Sem 3 - Unit 4: Perfusion (HF, MI, Cardiac Dysrh, Fetal Monitoring) TB

Fetal well-being in labor can be measured by the response of the FHR to uterine contractions. Please match the characteristic of normal uterine activity during labor with the correct description. a. Frequency b. Duration c. Strength d. Resting tone e. Relaxation time 1. Commonly 45 seconds or more in the second stage of labor. 2. Generally ranging from two to five contractions per 10 minutes of labor. 3. Average of 10 mm Hg. 4. Peaking at 40 to 70 mm Hg in the first stage of labor. 5. Remaining fairly stable throughout the first and second stages.

1. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Evaluation OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity NOT: Should the FHR respond outside of these evidence-based parameters for uterine activity during labor, intervention may be required. Contraction frequency generally ranges from 2 to 5 contractions per 10 minute during labor, with lower frequencies seen in the first stage of labor and higher frequencies during the second stage. Duration of contractions remains fairly stable throughout the first and second stages and rarely exceeds 90 seconds. The strength of uterine contractions ranges from 40 to 70 mm Hg in the first stage and may rise to more than 80 mm Hg in the second stage. Resting tone averages 10 mm Hg, and if using palpation, the uterus should feel soft. In the first stage of labor, relaxation time is commonly 60 seconds or more, and it is 45 seconds or more in the second stage. 2. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Evaluation OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity NOT: Should the FHR respond outside of these evidence-based parameters for uterine activity during labor, intervention may be required. Contraction frequency generally ranges from 2 to 5 contractions per 10 minute during labor, with lower frequencies seen in the first stage of labor and higher frequencies during the second stage. Duration of contractions remains fairly stable throughout the first and second stages and rarely exceeds 90 seconds. The strength of uterine contractions ranges from 40 to 70 mm Hg in the first stage and may rise to more than 80 mm Hg in the second stage. Resting tone averages 10 mm Hg, and if using palpation, the uterus should feel soft. In the first stage of labor, relaxation time is commonly 60 seconds or more, and it is 45 seconds or more in the second stage. 3. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Evaluation OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity NOT: Should the FHR respond outside of these evidence-based parameters for uterine activity during labor, intervention may be required. Contraction frequency generally ranges from 2 to 5 contractions per 10 minute during labor, with lower frequencies seen in the first stage of labor and higher frequencies during the second stage. Duration of contractions remains fairly stable throughout the first and second stages and rarely exceeds 90 seconds. The strength of uterine contractions ranges from 40 to 70 mm Hg in the first stage and may rise to more than 80 mm Hg in the second stage. Resting tone averages 10 mm Hg, and if using palpation, the uterus should feel soft. In the first stage of labor, relaxation time is commonly 60 seconds or more, and it is 45 seconds or more in the second stage. 4. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Evaluation OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity NOT: Should the FHR respond outside of these evidence-based parameters for uterine activity during labor, intervention may be required. Contraction frequency generally ranges from 2 to 5 contractions per 10 minute during labor, with lower frequencies seen in the first stage of labor and higher frequencies during the second stage. Duration of contractions remains fairly stable throughout the first and second stages and rarely exceeds 90 seconds. The strength of uterine contractions ranges from 40 to 70 mm Hg in the first stage and may rise to more than 80 mm Hg in the second stage. Resting tone averages 10 mm Hg, and if using palpation, the uterus should feel soft. In the first stage of labor, relaxation time is commonly 60 seconds or more, and it is 45 seconds or more in the second stage. 5. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Evaluation OBJ: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity NOT: Should the FHR respond outside of these evidence-based parameters for uterine activity during labor, intervention may be required. Contraction frequency generally ranges from 2 to 5 contractions per 10 minute during labor, with lower frequencies seen in the first stage of labor and higher frequencies during the second stage. Duration of contractions remains fairly stable throughout the first and second stages and rarely exceeds 90 seconds. The strength of uterine contractions ranges from 40 to 70 mm Hg in the first stage and may rise to more than 80 mm Hg in the second stage. Resting tone averages 10 mm Hg, and if using palpation, the uterus should feel soft. In the first stage of labor, relaxation time is commonly 60 seconds or more, and it is 45 seconds or more in the second stage.

1. When analyzing an electrocardiographic (ECG) rhythm strip of a patient with a regular heart rhythm, the nurse counts 30 small blocks from one R wave to the next. The nurse calculates the patient's heart rate as ____

ANS: 50 There are 1500 small blocks in a minute, and the nurse will divide 1500 by 30.

39. What is the nurse's first action when planning to teach the parents of an infant with a congenital heart defect (CHD)? a. Assess the parents' anxiety level and readiness to learn b. Gather literature for the parents c. Secure a quiet place for teaching d. Discuss the plan with the nursing team

ANS: A Any effort to organize the right environment, plan, or literature is of no use if the parents are not ready to learn or have high anxiety. Decreasing their level of anxiety is often needed before new information can be processed. A baseline assessment of prior knowledge should be taken into consideration before developing any teaching plan. Locating a quiet place for meeting with parents is appropriate; however, an assessment should be done before any teaching is done. Discussing a teaching plan with the nursing team is appropriate after an assessment of the parents' knowledge and readiness.

1. Which complication should the nurse asses for when caring for a child post cardiac catheterization? a. Cardiac arrhythmia b. Hypostatic pneumonia c. Congestive heart failure d. Rapidly increasing blood pressure

ANS: A Because a catheter is introduced into the heart, a risk exists of catheter-induced arrhythmias occurring during the procedure. These are usually transient. Hypostatic pneumonia, congestive heart failure, and rapidly increasing blood pressure are not risks usually associated with cardiac catheterization.

9. Which drug is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor? a. Captopril b. Furosemide c. Spironolactone d. Chlorothiazide

ANS: A Capoten is an ACE inhibitor. Lasix is a loop diuretic. Aldactone blocks the action of aldosterone. Diuril works on the distal tubules.

18. A normal uterine activity pattern in labor is characterized by: a. contractions every 2 to 5 minutes. b. contractions lasting about 2 minutes. c. contractions about 1 minute apart. d. a contraction intensity of about 1000 mm Hg with relaxation at 50 mm Hg.

ANS: A Contractions normally occur every 2 to 5 minutes and last less than 90 seconds (intensity 800 mm Hg) with about 30 seconds in between (20 mm Hg or less).

8. What beneficial effect is achieved by administering digoxin? a. Decreases edema b. Decreases cardiac output c. Increases heart size d. Increases venous pressure

ANS: A Digoxin has a rapid onset and is useful in increasing cardiac output, decreasing venous pressure, and as a result decreasing edema. Heart size is decreased by digoxin.

26. Which deceleration of the fetal heart rate would not require the nurse to change the maternal position? a. Early decelerations b. Late decelerations c. Variable decelerations d. It is always a good idea to change the woman's position.

ANS: A Early decelerations (and accelerations) generally do not need any nursing intervention. Late decelerations suggest that the nurse should change the maternal position (lateral); variable decelerations also require a maternal position change (side to side). Although changing positions throughout labor is recommended, it is not required in response to early decelerations.

35. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care for an infant with the nursing diagnosis of Excess Fluid Volume related to congestive heart failure? a. Weigh the infant every day on the same scale at the same time. b. Notify the physician when weight gain exceeds more than 20 g/day. c. Put the infant in a car seat to minimize movement. d. Administer digoxin as ordered by the physician.

ANS: A Excess fluid volume may not be overtly visible. Weight changes may indicate fluid retention. Weighing the infant on the same scale at the same time each day ensures consistency. An excessive weight gain for an infant is an increase of more than 50 g/day. With fluid volume excess, skin will be edematous. The infant's position should be changed frequently to prevent undesirable pooling of fluid in certain areas. Digoxin is used in the treatment of congestive heart failure to improve cardiac function. Diuretics will help the body get rid of excess fluid.

12. Fetal well-being during labor is assessed by: a. the response of the fetal heart rate (FHR) to uterine contractions (UCs). b. maternal pain control. c. accelerations in the FHR. d. an FHR above 110 beats/min.

ANS: A Fetal well-being during labor can be measured by the response of the FHR to UCs. In general, reassuring FHR patterns are characterized by an FHR baseline in the range of 110 to 160 beats/min with no periodic changes, a moderate baseline variability, and accelerations with fetal movement. Maternal pain control is not the measure used to determine fetal well-being in labor. Although FHR accelerations are a reassuring pattern, they are only one component of the criteria by which fetal well-being is assessed. Although an FHR above 110 beats/min may be reassuring, it is only one component of the criteria by which fetal well-being is assessed. More information would be needed to determine fetal well-being.

30. Which maternal condition is considered a contraindication for the application of internal monitoring devices? a. Unruptured membranes b. Cervix dilated to 4 cm c. External monitors in current use d. Fetus with a known heart defect

ANS: A In order to apply internal monitoring devices, the membranes must be ruptured. Cervical dilation of 4 cm permits the insertion of fetal scalp electrodes and intrauterine catheter. The external monitor can be discontinued after the internal ones are applied. A compromised fetus should be monitored with the most accurate monitoring devices.

15. Perinatal nurses are legally responsible for: a. correctly interpreting fetal heart rate (FHR) patterns, initiating appropriate nursing interventions, and documenting the outcomes. b. greeting the patient on arrival, assessing her, and starting an intravenous line. c. applying the external fetal monitor and notifying the care provider. d. making sure that the woman is comfortable.

ANS: A Nurses who care for women during childbirth are legally responsible for correctly interpreting FHR patterns, initiating appropriate nursing interventions based on those patterns, and documenting the outcomes of those interventions. Greeting the patient, assessing her, and starting an IV; applying the external fetal monitor and notifying the care provider; and making sure the woman is comfortable may be activities that a nurse performs, but they are not activities for which the nurse is legally responsible.

22. What term is used to describe the painful, tender, pea-sized nodules that may appear on the pads of the fingers or toes in cases of bacterial endocarditis? a. Osler's nodes b. Janeway lesions c. Subcutaneous nodules d. Aschoff's nodules

ANS: A Osler's nodes are red, painful, intradermal nodes found on pads of the phalanges in bacterial endocarditis. Janeway lesions are painless hemorrhagic areas on palms and soles in bacterial endocarditis. Subcutaneous nodules are nontender swellings located over bony prominences, commonly found in rheumatic fever. Aschoff's nodules are small nodules composed of cells and leukocytes found in the interstitial tissues of the heart in rheumatic myocarditis.

25. What is a major clinical manifestation of rheumatic fever? a. Polyarthritis b. Osler's nodes c. Janeway spots d. Splinter hemorrhages of distal third of nails

ANS: A Polyarthritis is swollen, hot, red, and painful joints. The affected joints will change every 1 to 2 days. Primarily the large joints are affected. Osler's nodes, Janeway spots, and splinter hemorrhages are characteristic of infective endocarditis.

38. A child with pulmonary atresia exhibits cyanosis with feeding. On reviewing this child's laboratory values, the nurse is not surprised to notice which abnormality? a. Polycythemia b. Infection c. Dehydration d. Anemia

ANS: A Polycythemia is a compensatory response to chronic hypoxia. The body attempts to improve tissue oxygenation by producing additional red blood cells and thereby increases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Infection is not a clinical consequence of cyanosis. Although dehydration can occur in cyanotic heart disease, it is not a compensatory mechanism for chronic hypoxia. It is not a clinical consequence of cyanosis. Anemia may develop as a result of increased blood viscosity. Anemia is not a clinical consequence of cyanosis.

5. Which structural defects constitute tetralogy of Fallot? a. Pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy b. Aortic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy c. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy d. Pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, aortic hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy

ANS: A Tetralogy of Fallot has these four characteristics: pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy. There is pulmonic stenosis but not aortic stenosis in tetralogy of Fallot. Right ventricular hypertrophy, not left ventricular hypertrophy, is present in tetralogy of Fallot. There is a ventricular septal defect, not an atrial septal defect, and overriding aorta, not aortic hypertrophy, is present.

21. When using intermittent auscultation (IA) to assess uterine activity, the nurse should be cognizant that: a. the examiner's hand should be placed over the fundus before, during, and after contractions. b. the frequency and duration of contractions is measured in seconds for consistency. c. contraction intensity is given a judgment number of 1 to 7 by the nurse and patient together. d. the resting tone between contractions is described as either placid or turbulent.

ANS: A The assessment is done by palpation; duration, frequency, intensity, and resting tone must be assessed. The duration of contractions is measured in seconds; the frequency is measured in minutes. The intensity of contractions usually is described as mild, moderate, or strong. The resting tone usually is characterized as soft or relaxed.

15. Parents of a 3-year-old child diagnosed with congenital heart disease are afraid to let their child play with other children because of possible overexertion. The nurse's reply should be based on what knowledge? a. The child needs opportunities to play with peers. b. The child needs to understand that peers' activities are too strenuous. c. Parents can meet all the child's needs. d. Constant parental supervision is needed to avoid overexertion.

ANS: A The child needs opportunities for social development. Children usually limit their activities if allowed to set their own pace and regulate their activities. The child will limit activities as necessary. Parents must be encouraged to seek appropriate social activities for the child, especially before kindergarten. The child needs to have activities that foster independence.

46. The nurse is admitting a child with rheumatic fever. Which therapeutic management should the nurse expect to implement? a. Administering penicillin b. Avoiding salicylates (aspirin) c. Imposing strict bed rest for 4 to 6 weeks d. Administering corticosteroids if chorea develops

ANS: A The goal of medical management is the eradication of the hemolytic streptococci. Penicillin is the drug of choice. Salicylates can be used to control the inflammatory process, especially in the joints, and reduce the fever and discomfort. Bed rest is recommended for the acute febrile stage, but it does not need to be strict. The chorea is transient and will resolve without treatment.

34. In which situation is there the greatest risk that a newborn infant will have a congenital heart defect (CHD)? a. Trisomy 21 detected on amniocentesis b. Family history of myocardial infarction c. Father has type 1 diabetes mellitus d. Older sibling born with Turner's syndrome

ANS: A The incidence of congenital heart disease is approximately 50% in children with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome). A family history of congenital heart disease, not acquired heart disease, increases the risk of giving birth to a child with CHD. Infants born to mothers who are insulin dependent have an increased risk of CHD. Infants identified as having certain genetic defects, such as Turner's syndrome, have a higher incidence of CHD.

49. The nurse is caring for an infant diagnosed with congestive heart disease (CHD). The nurse should plan which intervention to decrease cardiac demands? a. Organize nursing activities to allow for uninterrupted sleep b. Allow the infant to sleep through feedings during the night c. Wait for the infant to cry to show definite signs of hunger d. Discourage parents from rocking the infant

ANS: A The infant requires rest and conservation of energy for feeding. Every effort is made to organize nursing activities to allow for uninterrupted periods of sleep. Whenever possible, parents are encouraged to stay with their infant to provide the holding, rocking, and cuddling that help children sleep more soundly. To minimize disturbing the infant, changing bed linens and complete bathing are done only when necessary. Feeding is planned to accommodate the infant's sleep and wake patterns. The child is fed at the first sign of hunger, such as when sucking on fists, rather than waiting until he or she cries for a bottle because the stress of crying exhausts the limited energy supply. Because infants with CHD tire easily and may sleep through feedings, smaller feedings every 3 hours may be helpful.

45. The nurse is talking to a parent of an infant with heart failure about feeding the infant. Which statement about feeding the child is correct? a. "You may need to increase the caloric density of your infant's formula." b. "You should feed your baby every 2 hours." c. "You may need to increase the amount of formula your infant eats with each feeding." d. "You should place a nasal oxygen cannula on your infant during and after each feeding."

ANS: A The metabolic rate of infants with heart failure is greater because of poor cardiac function and increased heart and respiratory rates. Their caloric needs are greater than those of the average infants, yet their ability to take in the calories is diminished by their fatigue. Infants with heart failure should be fed every 3 hours; a 2-hour schedule does not allow for enough rest, and a 4-hour schedule is too long. Fluids must be carefully monitored because of the heart failure. Infants do not require supplemental oxygen with feedings.

31. The nurse knows that proper placement of the tocotransducer for electronic fetal monitoring is located: a. over the uterine fundus. b. on the fetal scalp. c. inside the uterus. d. over the mother's lower abdomen.

ANS: A The tocotransducer monitors uterine activity and should be placed over the fundus, where the most intensive uterine contractions occur. The tocotransducer is for external use.

29. In assisting with the two factors that have an effect on fetal status (i.e., pushing and positioning), nurses should: a. encourage the woman's cooperation in avoiding the supine position. b. advise the woman to avoid the semi-Fowler position. c. encourage the woman to hold her breath and tighten her abdominal muscles to produce a vaginal response. d. instruct the woman to open her mouth and close her glottis, letting air escape after the push.

ANS: A The woman should maintain a side-lying position. The semi-Fowler position is the recommended side-lying position with a lateral tilt to the uterus. The Valsalva maneuver, which encourages the woman to hold her breath and tighten her abdominal muscles, should be avoided. Both the mouth and glottis should be open, letting air escape during the push.

17. A new patient and her partner arrive in the labor, delivery, recovery, and after birth unit for the birth of their first child. You apply the electronic fetal monitor (EFM) to the woman. Her partner asks you to explain what is printing on the graph, referring to the EFM strip. He wants to know what the baby's heart rate should be. Your best response is: a. "Don't worry about that machine; that's my job." b. "The top line graphs the baby's heart rate. Generally the heart rate is between 110 and 160. The heart rate will fluctuate in response to what is happening during labor." c. "The top line graphs the baby's heart rate, and the bottom line lets me know how strong the contractions are." d. "Your doctor will explain all of that later."

ANS: B "The top line graphs the baby's heart rate. Generally the heart rate is between 110 and 160. The heart rate will fluctuate in response to what is happening during labor" educates the partner about fetal monitoring and provides support and information to alleviate his fears. "Don't worry about that machine; that's my job" discredits the partner's feelings and does not provide the teaching he is requesting. "The top line graphs the baby's heart rate, and the bottom line lets me know how strong the contractions are" provides inaccurate information and does not address the partner's concerns about the fetal heart rate. The EFM graphs the frequency and duration of the contractions, not the intensity. Nurses should take every opportunity to provide patient and family teaching, especially when information is requested.

29. What is one of the most frequent causes of hypovolemic shock in children? a. Myocardial infarction b. Blood loss c. Anaphylaxis d. Congenital heart disease

ANS: B Blood loss and extracellular fluid loss are two of the most frequent causes of hypovolemic shock in children. Myocardial infarction is rare in a child; if it occurred, the resulting shock would be cardiogenic, not hypovolemic. Anaphylaxis results in distributive shock from extreme allergy or hypersensitivity to a foreign substance. Congenital heart disease tends to contribute to hypervolemia, not hypovolemia.

12. As part of the treatment for congestive heart failure, the child takes the diuretic furosemide. As part of teaching home care, the nurse encourages the family to give the child foods such as bananas, oranges, and leafy vegetables. These foods are recommended because they are high in what electrolyte? a. Chlorides b. Potassium c. Sodium d. Zinc

ANS: B Diuretics that work on the proximal and distal renal tubules contribute to increased losses of potassium. The child's diet should be supplemented with potassium.

42. The nurse is preparing an adolescent for discharge after a cardiac catheterization. Which statement by the adolescent would indicate a need for further teaching? a. "I should avoid tub baths but may shower." b. "I have to stay on strict bed rest for 3 days." c. "I should remove the pressure dressing the day after the procedure." d. "I may attend school but should avoid exercise for several days."

ANS: B Encourage rest and quiet activities for the first 3 days and avoid strenuous exercise. The child does not need to be on strict bed rest for 3 days. Showers are recommended; children should avoid a tub bath. The pressure dressing is removed the day after the catheterization and replaced by an adhesive bandage to keep the area clean.

41. What is the initial goal for the treatment of secondary hypertension? a. Weight control and diet b. Treating the underlying disease c. Administration of digoxin d. Administration of b-adrenergic receptor blockers

ANS: B Identification of the underlying disease should be the first step in treating secondary hypertension. Weight control and diet are nonpharmacologic treatments for primary hypertension. Digoxin is indicated in the treatment of congestive heart failure. b-Adrenergic receptor blockers are indicated in the treatment of primary hypertension.

14. The nurse is caring for a child with persistent hypoxia secondary to a cardiac defect. The nurse recognizes that a risk of cerebrovascular accidents (strokes) exists. An important objective to decrease this risk is to achieve what result? a. Minimize seizures b. Prevent dehydration c. Promote cardiac output d. Reduce energy expenditure

ANS: B In children with persistent hypoxia, polycythemia develops. Dehydration must be prevented in hypoxemic children because it potentiates the risk of strokes. Minimizing seizures, promoting cardiac output, and reducing energy expenditure will not reduce the risk of cerebrovascular accidents.

31. Which clinical changes occur as a result of septic shock? a. Hypothermia b. Increased cardiac output c. Vasoconstriction d. Angioneurotic edema

ANS: B Increased cardiac output, which results in warm, flushed skin, is one of the manifestations of septic shock. Fever and chills are characteristic of septic shock. Vasodilation is more common in septic shock. Angioneurotic edema occurs as a manifestation in anaphylactic shock.

27. What correctly matches the type of deceleration with its likely cause? a. Early deceleration—umbilical cord compression b. Late deceleration—uteroplacental inefficiency c. Variable deceleration—head compression d. Prolonged deceleration—cause unknown

ANS: B Late deceleration is caused by uteroplacental inefficiency. Early deceleration is caused by head compression. Variable deceleration is caused by umbilical cord compression. Prolonged deceleration has a variety of either benign or critical causes.

13. An 8-month-old infant becomes hypercyanotic while blood is being drawn. What should be the nurse's first action? a. Assess for neurologic defects b. Place the child in the knee-chest position c. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation d. Prepare the family for imminent death

ANS: B The first action is to place the infant in the knee-chest position. Blow-by oxygen may be indicated. Neurologic defects are unlikely. The child should be assessed for airway, breathing, and circulation. Often calming the child and administering oxygen and morphine can alleviate the hypercyanotic spell; cardiopulmonary resuscitation is not necessary, and death is unlikely.

14. What three measures should the nurse implement to provide intrauterine resuscitation? Select the response that best indicates the priority of actions that should be taken. a. Call the provider, reposition the mother, and perform a vaginal examination. b. Reposition the mother, increase intravenous (IV) fluid, and provide oxygen via face mask. c. Administer oxygen to the mother, increase IV fluid, and notify the care provider. d. Perform a vaginal examination, reposition the mother, and provide oxygen via face mask.

ANS: B Repositioning the mother, increasing intravenous (IV) fluid, and providing oxygen via face mask are correct nursing actions for intrauterine resuscitation. The nurse should initiate intrauterine resuscitation in an ABC manner, similar to basic life support. The first priority is to open the maternal and fetal vascular systems by repositioning the mother for improved perfusion. The second priority is to increase blood volume by increasing the IV fluid. The third priority is to optimize oxygenation of the circulatory volume by providing oxygen via face mask. If these interventions do not resolve the fetal heart rate issue quickly, the primary provider should be notified immediately.

44. A nurse is teaching nursing students the physiology of congenital heart defects. Which defect results in decreased pulmonary blood flow? a. Atrial septal defect b. Tetralogy of Fallot c. Ventricular septal defect d. Patent ductus arteriosus

ANS: B Tetralogy of Fallot results in decreased blood flow to the lungs. The pulmonic stenosis increases the pressure in the right ventricle, causing the blood to go from right to left across the interventricular septal defect. Atrial and ventricular septal defects and patent ductus arteriosus result in increased pulmonary blood flow.

24. During labor a fetus with an average heart rate of 135 beats/min over a 10-minute period would be considered to have: a. bradycardia. b. a normal baseline heart rate. c. tachycardia. d. hypoxia.

ANS: B The baseline heart rate is measured over 10 minutes; a normal range is 110 to 160 beats/min. Bradycardia is a fetal heart rate (FHR) below 110 beats/min for 10 minutes or longer. Tachycardia is an FHR over 160 beats/min for 10 minutes or longer. Hypoxia is an inadequate supply of oxygen; no indication of this condition exists with a baseline heart rate in the normal range.

16. What should the nurse consider when preparing a school-age child and the family for heart surgery? a. Not showing unfamiliar equipment b. Letting child hear the sounds of an electrocardiograph monitor c. Avoiding mentioning postoperative discomfort and interventions d. Explaining that an endotracheal tube will not be needed if the surgery goes well

ANS: B The child and family should be exposed to the sights and sounds of the intensive care unit. All positive, nonfrightening aspects of the environment are emphasized. The child should be shown unfamiliar equipment, and its use should be demonstrated on a doll. Carefully prepare the child for the postoperative experience, including intravenous lines, incision, and endotracheal tube.

36. The nurse assessing a premature newborn infant auscultates a continuous machinery-like murmur. This finding is associated with which congenital heart defect? a. Pulmonary stenosis b. Patent ductus arteriosus c. Ventricular septal defect d. Coarctation of the aorta

ANS: B The classic murmur associated with patent ductus arteriosus is a machinery-like one that can be heard throughout both systole and diastole. A systolic ejection murmur that may be accompanied by a palpable thrill is a manifestation of pulmonary stenosis. The characteristic murmur associated with ventricular septal defect is a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur. A systolic murmur that is accompanied by an ejection click may be heard on auscultation when coarctation of the aorta is present.

23. What is the primary nursing intervention necessary to prevent bacterial endocarditis? a. Institute measures to prevent dental procedures. b. Counsel parents of high risk children about prophylactic antibiotics. c. Observe children for complications such as embolism and heart failure. d. Encourage restricted mobility in susceptible children.

ANS: B The objective of nursing care is to counsel the parents of high risk children about both the need for prophylactic antibiotics for dental procedures and the necessity of maintaining excellent oral health. The child's dentist should be aware of the child's cardiac condition. Dental procedures should be done to maintain a high level of oral health. Prophylactic antibiotics are necessary. Observing for complications and encouraging restricted mobility in susceptible children should be done, but maintaining good oral health and using prophylactic antibiotics are most important.

27. What is the leading cause of death after heart transplantation? a. Infection b. Rejection c. Cardiomyopathy d. Congestive heart failure

ANS: B The posttransplantation course is complex. The leading cause of death after cardiac transplantation is rejection. Infection is a continued risk secondary to the immunosuppression necessary to prevent rejection. Cardiomyopathy is one of the indications for cardiac transplant. Congestive heart failure is not a leading cause of death.

10. What is a common sign of digoxin toxicity? a. Seizures b. Vomiting c. Bradypnea d. Tachycardia

ANS: B Vomiting is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Seizures are not associated with digoxin toxicity. The child will have a slower heart rate, not respiratory rate.

1. A tiered system of categorizing FHR has been recommended by regulatory agencies. Nurses, midwives, and physicians who care for women in labor must have a working knowledge of fetal monitoring standards and understand the significance of each category. These categories include: (Select all that apply.) a. reassuring. b. Category I. c. Category II. d. nonreassuring. e. Category III.

ANS: B, C, E The three tiered system of FHR tracings include Category I, II, and III. Category I is a normal tracing requiring no action. Category II FHR tracings are indeterminate. This category includes tracings that do not meet Category I or III criteria. Category III tracings are abnormal and require immediate intervention.

32. A child is brought to the emergency department experiencing an anaphylactic reaction to a bee sting. While an airway is being established, what medication should the nurse prepare for immediate administration? a. Diphenhydramine b. Dopamine c. Epinephrine d. Calcium chloride

ANS: C After the first priority of establishing an airway, epinephrine is the drug of choice. Diphenhydramine is not a strong enough antihistamine for this severe a reaction. Dopamine and calcium chloride are not appropriate drugs for this type of reaction.

48. A preschool child is scheduled for an echocardiogram. Parents ask the nurse whether they can hold the child during the procedure. The nurse should answer with which response? a. "You will be able to hold your child during the procedure." b. "Your child can be active during the procedure, but can't sit in your lap." c. "Your child must lie quietly; sometimes a mild sedative is administered before the procedure." d. "The procedure is invasive so your child will be restrained during the echocardiogram."

ANS: C Although an echocardiogram is noninvasive, painless, and associated with no known side effects, it can be stressful for children. The child must lie quietly in the standard echocardiographic positions; crying, nursing, being held, or sitting up often leads to diagnostic errors or omissions. Therefore, infants and young children may need a mild sedative; older children benefit from psychologic preparation for the test. The distraction of a video or movie is often helpful.

4. Which defect results in increased pulmonary blood flow? a. Pulmonic stenosis b. Tricuspid atresia c. Atrial septal defect d. Transposition of the great arteries

ANS: C Atrial septal defect results in increased pulmonary blood flow. Blood flows from the left atrium (higher pressure) into the right atrium (lower pressure) and then to the lungs via the pulmonary artery. Pulmonic stenosis is an obstruction to blood flowing from the ventricles. Tricuspid atresia results in decreased pulmonary blood flow. Transposition of the great arteries results in mixed blood flow.

40. A nurse is teaching an adolescent about essential hypertension. The nurse knows that which of the following is correct? a. Primary hypertension should be treated with diuretics as soon as it is detected. b. Congenital heart defects are the most common cause of primary hypertension. c. Primary hypertension may be treated with weight reduction. d. Primary hypertension is not affected by exercise.

ANS: C Essential hypertension in children may be treated with weight reduction and exercise programs. If ineffective, pharmacologic intervention may be needed. Primary hypertension is considered an inherited disorder.

19. The nurse is caring for a child after heart surgery. What intervention should the nurse implement immediately if evidence is found of cardiac tamponade? a. Increase analgesia b. Apply warming blankets c. Immediately report this to the physician d. Encourage the child to cough, turn, and breathe deeply

ANS: C If evidence is noted of cardiac tamponade (blood or fluid in the pericardial space constricting the heart), the physician is notified immediately of this life-threatening complication. Increasing analgesia may be done before the physician drains the fluid, but the physician must be notified. Warming blankets are not indicated at this time. Encouraging the child to cough, turn, and breathe deeply should be deferred until after the evaluation by the physician.

18. What is an important nursing consideration when suctioning a young child who has had heart surgery? a. Perform suctioning at least every hour. b. Suction for no longer than 30 seconds at a time. c. Administer supplemental oxygen before and after suctioning. d. Expect symptoms of respiratory distress when suctioning.

ANS: C If suctioning is indicated, supplemental oxygen is administered with a manual resuscitation bag before and after the procedure to prevent hypoxia. Suctioning should be done only as indicated, not on a routine basis. The child should be suctioned for no more than 5 seconds at one time. Symptoms of respiratory distress are to be avoided by using the appropriate technique.

20. What intervention should be implemented prior to the removal of a child's chest tubes? a. Explain that it is not painful. b. Explain that only a Band-Aid will be needed. c. Administer analgesics before the procedure. d. Educate the patient to expect bright red drainage for several hours after removal.

ANS: C It is appropriate to prepare the child for the removal of chest tubes with analgesics. Short-acting medications can be used that are administered through an existing intravenous line. It is not a pain-free procedure. A sharp, momentary pain is felt, and this should not be misrepresented to the child. A petroleum gauze/airtight dressing is needed. Little or no drainage should be found on removal.

16. Which information obtained by the nurse who is admitting the patient for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) will be important to report to the health care provider before the MRI? a. The patient has an allergy to shellfish. b. The patient has a history of atherosclerosis. c. The patient has a permanent cardiac pacemaker. d. The patient took the prescribed heart medications today.

ANS: C MRI is contraindicated for patients with implanted metallic devices such as pacemakers. The other information does not affect whether or not the patient can have an MRI.

25. The nurse caring for the woman in labor should understand that increased variability of the fetal heart rate may be caused by: a. narcotics. b. barbiturates. c. methamphetamines. d. tranquilizers.

ANS: C Narcotics, barbiturates, and tranquilizers may be causes of decreased variability; methamphetamines may cause increased variability.

47. Which action by the school nurse is important in the prevention of rheumatic fever? a. Encourage routine cholesterol screenings. b. Conduct routine blood pressure screenings. c. Refer children with sore throats for throat cultures. d. Recommend salicylates instead of acetaminophen for minor discomforts.

ANS: C Nurses have a role in prevention—primarily in screening school-age children for sore throats caused by group A b-hemolytic streptococci. They can achieve this by actively participating in throat culture screening or by referring children with possible streptococcal sore throats for testing. Cholesterol and blood pressure screenings do not facilitate the recognition and treatment of group A b-hemolytic streptococci. Salicylates should be avoided routinely because of the risk of Reye's syndrome after viral illnesses.

7. Which term is used to describe a clinical manifestation of the systemic venous congestion that can occur with congestive heart failure? a. Tachypnea b. Tachycardia c. Peripheral edema d. Pale, cool extremities

ANS: C Peripheral edema, especially periorbital edema, is a clinical manifestation of systemic venous congestion. Tachypnea is a manifestation of pulmonary congestion. Tachycardia and pale, cool extremities are clinical manifestations of impaired myocardial function.

19. According to standard professional thinking, nurses should auscultate the fetal heart rate (FHR): a. every 15 minutes in the active phase of the first stage of labor in the absence of risk factors. b. every 20 minutes in the second stage, regardless of whether risk factors are present. c. before and after ambulation and rupture of membranes. d. more often in a woman's first pregnancy.

ANS: C The FHR should be auscultated before and after administration of medications and induction of anesthesia. In the active phase of the first stage of labor, the FHR should be auscultated every 30 minutes if no risk factors are involved; with risk factors it should be auscultated every 15 minutes. In the second stage of labor the FHR should be auscultated every 15 minutes if no risk factors are involved; with risk factors it should be auscultated every 5 minutes. The fetus of a first-time mother is automatically at greater risk.

6. What is best described as the inability of the heart to pump an adequate amount of blood to the systemic circulation at normal filling pressures? a. Pulmonary congestion b. Congenital heart defect c. Heart failure d. Systemic venous congestion

ANS: C The definition of heart failure is the inability of the heart to pump an adequate amount of blood to the systemic circulation at normal filling pressures to meet the metabolic demands of the body. Pulmonary congestion is an excessive accumulation of fluid in the lungs. Congenital heart defect is a malformation of the heart present at birth. Systemic venous congestion is an excessive accumulation of fluid in the systemic vasculature.

22. What is an advantage of external electronic fetal monitoring? a. The ultrasound transducer can accurately measure short-term variability and beat-to-beat changes in the fetal heart rate. b. The tocotransducer can measure and record the frequency, regularity, intensity, and approximate duration of uterine contractions (UCs). c. The tocotransducer is especially valuable for measuring uterine activity during the first stage of labor. d. Once correctly applied by the nurse, the transducer need not be repositioned even when the woman changes positions.

ANS: C The tocotransducer is especially valuable for measuring uterine activity during the first stage of labor, particularly when the membranes are intact. Short-term changes cannot be measured with this technology. The tocotransducer cannot measure and record the intensity of UCs. The transducer must be repositioned when the woman or fetus changes position.

3. A nurse is conducting discharge teaching to parents about the care of their infant after cardiac surgery. The nurse instructs the parents to notify the physician if what conditions occur? (Select all that apply.) a. Respiratory rate of 36 breaths/minute at rest b. Appetite slowly increasing c. Temperature above 37.7° C (100° F) d. New, frequent coughing e. Turning blue or bluer than normal

ANS: C, D, E The parents should be instructed to notify the physician after their infant's cardiac surgery for a temperature above 37.7° C (100° F); new, frequent coughing; and any episodes of the infant turning blue or bluer than normal. A respiratory rate of 36 breaths/minute at rest for an infant is within normal expectations, and it is expected that the appetite will increase slowly.

4. The nurse is conducting discharge teaching about signs and symptoms of heart failure to parents of an infant with a repaired tetralogy of Fallot. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Warm flushed extremities b. Weight loss c. Decreased urinary output d. Sweating (inappropriate) e. Anorexia

ANS: C, D, E The signs and symptoms of heart failure include decreased urinary output, sweating, and poor feeding. Other signs include pale, cool extremities, not warm and flushed, and weight gain, not weight loss.

2. Which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to see as shock progresses in a child and decompensated develops? (Select all that apply.) a. Thirst and diminished urinary output b. Irritability and apprehension c. Cool extremities and decreased skin turgor d. Confusion and somnolence e. Normal blood pressure and narrowing pulse pressure f. Tachypnea and poor capillary refill time

ANS: C, D, F Cool extremities, decreased skin turgor, confusion, somnolence, tachypnea, and poor capillary refill time are beginning signs of decompensated shock.

2. The baseline fetal heart rate (FHR) is the average rate during a 10-minute segment. Changes in FHR are categorized as periodic or episodic. These patterns include both accelerations and decelerations. The labor nurse is evaluating the patient's most recent 10-minute segment on the monitor strip and notes a late deceleration. This is likely to be caused by which physiologic alteration? (Select all that apply.) a. Spontaneous fetal movement b. Compression of the fetal head c. Placental abruption d. Cord around the baby's neck e. Maternal supine hypotension

ANS: C, E Late decelerations are almost always caused by uteroplacental insufficiency. Insufficiency is caused by uterine tachysystole, maternal hypotension, epidural or spinal anesthesia, IUGR, intraamniotic infection, or placental abruption. Spontaneous fetal movement, vaginal examination, fetal scalp stimulation, fetal reaction to external sounds, uterine contractions, fundal pressure and abdominal palpation are all likely to cause accelerations of the FHR. Early decelerations are most often the result of fetal head compression and may be caused by uterine contractions, fundal pressure, vaginal examination, and placement of an internal electrode. A variable deceleration is likely caused by umbilical cord compression. This may happen when the umbilical cord is around the baby's neck, arm, leg, or other body part or when there is a short cord, a knot in the cord, or a prolapsed cord.

1. Nursing interventions for the child after a cardiac catheterization include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Allow ambulation as tolerated. b. Monitor vital signs every 2 hours. c. Assess the affected extremity for temperature and color. d. Check pulses above the catheterization site for equality and symmetry. e. Remove pressure dressing after 4 hours. f. Maintain a patent peripheral intravenous catheter until discharge.

ANS: C, F The extremity that was used for access for the cardiac catheterization must be checked for temperature and color. Coolness and blanching may indicate arterial occlusion. The child should have a patent peripheral intravenous line to ensure adequate hydration. Allowing ambulation, monitoring vital signs every 2 hours, checking pulses, and removing the pressure dressing after 4 hours are interventions that do not apply to a child after a cardiac catheterization.

11. The most common cause of decreased variability in the fetal heart rate (FHR) that lasts 30 minutes or less is: a. altered cerebral blood flow. b. fetal hypoxemia. c. umbilical cord compression. d. fetal sleep cycles.

ANS: D A temporary decrease in variability can occur when the fetus is in a sleep state. These sleep states do not usually last longer than 30 minutes. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow would result in early decelerations in the FHR. Fetal hypoxemia would be evidenced by tachycardia initially and then bradycardia. A persistent decrease or loss of FHR variability may be seen. Umbilical cord compression would result in variable decelerations in the FHR.

30. What type of shock is characterized by a hypersensitivity reaction causing massive vasodilation and capillary leaks, which may occur with drug or latex allergy? a. Neurogenic shock b. Cardiogenic shock c. Hypovolemic shock d. Anaphylactic shock

ANS: D Anaphylactic shock results from extreme allergy or hypersensitivity to a foreign substance. Neurogenic shock results from loss of neuronal control, such as the interruption of neuronal transmission that occurs from a spinal cord injury. Cardiogenic shock is decreased cardiac output. Hypovolemic shock is a reduction in the size of the vascular compartment, decreasing blood pressure, and low central venous pressure.

24. What is a common, serious complication of rheumatic fever? a. Seizures b. Cardiac arrhythmias c. Pulmonary hypertension d. Cardiac valve damage

ANS: D Cardiac valve damage is the most significant complication of rheumatic fever. Seizures, cardiac arrhythmias, and pulmonary hypertension are not common complications of rheumatic fever.

11. The parents of a young child with congestive heart failure tell the nurse that they are "nervous" about giving digoxin. The nurse's response should be based on knowing what information? a. It is a safe, frequently used drug. b. It is difficult to either overmedicate or undermedicate with digoxin. c. Parents lack the expertise necessary to administer digoxin. d. Parents must learn specific, important guidelines for administration of digoxin.

ANS: D Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic range. The margin of safety between therapeutic, toxic, and lethal doses is very small. Specific guidelines are available for parents to learn how to administer the drug safely and monitor for side effects. Digoxin is a frequently used drug, but it has a narrow therapeutic range. Very small amounts of the liquid are given to infants, which makes it easy to overmedicate or undermedicate. Parents may lack the necessary expertise to administer the drug at first, but with discharge preparation they should be prepared to administer the drug safely.

23. When assessing the relative advantages and disadvantages of internal and external electronic fetal monitoring, nurses comprehend that both: a. can be used when membranes are intact. b. measure the frequency, duration, and intensity of uterine contractions. c. may need to rely on the woman to indicate when uterine activity (UA) is occurring. d. can be used during the antepartum and intrapartum periods.

ANS: D External monitoring can be used in both periods; internal monitoring can be used only in the intrapartum period. For internal monitoring the membranes must have ruptured, and the cervix must be sufficiently dilated. Internal monitoring measures the intensity of contractions; external monitoring cannot do this. With external monitoring, the woman may need to alert the nurse that UA is occurring; internal monitoring does not require this.

26. When discussing hyperlipidemia with a group of adolescents, the nurse should explain that high levels of what substance are thought to protect against cardiovascular disease? a. Cholesterol b. Triglycerides c. Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) d. High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)

ANS: D HDLs contain very low concentrations of triglycerides, relatively little cholesterol, and high levels of proteins. It is thought that HDLs protect against cardiovascular disease. Cholesterol, triglycerides, and LDLs do not protect against cardiovascular disease.

28. When caring for the child with Kawasaki disease, the nurse should understand that principle of care? a. The child's fever is usually responsive to antibiotics within 48 hours. b. The principal area of involvement is the joints. c. Aspirin is contraindicated. d. Therapeutic management includes administration of gamma globulin and aspirin.

ANS: D High-dose intravenous gamma globulin and aspirin therapy are indicated to reduce the incidence of coronary artery abnormalities when given within the first 10 days of the illness. The fever of Kawasaki disease is unresponsive to antibiotics and antipyretics. Involvement of mucous membranes and conjunctiva, changes in the extremities, and cardiac involvement are seen.

3. The nurse is caring for a school-age girl who has had a cardiac catheterization. The child tells the nurse that her bandage is "too wet." The nurse finds the bandage and bed soaked with blood. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action? a. Notify the physician. b. Apply a new bandage with more pressure. c. Place the child in the Trendelenburg position. d. Apply direct pressure above the catheterization site.

ANS: D If bleeding occurs, direct continuous pressure is applied 2.5 cm (1 inch) above the percutaneous skin site to localize pressure over the vessel puncture. Notifying the physician and applying a new bandage with more pressure can be done after pressure is applied. The nurse can have someone else notify the physician while the pressure is being maintained. The Trendelenburg position would not be helpful; it would increase the drainage from the lower extremities.

17. Seventy-two hours after cardiac surgery, a young child has a temperature of 37.7° C (101° F). The nurse should initially implement which intervention? a. Keep the child warm with blankets b. Apply a hypothermia blanket c. Record the temperature on nurses' notes d. Report findings to physician

ANS: D In the first 24 to 48 hours after surgery, the body temperature may increase to 37.7° C (100° F) as part of the inflammatory response to tissue trauma. If the temperature is higher or an elevated temperature continues after this period, it is most likely a sign of an infection and immediate investigation is indicated. Blankets should be removed from the child to keep the temperature from increasing. A hypothermia blanket is not indicated for this level of temperature. The temperature should be recorded, but the physician must be notified for evaluation.

5. To determine the effects of therapy for a patient who is being treated for heart failure, which laboratory test result will the nurse plan to review? a. Troponin c. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) b. Homocysteine (Hcy) d. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

ANS: D Increased levels of BNP are a marker for heart failure. The other laboratory results would be used to assess for myocardial infarction (troponin) or risk for coronary artery disease (Hcy and LDL).

10. Which fetal heart rate (FHR) finding would concern the nurse during labor? a. Accelerations with fetal movement b. Early decelerations c. An average FHR of 126 beats/min d. Late decelerations

ANS: D Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency and are associated with fetal hypoxemia. They are considered ominous if persistent and uncorrected. Accelerations in the FHR are an indication of fetal well-being. Early decelerations in the FHR are associated with head compression as the fetus descends into the maternal pelvic outlet; they generally are not a concern during normal labor.

20. When using intermittent auscultation (IA) for fetal heart rate, nurses should be aware that: a. they can be expected to cover only two or three patients when IA is the primary method of fetal assessment. b. the best course is to use the descriptive terms associated with electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) when documenting results. c. if the heartbeat cannot be found immediately, a shift must be made to EFM. d. ultrasound can be used to find the fetal heartbeat and reassure the mother if initial difficulty was a factor.

ANS: D Locating fetal heartbeats often takes time. Mothers can be reassured verbally and by the ultrasound pictures if ultrasound is used to help locate the heartbeat. When used as the primary method of fetal assessment, auscultation requires a nurse-to-patient ratio of one to one. Documentation should use only terms that can be numerically defined; the usual visual descriptions of EFM are inappropriate.

16. As a perinatal nurse you realize that a fetal heart rate that is tachycardic, is bradycardic, or has late decelerations or loss of variability is nonreassuring and is associated with: a. hypotension. b. cord compression. c. maternal drug use. d. hypoxemia.

ANS: D Nonreassuring heart rate patterns are associated with fetal hypoxemia. Fetal bradycardia may be associated with maternal hypotension. Fetal variable decelerations are associated with cord compression. Maternal drug use is associated with fetal tachycardia.

2. José is 4 year old. Preoperative teaching for a 4-year-old child scheduled for a cardiac catheterization should be done with what primary consideration in mind? a. Directed at his parents because he is too young to understand. b. Detailed in regard to the actual procedures so he will know what to expect. c. Done several days before the procedure so that he will be prepared. d. Adapted to his level of development so that he can understand.

ANS: D Preoperative teaching should always be directed at the child's stage of development. The caregivers also benefit from the same explanations. The parents may ask additional questions, which should be answered, but the child needs to receive the information based on developmental level. This age-group does not understand in-depth descriptions. Preschoolers should be prepared close to the time of the cardiac catheterization.

21. What is the most common causative agent of bacterial endocarditis? a. Staphylococcus albus b. Streptococcus hemolyticus c. Staphylococcus albicans d. Streptococcus viridans

ANS: D Staphylococcus viridans is the most common causative agent in bacterial (infective) endocarditis. Staphylococcus albus, Streptococcus hemolyticus, and Staphylococcus albicans are not common causative agents.

9. While evaluating an external monitor tracing of a woman in active labor whose labor is being induced, the nurse notes that the fetal heart rate (FHR) begins to decelerate at the onset of several contractions and returns to baseline before each contraction ends. The nurse should: a. change the woman's position. b. discontinue the oxytocin infusion. c. insert an internal monitor. d. document the finding in the patient's record.

ANS: D The FHR indicates early decelerations, which are not an ominous sign and do not require any intervention. The nurse should simply document these findings.

33. Which postoperative intervention should be questioned for a child after a cardiac catheterization? a. Continue intravenous (IV) fluids until the infant is tolerating oral fluids. b. Check the dressing for bleeding. c. Assess peripheral circulation on the affected extremity. d. Keep the affected leg flexed and elevated.

ANS: D The child should be positioned with the affected leg straight for 4 to 6 hours after the procedure. IV fluid administration continues until the child is taking and retaining adequate amounts of oral fluids. The insertion site dressing should be observed frequently for bleeding. The nurse should also look under the child to check for pooled blood. Peripheral perfusion is monitored after catheterization. Distal pulses should be palpable, although they may be weaker than in the contralateral extremity.

37. What is an expected assessment finding in a child with coarctation of the aorta? a. Orthostatic hypotension b. Systolic hypertension in the lower extremities c. Blood pressure higher on the left side of the body d. Disparity in blood pressure between the upper and lower extremities

ANS: D The classic finding in children with coarctation of the aorta is a disparity in pulses and blood pressures between the upper and lower extremities. Orthostatic hypotension is not present with coarctation of the aorta. Systolic hypertension may be detected in the upper extremities. The left arm may not accurately reflect systolic hypertension because the left subclavian artery can be involved in the coarctation.

43. Surgical closure of the ductus arteriosus would bring about what desired effect? a. Stop the loss of unoxygenated blood to the systemic circulation. b. Decrease the edema in legs and feet. c. Increase the oxygenation of blood. d. Prevent the return of oxygenated blood to the lungs.

ANS: D The ductus arteriosus allows blood to flow from the higher-pressure aorta to the lower-pressure pulmonary artery, causing a right-to-left shunt. If this is surgically closed, no additional oxygenated blood (from the aorta) will return to the lungs through the pulmonary artery. The aorta carries oxygenated blood to the systemic circulation. Because of the higher pressure in the aorta, blood is shunted into the pulmonary artery and the pulmonary circulation. Edema in the legs and feet is usually a sign of heart failure. This repair would not directly affect the edema. Increasing the oxygenation of blood would not interfere with the return of oxygenated blood to the lungs.

28. A nurse may be called on to stimulate the fetal scalp: a. as part of fetal scalp blood sampling. b. in response to tocolysis. c. in preparation for fetal oxygen saturation monitoring. d. to elicit an acceleration in the fetal heart rate (FHR).

ANS: D The scalp can be stimulated using digital pressure during a vaginal examination. Fetal scalp blood sampling involves swabbing the scalp with disinfectant before a sample is collected. The nurse would stimulate the fetal scalp to elicit an acceleration of the FHR. Tocolysis is relaxation of the uterus. Fetal oxygen saturation monitoring involves the insertion of a sensor.

13. You are evaluating the fetal monitor tracing of your patient, who is in active labor. Suddenly you see the fetal heart rate (FHR) drop from its baseline of 125 beats/min down to 80 beats/min. You reposition the mother, provide oxygen, increase intravenous (IV) fluid, and perform a vaginal examination. The cervix has not changed. Five minutes have passed, and the fetal heart rate remains in the 80s. What additional nursing measures should you take? a. Call for staff assistance. b. Insert a Foley catheter. c. Start Pitocin. d. Notify the care provider immediately.

ANS: D To relieve an FHR deceleration, the nurse can reposition the mother, increase IV fluid, and provide oxygen. If oxytocin is infusing, it should be discontinued. If the FHR does not resolve, the primary care provider should be notified immediately. Inserting a Foley catheter is an inappropriate nursing action. If the FHR were to continue in a nonreassuring pattern, a cesarean section could be warranted, which would require a Foley catheter. However, the physician must make that determination. Pitocin may place additional stress on the fetus.

8. A patient who has had chest pain for several hours is admitted with a diagnosis of rule out acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to best determine whether the patient has had an AMI? a. Myoglobin b. Homocysteine c. C-reactive protein d. Cardiac-specific troponin

ANS: D Troponin levels increase about 4 to 6 hours after the onset of myocardial infarction (MI) and are highly specific indicators for MI. Myoglobin is released within 2 hours of MI, but it lacks specificity and its use is limited. The other laboratory data are useful in determining the patient's risk for developing coronary artery disease but are not helpful in determining whether an acute MI is in progress.

6. While doing the hospital admission assessment for a thin older adult, the nurse observes pulsation of the abdominal aorta in the epigastric area. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Teach the patient about aneurysms. b. Notify the hospital rapid response team. c. Instruct the patient to remain on bed rest. d. Document the finding in the patient chart.

ANS: D Visible pulsation of the abdominal aorta is commonly observed in the epigastric area for thin individuals. The nurse should simply document the finding in the admission assessment. Unless there are other abnormal findings (such as a bruit, pain, or hyper/hypotension) associated with the pulsation, the other actions are not necessary.

30. Which electrocardiographic (ECG) change is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider when caring for a patient with chest pain? a. Inverted P wave b. Sinus tachycardia c. ST-segment elevation d. First-degree atrioventricular block

c. ST-segment elevation The patient is likely to be experiencing an ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction. Immediate therapy with percutaneous coronary intervention or thrombolytic medication is indicated to minimize myocardial damage. The other ECG changes may also suggest a need for therapy but not as rapidly.

1. When preparing to defibrillate a patient, in which order will the nurse perform the following steps? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D, E].) a. Turn the defibrillator on. b. Deliver the electrical charge. c. Select the appropriate energy level. d. Place the hands-free, multifunction defibrillator pads on the patient's chest. e. Check the location of other staff and call out "all clear."

ANS: A, C, D, E, B This order will result in rapid defibrillation without endangering hospital staff.

21. Which assessment finding in a patient admitted with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) requires the most immediate action by the nurse? a. O2 saturation of 88% b. Weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) c. Heart rate of 106 beats/min d. Urine output of 50 mL over 2 hours

ANS: A A decrease in O2 saturation to less than 92% indicates hypoxemia, and the nurse should start supplemental O2 immediately. An increase in apical pulse rate, 1-kg weight gain, and decreases in urine output also indicate worsening heart failure and require nursing actions, but the low O2 saturation rate requires the most immediate nursing action.

9. A patient with dilated cardiomyopathy has new onset atrial fibrillation that has been unresponsive to drug therapy for several days. Teaching for this patient would include information about a. anticoagulant therapy. c. emergency cardioversion. b. permanent pacemakers. d. IV adenosine (Adenocard).

ANS: A Atrial fibrillation therapy that has persisted for more than 48 hours requires anticoagulant treatment for 3 weeks before attempting cardioversion. This is done to prevent embolization of clots from the atria. Cardioversion may be done after several weeks of anticoagulation therapy. Adenosine is not used to treat atrial fibrillation. Pacemakers are routinely used for patients with bradydysrhythmias. Information does not indicate that the patient has a slow heart rate.

8. After the nurse gives IV atropine to a patient with symptomatic type 1, second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, which finding indicates that the drug has been effective? a. Increase in the patient's heart rate b. Increase in strength of peripheral pulses c. Decrease in premature atrial contractions d. Decrease in premature ventricular contractions

ANS: A Atropine will increase the heart rate and conduction through the AV node. Because the drug increases electrical conduction, not cardiac contractility, the quality of the peripheral pulses is not used to evaluate the drug effectiveness. The patient does not have premature atrial or ventricular contractions.

33. When admitting a patient with a non-ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) to the intensive care unit, which action should the nurse perform first? a. Attach the heart monitor. b. Obtain the blood pressure. c. Assess the peripheral pulses. d. Auscultate the breath sounds.

ANS: A Because dysrhythmias are the most common complication of myocardial infarction (MI), the first action should be to place the patient on a heart monitor. The other actions are also important and should be accomplished as quickly as possible.

25. The nurse is caring for a patient who was admitted to the coronary care unit following an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) and percutaneous coronary intervention the previous day. Teaching for this patient would include a. when cardiac rehabilitation will begin. b. the typical emotional responses to AMI. c. information regarding discharge medications. d. the pathophysiology of coronary artery disease.

ANS: A Early after an AMI, the patient will want to know when resumption of usual activities can be expected. At this time, the patient's anxiety level or denial will interfere with good understanding of complex information such as the pathophysiology of coronary artery disease. Teaching about discharge medications should be done closer to discharge. The nurse should support the patient by decreasing anxiety rather than discussing the typical emotional responses to myocardial infarction.

2. The nurse caring for the laboring woman should understand that early decelerations are caused by: a. altered fetal cerebral blood flow. b. umbilical cord compression. c. uteroplacental insufficiency. d. spontaneous rupture of membranes.

ANS: A Early decelerations are the fetus's response to fetal head compression. Variable decelerations are associated with umbilical cord compression. Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency. Spontaneous rupture of membranes has no bearing on the fetal heart rate unless the umbilical cord prolapses, which would result in variable or prolonged bradycardia.

3. The nurse providing care for the laboring woman comprehends that accelerations with fetal movement: a. are reassuring. b. are caused by umbilical cord compression. c. warrant close observation. d. are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency.

ANS: A Episodic accelerations in the fetal heart rate (FHR) occur during fetal movement and are indications of fetal well-being. Umbilical cord compression results in variable decelerations in the FHR. Accelerations in the FHR are an indication of fetal well-being and do not warrant close observation. Uteroplacental insufficiency would result in late decelerations in the FHR.

14. A 20-yr-old patient has a mandatory electrocardiogram (ECG) before participating on a college soccer team and is found to have sinus bradycardia, rate 52. Blood pressure (BP) is 114/54 mm Hg, and the student denies any health problems. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Allow the student to participate on the soccer team. b. Refer the student to a cardiologist for further testing. c. Tell the student to stop playing immediately if any dyspnea occurs. d. Obtain more detailed information about the student's family health history.

ANS: A In an aerobically trained individual, sinus bradycardia is normal. The student's normal BP and negative health history indicate that there is no need for a cardiology referral or for more detailed information about the family's health history. Dyspnea during an aerobic activity such as soccer is normal.

8. The nurse caring for a laboring woman is aware that maternal cardiac output can be increased by: a. change in position. b. oxytocin administration. c. regional anesthesia. d. intravenous analgesic.

ANS: A Maternal supine hypotension syndrome is caused by the weight and pressure of the gravid uterus on the ascending vena cava when the woman is in a supine position. This reduces venous return to the woman's heart, as well as cardiac output, and subsequently reduces her blood pressure. The nurse can encourage the woman to change positions and avoid the supine position. Oxytocin administration, regional anesthesia, and intravenous analgesic may reduce maternal cardiac output.

19. A patient in the intensive care unit with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) complains of severe dyspnea and is anxious, tachypneic, and tachycardic. Several drugs have been ordered for the patient. The nurse's priority action will be to a. give PRN IV morphine sulfate 4 mg. b. give PRN IV diazepam (Valium) 2.5 mg. c. increase nitroglycerin infusion by 5 mcg/min. d. increase dopamine infusion by 2 mcg/kg/min

ANS: A Morphine improves alveolar gas exchange, improves cardiac output by reducing ventricular preload and afterload, decreases anxiety, and assists in reducing the subjective feeling of dyspnea. Diazepam may decrease patient anxiety, but it will not improve the cardiac output or gas exchange. Increasing the dopamine may improve cardiac output, but it will also increase the heart rate and myocardial oxygen consumption. Nitroglycerin will improve cardiac output and may be appropriate for this patient, but it will not directly reduce anxiety and will not act as quickly as morphine to decrease dyspnea.

14. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care when caring for a patient admitted with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) who is receiving nesiritide (Natrecor)? a. Monitor blood pressure frequently. b. Encourage patient to ambulate in room. c. Titrate nesiritide slowly before stopping. d. Teach patient about home use of the drug.

ANS: A Nesiritide is a potent arterial and venous dilator, and the major adverse effect is hypotension. Because the patient is likely to have orthostatic hypotension, the patient should not be encouraged to ambulate. Nesiritide does not require titration and is used for ADHF but not in a home setting.

6. During a visit to a 78-yr-old patient with chronic heart failure, the home care nurse finds that the patient has ankle edema, a 2-kg weight gain over the past 2 days, and complains of "feeling too tired to get out of bed." Based on these data, a correct nursing diagnosis for the patient is a. activity intolerance related to fatigue. b. impaired skin integrity related to edema. c. disturbed body image related to weight gain. d. impaired gas exchange related to dyspnea on exertion.

ANS: A The patient's statement supports the diagnosis of activity intolerance. There are no data to support the other diagnoses, although the nurse will need to assess for additional patient problems.

21. A few days after experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI) and successful percutaneous coronary intervention, the patient states, "It was just a little chest pain. As soon as I get out of here, I'm going for my vacation as planned." Which reply would be most appropriate for the nurse to make? a. "What do you think caused your chest pain?" b. "Where are you planning to go for your vacation?" c. "Sometimes plans need to change after a heart attack." d. "Recovery from a heart attack takes at least a few weeks."

ANS: A When the patient is experiencing denial, the nurse should assist the patient in testing reality until the patient has progressed beyond this step of the emotional adjustment to MI. Asking the patient about vacation plans reinforces the patient's plan, which is not appropriate in the immediate post-MI period. Reminding the patient in denial about the MI is likely to make the patient angry and lead to distrust of the nursing staff.

10. When auscultating over the patient's abdominal aorta, the nurse hears a loud humming sound. The nurse documents this finding as a a. thrill. b. bruit. c. murmur. d. normal finding.

ANS: B A bruit is the sound created by turbulent blood flow in an artery. Thrills are palpable vibrations felt when there is turbulent blood flow through the heart or in a blood vessel. A murmur is the sound caused by turbulent blood flow through the heart. Auscultating a bruit in an artery is not normal and indicates pathology.

15. After an acute myocardial infarction (AMI), a patient ambulates in the hospital hallway. When the nurse evaluates the patient's response to the activity, which data would indicate that the exercise level should be decreased? a. O2 saturation drops from 99% to 95%. b. Heart rate increases from 66 to 98 beats/min. c. Respiratory rate goes from 14 to 20 breaths/min. d. Blood pressure (BP) changes from 118/60 to 126/68 mm Hg.

ANS: B A change in heart rate of more than 20 beats over the resting heart rate indicates that the patient should stop and rest. The increases in BP and respiratory rate, and the slight decrease in O2 saturation, are normal responses to exercise.

27. Which action by a new registered nurse (RN) who is orienting to the telemetry unit indicates a good understanding of the treatment of heart dysrhythmias? a. Prepares defibrillator settings at 360 joules for a patient whose monitor shows asystole. b. Injects IV adenosine (Adenocard) over 2 seconds to a patient with supraventricular tachycardia c. Turns the synchronizer switch to the "on" position before defibrillating a patient with ventricular fibrillation d. Gives the prescribed dose of diltiazem (Cardizem) to a patient with new-onset type II second degree AV block

ANS: B Adenosine must be given over 1 to 2 seconds to be effective. The other actions indicate a need for more teaching about treatment of heart dysrhythmias. The RN should hold the diltiazem until discussing it with the health care provider. The treatment for asystole is immediate CPR. The synchronizer switch should be "off" when defibrillating.

39. To improve the physical activity level for a mildly obese 71-yr-old patient, which action should the nurse plan to take? a. Stress that weight loss is a major benefit of increased exercise. b. Determine what kind of physical activities the patient usually enjoys. c. Tell the patient that older adults should exercise for no more than 20 minutes at a time. d. Teach the patient to include a short warm-up period at the beginning of physical activity.

ANS: B Because patients are more likely to continue physical activities that they already enjoy, the nurse will plan to ask the patient about preferred activities. The goal for older adults is 30 minutes of moderate activity on most days. Older adults should plan for a longer warm-up period. Benefits of exercises, such as improved activity tolerance, should be emphasized rather than aiming for significant weight loss in older mildly obese adults.

11. The nurse has received the laboratory results for a patient who developed chest pain 4 hours ago and may be having a myocardial infarction. The laboratory test result most helpful in indicating myocardial damage will be a. myoglobin. b. troponins T and I. c. homocysteine (Hcy) d. creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB).

ANS: B Cardiac troponins start to elevate 4 to 6 hours after myocardial injury and are highly specific to myocardium. They are the preferred diagnostic marker for myocardial infarction. Myoglobin rises in response to myocardial injury within 30 to 60 minutes. It is rapidly cleared from the body, thus limiting its use in the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol is useful in assessing cardiovascular risk but is not helpful in determining whether a patient is having an acute myocardial infarction. Creatine kinase (CK-MB) is specific to myocardial injury and infarction and increases 4 to 6 hours after the infarction occurs. It is often trended with troponin levels. Homocysteine (Hcy) is an amino acid that is produced during protein catabolism. Elevated Hcy levels can be either hereditary or acquired from dietary deficiencies of vitamin B6, cobalamin (vitamin B12), or folate. Elevated levels of Hcy have been linked to a higher risk of CVD, peripheral vascular disease, and stroke.

3. The nurse is admitting a patient who has chest pain. Which assessment data suggest that the pain is caused by an acute myocardial infarction (AMI)? a. The pain increases with deep breathing. b. The pain has lasted longer than 30 minutes. c. The pain is relieved after the patient takes nitroglycerin. d. The pain is reproducible when the patient raises the arms.

ANS: B Chest pain that lasts for 20 minutes or more is characteristic of AMI. Changes in pain that occur with raising the arms or with deep breathing are more typical of musculoskeletal pain or pericarditis. Stable angina is usually relieved when the patient takes nitroglycerin.

6. A patient has a sinus rhythm and a heart rate of 72 beats/min. The nurse determines that the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. The most appropriate intervention by the nurse would be to a. notify the health care provider immediately. b. document the finding and monitor the patient. c. give atropine per agency dysrhythmia protocol. d. prepare the patient for temporary pacemaker insertion.

ANS: B First-degree atrioventricular block is asymptomatic and requires ongoing monitoring because it may progress to more serious forms of heart block. The rate is normal, so there is no indication that atropine is needed. Immediate notification of the health care provider about an asymptomatic rhythm is not necessary.

16. A patient has ST segment changes that suggest an acute inferior wall myocardial infarction. Which lead would be best for monitoring the patient? a. I c. V2 b. II d. V6

ANS: B Leads II, III, and AVF reflect the inferior area of the heart and the ST segment changes. Lead II will best capture any electrocardiographic changes that indicate further damage to the myocardium. The other leads do not reflect the inferior part of the myocardial wall and will not provide data about further ischemic changes in that area.

43. After reviewing a patient's history, vital signs, physical assessment, and laboratory data, which information shown in the accompanying figure is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Hyperglycemia b. Bilateral crackles c. Q waves on ECG d. Elevated troponin

ANS: B Pulmonary congestion suggests that the patient may be developing heart failure, a complication of myocardial infarction (MI). Hyperglycemia is common after MI because of the inflammatory process that occurs with tissue necrosis. Troponin levels will be elevated for several days after MI. Q waves often develop with ST-segment-elevation MI.

23. A patient who is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) asks the nurse when sexual intercourse can be resumed. Which response by the nurse is best? a. "Most patients are able to enjoy intercourse without any complications." b. "Sexual activity uses about as much energy as climbing two flights of stairs." c. "The doctor will provide sexual guidelines when your heart is strong enough." d. "Holding and cuddling are good ways to maintain intimacy after a heart attack."

ANS: B Sexual activity places about as much physical stress on the cardiovascular system as most moderate-energy activities such as climbing two flights of stairs. The other responses do not directly address the patient's question or may not be accurate for this patient.

14. A registered nurse (RN) is observing a student nurse who is doing a physical assessment on a patient. The RN will need to intervene immediately if the student nurse a. presses on the skin over the tibia for 10 seconds to check for edema. b. palpates both carotid arteries simultaneously to compare pulse quality. c. documents a murmur heard along the right sternal border as a pulmonic murmur. d. places the patient in the left lateral position to check for the point of maximal impulse.

ANS: B The carotid pulses should never be palpated at the same time to avoid vagal stimulation, dysrhythmias, and decreased cerebral blood flow. The other assessment techniques also need to be corrected. However, they are not dangerous to the patient.

19. When admitting a patient for a cardiac catheterization and coronary angiogram, which information about the patient is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient's pedal pulses are +1. b. The patient is allergic to shellfish. c. The patient had a heart attack 1 year ago. d. The patient has not eaten anything today.

ANS: B The contrast dye used for the procedure is iodine based, so patients who have shellfish allergies will require treatment with medications such as corticosteroids and antihistamines before the angiogram. The other information is also communicated to the health care provider but will not require a change in the usual precardiac catheterization orders or medications.

13. When titrating IV nitroglycerin for a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI), which action will the nurse take to evaluate the effectiveness of the drug? a. Monitor heart rate. b. Ask about chest pain. c. Check blood pressure. d. Observe for dysrhythmias.

ANS: B The goal of IV nitroglycerin administration in MI is relief of chest pain by improving the balance between myocardial oxygen supply and demand. The nurse will also monitor heart rate and blood pressure and observe for dysrhythmias, but these parameters will not indicate whether the medication is effective.

27. A patient who is being admitted to the emergency department with intermittent chest pain gives the following list of daily medications to the nurse. Which medication has the most immediate implications for the patient's care? a. captopril b. sildenafil (Viagra) c. furosemide (Lasix) d. warfarin (Coumadin)

ANS: B The nurse will need to avoid giving nitrates to the patient because nitrate administration is contraindicated in patients who are using sildenafil because of the risk of severe hypotension caused by vasodilation. The other home medications should also be documented and reported to the health care provider but do not have as immediate an impact on decisions about the patient's treatment.

19. Three days after experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI), a patient who is scheduled for discharge asks for assistance with hygiene activities, saying, "I am too nervous about my heart to be alone while I get washed up." Based on this information, which nursing diagnosis is appropriate?\ a. Activity intolerance related to weakness b. Anxiety related to change in health status c. Denial related to lack of acceptance of the MI d. Altered body image related to cardiac disease

ANS: B The patient data indicate anxiety about the impact of the MI is a concern. The other nursing diagnoses may be appropriate for some patients after an MI, but the data for this patient do not support denial, activity intolerance, or altered body image.

20. After receiving change-of-shift report on four patients admitted to a heart failure unit, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A patient who reported dizziness after receiving the first dose of captopril b. A patient who is cool and clammy, with new-onset confusion and restlessness c. A patient who has crackles bilaterally in the lung bases and is receiving oxygen. d. A patient who is receiving IV nesiritide (Natrecor) and has a blood pressure of 100/62

ANS: B The patient who has "wet-cold" clinical manifestations of heart failure is perfusing inadequately and needs rapid assessment and changes in management. The other patients also should be assessed as quickly as possible but do not have indications of severe decreases in tissue perfusion.

18. A patient's heart monitor shows a pattern of undulations of varying contours and amplitude with no measurable ECG pattern. The patient is unconscious, apneic, and pulseless. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Give epinephrine (Adrenalin) IV. b. Perform immediate defibrillation. c. Prepare for endotracheal intubation. d. Ventilate with a bag-valve-mask device.

ANS: B The patient's rhythm and assessment indicate ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest; the initial action should be to defibrillate. If a defibrillator is not immediately available or is unsuccessful in converting the patient to a better rhythm, begin chest compressions. The other actions may also be appropriate but not first.

26. Which nursing action can the registered nurse (RN) delegate to experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) working as telemetry technicians on the cardiac care unit? a. Decide whether a patient's heart rate of 116 requires urgent treatment. b. Observe heart rhythms for multiple patients who have telemetry monitoring. c. Monitor a patient's level of consciousness during synchronized cardioversion. d. Select the best lead for monitoring a patient admitted with acute coronary syndrome.

ANS: B UAP serving as telemetry technicians can monitor heart rhythms for individuals or groups of patients. Nursing actions such as assessment and choice of the most appropriate lead based on ST segment elevation location require RN-level education and scope of practice.

4. The nurse providing care for the laboring woman realizes that variable fetal heart rate (FHR) decelerations are caused by: a. altered fetal cerebral blood flow. b. umbilical cord compression. c. uteroplacental insufficiency. d. fetal hypoxemia.

ANS: B Variable decelerations can occur any time during the uterine contracting phase and are caused by compression of the umbilical cord. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow would result in early decelerations in the FHR. Uteroplacental insufficiency would result in late decelerations in the FHR. Fetal hypoxemia would result in tachycardia initially and then bradycardia if hypoxia continues.

5. The nurse notes that a patient's heart monitor shows that every other beat is earlier than expected, has no visible P wave, and has a QRS complex that is wide and bizarre in shape. How will the nurse document the rhythm? a. Ventricular couplets b. Ventricular bigeminy c. Ventricular R-on-T phenomenon d. Multifocal premature ventricular contractions

ANS: B Ventricular bigeminy describes a rhythm in which every other QRS complex is wide and bizarre looking. Pairs of wide QRS complexes are described as ventricular couplets. There is no indication that the premature ventricular contractions are multifocal or that the R-on-T phenomenon is occurring.

13. Which action should the nurse perform when preparing a patient with supraventricular tachycardia for cardioversion who is alert and has a blood pressure of 110/66 mm Hg? a. Turn the synchronizer switch to the "off" position. b. Give a sedative before cardioversion is implemented. c. Set the defibrillator/cardioverter energy to 360 joules. d. Provide assisted ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device.

ANS: B When a patient has a nonemergency cardioversion, sedation is used just before the procedure. The synchronizer switch is turned "on" for cardioversion. The initial level of joules for cardioversion is low (e.g., 50). Assisted ventilations are not indicated for this patient.

22. When evaluating the effectiveness of preoperative teaching with a patient scheduled for coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery using the internal mammary artery, the nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the patient says which of the following? a. "They will circulate my blood with a machine during surgery." b. "I will have incisions in my leg where they will remove the vein." c. "They will use an artery near my heart to go around the area that is blocked." d. "I will need to take an aspirin every day after the surgery to keep the graft open."

ANS: B When the internal mammary artery is used there is no need to have a saphenous vein removed from the leg. The other statements by the patient are accurate and indicate that the teaching has been effective

8. When teaching the patient with newly diagnosed heart failure about a 2000-mg sodium diet, the nurse explains that foods to be restricted include a. canned and frozen fruits. b. yogurt and milk products. c. fresh or frozen vegetables. d. eggs and other high-protein foods.

ANS: B Yogurt and milk products (e.g., cheese) naturally contain a significant amount of sodium, and the intake of these should be limited for patients on a diet that limits sodium to 2000 mg daily. The other foods listed have minimal levels of sodium and can be eaten without restriction.

7. A patient is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization with coronary angiography. Before the test, the nurse informs the patient that a. it will be important not to move at all during the procedure. b. monitored anesthesia care will be provided during the procedure. c. a flushed feeling may be noticed when the contrast dye is injected. d. arterial pressure monitoring will be required for 24 hours after the test.

ANS: C A sensation of warmth or flushing is common when the contrast material is injected, which can be anxiety producing unless it has been discussed with the patient. The patient may receive a sedative drug before the procedure, but monitored anesthesia care is not used. Arterial pressure monitoring is not routinely used after the procedure to monitor blood pressure. The patient is not immobile during cardiac catheterization and may be asked to cough or take deep breaths.

13. Which diagnostic test will be most useful to the nurse in determining whether a patient admitted with acute shortness of breath has heart failure? a. Serum troponin b. Arterial blood gases c. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) d. 12-lead electrocardiogram

ANS: C B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is secreted when ventricular pressures increase, as they do with heart failure. Elevated BNP indicates a probable or very probable diagnosis of heart failure. A 12-lead electrocardiogram, arterial blood gases, and troponin may also be used in determining the causes or effects of heart failure but are not as clearly diagnostic of heart failure as BNP.

15. A patient with heart failure has a new order for captopril 12.5 mg PO. After giving the first dose and teaching the patient about the drug, which statement by the patient indicates that teaching has been effective? a. "I will be sure to take the medication with food." b. "I will need to eat more potassium-rich foods in my diet." c. "I will call for help when I need to get up to use the bathroom." d. "I will expect to feel more short of breath for the next few days."

ANS: C Captopril can cause hypotension, especially after the initial dose, so it is important that the patient not get up out of bed without assistance until the nurse has had a chance to evaluate the effect of the first dose. The angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are potassium sparing, and the nurse should not teach the patient to purposely increase sources of dietary potassium. Increased shortness of breath is expected with the initiation of b-adrenergic blocker therapy for heart failure, not for ACE inhibitor therapy. ACE inhibitors are best absorbed when taken an hour before eating.

17. When the nurse is monitoring a patient who is undergoing exercise (stress) testing on a treadmill, which assessment finding requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Patient complaint of feeling tired b. Sinus tachycardia at a rate of 110 beats/min c. Inversion of T waves on the electrocardiogram d. Blood pressure (BP) increase from 134/68 to 150/80 mm Hg

ANS: C ECG changes associated with coronary ischemia (such as T-wave inversions and ST segment depression) indicate that the myocardium is not getting adequate O2 delivery and that the exercise test should be terminated immediately. Increases in BP and heart rate are normal responses to aerobic exercise. Feeling tired is also normal as the intensity of exercise increases during the stress testing.

22. A patient has recently started on digoxin (Lanoxin) in addition to furosemide (Lasix) and captopril for the management of heart failure. Which assessment finding by the home health nurse is a priority to communicate to the health care provider? a. Presence of 1+ to 2+ edema in the feet and ankles b. Palpable liver edge 2 cm below the ribs on the right side c. Serum potassium level 3.0 mEq/L after 1 week of therapy d. Weight increase from 120 pounds to 122 pounds over 3 days

ANS: C Hypokalemia can predispose the patient to life-threatening dysrhythmias (e.g., premature ventricular contractions) and potentiate the actions of digoxin. Hypokalemia also increases the risk for digoxin toxicity, which can also cause life-threatening dysrhythmias. The other data indicate that the patient's heart failure requires more effective therapies, but they do not require nursing action as rapidly as the low serum potassium level. NORMAL POTASSIUM LEVEL 3.6 - 5.2

10. Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient who is scheduled for a radiofrequency catheter ablation for treatment of atrial flutter? a. The procedure prevents or minimizes the risk for sudden cardiac death. b. The procedure uses cold therapy to stop the formation of the flutter waves. c. The procedure uses electrical energy to destroy areas of the conduction system. d. The procedure stimulates the growth of new conduction pathways between the atria.

ANS: C Radiofrequency catheter ablation therapy uses electrical energy to "burn" or ablate areas of the conduction system as definitive treatment of atrial flutter (i.e., restore normal sinus rhythm) and tachydysrhythmias. All other statements regarding the procedure are incorrect.

7. The nurse working on the heart failure unit knows that teaching an older female patient with newly diagnosed heart failure is effective when the patient states that a. she will take furosemide (Lasix) every day at bedtime. b. the nitroglycerin patch is to be used when chest pain develops. c. she will call the clinic if her weight goes up 3 pounds in 1 week. d. an additional pillow can help her sleep if she is short of breath at night.

ANS: C Teaching for a patient with heart failure includes information about the need to weigh daily and notify the health care provider about an increase of 3 lb in 2 days or 3 to 5 lb in a week. Nitroglycerin patches are used primarily to reduce preload (not to prevent chest pain) in patients with heart failure and should be used daily, not on an "as needed" basis. Diuretics should be taken earlier in the day to avoid nocturia and sleep disturbance. The patient should call the clinic if increased orthopnea develops rather than just compensating by further elevating the head of the bed.

18. A patient with chronic heart failure who is taking a diuretic and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor and who is on a low-sodium diet tells the home health nurse about a 5-lb weight gain in the past 3 days. The nurse's priority action will be to a. have the patient recall the dietary intake for the past 3 days. b. ask the patient about the use of the prescribed medications. c. assess the patient for clinical manifestations of acute heart failure. d. teach the patient about the importance of restricting dietary sodium.

ANS: C The 5-lb weight gain over 3 days indicates that the patient's chronic heart failure may be worsening. It is important that the patient be assessed immediately for other clinical manifestations of decompensation, such as lung crackles. A dietary recall to detect hidden sodium in the diet, reinforcement of sodium restrictions, and assessment of medication compliance may be appropriate interventions but are not the first nursing actions indicated.

7. A patient who was admitted with a myocardial infarction experiences a 45-second episode of ventricular tachycardia, then converts to sinus rhythm with a heart rate of 98 beats/min. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Immediately notify the health care provider. b. Document the rhythm and continue to monitor the patient. c. Prepare to give IV amiodarone per agency dysrhythmia protocol. d. Perform synchronized cardioversion per agency dysrhythmia protocol.

ANS: C The burst of sustained ventricular tachycardia indicates that the patient has significant ventricular irritability, and antidysrhythmic medication administration is needed to prevent further episodes. The nurse should notify the health care provider after the medication is started. Cardioversion is not indicated given that the patient has returned to a sinus rhythm. Documentation and continued monitoring are not adequate responses to this situation.

16. During the administration of the thrombolytic agent to a patient with an acute myocardial infarction, the nurse should stop the drug infusion if the patient experiences a. bleeding from the gums. b. increase in blood pressure. c. a decrease in level of consciousness. d. a nonsustained episode of ventricular tachycardia.

ANS: C The change in level of consciousness indicates that the patient may be experiencing intracranial bleeding, a possible complication of thrombolytic therapy. Some bleeding of the gums is an expected side effect of the therapy but not an indication to stop infusion of the thrombolytic medication. A decrease in blood pressure could indicate internal bleeding. A nonsustained episode of ventricular tachycardia is a common reperfusion dysrhythmia and may indicate that the therapy is effective.

35. The nurse obtains the following data when assessing a patient who experienced an ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) 2 days previously. Which information is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The troponin level is elevated. b. The patient denies having a heart attack. c. Bilateral crackles in the mid-lower lobes. d. Occasional premature atrial contractions (PACs).

ANS: C The crackles indicate that the patient may be developing heart failure, a possible complication of myocardial infarction (MI). The health care provider may need to order medications such as diuretics or angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors for the patient. Elevation in troponin level at this time is expected. PACs are not life-threatening dysrhythmias. Denial is a common response in the immediate period after the MI.

28. A patient reports dizziness and shortness of breath for several days. During heart monitoring in the emergency department (ED), the nurse obtains the following electrocardiographic (ECG) tracing. The nurse interprets this heart rhythm as a. junctional escape rhythm. b. accelerated idioventricular rhythm. c. third-degree atrioventricular (AV) block. d. sinus rhythm with premature atrial contractions (PACs).

ANS: C The inconsistency between the atrial and ventricular rates and the variable PR interval indicate that the rhythm is third-degree AV block. Sinus rhythm with PACs will have a normal rate and consistent PR intervals with occasional PACs. An accelerated idioventricular rhythm will not have visible P waves.

1. While assessing a 68-yr-old with ascites, the nurse also notes jugular venous distention (JVD) with the head of the patient's bed elevated 45 degrees. The nurse knows this finding indicates a. decreased fluid volume. b. jugular vein atherosclerosis. c. increased right atrial pressure. d. incompetent jugular vein valves.

ANS: C The jugular veins empty into the superior vena cava and then into the right atrium, so JVD with the patient sitting at a 45-degree angle reflects increased right atrial pressure. JVD is an indicator of excessive fluid volume (increased preload), not decreased fluid volume. JVD is not caused by incompetent jugular vein valves or atherosclerosis.

19. A patient's heart monitor shows sinus rhythm, rate 64. The PR interval is 0.18 seconds at 1:00 AM, 0.22 seconds at 2:30 PM, and 0.28 seconds at 4:00 PM. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Place the transcutaneous pacemaker pads on the patient. b. Give atropine sulfate 1 mg IV per agency dysrhythmia protocol. c. Call the health care provider before giving scheduled metoprolol (Lopressor). d. Document the patient's rhythm and assess the patient's response to the rhythm.

ANS: C The patient has progressive first-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, and the b-blocker should be held until discussing the drug with the health care provider. Documentation and assessment are appropriate but not fully adequate responses. The patient with first-degree AV block usually is asymptomatic and a pacemaker is not indicated. Atropine is sometimes used for symptomatic bradycardia, but there is no indication that this patient is symptomatic.

12. Which intervention by a new nurse who is caring for a patient who has just had an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) inserted indicates a need for more teaching about the care of patients with ICDs? a. The nurse administers amiodarone (Cordarone) to the patient. b. The nurse helps the patient fill out the application for obtaining a Medic Alert device. c. The nurse encourages the patient to do active range of motion exercises for all extremities. d. The nurse teaches the patient that sexual activity can be resumed when the incision is healed.

ANS: C The patient should avoid moving the arm on the ICD insertion site until healing has occurred to prevent displacement of the ICD leads. The other actions by the new nurse are appropriate for this patient.

31. When caring for a patient with acute coronary syndrome who has returned to the coronary care unit after having angioplasty with stent placement, the nurse obtains the following assessment data. Which data indicate the need for immediate action by the nurse? a. Heart rate 102 beats/min b. Pedal pulses 1+ bilaterally c. Report of severe chest pain d. Blood pressure 103/54 mm Hg

ANS: C The patient's chest pain indicates that restenosis of the coronary artery may be occurring and requires immediate actions, such as administration of oxygen and nitroglycerin, by the nurse. The other information indicates a need for ongoing assessments by the nurse.

17. A patient recovering from a myocardial infarction (MI) develops chest pain on day 3 that increases when taking a deep breath and is relieved by leaning forward. Which action should the nurse take as focused follow-up on this symptom? a. Assess the feet for pedal edema. b. Palpate the radial pulses bilaterally. c. Auscultate for a pericardial friction rub. d. Check the heart monitor for dysrhythmias.

ANS: C The patient's symptoms are consistent with the development of pericarditis, a possible complication of MI. The other assessments listed are not consistent with the description of the patient's symptoms.

37. A patient who has chest pain is admitted to the emergency department (ED), and all of the following are ordered. Which one should the nurse arrange to be completed first? a. Chest x-ray b. Troponin level c. Electrocardiogram (ECG) d. Insertion of a peripheral IV

ANS: C The priority for the patient is to determine whether an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) is occurring so that the appropriate therapy can begin as quickly as possible. ECG changes occur very rapidly after coronary artery occlusion, and an ECG should be obtained as soon as possible. Troponin levels will increase after about 3 hours. Data from the chest x-ray may impact the patient's care but are not helpful in determining whether the patient is experiencing a myocardial infarction. Peripheral access will be needed but not before the ECG.

2. The nurse needs to quickly estimate the heart rate for a patient with a regular heart rhythm. Which method will be best to use? a. Count the number of large squares in the R-R interval and divide by 300. b. Print a 1-minute electrocardiogram (ECG) strip and count the number of QRS complexes. c. Use the 3-second markers to count the number of QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10. d. Calculate the number of small squares between one QRS complex and the next and divide into 1500.

ANS: C This is the quickest way to determine the ventricular rate for a patient with a regular rhythm. All the other methods are accurate, but take longer

17. A patient with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted to the emergency department with severe dyspnea and a dry, hacking cough. Which action should the nurse do first? a. Auscultate the abdomen. b. Check the capillary refill. c. Auscultate the breath sounds d. Ask about the patient's allergies.

ANS: C This patient's severe dyspnea and cough indicate that acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) is occurring. ADHF usually manifests as pulmonary edema, which should be detected and treated immediately to prevent ongoing hypoxemia and cardiac/respiratory arrest. The other assessments will provide useful data about the patient's volume status and also should be accomplished rapidly, but detection (and treatment) of pulmonary complications is the priority.

5. The nurse providing care for the laboring woman should understand that late fetal heart rate (FHR) decelerations are the result of: a. altered cerebral blood flow. b. umbilical cord compression. c. uteroplacental insufficiency. d. meconium fluid.

ANS: C Uteroplacental insufficiency would result in late decelerations in the FHR. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow would result in early decelerations in the FHR. Umbilical cord compression would result in variable decelerations in the FHR. Meconium-stained fluid may or may not produce changes in the fetal heart rate, depending on the gestational age of the fetus and whether other causative factors associated with fetal distress are present.

Allusion

ANS: D ACE inhibitor therapy is currently recommended to prevent the development of heart failure in patients who have had a myocardial infarction and as a first-line therapy for patients with chronic heart failure. Digoxin therapy for heart failure is no longer considered a first-line measure, and digoxin is added to the treatment protocol when therapy with other drugs such as ACE-inhibitors, diuretics, and b-adrenergic blockers is insufficient. Calcium channel blockers are not generally used in the treatment of heart failure. The b-adrenergic blockers are not used as initial therapy for new onset heart failure.

32. A patient admitted to the coronary care unit (CCU) with an ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is restless and anxious. The blood pressure is 86/40 mm Hg, and heart rate is 132 beats/min. Based on this information, which nursing diagnosis is a priority for the patient? a. Acute pain related to myocardial infarction b. Anxiety related to perceived threat of death c. Stress overload related to acute change in health d. Decreased cardiac output related to cardiogenic shock

ANS: D All the nursing diagnoses may be appropriate for this patient, but the hypotension and tachycardia indicate decreased cardiac output and shock from the damaged myocardium. This will result in decreased perfusion to all vital organs (e.g., brain, kidney, heart) and is a priority.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving IV furosemide (Lasix) and morphine for the treatment of acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) with severe orthopnea. Which clinical finding is the best indicator that the treatment has been effective? a. Weight loss of 2 lb in 24 hours b. Hourly urine output greater than 60 mL c. Reduction in patient complaints of chest pain d. Reduced dyspnea with the head of bed at 30 degrees

ANS: D Because the patient's major clinical manifestation of ADHF is orthopnea (caused by the presence of fluid in the alveoli), the best indicator that the medications are effective is a decrease in dyspnea with the head of the bed at 30 degrees. The other assessment data may also indicate that diuresis or improvement in cardiac output has occurred but are not as specific to evaluating this patient's response.

17. Which laboratory result for a patient with multifocal premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Blood glucose of 243 mg/dL c. Serum sodium of 134 mEq/L b. Serum chloride of 92 mEq/L d. Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L

ANS: D Hypokalemia increases the risk for ventricular dysrhythmias such as PVCs, ventricular tachycardia, and ventricular fibrillation. The health care provider will need to prescribe a potassium infusion to correct this abnormality. Although the other laboratory values are also abnormal, they are not likely to be the etiology of the patient's PVCs and do not require immediate correction.

36. A patient had a non-ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) 3 days ago. Which nursing intervention included in the plan of care is appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Evaluation of the patient's response to walking in the hallway b. Completion of the referral form for a home health nurse follow-up c. Education of the patient about the pathophysiology of heart disease d. Reinforcement of teaching about the purpose of prescribed medications

ANS: D LPN/LVN education and scope of practice include reinforcing education that has previously been done by the RN. Evaluating the patient's response to exercise after a NSTEMI requires more education and should be done by the RN. Teaching and discharge planning and referral are skills that require RN education and scope of practice.

1. A 74-yr-old patient has just arrived in the emergency department. After assessment reveals a pulse deficit of 46 beats, the nurse will anticipate that the patient may require a. emergent cardioversion. b. a cardiac catheterization. c. hourly blood pressure (BP) checks. d. electrocardiographic (ECG) monitoring.

ANS: D Pulse deficit is a difference between simultaneously obtained apical and radial pulses. It indicates that there may be a cardiac dysrhythmia that would best be detected with ECG monitoring. Frequent BP monitoring, cardiac catheterization, and emergent cardioversion are used for diagnosis and/or treatment of cardiovascular disorders but would not be as helpful in determining the immediate reason for the pulse deficit.

1. To determine whether there is a delay in impulse conduction through the ventricles, the nurse will measure the duration of the patient's a. P wave. c. PR interval. b. Q wave. d. QRS complex.

ANS: D The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The P wave represents the depolarization of the atria. The PR interval represents depolarization of the atria, atrioventricular node, bundle of His, bundle branches, and the Purkinje fibers. The Q wave is the first negative deflection following the P wave and should be narrow and short.

4. The nurse obtains a rhythm strip on a patient who has had a myocardial infarction and makes the following analysis: no visible P waves, PR interval not measurable, ventricular rate of 162, R-R interval regular, and QRS complex wide and distorted, and QRS duration of 0.18 second. The nurse interprets the patient's cardiac rhythm as a. atrial flutter. c. ventricular fibrillation. b. sinus tachycardia. d. ventricular tachycardia.

ANS: D The absence of P waves, wide QRS, rate greater than 150 beats/min, and the regularity of the rhythm indicate ventricular tachycardia. Atrial flutter is usually regular, has a narrow QRS configuration, and has flutter waves present representing atrial activity. Sinus tachycardia has P waves. Ventricular fibrillation is irregular and does not have a consistent QRS duration.

10. While admitting an 82-yr-old patient with acute decompensated heart failure to the hospital, the nurse learns that the patient lives alone and sometimes confuses the "water pill" with the "heart pill." When planning for the patient's discharge the nurse will facilitate a a. plan for around-the-clock care. b. consultation with a psychologist. c. transfer to a long-term care facility. d. referral to a home health care agency.

ANS: D The data about the patient suggest that assistance in developing a system for taking medications correctly at home is needed. A home health nurse will assess the patient's home situation and help the patient develop a method for taking the two medications as directed. There is no evidence that the patient requires services such as a psychologist consult, long-term care, or around-the-clock home care

5. After the nurse has finished teaching a patient about the use of sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat), which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "I can expect nausea as a side effect of nitroglycerin." b. "I should only take nitroglycerin when I have chest pain." c. "Nitroglycerin helps prevent a clot from forming and blocking blood flow to my heart." d. "I will call an ambulance if I still have pain after taking three nitroglycerin 5 minutes apart."

ANS: D The emergency response system (ERS) should be activated when chest pain or other symptoms are not completely relieved after three sublingual nitroglycerin tablets taken 5 minutes apart. Nitroglycerin can be taken to prevent chest pain or other symptoms from developing (e.g., before intercourse). Gastric upset (e.g., nausea) is not an expected side effect of nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin does not impact the underlying pathophysiology of coronary artery atherosclerosis.

22. The nurse has received change-of-shift report about the following patients on the progressive care unit. Which patient should the nurse see first? a. A patient with atrial fibrillation, rate 88 and irregular, who has a dose of warfarin (Coumadin) due b. A patient with second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, type 1, rate 60, who is dizzy when ambulating c. A patient who is in a sinus rhythm, rate 98 and regular, recovering from an elective cardioversion 2 hours ago d. A patient whose implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) fired twice today and has a dose of amiodarone (Cordarone) due

ANS: D The frequent firing of the ICD indicates that the patient's ventricles are very irritable and the priority is to assess the patient and give the amiodarone. The other patients can be seen after the amiodarone is given.

20. A patient develops sinus bradycardia at a rate of 32 beats/min, has a blood pressure (BP) of 80/42 mm Hg, and is complaining of feeling faint. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Recheck the heart rhythm and BP in 5 minutes. b. Have the patient perform the Valsalva maneuver. c. Give the scheduled dose of diltiazem (Cardizem). d. Apply the transcutaneous pacemaker (TCP) pads.

ANS: D The patient is experiencing symptomatic bradycardia and treatment with TCP is appropriate. Continued monitoring of the rhythm and BP is an inadequate response. Calcium channel blockers will further decrease the heart rate and the diltiazem should be held. The Valsalva maneuver will further decrease the rate.

11. The nurse knows that discharge teaching about the management of a new permanent pacemaker has been most effective when the patient states a. "It will be several weeks before I can return to my usual activities." b. "I will avoid cooking with a microwave oven or being near one in use." c. "I will notify the airlines when I make a reservation that I have a pacemaker." d. "I won't lift the arm on the pacemaker side until I see the health care provider."

ANS: D The patient is instructed to avoid lifting the arm on the pacemaker side above the shoulder to avoid displacing the pacemaker leads. The patient should notify airport security about the presence of a pacemaker before going through the metal detector, but there is no need to notify the airlines when making a reservation. Microwave oven use does not affect the pacemaker. The insertion procedure involves minor surgery that will have a short recovery period.

9. The nurse teaches the patient being evaluated for rhythm disturbances with a Holter monitor to: a. connect the recorder to a computer once daily. b. exercise more than usual while the monitor is in place. c. remove the electrodes when taking a shower or tub bath. d. keep a diary of daily activities while the monitor is worn.

ANS: D The patient is instructed to keep a diary describing daily activities while Holter monitoring is being accomplished to help correlate any rhythm disturbances with patient activities. Patients are taught that they should not take a shower or bath during Holter monitoring and that they should continue with their usual daily activities. The recorder stores the information about the patient's rhythm until the end of the testing, when it is removed and the data are analyzed.

2. The nurse is reviewing the 12-lead electrocardiograph (ECG) for a healthy 74-yr-old patient who is having an annual physical examination. What finding is of most concern to the nurse? a. A right bundle-branch block. b. The PR interval is 0.21 seconds. c. The QRS duration is 0.13 seconds. d. The heart rate (HR) is 41 beats/min.

ANS: D The resting HR does not change with aging, so the decrease in HR requires further investigation. Bundle-branch block and slight increases in PR interval or QRS duration are common in older individuals because of increases in conduction time through the AV node, bundle of His, and bundle branches.

8. The nurse notes that a patient who was admitted with heart failure has jugular venous distention (JVD) when lying flat in bed. Which follow-up action should the nurse take next? a. Obtain vital signs, including oxygen saturation. b. Have the patient perform the Valsalva maneuver. c. Document this JVD finding in the patient's record. d. Observe for JVD with the patient elevated 45 degrees.

ANS: D When the patient is lying flat, the jugular veins are at the level of the right atrium, so JVD is a common (but not a clinically significant) finding. Obtaining vital signs and oxygen saturation is not warranted at this point. JVD is an expected finding when a patient performs the Valsalva maneuver because right atrial pressure increases. JVD that persists when the patient is sitting at a 30- to 45-degree angle or greater is significant. The nurse will document the JVD in the medical record if it persists when the head is elevated.

29. When caring for a patient who has just arrived on the telemetry unit after having cardiac catheterization, which nursing intervention should the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Give the scheduled aspirin and lipid-lowering medication. b. Perform the initial assessment of the catheter insertion site. c. Teach the patient about the usual postprocedure plan of care. d. Titrate the heparin infusion according to the agency protocol.

a. Give the scheduled aspirin and lipid-lowering medication. ANS: A Administration of oral medications is within the scope of practice for LPNs/LVNs. The initial assessment of the patient, patient teaching, and titration of IV anticoagulant medications should be done by the registered nurse (RN).

6. The nurse providing care for the laboring woman should understand that amnioinfusion is used to treat: a. variable decelerations. b. late decelerations. c. fetal bradycardia. d. fetal tachycardia.

ANS: A Amnioinfusion is used during labor either to dilute meconium-stained amniotic fluid or to supplement the amount of amniotic fluid to reduce the severity of variable decelerations caused by cord compression. Amnioinfusion has no bearing on late decelerations, fetal bradycardia, or fetal tachycardia alterations in fetal heart rate (FHR) tracings.

1. While evaluating an external monitor tracing of a woman in active labor, the nurse notes that the fetal heart rate (FHR) for five sequential contractions begins to decelerate late in the contraction, with the nadir of the decelerations occurring after the peak of the contraction. The nurse's first priority is to: a. change the woman's position. b. notify the care provider. c. assist with amnioinfusion. d. insert a scalp electrode.

ANS: A Late decelerations may be caused by maternal supine hypotension syndrome. They usually are corrected when the woman turns on her side to displace the weight of the gravid uterus from the vena cava. If the fetus does not respond to primary nursing interventions for late decelerations, the nurse would continue with subsequent intrauterine resuscitation measures, including notifying the care provider. An amnioinfusion may be used to relieve pressure on an umbilical cord that has not prolapsed. The FHR pattern associated with this situation most likely reveals variable deceleration. A fetal scalp electrode would provide accurate data for evaluating the well-being of the fetus; however, this is not a nursing intervention that would alleviate late decelerations, nor is it the nurse's first priority.

22. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for newly admitted patients on the cardiovascular unit. Which laboratory result is most important to communicate as soon as possible to the health care provider? a. High troponin I level b. Increased triglyceride level c. Very low homocysteine level d. Elevated high-sensitivity C-reactive protein level

ANS: A The elevation in troponin I indicates that the patient has had an acute myocardial infarction. Further assessment and interventions are indicated. The other laboratory results are indicative of increased risk for coronary artery disease but are not associated with acute cardiac problems that need immediate intervention.

25. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who was admitted with syncopal episodes of unknown origin? a. Explain the association between dysrhythmias and syncope. b. Instruct the patient to call for assistance before getting out of bed. c. Teach the patient about the need to avoid caffeine and other stimulants. d. Tell the patient about the benefits of implantable cardioverter-defibrillators.

ANS: B A patient with fainting episodes is at risk for falls. The nurse will plan to minimize the risk by having assistance whenever the patient is up. The other actions may be needed if dysrhythmias are found to be the cause of the patient's syncope but are not appropriate for syncope of unknown origin.

20. When caring for a patient who is recovering from a sudden cardiac death (SCD) event and has no evidence of an acute myocardial infarction (AMI), the nurse will anticipate teaching the patient that a. sudden cardiac death events rarely reoccur. b. additional diagnostic testing will be required. c. long-term anticoagulation therapy will be needed. d. limiting physical activity will prevent future SCD events.

ANS: B Diagnostic testing (e.g., stress test, Holter monitor, electrophysiologic studies, cardiac catheterization) is used to determine the possible cause of the SCD and treatment options. SCD is likely to recur. Anticoagulation therapy will not have any effect on the incidence of SCD, and SCD can occur even when the patient is resting.

25. After receiving change-of-shift report on a heart failure unit, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient who is taking carvedilol (Coreg) and has a heart rate of 58 b. Patient who is taking digoxin and has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L c. Patient who is taking captopril and has a frequent nonproductive cough d. Patient who is taking isosorbide dinitrate/hydralazine (BiDil) and has a headache

ANS: B The patient's low potassium level increases the risk for digoxin toxicity and potentially life-threatening dysrhythmias. The nurse should assess the patient for other signs of digoxin toxicity and then notify the health care provider about the potassium level. The other patients also have side effects of their drugs, but their symptoms do not indicate potentially life-threatening complications.

24. A patient whose heart monitor shows sinus tachycardia, rate 132, is apneic, and has no palpable pulses. What action should the nurse take next? a. Perform synchronized cardioversion. b. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). c. Give atropine per agency dysrhythmia protocol. d. Provide supplemental O2 via non-rebreather mask.

ANS: B The patient's clinical manifestations indicate pulseless electrical activity, and the nurse should immediately start CPR. The other actions would not be of benefit to this patient.

21. The nurse and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) on the telemetry unit are caring for four patients. Which nursing action can be delegated to the UAP? a. Teaching a patient about exercise electrocardiography b. Attaching ECG monitoring electrodes after a patient bathes c. Checking the catheter insertion site for a patient who is recovering from a coronary angiogram d. Monitoring a patient who has just returned to the unit after a transesophageal echocardiogram

ANS: B UAP can be educated in standardized lead placement for ECG monitoring. Assessment of patients who have had procedures where airway maintenance (transesophageal echocardiography) or bleeding (coronary angiogram) is a concern must be done by the registered nurse (RN). Patient teaching requires RN level education and scope of practice.

24. A patient who is receiving dobutamine for the treatment of acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) has the following nursing interventions included in the plan of care. Which action will be most appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Teach the patient the reasons for remaining on bed rest. b. Change the peripheral IV site according to agency policy. c. Monitor the patient's blood pressure and heart rate every hour. d. Titrate the rate to keep the systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg.

ANS: C An experienced LPN/LVN would be able to monitor BP and heart rate and would know to report significant changes to the RN. Teaching patients, making adjustments to the drip rate for vasoactive drugs, and inserting a new peripheral IV catheter require RN level education and scope of practice.

23. A patient who is on the telemetry unit develops atrial flutter, rate 150, with associated dyspnea and chest pain. Which action that is included in the hospital dysrhythmia protocol should the nurse do first? a. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). b. Notify the health care provider of the change in rhythm. c. Give supplemental O2 at 2 to 3 L/min via nasal cannula. d. Assess the patient's vital signs including O2 saturation.

ANS: C Because this patient has dyspnea and chest pain in association with the new rhythm, the nurse's initial actions should be to address the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) by starting with O2 administration. The other actions are also important and should be implemented rapidly.

34. Which information about a patient who has been receiving thrombolytic therapy for an acute myocardial infarction is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. An increase in troponin levels from baseline b. A large bruise at the patient's IV insertion site c. No change in the patient's reported level of chest pain d. A decrease in ST-segment elevation on the electrocardiogram

ANS: C Continued chest pain suggests that the thrombolytic therapy is not effective and that other interventions such as percutaneous coronary intervention may be needed. Bruising is a possible side effect of thrombolytic therapy, but it is not an indication that therapy should be discontinued. The decrease of the ST-segment elevation indicates that thrombolysis is occurring and perfusion is returning to the injured myocardium. An increase in troponin levels is expected with reperfusion and is related to the washout of cardiac biomarkers into the circulation as the blocked vessel is opened.

12. Heparin is ordered for a patient with a non-ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). What is the purpose of the heparin? a. Heparin enhances platelet aggregation at the plaque site. b. Heparin decreases the size of the coronary artery plaque. c. Heparin prevents the development of new clots in the coronary arteries. d. Heparin dissolves clots that are blocking blood flow in the coronary arteries.

ANS: C Heparin helps prevent the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and decreases coronary artery thrombosis. It does not change coronary artery plaque, dissolve already formed clots, or enhance platelet aggregation.

21. A 19-yr-old student comes to the student health center at the end of the semester complaining that, "My heart is skipping beats." An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows occasional unifocal premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). What action should the nurse take next? a. Insert an IV catheter for emergency use. b. Start supplemental O2 at 2 to 3 L/min via nasal cannula. c. Ask the patient about current stress level and caffeine use. d. Have the patient taken to the nearest emergency department (ED).

ANS: C In a patient with a normal heart, occasional PVCs are a benign finding. The timing of the PVCs suggests stress or caffeine as possible etiologic factors. The patient is hemodynamically stable, so there is no indication that the patient needs supplemental O2, an IV, or to be seen in the ED.

7. The nurse caring for the woman in labor should understand that maternal hypotension can result in: a. early decelerations. b. fetal dysrhythmias. c. uteroplacental insufficiency. d. spontaneous rupture of membranes.

ANS: C Low maternal blood pressure reduces placental blood flow during uterine contractions and results in fetal hypoxemia. Maternal hypotension is not associated with early decelerations, fetal dysrhythmias, or spontaneous rupture of membranes.

9. The nurse plans discharge teaching for a patient with chronic heart failure who has prescriptions for digoxin (Lanoxin) and hydrochlorothiazide. Appropriate instructions for the patient include a. limit dietary sources of potassium. b. take the hydrochlorothiazide before bedtime. c. notify the health care provider if nausea develops. d. take the digoxin if the pulse is below 60 beats/min.

ANS: C Nausea is an indication of digoxin toxicity and should be reported so that the provider can assess the patient for toxicity and adjust the digoxin dose, if necessary. The patient will need to include potassium-containing foods in the diet to avoid hypokalemia. Patients should be taught to check their pulse daily before taking the digoxin and if the pulse is less than 60 beats/min, to call their provider before taking the digoxin. Diuretics should be taken early in the day to avoid sleep disruption.

5. A patient who has chronic heart failure tells the nurse, "I was fine when I went to bed, but I woke up in the middle of the night feeling like I was suffocating!" The nurse will document this assessment finding as a. orthopnea. b. pulsus alternans. c. paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. d. acute bilateral pleural effusion.

ANS: C Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is caused by the reabsorption of fluid from dependent body areas when the patient is sleeping and is characterized by waking up suddenly with the feeling of suffocation. Pulsus alternans is the alteration of strong and weak peripheral pulses during palpation. Orthopnea indicates that the patient is unable to lie flat because of dyspnea. Pleural effusions develop over a longer time period.

14. A patient with ST-segment elevation in three contiguous electrocardiographic leads is admitted to the emergency department and diagnosed as having an ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction. Which question should the nurse ask to determine whether the patient is a candidate for thrombolytic therapy? a. "Do you have any allergies?" b. "Do you take aspirin on a daily basis?" c. "What time did your chest pain begin?" d. "Can you rate your chest pain using a 0 to 10 scale?"

ANS: C Thrombolytic therapy should be started within 6 hours of the onset of the myocardial infarction, so the time at which the chest pain started is a major determinant of the appropriateness of this treatment. The other information is not a factor in the decision about thrombolytic therapy.

15. When analyzing the rhythm of a patient's electrocardiogram (ECG), the nurse will need to investigate further upon finding a(n) a. isoelectric ST segment. c. QT interval of 0.38 second. b. PR interval of 0.18 second. d. QRS interval of 0.14 second.

ANS: D Because the normal QRS interval is less than 0.12 seconds, the patient's QRS interval of 0.14 seconds indicates that the conduction through the ventricular conduction system is prolonged. The PR interval and QT interval are within normal range and ST segment should be isoelectric (flat).

23. An outpatient who has chronic heart failure returns to the clinic after 2 weeks of therapy with metoprolol (Toprol XL). Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. 2+ bilateral pedal edema b. Heart rate of 56 beats/min c. Complaints of increased fatigue d. Blood pressure (BP) of 88/42 mm Hg

ANS: D The patient's BP indicates that the dose of metoprolol may need to be decreased because of hypotension. Bradycardia is a frequent adverse effect of b-adrenergic blockade, but the rate of 56 is not unusual though it may need to be monitored. b-Adrenergic blockade initially will worsen symptoms of heart failure in many patients and patients should be taught that some increase in symptoms, such as fatigue and edema, is expected during the initiation of therapy with this class of drugs.