine C. montelukast D. pantoprazole
levothyroxine *Carries a boxed warning
Synthroid
levothyroxine hypothyroidism
What is the generic name for Victoza? A. liraglutide B. lurasidone C. vardenafil D. vilazodone
liraglutide *Generic name for Victoza *Lurasidone (Latuda) *Vardenafil (Levitra) *Velazodone (Viibryd)
Which of the following medications should have the auxiliary label "Avoid Alcohol; May cause Drowsiness"? A. brimonidine tartrate B. cephalexin C. furosemide D. lorazepam
lorazepam *Should have auxiliary labels "Avoid Alcohol; May Cause Drowsiness"
A pharmacy technician is reviewing the interaction of grapefruit juice on a variety of prescription medications. Drinking grapefruit juice will decrease the effect of which of the following medications? A. amiodarone B. atorvastatin C. carbamazepine D. losartan
losartan *Therapeutic effect is decreased when taken with grapefruit juice
What is the generic name for Serevent Diskus? A. albuterol B. beclomethasone C. salmeterol D. tiotropium
salmeterol *Generic name for Serevent Albuterol is the generic name for Proventil HFA or Ventolin HFA Beclomethasone is the generic name for Vancenase AQ Tiotropium is the generic name for Spiriva Handihaler
Which of the following medication should be taken at bedtime? A. alendronate with vitamin D B. hydrochlorothiazide C. pantoprazole D. zolpidem
zolpidem *Indicated for insomnia and should be taken at bedtime
Which of the following drug classifications should be taken with food or milk to avoid stomach distress? a. Beta blockers b. Cephalosporins c. NSAIDs d. Proton pump inhibitors
NSAIDs
Memantine
Namenda Alzheimers
A patient is picking up their prescription of warfarin and is purchasing a variety of dietary supplements. The pharmacy technician should bring it to the attention of the pharmacist when the patient purchases which dietary supplement? A. black cohosh B. echinacea C. garlic D. St. John's wort
St. John's wort *May decrease the effect of warfarin
A patient is prescribed enoxaparin; how should it be administered? A. Intravenously B. Orally C. Subcutaneously D. Topically
Subcutaneously *Enoxaparin is administered subcutaneously.
Which dosage form is described as "solid particles dispersed in liquid vehicle"? A. Emulsions B. Gel C. Lotion D. Suspensions
Suspensions *Even though both lotions and suspensions are dispersions, suspensions contain solid particles that are suspended in the vehicle while lotions contain insoluble particles.
A prescription for isotretinoin is presented to the pharmacy; what is the maximum number of refills permitted for this prescription? A. 0 B. 1 C. 6 D. 12
0 *Refills are no permitted on prescription isotretinoin.
What is the maximum number of refills permitted by law for the following prescription? Hydrocodone/acetaminophen 7.5 mg/325 mg #40 1 tab PO q 4-6 h prn pain A. 0 B. 1 C. 5 D. 12
0 *The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 does not permit refills for Schedule II controlled substances, which Hydrocodone/acetaminophen is classified as.
If 120 mL of a 2% (w/v) is diluted with water to 1 pint, what will be the strength of the dilution? A. 0.25 % B. 0.5 % C. 1.0 % D. 8.0 %
0.5 % (IS) X (IV)=(FS) X (FV) (2%) X (120 mL)= (FS) X (480 mL)
How many grams of hydrocortisone powder should the pharmacy technician weigh to prepare 1 pound of a 0.25% hydrocortisone cream? A. 1.14 g B. 1.2 g C. 113.5 g D. 120 g
1.14 g *0.25% means that there is 0.25 g in every 100 g 454 g equals 1 pound Cross-multiply with 0.25 g/100 g The final answer will be 1.135 g. Round up to 1.14 g
An individual wishes to purchase a 4-ounce bottle of guaifenesin with codeine, which is classified as an "exempt narcotic". How old must a person be to purchase this medication? A. 12 years B. 16 years C. 18 years D. 21 years
18 years *The Comprehensive Drug Abuse and Control Act of 1970 allows an individual age 18 years or older to purchase a 4-oz bottle of exempt narcotic every 48 hours.
A pharmacy technician receives a prescription order that has the following directions: "4 gtt in each ear tid". How many drops will the patient use each day? A. 8 B. 12 C. 16 D. 24
24 *4 drops/ear X 3 times/day Equals 24 drops/day
As long as the manufacturer's storage requirements are met, what is the beyond-use date of a multidose vial such as insulin injection after opening? A. 1 week B. 14 days C. 28 days D. 30 days
28 days
The following prescription is presented to the pharmacy. How many days will the prescription last the patient? Alendronate Plus D #4 1 tab po q week A. 4 days B. 7 days C. 28 days D. 30 days
28 days *Prescription for Alendronate Plus D will last 28 days.
The following prescription is presented to the pharmacy. How many capsules should be dispensed? Amoxicillin 250 mg 10 day's supply 1 cap PO TID A. 20 capsules B. 30 capsules C. 40 capsules D. 60 capsules
30 capsules *1 cap PO TID (three times/day) for 10 days
A medication is available as a 10 mg/5 mL suspension; how many milliliters are needed to give a dose of 30 mg? A. 10 mL B. 15 mL C. 20 mL D. 30 mL
30 mL *Cross-multiply: (10 mg/5 mL) X (30 mg/a mL)
A physician has a prescribed clarithromycin 500 mg PO bid for 10 days for community-acquired pneumonia. How many 250-mg tablets will the pharmacy technician need to dispense for this patient? A. 20 B. 40 C. 60 D. 80
40 *Half of 500 is 250= 2 tablets 2 tablets/dose X 2 doses/day X 10 days Equals 40
An opened vial of Novolin N is stable at room temperature for: a. 14 days b. 21 days c. 28 days d. 42 days
42 days
The following prescription has been presented to the pharmacy. How many tablets should be dispensed? Prednisone 5 mg Sig: 20 mg BID X 2 D 15 mg BID X 2D 10 mg BID X 2D 5 mg BID X 2D 5 mg QD X 2D 2.5 mg QD X 2 D A. 33 tablets B. 37 tablets C. 43 tablets D. 49 tablets
43 tablets *Prednisone 5 mg Sig: 20 mg BID X 2 D: (20 mg) X (2 times/day) X 2 days 15 mg BID X 2D: (15 mg) X (2 times/day) X 2 days 10 mg BID X 2D: (10 mg) X (2 times/day) X 2 days 5 mg BID X 2D: (5 mg) X (2 times/day) X 2 days 5 mg QD X 2D: (5 mg) X (daily) X 2 days 2.5 mg QD X 2 D: (2.5 mg) X (daily) X 2 days
What is the minimum amount of time that a patient must wait before purchasing another bottle of an exempt narcotic? A. 24 hr B. 48 hr C. 72 hr D. 96 hr
48 hr *A person must wait 48 hours after purchasing an "exempt" controlled substance before purchasing another bottle.
Which drug classification may decrease blood glucose levels in the body? a. Beta blockers b. Corticosteroids c. Oral contraceptives d. Thiazide diuretics
Beta blockers
A patient presents a prescription for furosemide 20 mg PO bid for 30 days. How many tablets should the pharmacy technician count out to fill this prescription? A. 15 tablets B. 30 tablets C. 60 tablets D. 90 tablets
60 tablets *furosemide 20 mg by mouth twice a day for 30 days 30 days X 2 times/day=60
Alprazolam is a schedule IV controlled substance. What is the maximum number of allowable refills on a prescription of alprazolam if authorized by a physician? A. None B. 5 C. 12 D. Unlimited
5 *Alprazolam is classified as Schedule IV medication under the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 Permitted to be refilled at the maximum five times within 6 months of the prescription being written
What is the maximum number of refills for a prescription of zolpidem if authorized by the physician? A. None B. 5 C. 6 D. 12
5 *Zolpidem is a Schedule IV controlled substance and may be refilled up to five times within 6 months of the date it was written
How many days will a prescription of 40 tablets last if the directions read "i-ii tabs PO q6h"? A. 5 days B. 7 days C. 10 days D. 15 days
5 days *(2 tablets/dose) X (4 doses/day)=5 days
Paroxetine
Paxil SSRI
Penicillin
Pen VK Antibiotic, Penicillin
Within how many days does a pharmacy have to fill a prescription of isotretinoin? A. 1 day B. 7 days C. 30 days D. 180 days
7 days *A pharmacy has 7 days from the date the prescription is written to fill isotretinoin, according to the Isotretinoin Safety and Risk Management Act of 2004
A physician prescribes amoxicillin 125 mg tid for 10 days. The pharmacy has in-stock amoxicillin 250 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters of amoxicillin oral suspension should the pharmacy technician dispense? A. 75 mL B. 100 mL C. 150 mL D. 200 mL
75 mL *125 mg X 3 times/day X 10 days= 3750 mg/10 days Cross multiply with 250 mg/5 mL. The final answer will be 0.75 Move the decimal 2 times to convert into milliliters (100), giving you 75 mL
The abbreviation "qs ad" appears on a prescription; what is its meaning? A sufficient quantity to deliver the correct dose B. A sufficient quantity for the right ear C. A sufficient quantity for the right eye D. A sufficient quantity to make
A sufficient quantity to make "qs ad" is a direction to the pharmacist in compounding a prescription meaning "to make up to" a given weights or volume of a substance.
Which therapeutic equivalent code is assigned to a medication in conventional dosage forms not presenting bioequivalence problems? A. A B. AA C. B D. B*
AA *Conventional dosage forms not presenting bioequivalence problems. *A: therapeutically equivalent *B: not therapeutically equivalent (B* requires further investigation by the FDA)
ProAir HFA
Albuterol Asthma
Which is the generic name for Fosamax? A. Alendronate B. Calcitonin-salmon C. Ibandronate D. Raloxifene
Alendronate *Generic name for Fosamax Calcitonin-salmon: Miacalcin Ibandronate: Boniva Raloxifene: Evista
Which of the following conditions is memantine indicated? A. Alzheimer dementia B. HIV C. Hypoglycemia D. Psoriasis
Alzheimer dementia *Memantine is indicated in treating Alzheimer dementia
Amoxicillin
Amoxil Antibiotic, Penicillin
A patient is being treated for hypertension with hydrochlorothiazide. Their physician has ordered a chemistry panel be performed on the patient. What will the lab results indicate? A. A decrease in the patient' blood sugar B. A decrease in the patient's blood urea nitrogen (BUN) C. An increase in the patient's blood sugar D. An increase in the patient's BUN
An increase in the patient's blood sugar *A patient being prescribed hydrochlorothiazide may see an increase in blood sugar.
Donepezil
Aricept Alzheimer's
Which therapeutic equivalence code is assigned to a drug product that is not pharmaceutically equivalent? A. A B. AA C. AB D. B
B *Product is not to be therapeutically equivalent to other pharmaceutically equivalent products A: therapeutically equivalent to other pharmaceutically equivalent products AA: not presenting bioequivalence problems AB: products meet necessary bioequivalence requirements
Which of the following drug classifications is contraindicated in a patient with kidney disease? A. Antacids B. Antitussives C. Nicotine replacement products D. Sleeping aid
Antacids *A patient with kidney disease should not take an antacid.
What is the generic name for Tenormin? a. Atenolol b. Carvedilol c. Albuterol d. Metoprolol
Atenolol
Lorazepam
Ativan Benzodiazepine
This medication is indication for hyperlipidemia and is taken once a day? a. Atorvastatin b. Clopidogrel c. Gemfibrozil d. Niacin
Atorvastatin
Which type of drug interaction occurs when a medication works against the action of another medication? A. Addition B. Antagonism C. Potentiation D. Synergism
Antagonism *Occurs when a drug works against the action of another drug. *Addition is the combined effect of two drugs. *Potentiation occurs when one drug increases/prolongs the effect of another drug. *Synergism is the joint action of drugs in which their combined effect is more intense/longer in duration that the sum of the effects of two drugs.
A patient complains of experiencing side effects, such as dry eyes, dry mouth, or difficult urination or defecation. These side effects are associated with which drug classification? A. Alpha-blockers B. Anticholinergics C. Beta-blockers D. Cephalosporins
Anticholinergics *Tendency to dry up all bodily secretions as a side effect
Trazodone
Desyrel Antidepressant
Which of the following is a valid DEA number? A. AD2865937 B. BD0865937 C. FD1865937 D. MD0865947
BD0865937 *How to solve a DEA number: 1. Add the first, third, and fifth digit 2. Add the second, fourth, and sixth digit. Multiply by 2. 3. Add the sum of Step 1 digits and Step 2 digits in order to get a final result. *If the second digit of the final result matches the seventh digit number of the DEA number, it is considered valid.
Albuterol is an example of a: a. Bronchodilator b. Corticosteroid c. Decongestant d. Mucolytic agent
Bronchodilator
Buspirone
Buspar Antianxiety
A pharmacy technician receives a prescription with the following signa: "1 supp pr qd". What is the route of administration? A. Applied to the skin B. By mouth C. By rectum D. By vagina
By rectum *pr= by rectum
Which of the following beverages should be avoided by the patient if they have been prescribed Sand immune? A. Carbonated beverages B. Chocolate milk C. Milk D. Orange juice
Carbonated beverages *Chocolate or regular milk and orange juice may be mixed with Sand immune at room temperature.
Celecoxib
Celebrex NSAID
Citalopram
Celexa SSRI
Which drug recall is classified as one in which there is a reasonable probability that the use of the medication will cause or lead to a serious adverse event or even death? A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV
Class I *Class I shows that there is a reasonable probability that use of the product will cause or lead to serious adverse effects or death. *Class II is one in which the probability exists that the use of the product will cause adverse health events that are temporary or medically reversible. *Class III means that the drug will probably not cause an adverse health event. *There is no such thing as a Class IV.
Which type of drug recall may cause temporary health problems and have a low risk of creating a serious problem? A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV
Class II *A class II drug recall causes reversible harm and is temporary A class I drug recall causes permanent harm or may be fatal to the patient A class III drug recall does not cause any harm to the patient There is no such thing as a class IV drug recall
Which of the following medications should NOT be crushed when being administered to a patient? A. Corgard B. Coreg CR C. Lopressor D. Tenormin
Coreg CR *Controlled release dosage form.
Carvedilol
Coreg, Beta blocker, hypertension
Which drug classification is fluticasone? A. Benzodiazepine B. Corticosteroid C. Electrolyte D. HMG CoA reductase inhibitor
Corticosteroid *Classified for Fluiticasone
Warfarin
Coumadin Anticoagulant
Losartan
Cozaar ARB
Which of the following may reduce the effectiveness of warfarin? A. Apple juice B. Cranberry juice C. Grapefruit juice D. Orange juice
Cranberry juice *Has the ability to decrease the effects of warfarin
Duloxetine
Cymbalta Antidepressant
Divalproex Sodium
Depakote neurologic
What auxiliary label should be used when taking benzonatate? a. Take with a meal or snack b. Do not chew or crush c. Do not take with grapefruit juice d. Take before meals
Do not chew or crush
Which warning should be applied when dispensing proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)? a. Do not chew or crush b. Do not take with grapefruit juice c. Do not take on an empty stomach d. Do not take with cranberry juice
Do not chew or crush
What do the last two numbers of a National Drug Code (NDC) number indicate? A. Drug manufacturer B. Drug product C. Drug package D. Drug quantity
Drug package *The last two digits of a NDC number indicates the drug package.
What is an example of an ACE inhibitor? a. Amlodipine b. Enalapril c. Nadolol d. Verpamil
Enalapril
Which of the following medications should be refrigerated? A. Epogen B. ProQuad C. Varivax D. Zostavax
Epogen *Must be refrigerated ProQuad, Varivax, and Zostavax must be frozen
Nexium
Esomeprazole Proton Pump Inhibitor
Which of the following drug classifications requires that a package insert be provided to the patient? A. Cephalosporin B. Estrogen C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug D. Proton pump inhibitor
Estrogen *Prescription for estrogens require a package insert to be provided to the patient every time a prescription is filled.
Which of the following drug classifications requires a patient product insert to be given to a patient when receiving a prescription? A. ACE inhibitors B. Beta blockers C. Estrogens D. Proton pump inhibitors
Estrogens *A patient product insert must be given to the patient receiving a prescription for estrogens.
Pepcid
Famotidine GERD
What is the maximum number of allowable refills for a prescription of acetaminophen/codeine? A. None B. One C. Five D. Six
Five *Acetaminophen/codeine is considered a Schedule III; maximum number of refills is 5 within 6 months of the date the prescription was written
Tamsulosin
Flomax Alpha 1 blocker
Flovent HFA
Fluticasone Asthma
A pharmacy technician should use which of the following when placing a pharmacy weights on a balance? A. Filter paper B. Forceps C. Latex powdered gloves D. Weighing papers
Forceps *Used to prevent oils from the hands from being deposited on the weight, which may alter the composition of the weight.
Alendronate
Fosamax Osteoporosis
Which of these medications is a loop diuretic? a. Triamterene/hydrochlorothiazide b. Hydrochlorothiazide c. Furosemide d. Tolterodine
Furosemide *Triamterene/hydrochlorothiazide is a K-sparing/thiazide diuretic; hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic; tolterodine is used to treat an overactive bladder
Lasix
Furosemide Loop Diuretic
A patient prescribed an NSAID medication has an increase likelihood of experiencing which of the following as a side effect? A. Atrial fibrillation B. Fever C. Gastrointestinal bleeding D. Hypotension
Gastrointestinal bleeding *A side effects of NSAIDs is gastrointestinal bleeding
Which of the following is an indication for timolol ophthalmic solution? A. Blepharitis B. Glaucoma C. Keratitis D. Stye
Glaucoma *Timolol ophthalmic solution is indicated to treat glaucoma.
A patient is taking carbamazepine for seizures. Which of the following may increase its effects? A. Dairy products B. Grapefruit juice C. Lettuce D. Fatty foods
Grapefruit juice *May increase the effects of carbamazepine
Microzide
Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)
Which of the following drug classifications have been deemed potentially inappropriate for use in older adults? A. Calcium channel blockers B. Corticosteroids C. Decongestants D. Hypnotics
Hypnotics *Deemed as potentially inappropriate medication to be used in older adults
Which of the following auxiliary labels should be affixed to containers to NSAIDs? I Take with food II Take with plenty of water III May cause photosensitivity IV Do not refrigerate a. I and II only b. I and III only c. II and III only d. II and IV only
I and II only
Where is an otic medication administered? A. In the ear B. In the eye C. In the rectum D. Under the tongue
In the ear *Otc refers to ear.
Interpret the following signa: Terconazole supp #7 i supp pv q hs for yeast infection X 7 nights A. Use one suppository vaginally at bedtime for yeast infection for 7 nights. B. Insert one suppository vaginally at bedtime for 7 nights. C. Insert one suppository vaginally at bedtime for yeast infection for 7 nights. D. Take one suppository at bedtime for yeast infection for 7 nights.
Insert one suppository vaginally at bedtime for yeast infection for 7 nights. *i (one) sup (suppository) pv (per vagina) q (every) hs (bedtime) for yeast infection X 7 nights
Humalog
Insulin Lispro Type 1 Diabetes
Which of the following medications is indicated for the treatment of diabetes? A. Januvia B. Lunesta C. Cipro D. Remeron
Januvia *Approved for treatment of type 2 diabetes Lunesta is indicated for insomnia Remeron is used to treat depression Cipro is an antibiotic
Levetiracetam
Keppra Anticonvulsant
Clonazepam
Klonopin Benzodiazepine
Potassium Chloride
Klor-Con, K-Dur, Micro-K Electrolyte
Furosemide
Lasix Loop Diuretic
Xalatan
Latanoprost Glaucoma
Which of the following medications must be monitored through a blood test? a. Buspirone b. Hydroxyzine c. Levothyroxine d. Pseudoephedrine
Levothyroxine
Escitalpram
Lexapro SSRI Antidepressant
Lidocaine
Lidoderm Topical Analgesic
Atorvastatin
Lipitor HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
Which of the following medications is an ACE inhibitor used in the treatment on congestive heart failure? a. Furosemide b. Lisinopril c. Losartan d. Metoprolol
Lisinopril
Metoprolol Tartrate
Lopressor Antihypertensive
Pregabalin
Lyrica Anticonvulsant
Morphine Sulfate
MS Contin Opioid Analgesic Musculoskeletal
A patient complains of experiencing sleep disorders; which of the following products would a pharmacist recommend to them? A. Chromium picolinate B. Ginseng C. Glucosamine D. Melatonin
Melatonin *Shown to be effective in assisting individuals to fall asleep, especially when travelling.
What is the generic name for Glucophage? a. Metformin b. Glipizide c. Sitagliptin d. Glyburide
Metformin
Lovastatin
Mevacor HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)
Microzide Thiazide Diuretic
Singulair
Montelukast Asthma
Ibuprofen
Motrin, Advil NSAID
Which of the following pieces of information is useful to verify that the correct medication has been selected from the shelf to fill a prescription? A. Expiration date B. Lot number C. NDC number D. NPI number
NDC number *Identifies the drug manufacturer, drug entity, and packaging. *It should be used when selecting the correct medication from the shelf.
Naproxen
Naprosyn, Aleve NSAID
Which of the following drug classifications is contraindicated if a patient has high blood pressure? A. Antacids B. Antitussives C. Nasal decongestants D. Nighttime sleep aids
Nasal decongestants *Contraindicated if a patient has high blood pressure
Gabapentin
Neurontin Anticonvulsant/Antineuralgic
Amlodipine
Norvasc (Calcium Channel Blocker)
What is the BUD for water-containing topical/dermal formulations? a. 7 days b. 14 days c. 21 days d. Not more than 30 days
Not more than 30 days
What is the BUD for water-containing oral formulation that is stored at a controlled cold temperature? A. 24 hours B. 48 hours C. Not more than 4 days D. Not more than 30 days
Not more than 4 days *According to USP 795, the BUD for water containing oral formulation is no more than 4 days when stored at a controlled cold temperature.
Which of the following drug classification has been identified as a high-alert medication in a long-term care facility? A. ACE inhibitors B. Bisphosphonates C. Antihistamines D. Oral anticoagulants
Oral anticoagulants *High-alert medication in a long term care facility
Oxycodone
OxyContin Opioid Analgesic
Protonix
Pantoprazole Proton-pump inhibitor GERD and esophagitis, heartburn
Which term encompasses the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination of a drug? A. Pharmacokinetics B. Pharmacognosy C. Pharmacology D. Pharmacopeia
Pharmacokinetics *Involves the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination (ADME) process. *Pharmacognosy: branch of knowledge where medicinal drugs are obtained from plants or other natural products. *Pharmacology: scientific study of the action of drugs on a living system. *Pharmacopeia: listing of approved drugs.
When measuring a volume less than 1.0 mL, the pharmacy technician should use which of the following pieces of equipment? A. Beaker B. Conical graduate C. Cylindrical graduate D. Pipette
Pipette *Should be used to measure a volume less than 1 mL. *Beakers and graduates are not precise enough to measure a small volume such as 1 mL. *A measuring device should not be used if the capacity greater than fives the amount of volume to be measured.
How should a pharmacy technician handle an item that is saturated with blood or body fluids? A. Incinerated at the facility B. Placed in a biohazard bag C. Placed in a sharps container D. Placed in a trash receptacle
Placed in a biohazard bag *According to USP 797, an item that is saturated with blood or body fluids should be placed in a biohazard bag.
Cytotoxic drugs from a pharmacy are disposed by which of the following methods? A. Discarding them in the pharmacy garbage B. Placing them in a sharps container C. Placing them in a specialized sharps container labeled "hazardous waste" D. Rinsing them down the sink or flushing down the toilet
Placing them in a specialized sharps container labeled "hazardous waste" *Cytotoxic drugs are disposed by placing them in a specialized "sharps container"
Clopidogrel
Plavix Antiplatelet
Pravastatin
Pravachol HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
Lisinopril
Prinivil, Zestril ACE inhibitor
Finasteride
Proscar Prostate Anti-inflammatory / 5-Alpha Reductase Inhibitor
A patient complains of experiencing bronchospasms. Their physician wishes to prescribe a beta-2 agonist for this patient. Which of the following medications would be appropriate? A. Advair Diskus B. Proventil HFA C. Singulair D. Spiriva Handihaler
Proventil HFA *Beta-2 agonist *Advair Diskus: combination of a beta-2 agonist and corticosteroid *Singulair: leukotriene inhibitor *Spiriva Handi haler: long-acting muscarinic antagonist
Risperidone
Risperdal Antipsychotic
Which USP term is assigned to the any temperature between 15 C and 30 C? A. Freezer B. Cold C. Cool D. Room temperature
Room temperature *Any temperature between 15 C and 30 C (59 F or 86 F). *Storage temperature terms assigned by the USP include the following: -Freezer (-25 C and -10 C) or (-13 F and 14 F) -Cold (not to exceed 8 C or 46 F) -Cool (any temperature between 8 C and 15 C) or (46 F and 59 F)
Which of the following does the superscription contain? A. Directions for usage B. Name of the medication prescribed, strength, and quantity C. Refill information D. RX symbol
RX symbol *Superscription
_________is a proton pump inhibitor indicated for the treatment of GERD. a. Metoclopramide b. Ranitidine c. Rabeprazole d. Sucralfate
Rabeprazole *Metoclopramide and ranitidine are H2 blockers; sucralfate is a coating agent. All are indicated in the treatment of GERD.
What is the route of administration for a prescription with the directions "i supp pr q6h prn"? A. Orally B. Rectally C. Urethally D. Vaginally
Rectally *pr: "per rectum"
Which drug schedule is meperidine classified? A. Schedule II B. Schedule III C. Schedule IV D. Schedule V
Schedule II *Meperidine is classified as a Schedule II control substance
A patient has been diagnosed with a major depressive episode; which of the following drug classifications would a physician prescribe? A. Barbiturate B. Benzodiazepines C. Hydantoins D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors *Indicated for depression *Barbiturates: indicated for sleep *Benzodiazepines: indicated for anxiety *Hydantoins: indicated for epilepsy/seizures
Quetiapine
Seroquel Antipsychotic
When taking an inhibitor, what should the patient do? a. Shake well b. Do not chew or crush c. Rinse mouth after use d. Take with a meal or snack
Shake well
A pharmacy technician receives the following prescription. Which of the following would be the proper directions for use to appear on the prescription label? Metformin 500 mg #60 1 Tab PO q 12 h for DM A. Take one tablet by mouth every 12 hours for diabetes mellitus. B. Take one tablet twice a day for diabetes mellitus. C. Take one tablet by mouth twice a day for diabetes mellitus. D. Take one tablet by mouth with food every 12 hours for diabetes mellitus.
Take one tablet by mouth every 12 hours for diabetes mellitus. *Take 1 tab (tablet) by mouth (PO) every (q) 12 hours (h) for diabetes mellitus (DM)
Interpret the signa for the following prescription: Naprosyn 500 mg #30 1 tab PO q 12 h for osteoarthritis A. Take one tablet every 12 hours. B. Take one tablet by mouth every 12 hours. C. Take one tablet by mouth every 12 hours as needed for arthritis. D. Take one tablet by mouth every 12 hours for osteoarthritis.
Take one tablet by mouth every 12 hours for osteoarthritis. *Take one (1) tablet (tab) by mouth (PO) every (q) 12 hours (h) for osteoarthritis
A prescription is written for hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg. Which of the following would be appropriate directions for use? A. Take one tablet by mouth at bedtime. B. Take one tablet by mouth in the morning with food. C. Take one tablet by mouth in the morning with orange juice. D. Take one tablet by mouth on an empty stomach.
Take one tablet by mouth in the morning with orange juice. *Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic and should be taken in the morning. Orange juice contains potassium, which would replenish the body's reserve due to the diuretic effect of Hydrochlorothiazide.
A prescription has the following signa: "1 tab PO bid X 14 d for URI". Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this signa? A. Take one tablet by mouth twice a day for 14 doses for URI. B. Take one tablet twice a day for 14 days for URI. C. Take one tablet by mouth twice a day for 14 days for upper respiratory infection. D. Take one tablet immediately, then one tablet twice a day for 14 days for upper respiratory infection.
Take one tablet by mouth twice a day for 14 days for upper respiratory infection. *1 (one) tab (tablet) PO (by mouth) bid (twice a day) X (times) 14 d (14 days) for URI (upper respiratory infection)
Which auxiliary label should be affixed to a prescription of naproxen? A. Refrigerate B. Shake well C. Take with food D. Take with orange juice
Take with food *Naproxen may irritate the stomach and should be taken with food to avoid stomach distress.
When taking alendronate, what should the patient do? a. Take with food b. Take with water c. Take with water and stay upright for 30 minutes d. Stay upright for 30 minutes
Take with water and stay upright for 30 minutes
Atenolol
Tenormin Beta Blocker
Acetaminophen/Codeine
Tylenol with Codeine #2, #3, #4
Topiramate
Topamax Anticonvulsant
Metoprolol Succinate
Toprol XL Antihypertensive-Beta Blocker
Travatan
Travoprost Glaucoma
Tramadol
Ultram Opioid Analgesic
Which of the following auxiliary labels should be affixed to a prescription of furosemide? A. Avoid antacids B. Avoid high-potassium foods C. Take at bedtime D. Use sunscreen
Use sunscreen *A side effect associated with furosemide is photosensitivity, and therefore a patient should wear sunscreen when exposed to sunlight.
Diazepam
Valium Benzodiazepine
A physician has written an order for a patient to receive an immunization for Zostavax at the pharmacy. What condition is the patient being vaccinated against? A. Hepatitis type A B. Influenza B C. Papillomavirus D. Varicella/zoster
Varicella/zoster *Zostavax is indicated as immunization against varicella-zoster
Sildenafil
Viagra Erectile dysfunction
hydrocodone/acetaminophen
Vicodin Opioid combination Analgesic
A deficiency of which vitamin may result in beriberi? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B1 C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D
Vitamin B1 *May lead to beriberi Deficiency of vitamin A: vision problems Deficiency of vitamin C: scurvy Deficiency of vitamin D: rickets
A deficiency of which vitamin will result in the patient experiencing scurvy? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B1 C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D
Vitamin C *A deficiency of vitamin C results in scurvy developing in the patient.
A patient should be warned about taking which vitamin when prescribed warfarin because of its effect on blood coagulation? A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin B6 C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin K
Vitamin K *Warfarin antagonist, which increases blood clots.
What term is assigned to a storage temperature of 30 C to 40 C? A. Cool B. Excessive heat C. Room temperature D. Warm
Warm *Temperature between 30 C and 40 C (86 F to 104 F) *Cool: 8 C to 15 C (46 F to 59 F) *Excessive heat: above 40 C (104 F) *Room temperature: 15 C to 30 C (59 F to 86 F)
Which of these adverse effects is associated with corticosteroids? A. Hypoglycemia B. Hypotension C. Hyperkalemia D. Water retention
Water retention *Common adverse effect associated with corticosteroids.
The Latin abbreviation Signa appears on a prescription; what is its meaning? A. Directions to the pharmacist B. Dispense as written C. Take this drug D. Write on label
Write on label *Meaning of Signa
Alprazolam
Xanax Benzodiazepine
Azithyromycin
Zithromax Antibiotic
What is the brand name for simvastatin? a. Crestor b. Mevacor c. Zetia d. Zocor
Zocor
Simvastatin
Zocor HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
Sertraline
Zoloft SSRI
Which of the following vaccines should be protected from light? A. DTaP B. Hep A C. PCV 13 D. Zostavax
Zostavax *Must be protected from light
A change in medication's solubility is due to A. bioequivalence B. a pharmacological incompatibility C. a physical incompatibility D. a therapeutic incompatibility
a physical incompatibility *Physical or chemical interactions between two or more ingredients that leads to visibly recognizable changes. *Examples of physical incompatibilities: insolubility of prescribed agent due to changes that results in decreased solubility.
What is the active ingredient in Tylenol? a. acetaminophen b. aspirin c. ibuprofen d. naproxen
acetaminophen
Which of the following medications is safe to take for a headache if the patient has peptic ulcer disease? A. acetaminophen B. acetylsalicylic acid C. ibuprofen D. naproxen sodium
acetaminophen *Safe for a patient to take for a headache fi they have peptic ulcer disease Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin), ibuprofen, and naproxen sodium are contraindicated for individuals with peptic ulcer disease.
Which of the following medications is classified as an antiviral agent? A. acyclovir B. azithromycin C. fluconazole D. nystatin
acyclovir *Antiviral agent *Azithromycin: macrolide antibiotic *Fluconazole and nystatin: antifungal agents
Which of the following drugs may be used prophylactically for influenza and Parkinson disease? A. amantadine B. bromocriptine C. levodopa-carbidopa D. selegiline
amantadine *Prevention of influenza and the treatment of Parkinson disease
A prescriber has ordered an INR test for a patient being prescribed warfarin. Which of the following medications will elevate the patient's INR values? A. amiodarone B. carbamazepine C. norethindrone/ethinyl estradiol D. vitamin K
amiodarone *Elevate a patient's INR results. *Carbamazepine, norethindrone/ethinyl estradiol (oral contraceptive), and vitamin K will decrease a patient's INR value.
A prescriber has authorized the pharmacy to substitute the generic for Lipitor; which of the following should be dispensed? A. atorvastatin B. fluvastatin C. pravastatin D. simvastatin
atorvastatin *Fluvastatin (Lescol) *Pravastatin (Pravachol) *Simvastatin (Zocor)
A prescription is written for the antibiotic Zithromax. The physician indicated "Voluntary Formulary" permitted on the prescription. Which of the following medications would be dispensed? A. azithromycin B. clarithromycin C. minocycline D. cephalexin
azithromycin *Biaxin (clarithromycin) *Minocin (minocycline) *Keflex (cephalexin)
When are H2 blockers usually taken? a. after meals b. before meals c. in the morning d. at bedtime
before meals
Which medication is indicated for opioid dependence maintenance? A. buprenorphine/naloxone B. butorphanol nasal C. solifenacin D. tramadol
buprenorphine/naloxone *Opioid dependence maintenance *Butorphanol: nasal indicated for pain *Solifenacin: indicated for overactive bladder *Tramadol: indicated for pain
Which of the following is not a side effect of Lithium? a. tremor b. thirst c. chest pain d. vomiting
chest pain
____________is indicated for depression and obsessive compulsive behavior and is taken once a day. a. citalopram b. divalproex sodium c. lithium d. methylphenidate
citalopram *Divalproex is indicated for bipolar disease and seizure disorders; lithium is indicated for bipolar disease; methylphenidate is indicated for ADHD
A pharmacy organizes its medications generally in alphabetical order. A physician has approved the generic for Celexa to be dispensed. Which generic should the pharmacy technician select to fill this prescription? A. citalopram B. phenelzine C. selegiline D. tranylcypromine
citalopram *Generic name for Celexa
Which of the following medications is classified as a benzodiazepine? A. clonazepam B. pantoprazole C. ranitidine D. rosuvastatin
clonazepam *Is a benzodiazepine Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor Ranitidine is an H2 blocker Rosuvastatin is an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor
Which of the following is the generic name for Plavix? A. celecoxib B. clopidogrel C. naproxen D. oxaprozin
clopidogrel *Celcoxib (Celebrex) *Naproxen (Naprosyn) *Oxaprozin (Daypro)
Which of the following drugs requires weekly complete blood cell counts (CBCs) prior to drug dispensing? a. clozapine b. prozac c. paroxetine d. sertraline
clozapine
Which of the following products can be purchased as an exempt narcotic if all conditions outlined by the federal Controlled Substances Act are met? A. butorphanol nasal B. chlorpheniramine/hydrocodone C. codeine/guaifenesin D. phenobarbital
codeine/guaifenesin *Exempt narcotic
All of the following drugs are classified as NSAIDs EXCEPT: A. colchicine B. celecoxib C. ibuprofen D. oxaprozin
colchicine *Action is unknown in treating gout *Celecoxib, ibuprofen, and oxaprozin are classified as NSAIDs
Which of the following insulins has a duration of action of 20-24 hours? A. aspart B. detemir C. lispro D. neutral protamine Hagedorn
detemir *Has duration of action of 20-24 hours Aspart and Lispro insulin has a duration of 3-4 hours Neutral protamine Hagedorn has a duration of 10-16 hours
Focalin XR is the brand name for which generic medication? A. atomoxetine B. bupropion C. dexmethylphenidate D. methylphenidate
dexmethylphenidate *Atomoxetine (Strattera) *Bupropion (Wellbutrin) *Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
A patient is being treated for a variety of cardiovascular conditions and prescribed digoxin, hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, and potassium chloride. The patient complains of seeing a green-blue halo. This adverse effect can be attributed to which medication? A. digoxin B. hydrochlorothiazide C. lisinopril D. potassium chloride
digoxin *May experience seeing a green-blue halo
A patient is experiencing psychosis and has been prescribed olanzapine. Which of the following medications if taken with olanzapine will minimize its adverse effect? A. cetirizine B. diphenhydramine C. fexofenadine D. guaifenesin
diphenhydramine *Will minimize the side effects associated with olanzapine
Which of the following is an example of a class III antiarrhythmic medication? A. dronedarone B. lidocaine C. propranolol D. verapamil
dronedarone *Classified as a class III antiarrhythmic *Lidocaine: class Ib *Propranolol: class II *Verapamil: class IV antiarrhythmic medication
This side effect can be found in a majority of medications that are used for treating the Nervous system? a. drowsiness and dizziness b. nightmares c. blurred vision d. fatigue
drowsiness and dizziness
Which of the following medications carries a boxed warning? A. enalapril B. gabapentin C. ergocalciferol D. latanoprost
enalapril *Carries a boxed warning
Which of the following medications is indicated for the treatment of depression? a. alprazolam b. escitalopram c. lorazepam d. ramelteon
escitalopram
A patient diagnosed with high cholesterol would be prescribed which of the following? a. atenolol b. diltiazem c. ezetimibe d. verapamil
ezetimibe *Prescribed for patients with high cholesterol. *Atenolol, diltiazem, and verapamil are indicted for hypertension.
vitamin B9
folic acid
A patient has been diagnosed with partial seizures; which medication is indicated for this condition? a. esomeprazole b. gabapentin c. olopatadine d. ritonavir
gabapentin *Indicated for partial seizures *Esomeprazole: treat GERD *Olopatadine: indicated for allergic conjunctivitis *Ritonavir: treat HIV infection
Which of the following fruits and fruit juices should be avoided while on calcium channel blockers and HMG-COA enzyme inhibitors? a. strawberry b. orange c. grapefruit d. pineapple
grapefruit *Exceptions include rosuvastatin, diltiazem, and amlodipine
According to MEDMARX, which of the following medications has been associated with a large number of medication errors? A. amoxicillin B. heparin C. ibuprofen D. prilosec
heparin *MEDMARX has identified the following medications as being involved in large number of medication errors: -insulin -morphine -potassium chloride -albuterol -heparin -vancomycin -cefazolin -acetaminophen -warfarin -furosemide
According to MEDMARX, which of the following medications has been associated with a large number of medication errors? A. heparin B. hydrochlorothiazide C. naproxen D. propranolol
heparin *large number of medication errors, according to MEDMARX
Which of the following medications is a diuretic? a. metoprolol b. hydrochlorothiazide c. losartan d. valsartan
hydrochlorothiazide
A patient has a blood pressure of 130/89; which of the following medications would be an appropriate treatment? A. amiodarone B. ezetimibe/simvastatin C. hydrochlorothiazide D. levalbuterol
hydrochlorothiazide *Indicated for hypertension
When should diuretics be taken? a. in the morning b. in the afternoon c. in the evening d. at bedtime
in the morning *creates an increase in urination
Where should Xalatan eye drops be stored? a. on the shelf at room temperature b. in the refrigerator c. in the freezer d. in a warmer
in the refrigerator
Which of the following medications has been associated with a high incidence of medication errors in community pharmacy? A. cephalexin B. ibuprofen C. metformin D. potassium chloride
metformin *According to the Institute of Safe Medication Practices (ISMP), metformin has been associated in a high incidence of medication errors in a community pharmacy.
Which of the following is the generic name for Glucophage? A. glipizide B. glyburide C. metformin D. pioglitazone
metformin *Glipizide (Glucotrol) *Glyburide (Micronase or DiaBeta) *Pioglitazone (Actos)
Which of the following medications is found on the list of "high-alert medications" issued by the ISMP for acute care settings? A. ciprofloxacin B. methotrexate (oral) C. naproxen D. prednisone
methotrexate (oral) *Found on the high-alert medications issued by the ISMP for acute care settings.
A prescriber wishes to prescribe a beta-blocker for a patient diagnosed with hypertension; which of the following would be an appropriate medication? A. amlodipine B. losartan C. metoprolol D. simvastatin
metoprolol *Beta-blocker indicated in treating hypertension *Amlodipine: calcium channel blocker *Losartan: angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) *Simvastatin: HMG CoA reductase inhibitor indicated for high cholesterol
Which of the following drugs is an antifungal medication? a. omeprazole b. miconazole c. lansoprazole d. pantoprazole
miconazole *Omeprazole, lansoprazole, and pantoprazole are proton pump inhibitors *Most antifungal medications end with the suffix -conazole; fluconazole, itraconazole; ketoconazole
Which of the following is available as a sublingual dosage form? A. amoxicillin B. divalproex C. nitroglycerin D. levothyroxine
nitroglycerin *Example of sublingual medication used in the treatment of angina.
Which of the following medications is exempted from being dispensed in a "child-resistant" container according to the Poison Prevention Act? A. amoxicillin B. digoxin C. levothyroxine D. nitroglycerin
nitroglycerin *The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 permits nitroglycerin to be dispensed in a non-child resistant container.
Which is the generic name for Zyprexa? A. nefazodone B. olopatadine C. olanzapine D. trazodone
olanzapine *Generic name for Zyprexa Olopatadine is the generic name for Patanol Nefazodone is the generic name for Serzone Trazodone is the generic name for Desyrel
Which of the following medications is an OTC proton pump inhibitor indicated for GERD? A. dexlansoprazole B. omeprazole C. pantoprazole D. rabeprazole
omeprazole *Omeprazole (Prilosec) is an example of an OTC proton pump inhibitor indicated for the treatment of GERD.
Which of the following can be used to treat depression? a. concerta b. paroxetine c. lisinopril d. metoprolol
paroxetine *Concerta in indicated for ADHD; lisinopril is an ace inhibitor and antihypertensive; metoprolol is a beta-blocker and antihypertensive
Which of the following medications is indicated for depression? A. amlodipine B. clopidogrel C. paroxetine D. saxagliptin
paroxetine *Indicated for depression *Amlodipine: hypertension *Clopidogrel: used to prevent a stroke *Saxagliptin: indicated for diabetes mellitus type II
Which of the following medications has a narrow therapeutic range? A. acetaminophen with codeine B. furosemide C. phenytoin D. prednisone
phenytoin *An example of a narrow therapeutic range
Which of the following medications should have the auxiliary label "Take with Food"? A. ampicillin B. captopril C. lansoprazole D. prednisone
prednisone *Should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal adverse effects
Which of the following medications should be tapered off prior to the being discontinued? A. fexofenadine B. isoniazid C. prednisone D. SMZ-TMP
prednisone *Should be tapered off it due to adverse effects they may experience if they are not.
Which of the following is the generic name for Lyrica? A. carbamazepine B. gabapentin C. pregabalin D. tramadol
pregabalin *Generic name for Lyrica *Tegretol (Tegretol) *Neurontin (Gabapentin) *Tramadol (Ultram)
According to the Combat Methamphetamine Act, which medication must be kept behind the pharmacy counter? A. diphenhydramine B. guaifenesin C. loperamide D. pseudoephedrine
pseudoephedrine *The Combat Methamphetamine Act requires that OTC medications containing pseudoephedrine be kept behind the counter.
The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act restricts the sale of which OTC medication? A. ibuprofen B. loratadine C. loperamide D. pseudoephedrine
pseudoephedrine *The sale of pseudoephedrine is regulated through the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act.
What is the generic name for Seroquel? A. atomoxetine B. metaxalone C. quetiapine D. risperidone
quetiapine *Generic name for Seroquel Atomoxetine is the generic name for Strattera Metaxalone is the generic name for Skelaxin Risperidone is the generic name for Risperdal
A patient who is taking Lipitor finds out that she is pregnant. Lipitor is FDA pregnancy category X. What should the patient do? a. continue the course of the medication because there is no evidence of risk to the fetus b. continue using the medication because the benefits outweigh the potential risks c. stop taking the medication immediately and tell the physician d. none of the above
stop taking the medication immediately and tell the physician *This medication may lead to fetal abnormalities
A patient comes to the pharmacy seeking a prescription refill. The patient dies not know their prescription number or the name of the medication; however, they know that is used to abort a migraine headache. After reviewing the patient's profile and speaking to the pharmacist, the pharmacy technician determines the patient is requesting which medication? A. glipizide B. raloxifene C. spironolactone D. sumatriptan
sumatriptan *Indicated to end a migraine headache
What auxiliary label should be used when taking an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor? a. take before meals b. take with meals c. take at bedtime d. take in the morning
take with meals
Which of the following medications should have the auxiliary label "Medications Causes Photosensitivity-Use Sunscreen"? a. erythromycin b. metronidazole c. penicillin d. tetracycline
tetracycline *Prescription bottles of tetracycline should bear an auxiliary label warning the patient of photosensitivity. *It has not been reported that photosensitivity occurs when a patient is prescribed the other medications.
Nasal decongestants are contraindicated in patients with A. bronchitis B. constipation C. GERD D. thyroid disease
thyroid disease *Nasal decongestants are contraindicated in patients with thyroid disease
Sprivia HandiHaler
tiotropium
Which of the following medications can be crushed? A. amoxicillin/clavulanate ER B. benzonatate C. triamterene/hydrochlorothiazide D. zolpidem ER
triamterene/hydrochlorothiazide *Can be crushed if necessary Amoxicillin/clavulanate ER and Zolpidem ER should not be crushed because they are long-acting dosage forms Benzonatate should not be crushed because the liquid in the capsule may numb the throat
Which of the following medications is indicated as a smoking cessation drug? A. buspirone B. imipramine C. varenicline D. venlafaxine
varenicline *Smoking cessation drug Buspirone is indicated for anxiety Imipramine (Tofranil) and venlafaxine (Effexor XR) are indicated for depression
What type of vitamin should be avoided when taking warfarin? a. vitamin A b. vitamin D c. vitamin E d. vitamin K
vitamin K
Which of the following medications may aspirin increase the effects of? A. cimetidine B. ketoconazole C. levothyroxine D. warfarin
warfarin *Aspirin may increase the effects of warfarin
Which of the following medications has a narrow therapeutic range? A. citalopram B. isotretinoin C. naproxen D. warfarin
warfarin *Narrow therapeutic range