S2T5 questions giddens

A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy, and the health care provider prescribes a tap water enema. In which position should the nurse place the client during the enema? 1 Left Sims 2 Back lying 3 Knee-chest 4 Mid-Fowler

1

5 rights of delegation

1. Right task 2. Right circumstance 3. Right person 4. Right direction/communication 5. Right supervision/evaluation

The nurse is preparing to teach a group of new parents about factors that have a significant effect on the dosage of medications appropriate to treat pediatric clients. Which factors would the nurse include in the teaching? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1 Children have more acidic stomachs. 2 Children's skin is thinner and more porous. 3 Body temperature is less well-regulated among children. 4 The lungs of pediatric clients have stronger mucous barriers. 5 The liver and kidneys of children excrete medications more readily.

23 Children's skin is thinner and more porous, and their body temperature is less well-regulated, so dehydration occurs easily. Children's stomachs are less acidic than adults, their lungs have weaker mucous barriers, and their liver and kidneys excrete medications less readily compared with adults.

Which explanation would the nurse provide when responding to a client's inquiry about intussusception of the bowel? 1 "It is kinking of the bowel onto itself." 2 "It is a band of connective tissue compressing the bowel." 3 "It is telescoping of a proximal loop of bowel into a distal loop." 4 "It is a protrusion of an organ or part of an organ through the wall that contains it."

3

The nurse is caring for a client who had surgery for the formation of a continent urostomy. The nurse engages the client in early postoperative ambulation to prevent which complication? 1 Wound infection 2 Urinary retention 3 Abdominal distention 4 Incisional evisceration

3 Bed rest weakens the perineal and abdominal muscles used in defecating; ambulation promotes peristalsis and improves muscle tone, thereby facilitating expulsion of flatus and promoting defecation. Early ambulation will not prevent a wound infection. There will be no urinary retention because the surgery involves removal of the bladder and creation of a permanent urinary diversion. Early ambulation will not prevent incisional evisceration.

Which intervention is most beneficial in preventing a catheter-associated urinary tract infection in a postoperative client? 1 Pouring warm water over the perineum 2 Ensuring the patency of the catheter 3 Removing the catheter within 24 hours 4 Cleaning the catheter insertion site

3 Clients who undergo surgery are at a greater risk of acquiring catheter-associated urinary tract infections. Infections can be prevented by removing the catheter within 24 hours if the client does not need it. Removing the catheter within 24 hours would be the best intervention. Although pouring warm water over the perineum helps voiding in the postoperative client and also reduces the chances of infection, this action would not be as beneficial as the former intervention. The catheter should be maintained in its place to avoid leakage and infection. Cleaning the catheter insertion site will definitely reduce the risk of infection, but this action cannot prevent infections if the catheter is inserted for a long time.

The nurse is caring for a client after surgical creation of an ostomy. The nurse observes that the stool is formed. The stool is this consistency in which part of the colon? 1 Ileum 2 Ascending 3 Transverse 4 Descending

4 As the effluent passes through the gastrointestinal system, water is absorbed, and the stool becomes more formed. The stool from an ostomy in the descending colon will be formed. The ileum is a component of the small intestines and produces very liquid stools. The stool from an ostomy in the ascending colon will be liquid because it is the first portion of the large intestine that the stool enters, and fluid has not been reabsorbed yet. The stool from an ostomy in the transverse colon will be soft and pasty because fluid still can be absorbed in the rest of the large intestine.

Pylelonephritis

A kidney infection usually is caused from bacteria that have spread from the bladder from a UTI. The urine appears concentrated and cloudy because of the presence of WBCs or bacteria.

what do HR and BP do with dehydration

HR is fast BP is low

to be righteous, to be equitable, and to act or treat others fairly

justice

pyloric stenosis

narrowing of the opening of the stomach to the duodenum

what can an elevated serum creatinine cause in a diagnostic study with contrast

renal failure

Which component of ethical decision-making refers to the duties and activities the nurse is employed to perform?

responsibility

intussusception

telescoping of the intestines

A client with Crohn disease is admitted to the hospital with abdominal pain, fever, poor skin turgor, and having experienced 10 liquid bowel movements in the past 24 hours. The nurse suspects that the client is dehydrated based on which assessment findings? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1 Moist skin 2 Sunken eyes 3 Decreased apical pulse 4 Dry mucous membranes 5 Increased blood pressure

2 4 Sunken eyes and loss of skin turgor occur because of decreased intracellular and interstitial fluid associated with dehydration. Dry mucous membranes occur because of decreased intracellular and interstitial fluid associated with dehydration. The skin will be dry, not moist, with dehydration. The first sign of dehydration usually is tachycardia. The blood pressure will decrease, not increase, because of hypovolemia.

what refers to the freedom of making choices and the responsibility for making those choices.

autonomy

Dyspnea

difficulty breathing or shortness of breath

diaphoresis

profuse sweating

Which clinical manifestations indicate to the nurse that the client has an inadequate fluid volume? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1 Decreased urine 2 Hypotension 3 Dyspnea 4 Dry mucous membranes 5 Lung crackles 6 Poor skin turgor

1 2 4 6 Decreased urinary output, hypotension, dry mucous membranes, and poor skin turgor are all symptomatic of dehydration. Dyspnea and crackles in the lungs may be caused by fluid overload.

In which instances can an adult give consent for a minor's medical treatment? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1 As the guardian for a ward 2 As the parent of an emancipated minor 3 As the parent of an unemancipated minor 4 As an adult for the treatment of his or her minor brother or sister (if an emergency and parents are not present) 5 As a grandparent for a minor grandchild under normal circumstances

134 An adult can give consent for medical treatment as a guardian for his or her ward. An adult can give consent for medical treatment as a parent for his or her unemancipated minor. An adult can give consent for the medical treatment of his or her brother or sister in case of an emergency if the client's parents are not present. An adult cannot give consent for his or her emancipated minor. An adult can only give consent as a grandparent for a minor grandchild in emergency cases when the parents are not present.

The nurse is caring for a client 1 hour after the client had esophageal surgery. Which assessment is the priority for this client? 1 Assessment of the incision 2 Respiratory assessment 3 Determining the level of pain 4 Monitoring the client's nasogastric tube

2 Because of the trauma of surgery and the proximity of the esophagus to the trachea, respiratory assessments become the priority. Although assessment of the incision, determining the level of pain, and monitoring the client's nasogastric tube are important, an adequate airway is the priority.

If the military system of triage is being used to triage victims of a manufacturing plant explosion, the client with which condition would be identified as class IV? 1 Obvious fractured arm and leg 2 Bleeding from facial wounds and coughing sputum containing soot 3 Walking across the parking lot to increase distance from the explosion site 4 Bleeding from a jugular vein wound with a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute

4 The victim who should be identified as class IV or who is expected to die would be the one with a jugular vein wound and a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute

The nurse is obtaining a health history from a client with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease. The nurse identifies a possible contributory risk factor when the client makes which statement? 1 "My blood type is A positive." 2 "I smoke one pack of cigarettes a day." 3 "I have been overweight most of my life." 4 "My blood pressure has been high lately."

Smoking cigarettes increases the acidity of gastrointestinal secretions, which damages the mucosal lining. Blood type O is more frequently associated with duodenal ulcer, but type A has no significance. Being overweight is unrelated to peptic ulcer disease. High blood pressure is not directly related to peptic ulcer disease.

Quasi-intentional torts

acts in which intent is lacking but volitional action and direct causation occur such as in invasion of privacy and defamation of character

what refers to the legitimate power to give commands and make final decisions specific to a given position.

authority

Nonmaleficence

do no harm

what relates to the state or act of doing good and being kind and charitable. It also includes promotion of well-being and abstaining from injuring others.

beneficence

Which is appropriate for the nurse to include in the education of the ethical principal of nonmaleficence to a group of nursing students? 1 Treat all clients equitably and fairly. 2 Act in ways to prevent harm to clients. 3 Tell the client the truth about their health. 4 Help the clients make informed choices

2 Nonmaleficence means to act in ways that prevent client harm or even the risk of harm. Telling the truth to clients about their health refers to veracity. Helping clients make informed choices promotes autonomy. Justice involves treating all clients equitably and fairly.

Which physiological response explains why elevation in body temperature occurs in clients who experience acute coronary syndrome? 1 Parasympathetic reflexes 2 Inflammatory response 3 Catecholamine release 4 Peripheral vasoconstriction

2 Temperature may increase within the first 24 hours after acute coronary syndrome as a result of the inflammatory response to tissue destruction and persist as long as a week.

The nurse is obtaining consent from an unemancipated minor to perform an abortion. When would the nurse consider the consent-giving process to be appropriately completed? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1 Consent has been obtained from the spouse. 2 Consent has been given specifically by a court. 3 Self-consent has been granted by a court order. 4 Consent has been given by a grandparent. 5 Consent has been obtained from at least one parent of the minor.

235 An unemancipated minor is allowed to consent to an abortion if one of three conditions is fulfilled. The minor may give consent if consent has been obtained from at least one parent. The minor may also give consent if consent has been given specifically by a court or self-consent has been granted by a court order. The spouse or grandparents of unemancipated minors are not allowed to give consent for abortions.

When a client is admitted to the emergency department with a possible spinal cord injury, the nurse would monitor for which clinical manifestations of spinal shock? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1 Bradycardia 2 Hypotension 3 Spastic paralysis 4 Urinary retention 5 Increased pulse pressure

1 2 4 Bradycardia occurs with spinal shock because the vascular system below the level of injury dilates and the cardiac accelerator reflex is suppressed. Initially there is a loss of vascular tone below the injury, resulting in vasodilation and hypotension. Urinary retention may occur in spinal shock because of autonomic nervous system dysfunction. Initially, flaccid paralysis is associated with spinal shock; as spinal shock subsides, spastic paralysis develops. There is a decreased, not increased, pulse pressure associated with hypotension and shock.

Which stage of Kohlberg's theory can be seen in an individual seeking to modify a law if it is not fair to a particular group? 1 Social contract orientation 2 Society-maintaining orientation 3 Instrument relativist orientation 4 Universal ethical principle orientation

4 The universal ethical principle orientation stage is associated with a person who wants to modify a law if it does not seem just. According to the social contract orientation stage, a person tends to follow a law even if it is not fair. During the society-maintaining stage, an individual shows concerns for his or her society and makes decisions in accordance to his or her society. During the instrument relativist orientation stage, a child recognizes that there is more than 1 correct view.

The primary health care provider documents that a client has a bruit over the abdominal aorta. What teaching will the nurse provide for assistive personnel (AP) based on this assessment finding? "Use warm compresses on the client's abdomen continuously." "Avoid washing the client's abdomen too aggressively." "Apply ice to the client's abdomen every 4 hours." "Massage the client's abdomen to help reduce pain."

"Avoid washing the client's abdomen too aggressively." A bruit heard over the abdominal aorta possible indicates stenosis or an aneurysm which should not be palpated or percussed. Therefore, the AP should wash the client's abdomen very gently.

Which are the elements of discovery of a lawsuit? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1 Experts 2 Medical records 3 Proof of negligence 4 The depositions of witnesses 5 Petition-elements of the claim

124 Experts, medical records, and the depositions of witnesses are elements of discovery of a lawsuit. Proof of negligence is a part of a trial. Petition and elements of the claim are a part of the pleadings phase.

Which describes the role of the nurse in this situation when he or she informs the health care provider the client is requesting pain medication after surgery? 1 Educator 2 Manager 3 Advocate 4 Administrator

3 The nurse acts as a client advocate by speaking to the primary health care provider on behalf of the client. The nurse acts as an educator while teaching the client facts about health and the need for routine care activities. The nurse manager uses appropriate leadership styles to create a nursing environment for client-centered care. The nurse administrator manages client care and delivery of specific nursing services within a health care agency.

Which of the following legal defenses is important for the nurse to develop? 1 Dedication 2 Certification 3 Assertiveness 4 Accountability

4 The concept of accountability is of high priority in nursing practice. As a licensed professional, the nurse is always accountable, which means liable and answerable for her or his actions. Dedication means to be committed, and assertiveness means to be confident. These are desired characteristics in a nurse but are not legal defenses. Certification relates to achieving a higher level of knowledge or proficiency in one's area of specialization and is also not a legal defense.

Which nursing intervention would be the safety priority when administering medication through an implanted port? 1 Use barrel syringes to flush any central line. 2 Use 20 mL of sterile saline to flush the port before medication administration and 2.5 mL of heparin 100 units/mL after. 3 Use 10 mL of sterile saline to flush the port before and after medication administration. 4 Assess patency and adequate noncoring needle placement before medication administration.

4 When administering medication through implanted ports, the nurse would withhold the medication until patency and adequate noncoring needle placement of the port are established. In case of a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC), the nurse would use barrel syringes to flush any central line. The nurse would use 10 mL of sterile saline to flush the PICC before and after medication administration. If the SASH method is recommended in agency policy or by the device manufacturer, saline is administered before the medication and dilute heparin is administered after the medication.

Which information would the nurse include in a teaching plan for a client whose burns are being treated with the exposure (open) method? 1 Aseptic techniques are required. 2 Plants, but not flowers, are allowed. 3 Equipment will be shared with others. 4 Dressings will be changed every 3 days.

1

he nurse on the medical-surgical unit tells other staff members, "That client can just wait for the lorazepam; I get so annoyed when people drink too much." Which does this nurse's comment reflect? 1 Demonstration of a personal bias 2 Problem-solving based on assessment 3 Determination of client acuity to set priorities 4 Consideration of the complexity of client care

1

Which possible legal complication might the nurse face in a situation in which intravenous (IV) therapy was administered to the wrong client? 1 Assault 2 Battery 3 Malpractice 4 False imprisonment

3

The nurse finds that an 80-year-old client's family is not caring for the client properly. Which action of the nurse indicates leadership quality? 1 Advocating on behalf of the client 2 Discussing the client's problem with another nurse 3 Arranging a permanent accommodation in the hospital 4 Suggesting the family place the client in a long-term health care facility

1 The public depends on nurse leaders to move forward the consumer advocacy agenda. As a leader, the nurse would advocate on behalf of the client. Discussing the client's problem with another nurse does not indicate leadership quality. Arranging a permanent accommodation or suggesting a long-term health care facility for the client does not indicate leadership; instead it keeps the client in emotional distress.

The nurse is providing colostomy care to a client with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection. Which personal protective equipment (PPE) would the nurse use? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1 Gloves 2 Gown 3 Mask 4 Goggles 5 Shoe covers 6 Hair bonnet

1 2 3 4

A monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) is prescribed. Which will the client need to avoid while taking this medication? 1 Fermented foods 2 Prolonged sun exposure 3 Strenuous physical exercise 4 Over-the-counter antihistamine medications

1 An MAOI can cause hypertensive crisis if food or beverages high in tyramine, such as fermented foods, are ingested. Prolonged exposure to the sun is hazardous for clients taking one of the phenothiazines. Strenuous physical exercise is not contraindicated. Antihistamines are not prohibited with MAOI medications.

The registered nurse is educating a nursing student about the process of resolving an ethical dilemma. Which information would the nurse provide regarding negotiation of outcomes? 1 "The nurse would provide a personal point of view." 2 "Negotiations would be held in formal settings only." 3 "Negotiation takes place immediately after gathering information." 4 "The group agrees to a statement of the problem during the negotiation process."

1 During the process of negotiating outcomes, the nurse is required to provide a personal point of view. Negotiations may take place informally at the client's bedside or in a formal setting. After gathering relevant information regarding an ethical dilemma, the nurse is required to examine his or her own values and formulate an opinion regarding the matter. When verbalizing the problem, the group agrees to a statement of the problem to begin discussions. This step is performed before negotiating outcomes. Negotiations take place after determining all possible courses of action.

Which assessment is priority after checking airway for a client with a cervical spinal cord injury? 1 Level of consciousness 2 Sensory perception in all extremities 3 Presence and location of diaphoresis 4 Vital sign assessment and oxygen assessment

1 Only after the airway is secured will a client's level of consciousness be assessed as part of the Glasgow Coma Scale. Then vital signs and oxygen are assessed, sensory perception is assessed for impairment, and diaphoresis is assessed if looking for autonomic dysreflexia.

Which evidenced-based nursing intervention links to reducing catheter associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs) in clients requiring long-term indwelling catheters? 1 Perform catheter care twice a day. 2 Replace the catheter on a routine basis. 3 Administer cranberry tablets three times a day. 4 Administer prophylactic antibiotics twice a day for the duration of the catheter placement.

1 A biofilm made up of bacteria develops on long-term indwelling catheters. The best way to eliminate this biofilm is to perform routine perineal hygiene daily. The efficacy of cranberry tablets in decreasing the frequency of urinary tract infections has not been established. Antibiotic therapy may increase the growth of microbes within the biofilm.

Which are external barriers that can prevent a nursing professional from making morally correct actions? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1 Inadequate staffing 2 Lack of assertiveness 3 Perception of powerlessness 4 Lack of organizational support 5 Poor relationships with colleagues

145 When faced with dilemmas, external and internal barriers may prevent a professional from acting in a morally correct way. This may cause moral distress. External barriers include inadequate staffing, lack of organizational support, and poor relationships with colleagues. These factors are present in the organizational environment and can lead a person to act in a particular manner. Internal barriers are factors within a person that prevent one from acting in a morally correct way. These include lack of assertiveness and perception of powerlessness.

A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease reports having difficulty sleeping at night. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client? 1 Drink a glass of milk before retiring. 2 Elevate the head of the bed on blocks. 3 Eliminate carbohydrates from the diet. 4 Take antacids such as sodium bicarbonate

2

Which piece of equipment will the nurse remove from the bedside of a client on seizure precautions? 1 Oxygen 2 Padded tongue blade 3 Suction tubing and canister 4 Airway management equipment

2 Padded tongue blades should not be used during a seizure; the intervention is more likely to cause injury to teeth than prevent biting the tongue. Oxygen, suction equipment, and airway management tools are indicated at the bedside of a client on seizure precautions to support the airway and gas exchange.

The nurse who promotes freedom of choice for clients in decision-making best supports which principle? 1 Justice 2 Autonomy 3 Beneficence 4 Paternalism

2 The principle of autonomy relates to the freedom of a person to form her or his own judgments and actions. The nurse promotes autonomy nonjudgmentally so as not to infringe on the decisions or actions of others. Justice means to be righteous, to be equitable, and to act or treat others fairly. Beneficence relates to the state or act of doing good and being kind and charitable. It also includes promotion of well-being and abstaining from injuring others. Paternalism encompasses the practice of governing people in a fatherly manner, especially by providing for their needs, without infringing on their rights or responsibilities.

An older adult who has an endocrine disorder is scheduled for a diagnostic study with contrast medium. The nurse identifies that it is essential for which laboratory test to be performed before the procedure? 1 Urine pH 2 Serum creatinine 3 Serum albumin 4 Creatinine clearance

2 If a contrast medium is used in older adults with an elevated serum creatinine, it may cause renal failure. Thus the nurse would assess the client's renal function before the diagnostic by checking the serum creatinine to assess for renal failure. Urinary pH may not help the nurse assess the client's risk of renal failure. A serum albumin test is performed if symptoms of liver disease or other liver problems are present; it is not routinely done before contrast medium tests. Creatinine clearance helps assess the glomerular filtration rate.

Which condition may be present in the client with a neutrophil count of 12,000/mm3? 1 Influenza 2 Pneumonia 3 Immunosuppression 4 Autoimmune disorder

2 The normal adult leukocyte count is 5000 to 10,000/mm3. A count of 12,000/mm3 indicates an increased neutrophil level, which indicates the presence of an acute bacterial infection that could result in pneumonia or inflammation. Viral influenza may occur when the neutrophil count is low. Immunosuppression and autoimmune disorders may result from a decreased leukocyte count.

Which therapeutic outcomes are expected after administering ibuprofen? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1 Diuresis 2 Pain relief 3 Temperature reduction 4 Bronchodilation 5 Anticoagulation 6 Reduced inflammation

2 3 6 Prostaglandins accumulate at the site of an injury, causing pain; nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen inhibit COX-1 and COX-2 (both are isoforms of the enzyme cyclooxygenase), which inhibit the production of prostaglandins, thereby contributing to analgesia. NSAIDs inhibit COX-2, which is associated with fever, thereby causing the temperature to decline. NSAIDs inhibit COX-2, which is associated with inflammation, thereby reducing inflammation. NSAIDs do not cause diuresis; reversible renal ischemia and renal insufficiency in clients with heart failure, cirrhosis, or hypovolemia can be potential adverse effects of NSAIDs. NSAIDs do not cause bronchodilation. Anticoagulation is an adverse effect, not a desired outcome; NSAIDs can impair platelet function by inhibiting thromboxane, an aggregating agent, resulting in bleeding.

An adolescent is admitted with partial- and full-thickness burns of the arms and upper torso. Which are the primary purposes of administering pain medication via the intravenous route, rather than the intramuscular route? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. 1 Adolescents are afraid of injections. 2 It decreases the risk of tissue irritation. 3 Severe pain is reduced more effectively. 4 Impaired peripheral circulation is bypassed. 5 It provides for more prolonged relief of pain.

234 Decreasing the risk for tissue irritation can reduce the risk of infection, which is also one of the top care priorities after a burn injury. The medication begins to work in minutes; doses can be controlled. Intramuscular medications are avoided when possible to prevent inadequate absorption of the medication because of damaged tissue. Stating that adolescents are afraid of injections is a generalization that is not necessarily true. The duration of effectiveness of an analgesic is based on its therapeutic level in the body, regardless of what route is used.

Which describes a living will? 1 A legal document that allows registered nurses to offer special skills to the public 2 An order that directs primary health care providers to refrain from reviving clients 3 A written document that directs treatment according to the client's wishes, in case of a terminal illness or condition 4 A legal document that designates a person or persons chosen by a client to make health care decisions on his or her behalf

3 A living will is a written document that directs treatment on the basis of the client's wishes if he or she has a terminal illness or condition. A license allows registered nurses to offer special skills to the public. A do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order prevents primary health care providers from reviving clients or performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). A durable power of attorney is a legal document that designates a person or persons chosen by a client to make health care decisions on his or her behalf when the client is unable to do so.

How would the student nurse describe a quasi-intentional tort occurring during the practice of nursing? 1 A willful act violating a client's rights 2 A civil wrong made against a person or property 3 An act that lacks intent but involves volitional action 4 An unintentional act that includes negligence and malpractice

3 A quasi-intentional tort lacks intent but involves volitional actions such as invasion of privacy and defamation of character. An intentional tort is a willful act that violates another's rights. This includes assault, battery, and false imprisonment. A tort is a civil wrong made against a person or property. An unintentional tort involves negligence and malpractice.

Which rewarming method is appropriate specifically for a client suffering from severe hypothermia? 1 Using radiant lights 2 Using air-filled warming blankets 3 Immersing the client in warm water 4 Applying heated humidified oxygen

4 Application of humidified oxygen, heated up to 111.2°F (44°C), is a type of active internal or core rewarming method. Using radiant lights is a method of passive or spontaneous rewarming. Using air-filled warming blankets and immersing the client in warm water are methods of active external or surface rewarming. Both passive and active external rewarming methods are used for mild hypothermia.

Which action of the emergency department nurse caring for a group of clients injured in a community disaster would need correction? 1 Triaging the victims 2 Supervising volunteers 3 Providing on-site first aid 4 Removing people from danger

4 During a community disaster, removing people from danger is done by firefighters and other disaster trained emergency personnel. Nurses would not be involved in this process. After the removal of people from danger, the nurses triage the victims under triage categories. The nurses supervise volunteers and provide on-site first aid to victims.

Which nursing action would be contraindicated for a client with a newly applied long leg plaster cast? 1 Elevating the cast on a pillow 2 Drying the cast by using a fan 3 Leaving the cast exposed to air 4 Handling the cast with fingertips

4 Handling the cast with fingertips before it is dried may create indentations that can cause pressure. Elevating the casted extremity on a pillow will help reduce edema. Drying the cast with a fan and leaving the cast exposed to the air will increase air flow that facilitates drying of the cast.

A client with renal failure wants to go back home, but the family members want the client to undergo a kidney transplant. The nurse gives details about the possible threats and benefits of the surgery to the family and informs them that the client wants to stay home. Which role does the nurse play here? 1 Educator 2 Manager 3 Caregiver 4 Advocate

4 The nurse in the given scenario plays the role of an advocate by protecting the client's human and legal rights and by providing assistance in asserting these rights. As an educator, the nurse explains concepts and facts about health and the reason for routine care activities, demonstrates procedures, and evaluates the client's progress in learning. As a caregiver, the nurse helps clients maintain and regain health, manage diseases and symptoms, and attain a maximal level of function and independence through the healing process. As a manager, the nurse coordinates the activities of members of the nursing staff in delivering nursing care and has responsibility for personnel, policy, and budgetary issues for a specific nursing unit or agency.

Which intervention would the nurse include in the care plan to minimize the risk for error and adverse events for in clients who are injured in a bomb blast? 1 Keeping rails up on stretcher 2 Using standard precautions at all times 3 Using two unique identifiers for the client 4 Obtaining a thorough client and family history

4 Client and staff safety are major concerns in the emergency department (ED). Obtaining a thorough and accurate medical history of the client and family will help to minimize risk for error and adverse events. Keeping rails up on the stretcher will help prevent injury to the client. Using standard precautions at all times prevents staff injury. Using two unique identifiers for the client will ensure identification of the client.

A client who has a ureteral calculus is admitted to the hospital with severe flank pain, nausea, and hematuria. Which intervention would the nurse implement first? 1 Strain all urine output. 2 Increase oral fluid intake. 3 Obtain a urine specimen for culture. 4 Administer a prescribed analgesic

4 Pain of renal colic may be excruciating; unless relief is obtained, the client will be unable to cooperate with other therapy. Urine can be saved and strained after the client's priority needs are met. Increasing fluid intake may or may not be helpful. If the stone is large the fluid can build up, leading to hydronephrosis; however, if the stone is small, fluids may help flush the stone. Although a culture generally is prescribed, this is not the priority when a client has severe pain.

A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. The health care provider's prescriptions include nothing by mouth and total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse explains that the TPN therapy provides which benefit? 1 Is the easiest method for administering needed nutrition 2 Is the safest method for meeting the client's nutritional requirements 3 Will satisfy the client's hunger without the discomfort associated with eating 4 Will meet the client's nutritional needs without causing the discomfort precipitated by eating

4 Providing nutrients by the intravenous route eliminates pancreatic stimulation, reducing the pain experienced with pancreatitis. TPN is used to meet the client's needs, not the nurse's needs. TPN creates many safety risks for the client. Hunger can be experienced with TPN therapy.

what refers to individuals being answerable for their actions.

accountability

what would a person in a crash who has an Obvious fractured arm and leg be classified as

class I or II

what are elements of the pleadings phase in a lawsuit

petition and elements of the claim

Kohlberg's Theory of Moral Development

preconventional, conventional, postconventional

what element is a part of a lawsuit in the trial

proof of negligence

Semi-Fowler's Position

the head of the bed is raised 30 degrees; or the head of the bed is raised 30 degrees and the knee portion is raised 15 degrees

T-tube

tube placed in the bile duct for drainage into a small pouch (bile bag) on the outside of the body