Shock Review

18. A patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) for shock of unknown etiology. The first action by the nurse should be to a. administer oxygen. b. obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). c. obtain the blood pressure. d. check the level of consciousness.

ANS: A The initial actions of the nurse are focused on the ABCs—airway, breathing, and circulation—and administration of oxygen should be done first. The other actions should be accomplished as rapidly as possible after oxygen administration. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1641 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

6. To evaluate the effectiveness of the pantoprazole (Protonix) ordered for a patient with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), which assessment will the nurse perform? a. Auscultate bowel sounds. b. Palpate for abdominal pain. c. Ask the patient about nausea. d. Check stools for occult blood.

ANS: D Proton pump inhibitors are given to decrease the risk for stress ulcers in critically ill patients. The other assessments also will be done, but these will not help in determining the effectiveness of the pantoprazole administration. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1646 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient's localized infection has progressed to the point where septic shock is now suspected. What medication is an appropriate treatment modality for this patient? a-Insulin infusion b- IV administration of epinephrine c- Aggressive IV crystalloid fluid resuscitation d- Administration of nitrates and β-adrenergic blockers

C- Patients in septic shock require large amounts of crystalloid fluid replacement. Nitrates and β-adrenergic blockers are most often used in the treatment of patients in cardiogenic shock. Epinephrine is indicated in anaphylactic shock, and insulin infusion is not normally necessary in the treatment of septic shock (but can be).

The nurse is caring for a client in the refractory stage of cardiogenic shock. Which intervention does the nurse consider? A. Admission to rehabilitation hospital for ambulatory retraining B. Collaboration with home care agency for return to home C. Discussion with family and provider regarding palliative care D. Enrollment in a cardiac transplantation program

C. Discussion with family and provider regarding palliative care In this irreversible phase, therapy is not effective in saving the client's life, even if the cause of shock is corrected and mean arterial pressure temporarily returns to normal. A discussion on palliative care should be considered. Rehabilitation or returning home is unlikely. The client with sustained tissue hypoxia is not a candidate for organ transplantation.

What typical sign/symptom indicates the early stage of septic shock? A. Pallor and cool skin B. Blood pressure 84/50 mm Hg C. Tachypnea and tachycardia D. Respiratory acidosis

C. Tachypnea and tachycardia Signs of systemic inflammatory response syndrome, which precedes sepsis, include rapid respiratory rate, leukocytosis, and tachycardia. In the early stage of septic shock, the client is usually warm and febrile. Hypotension does not develop until later in septic shock due to compensatory mechanisms. Respiratory alkalosis occurs early in shock because of an increased respiratory rate.

5. When assessing the hemodynamic information for a newly admitted patient in shock of unknown etiology, the nurse will anticipate administration of large volumes of crystalloids when the a. cardiac output is increased and the central venous pressure (CVP) is low. b. pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is increased, and the urine output is low. c. heart rate is decreased, and the systemic vascular resistance is low. d. cardiac output is decreased and the PAWP is high.

Correct Answer: A Rationale: A high cardiac output and low CVP suggest septic shock, and massive fluid replacement is indicated. Increased PAWP indicates that the patient has excessive fluid volume (and suggests cardiogenic shock), and diuresis is indicated. Bradycardia and a low systemic vascular resistance (SVR) suggest neurogenic shock, and fluids should be infused cautiously.

19. While assessing a patient in shock who has an arterial line in place, the nurse notes a drop in the systolic BP from 92 mm Hg to 76 mm Hg when the head of the patient's bed is elevated to 75 degrees. This finding indicates a need for a. additional fluid replacement. b. antibiotic administration. c. infusion of a sympathomimetic drug. d. administration of increased oxygen.

Correct Answer: A Rationale: A postural drop in BP is an indication of volume depletion and suggests the need for additional fluid infusions. There are no data to suggest that antibiotics, sympathomimetics, or additional oxygen are needed.

13. A patient with a myocardial infarction (MI) and cardiogenic shock has the following vital signs: BP 86/50, pulse 126, respirations 30. Hemodynamic monitoring reveals an elevated PAWP and decreased cardiac output. The nurse will anticipate a. administration of furosemide (Lasix) IV. b. titration of an epinephrine (Adrenalin) drip. c. administration of a normal saline bolus. d. assisting with endotracheal intubation.

Correct Answer: A Rationale: The PAWP indicates that the patient's preload is elevated and furosemide is indicated to reduce the preload and improve cardiac output. Epinephrine would further increase myocardial oxygen demand and might extend the MI. The PAWP is already elevated, so normal saline boluses would be contraindicated. There is no indication that the patient requires endotracheal intubation.

22. A patient who has just been admitted with septic shock has a BP of 70/46, pulse 136, respirations 32, temperature 104.0° F, and blood glucose 246 mg/dl. Which order will the nurse accomplish first? a. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dl. b. Give normal saline IV at 500 ml/hr. c. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep MAP at 65 to 70 mm Hg. d. Infuse drotrecogin- (Xigris) 24 mcg/kg.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: Because of the low systemic vascular resistance (SVR) associated with septic shock, fluid resuscitation is the initial therapy. The other actions are also appropriate and should be initiated quickly as well.

4. While caring for a seriously ill patient, the nurse determines that the patient may be in the compensatory stage of shock on finding a. cold, mottled extremities. b. restlessness and apprehension. c. a heart rate of 120 and cool, clammy skin. d. systolic BP less than 90 mm Hg.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: Restlessness and apprehension are typical during the compensatory stage of shock. Cold, mottled extremities, cool and clammy skin, and a systolic BP less than 90 are associated with the progressive and refractory stages.

20. The best nursing intervention for a patient in shock who has a nursing diagnosis of fear related to perceived threat of death is to a. arrange for the hospital pastoral care staff to visit the patient. b. ask the health care provider to prescribe a sedative drug for the patient. c. leave the patient alone with family members whenever possible. d. place the patient's call bell where it can be easily reached.

Correct Answer: D Rationale: The patient who is fearful should feel that the nurse is immediately available if needed. Pastoral care staff should be asked to visit only after checking with the patient to determine whether this is desired. Providing time for family to spend with the patient is appropriate, but patients and family should not feel that the nurse is unavailable. Sedative administration is helpful but does not as directly address the patient's anxiety about dying.

The most accurate assessment parameters for the nurse to use to determine adequate tissue perfusion in the patient with MODS are a. blood pressure, pulse, and respirations. b. breath sounds, blood pressure, and body temperature. c. pulse pressure, level of consciousness, and pupillary response. d. level of consciousness, urine output, and skin color and temperature.

Correct answer: d Rationale: Adequate tissue perfusion in a patient with multiple-organ dysfunction syndrome is assessed by the level of consciousness, urine output, capillary refill, peripheral sensation, skin color, extremity skin temperature, and peripheral pulses.

A massive gastrointestinal bleed has resulted in hypovolemic shock in a patient. What is a priority nursing diagnosis? A. Acute pain B. Impaired tissue integrity C. Decreased cardiac output D. Ineffective tissue perfusion

D

A massive gastrointestinal bleed has resulted in hypovolemic shock in an older patient. What is a priority nursing diagnosis? a-Acute pain b-Impaired tissue integrity c-Decreased cardiac output d-Ineffective tissue perfusion

D- The many deleterious effects of shock are all related to inadequate perfusion and oxygenation of every body system. This nursing diagnosis supersedes the other diagnoses.

Which problem places a person at highest risk for septic shock? A. Kidney failure B. Cirrhosis C. Lung cancer D. 40% burn injury

D. 40% burn injury The skin forms the first barrier to prevent entry of organisms into the body; this client is at very high risk for sepsis and death. Although the client with kidney failure has an increased risk for infection, his skin is intact, unlike the client with burn injury. Although the liver acts as a filter for pathogens, the client with cirrhosis has intact skin, unlike the burned client. The client with lung cancer may be at risk for increased secretions and infection, but risk is not as high as for a client with open skin.

The nurse is caring for a patient in septic shock. Which hemodynamic change would the nurse expect? A. Increased ejection fraction B. Increased MAP C. Decreased central venous pressure D. Decreased systemic vascular resistance

D. Decreased SVR

The nurse is caring for postoperative clients at risk for hypovolemic shock. Which condition represents an early symptom of shock? A. Hypotension B. Bradypnea C. Heart blocks D. Tachycardia

D. tachycardia Heart and respiratory rates increased from the client's baseline level or a slight increase in diastolic blood pressure may be the only objective manifestation of this early stage of shock. Catecholamine release occurs early in shock as a compensation for fluid loss; blood pressure will be normal. Early in shock, the client displays rapid, not slow, respirations. Dysrhythmias are a late sign of shock; they are related to lack of oxygen to the heart.

Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is used to treat a client experiencing cardiogenic shock. Nursing intervention includes: a.) Monitoring for fluid overload. b.) Monitoring for cardiac dysrhythmias. c.) Monitoring respiratory status. d.) Monitoring for hypotension.

b.) Monitoring for cardiac dysrhythmias. Rationale: Dobutamine is beneficial in cases where shock is caused by heart failure. The drug increases contractility, and has the potential to cause dysrhythmias.

A client is progressing into the third stage of shock. The nurse will expect this client to demonstrate: Choose all that apply: a.) Intractable circulatory failure. b.) Neuroendocrine responses. c.) Demonstrating MODS. d.) Buildup of metabolic wastes. e.) Profound hypotension. f.) Increase in lactic acidosis.

c.) Demonstrating MODS. d.) Buildup of metabolic wastes.

The client in shock has the following vital signs: T 99.8° F, P 132 beats/min, R 32 breaths/min, and BP 80/58 mm Hg. Calculate the pulse pressure.

22 mm Hg Pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures: 80 (systolic) - 58 (diastolic) = 22 (pulse pressure)

A client is admitted to the hospital with two of the systemic inflammatory response syndrome variables: temperature of 95° F (35° C) and high white blood cell count. Which intervention from the sepsis resuscitation bundle does the nurse initiate? A. Broad-spectrum antibiotics B. Blood transfusion C. Cooling baths D. NPO status

A. Broad-spectrum antibiotics Broad-spectrum antibiotics must be initiated within 1 hour of establishing diagnosis. A blood transfusion is indicated for low red blood cell count or low hemoglobin and hematocrit; transfusion is not part of the sepsis resuscitation bundle. Cooling baths are not indicated because the client is hypothermic, nor is this part of the sepsis resuscitation bundle. NPO status is not indicated for this client, nor is it part of the sepsis resuscitation bundle.

The nursing assistant is concerned about a postoperative client with blood pressure (BP) of 90/60 mm Hg, heart rate of 80 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min. What does the supervising nurse do? A. Compare these vital signs with the last several readings. B. Request that the surgeon see the client. C. Increase the rate of intravenous fluids. D. Reassess vital signs using different equipment.

A. Compare these vital signs with the last several readings. Vital sign trends must be taken into consideration; a BP of 90/60 mm Hg may be normal for this client. Calling the surgeon is not necessary at this point, and increasing IV fluids is not indicated. The same equipment should be used when vital signs are taken postoperatively.

The client with which problem is at highest risk for hypovolemic shock? A. Esophageal varices B. Kidney failure C. Arthritis and daily acetaminophen use D. Kidney stone

A. Esophageal varices Esophageal varices are caused by portal hypertension; the portal vessels are under high pressure and are prone to rupture, causing massive upper gastrointestinal tract bleeding and hypovolemic shock. As the kidneys fail, fluid is typically retained, causing fluid volume excess, not hypovolemia. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs such as naproxen and ibuprofen, not acetaminophen, predispose the client to gastrointestinal bleeding and hypovolemia. Although a kidney stone may cause hematuria, there is not generally massive blood loss or hypovolemia.

The nurse reviews the medical record of a client with hemorrhagic shock, which contains the following information: Pulse 140 beats/min and thready, ABG respiratory acidosis, Blood pressure 60/40 mm Hg, Lactate level 7 mOsm/L, Respirations 40/min and shallow. All of these provider prescriptions are given for the client. Which does the nurse carry out first? A. Notify anesthesia for endotracheal intubation. B. Give Plasmanate 1 unit now. C. Give normal saline solution 250 mL/hr. D. Type and crossmatch for 4 units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs).

A. Notify anesthesia for endotracheal intubation. Establishing an airway is the priority in all emergency situations. Although administering Plasmanate and normal saline, and typing and crossmatching for 4 units of PRBCs are important actions, airway always takes priority.

A client recovering from an open reduction of the femur suddenly feels light-headed, with increased anxiety and agitation. Which key vital sign differentiates a pulmonary embolism from early sepsis? A. Temperature B. Pulse C. Respiration D. Blood pressure

A. Temperature A sign of early sepsis is low-grade fever. Both early sepsis and thrombus may cause tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension.

When caring for a patient in acute septic shock, what should the nurse anticipate? a- Infusing large amounts of IV fluids b- Administering osmotic and/or loop diuretics c- Administering IV diphenhydramine (Benadryl) d- Assisting with insertion of a ventricular assist device (VAD)

A- Septic shock is characterized by a decreased circulating blood volume. Volume expansion with the administration of IV fluids is the cornerstone of therapy. The administration of diuretics is inappropriate. VADs are useful for cardiogenic shock not septic shock. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) may be used for anaphylactic shock but would not be helpful with septic shock.

Which interventions should be used for anaphylactic shock (select all that apply)? a. Antibiotics b. Vasodilator c. Antihistamine d. Oxygen supplementation e. Colloid volume expansion f. Crystalloid volume expansion

C, D, E Due to the massive vasodilation, release of vasoactive mediators, and increased in capillary permeability from the immediate reaction, fluid leaks from the vascular space into the interstitial space. By administering a colloid (which contain larger particles that do not penetrate the semipermable membrane), the large particles will stay intravascularly. Due to their smaller size particle composition, a crystalloid would not stay intravascularly and leak interstitially.

The nurse is caring for a 72-year-old man in cardiogenic shock after an acute myocardial infarction. Which clinical manifestations would be of most concern to the nurse? a-Restlessness, heart rate of 124 beats/minute, and hypoactive bowel sounds b-Mean arterial pressure of 54 mm Hg, increased jaundice, and cold, clammy skin c-PaO2 of 38 mm Hg, serum lactate level of 46.5 mcg/dL, and bleeding from puncture sites d-Agitation, respiratory rate of 32 breaths/minute, and serum creatinine level of 2.6 mg/dL

C- Severe hypoxemia, lactic acidosis, and bleeding are clinical manifestations of the irreversible state of shock. Recovery from this stage is not likely because of multiple organ system failure. Restlessness, tachycardia, and hypoactive bowel sounds are clinical manifestations that occur during the compensatory stage of shock. Decreased mean arterial pressure, jaundice, cold/ clammy skin, agitation, tachypnea, and increased serum creatinine are clinical manifestations of the progressive stage of shock.

A patient is treated in the emergency department (ED) for shock of unknown etiology. The first action by the nurse should be to a. check the blood pressure. b. obtain an oxygen saturation. c. attach a cardiac monitor. d. check level of consciousness.

1.Correct Answer: B Rationale: The initial actions of the nurse are focused on the ABCs, and assessing the airway and ventilation is necessary. The other assessments should be accomplished as rapidly as possible after the oxygen saturation is determined and addressed.

When caring for a critically ill patient who is being mechanically ventilated, the nurse will astutely monitor for which clinical manifestation of multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? a- Increased serum albumin b- Decreased respiratory compliance c- Increased gastrointestinal (GI) motility d- Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio

B- Clinical manifestations of MODS include symptoms of respiratory distress, signs and symptoms of decreased renal perfusion, decreased serum albumin and prealbumin, decreased GI motility, acute neurologic changes, myocardial dysfunction, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and changes in glucose metabolism.

The nurse would recognize which clinical manifestation as suggestive of sepsis? a- Sudden diuresis unrelated to drug therapy b- Hyperglycemia in the absence of diabetes c-Respiratory rate of seven breaths per minute d-Bradycardia with sudden increase in blood pressure

B- Hyperglycemia in patients with no history of diabetes is a diagnostic criterion for sepsis. Oliguria, not diuresis, typically accompanies sepsis along with tachypnea and tachycardia.

A 50-year-old woman with a suspected brain tumor is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast media. The nurse notifies the physician that the patient reported an allergy to shellfish. Which response by the physician should the nurse question? a-Infuse IV diphenhydramine prior to the procedure. b-Administer lorazepam (Ativan) before the procedure. c-Complete the CT scan without the use of contrast media. d-Premedicate with hydrocortisone sodium succinate (Solu-Cortef).

B-An individual with an allergy to shellfish is at an increased risk to develop anaphylactic shock if contrast media is injected for a CT scan. To prevent anaphylactic shock, the nurse should always confirm the patient's allergies before diagnostic procedures (e.g., CT scan with contrast media). Appropriate interventions may include cancelling the procedure, completing the procedure without contrast media, or premedication with diphenhydramine or hydrocortisone. IV fluids may be given to promote renal clearance of the contrast media and prevent renal toxicity and acute kidney injury. The use of an antianxiety agent such as lorazepam would not be effective in preventing an allergic reaction to the contrast media.

A 64-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency department vomiting bright red blood. The patient's vital signs are blood pressure 78/58 mm Hg, pulse 124 beats/minute, respirations 28 breaths/minute, and temperature 97.2° F (36.2° C). Which physician order should the nurse complete first? a-Obtain a 12-lead ECG and arterial blood gases. b-Rapidly administer 1000 mL normal saline solution IV. c-Administer norepinephrine (Levophed) by continuous IV infusion. d-Carefully insert a nasogastric tube and an indwelling bladder catheter.

B-Isotonic crystalloids, such as normal saline solution, should be used in the initial resuscitation of hypovolemic shock. Vasopressor drugs (e.g., norepinephrine) may be considered if the patient does not respond to fluid resuscitation and blood products. Other orders (e.g., insertion of nasogastric tube and indwelling bladder catheter and obtaining the diagnostic studies) can be initiated after fluid resuscitation is initiated.

Appropriate treatment modalities for the management of cardiogenic shock include (select all that apply): a. dobutamine to increase myocardial contractility. b. vasopressors to increase systemic vascular resistance. c. circulatory assist devices such as an intraaortic balloon pump. d. corticosteroids to stabilize the cell wall in the infarcted myocardium. e. Trendelenburg positioning to facilitate venous return and increase preload.

Correct answers: a, c Rationale: Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is used in patients in cardiogenic shock with severe systolic dysfunction. Dobutamine increases myocardial contractility, decreases ventricular filling pressures, decreases systemic vascular resistance and pulmonary artery wedge pressure, and increases cardiac output, stroke volume, and central venous pressure. Dobutamine may increase or decrease the heart rate. The workload of the heart in cardiogenic shock may be reduced with the use of circulatory assist devices such as an intraaortic balloon pump or ventricular assist device.

A patient who has pericarditis related to radiation therapy, becomes dyspneic, and has a rapid, weak pulse. Heart sounds are muffled, and a 12 mmHg drop in blood pressure is noted on inspiration. The healthcare provider's interventions are aimed at preventing which type of shock? a.) Distributive b.) Neurogenic c.) Obstructive d.) Cardiogenic

c.) Obstructive Rationale: Obstructive shock can be caused by anything that impedes the heart's ability to contract and pump blood around the body, as with cardiac tamponade.

Which of the following assessment findings is an early indication of hypovolemic shock? a.) Diminished bowel sounds b.) Increased urinary output c.) Tachycardia d.) Hypertension

c.) Tachycardia Rationale: Tachycardia is an early symptom as the body compensates for a declining blood pressure the heart rate increases to circulate the blood faster to prevent tissue hypoxia.

A client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of early shock. What is important for the nurse to do to support the psychosocial integrity of the client? (Select all that apply.) A. Ask family members to stay with the client. B. Call the health care provider. C. Increase IV and oxygen rates. D. Remain with the client. E. Reassure the client that everything is being done for him or her.

A. Ask family members to stay with the client. D. Remain with the client. E. Reassure the client that everything is being done for him or her. Having a familiar person nearby may provide comfort to the client. The nurse should remain with the client who is demonstrating physiologic deterioration. Offering genuine reassurance supports the client who is anxious. The health care provider should be notified, and increasing IV and oxygen rates may be needed, but these actions do not support the client's psychosocial integrity.

The client with which laboratory result is at risk for hemorrhagic shock? A. International normalized ratio (INR) 7.9 B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) 12.5 seconds C. Platelets 170,000/mm3 D. Hemoglobin 8.2 g/dL

A. International normalized ratio (INR) 7.9 Prolonged INR indicates that blood takes longer than normal to clot; this client is at risk for bleeding. PTT of 12.5 seconds and a platelet value of 170,000/mm3 are both normal and pose no risk for bleeding. Although a hemoglobin of 8.2 g/dL is low, the client could have severe iron deficiency or could have received medication affecting the bone marrow.

Which clients are at immediate risk for hypovolemic shock? (Select all that apply.) A. Unrestrained client in motor vehicle accident B. Construction worker C. Athlete D. Surgical intensive care client E. 85-year-old with gastrointestinal virus

A. Unrestrained client in motor vehicle accident D. Surgical intensive care client E. 85-year-old with gastrointestinal virus The client who is unrestrained in a motor vehicle accident is prone to multiple trauma and bleeding. Surgical clients are at high risk for hypovolemic shock owing to fluid loss and hemorrhage. Older adult clients are prone to shock; a gastrointestinal virus results in fluid losses. Unless injured or working in excessive heat, the construction worker and the athlete are not at risk for hypovolemic shock; they may be at risk for dehydration.

1. The health care provider orders the following interventions for a 67-kg patient who has septic shock with a BP of 70/42 mm Hg and oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. In which order will the nurse implement the actions? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D, E].) a. Obtain blood and urine cultures. b. Give vancomycin (Vancocin) 1 g IV. c. Start norepinephrine (Levophed) 0.5 mcg/min. d. Infuse normal saline 2000 mL over 30 minutes. e. Titrate oxygen administration to keep O2 saturation >95%.

ANS: E, D, C, A, B The initial action for this hypotensive and hypoxemic patient should be to improve the oxygen saturation, followed by infusion of IV fluids and vasopressors to improve perfusion. Cultures should be obtained before administration of antibiotics. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1645 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

11. Norepinephrine (Levophed) has been prescribed for a patient who was admitted with dehydration and hypotension. Which patient data indicate that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before starting the norepinephrine? a. The patient's central venous pressure is 3 mm Hg. b. The patient is in sinus tachycardia at 120 beats/min. c. The patient is receiving low dose dopamine (Intropin). d. The patient has had no urine output since being admitted.

ANS: A Adequate fluid administration is essential before administration of vasopressors to patients with hypovolemic shock. The patient's low central venous pressure indicates a need for more volume replacement. The other patient data are not contraindications to norepinephrine administration. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1644 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

15. A patient with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg, pulse 136, respirations 32, temperature 104° F, and blood glucose 246 mg/dL. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Give normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr. b. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally. c. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL. d. Start norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg.

ANS: A Because of the low systemic vascular resistance (SVR) associated with septic shock, fluid resuscitation is the initial therapy. The other actions also are appropriate, and should be initiated quickly as well. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1644-1645 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

1. A 78-kg patient with septic shock has a urine output of 30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours. The pulse rate is 120/minute and the central venous pressure and pulmonary artery wedge pressure are low. Which order by the health care provider will the nurse question? a. Give PRN furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV. b. Increase normal saline infusion to 250 mL/hr. c. Administer hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100 mg IV. d. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep systolic BP >90 mm Hg.

ANS: A Furosemide will lower the filling pressures and renal perfusion further for the patient with septic shock. The other orders are appropriate. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1640 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

19. During change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a patient has been admitted with dehydration and hypotension after having vomiting and diarrhea for 4 days. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. New onset of confusion b. Heart rate 112 beats/minute c. Decreased bowel sounds d. Pale, cool, and dry extremities

ANS: A The changes in mental status are indicative that the patient is in the progressive stage of shock and that rapid intervention is needed to prevent further deterioration. The other information is consistent with compensatory shock. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1639 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

14. Which data collected by the nurse caring for a patient who has cardiogenic shock indicate that the patient may be developing multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? a. The patient's serum creatinine level is elevated. b. The patient complains of intermittent chest pressure. c. The patient's extremities are cool and pulses are weak. d. The patient has bilateral crackles throughout lung fields.

ANS: A The elevated serum creatinine level indicates that the patient has renal failure as well as heart failure. The crackles, chest pressure, and cool extremities are all consistent with the patient's diagnosis of cardiogenic shock. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1649 | 1633 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

2. A nurse is caring for a patient with shock of unknown etiology whose hemodynamic monitoring indicates BP 92/54, pulse 64, and an elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure. Which collaborative intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse question? a. Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr. b. Keep head of bed elevated to 30 degrees. c. Hold nitroprusside (Nipride) if systolic BP <90 mm Hg. d. Titrate dobutamine (Dobutrex) to keep systolic BP >90 mm Hg.

ANS: A The patient's elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure indicates volume excess. A saline infusion at 250 mL/hr will exacerbate the volume excess. The other actions are appropriate for the patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1633 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

2. Which preventive actions by the nurse will help limit the development of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) in patients admitted to the hospital (select all that apply)? a. Use aseptic technique when caring for invasive lines or devices. b. Ambulate postoperative patients as soon as possible after surgery. c. Remove indwelling urinary catheters as soon as possible after surgery. d. Advocate for parenteral nutrition for patients who cannot take oral feedings. e. Administer prescribed antibiotics within 1 hour for patients with possible sepsis.

ANS: A, B, C, E Because sepsis is the most frequent etiology for SIRS, measures to avoid infection such as removing indwelling urinary catheters as soon as possible, use of aseptic technique, and early ambulation should be included in the plan of care. Adequate nutrition is important in preventing SIRS. Enteral, rather than parenteral, nutrition is preferred when patients are unable to take oral feedings because enteral nutrition helps maintain the integrity of the intestine, thus decreasing infection risk. Antibiotics should be administered within 1 hour after being prescribed to decrease the risk of sepsis progressing to SIRS. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1649 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

1. A patient with suspected neurogenic shock after a diving accident has arrived in the emergency department. A cervical collar is in place. Which actions should the nurse take (select all that apply)? a. Prepare to administer atropine IV. b. Obtain baseline body temperature. c. Infuse large volumes of lactated Ringer's solution. d. Provide high-flow oxygen (100%) by non-rebreather mask. e. Prepare for emergent intubation and mechanical ventilation.

ANS: A, B, D, E All of the actions are appropriate except to give large volumes of lactated Ringer's solution. The patient with neurogenic shock usually has a normal blood volume, and it is important not to volume overload the patient. In addition, lactated Ringer's solution is used cautiously in all shock situations because the failing liver cannot convert lactate to bicarbonate. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1646 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

24. After change-of-shift report in the progressive care unit, who should the nurse care for first? a. Patient who had an inferior myocardial infarction 2 days ago and has crackles in the lung bases b. Patient with suspected urosepsis who has new orders for urine and blood cultures and antibiotics c. Patient who had a T5 spinal cord injury 1 week ago and currently has a heart rate of 54 beats/minute d. Patient admitted with anaphylaxis 3 hours ago who now has clear lung sounds and a blood pressure of 108/58 mm Hg

ANS: B Antibiotics should be administered within the first hour for patients who have sepsis or suspected sepsis in order to prevent progression to systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and septic shock. The data on the other patients indicate that they are more stable. Crackles heard only at the lung bases do not require immediate intervention in a patient who has had a myocardial infarction. Mild bradycardia does not usually require atropine in patients who have a spinal cord injury. The findings for the patient admitted with anaphylaxis indicate resolution of bronchospasm and hypotension. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1644 | 1646 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization; Multiple Patients TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

9. Which finding is the best indicator that the fluid resuscitation for a patient with hypovolemic shock has been effective? a. Hemoglobin is within normal limits. b. Urine output is 60 mL over the last hour. c. Central venous pressure (CVP) is normal. d. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 72 mm Hg.

ANS: B Assessment of end organ perfusion, such as an adequate urine output, is the best indicator that fluid resuscitation has been successful. The hemoglobin level, CVP, and MAP are useful in determining the effects of fluid administration, but they are not as useful as data indicating good organ perfusion. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1642 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

17. The nurse is caring for a patient who has septic shock. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Blood pressure (BP) 92/56 mm Hg b. Skin cool and clammy c. Oxygen saturation 92% d. Heart rate 118 beats/minute

ANS: B Because patients in the early stage of septic shock have warm and dry skin, the patient's cool and clammy skin indicates that shock is progressing. The other information will also be reported, but does not indicate deterioration of the patient's status. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1638 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

22. The following interventions are ordered by the health care provider for a patient who has respiratory distress and syncope after eating strawberries. Which will the nurse complete first? a. Start a normal saline infusion. b. Give epinephrine (Adrenalin). c. Start continuous ECG monitoring. d. Give diphenhydramine (Benadryl).

ANS: B Epinephrine rapidly causes peripheral vasoconstriction, dilates the bronchi, and blocks the effects of histamine and reverses the vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, and histamine release that cause the symptoms of anaphylaxis. The other interventions are also appropriate but would not be the first ones completed. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1645 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

7. A patient with cardiogenic shock has the following vital signs: BP 102/50, pulse 128, respirations 28. The pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is increased and cardiac output is low. The nurse will anticipate an order for which medication? a. 5% human albumin b. Furosemide (Lasix) IV c. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) drip d. Hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef)

ANS: B The PAWP indicates that the patient's preload is elevated, and furosemide is indicated to reduce the preload and improve cardiac output. Epinephrine would further increase heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand. 5% human albumin would also increase the PAWP. Hydrocortisone might be considered for septic or anaphylactic shock. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1645 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which laboratory result is seen in late sepsis? A. Decreased serum lactate B. Decreased segmented neutrophil count C. Increased numbers of monocytes D. Increased platelet count

B. Decreased segmented neutrophil count A decreased segmented neutrophil count is indicative of late sepsis. Serum lactate is increased in late sepsis. Monocytosis is usually seen in diseases such as tuberculosis and Rocky Mountain spotted fever. An increased platelet count does not indicate sepsis; late in sepsis, platelets may decrease due to consumptive coagulopathy.

5. After receiving 2 L of normal saline, the central venous pressure for a patient who has septic shock is 10 mm Hg, but the blood pressure is still 82/40 mm Hg. The nurse will anticipate an order for a. nitroglycerine (Tridil). b. norepinephrine (Levophed). c. sodium nitroprusside (Nipride). d. methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol).

ANS: B When fluid resuscitation is unsuccessful, vasopressor drugs are administered to increase the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and blood pressure, and improve tissue perfusion. Nitroglycerin would decrease the preload and further drop cardiac output and BP. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) is considered if blood pressure does not respond first to fluids and vasopressors. Nitroprusside is an arterial vasodilator and would further decrease SVR. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1643 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

23. Which finding about a patient who is receiving vasopressin (Pitressin) to treat septic shock is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient's urine output is 18 mL/hr. b. The patient's heart rate is 110 beats/minute. c. The patient is complaining of chest pain. d. The patient's peripheral pulses are weak.

ANS: C Because vasopressin is a potent vasoconstrictor, it may decrease coronary artery perfusion. The other information is consistent with the patient's diagnosis and should be reported to the health care provider but does not indicate a need for a change in therapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1643 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

3. A 19-year-old patient with massive trauma and possible spinal cord injury is admitted to the emergency department (ED). Which assessment finding by the nurse will help confirm a diagnosis of neurogenic shock? a. Inspiratory crackles. b. Cool, clammy extremities. c. Apical heart rate 45 beats/min. d. Temperature 101.2° F (38.4° C).

ANS: C Neurogenic shock is characterized by hypotension and bradycardia. The other findings would be more consistent with other types of shock. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1634 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

4. An older patient with cardiogenic shock is cool and clammy and hemodynamic monitoring indicates a high systemic vascular resistance (SVR). Which intervention should the nurse anticipate doing next? a. Increase the rate for the dopamine (Intropin) infusion. b. Decrease the rate for the nitroglycerin (Tridil) infusion. c. Increase the rate for the sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) infusion. d. Decrease the rate for the 5% dextrose in normal saline (D5/.9 NS) infusion.

ANS: C Nitroprusside is an arterial vasodilator and will decrease the SVR and afterload, which will improve cardiac output. Changes in the D5/.9 NS and nitroglycerin infusions will not directly decrease SVR. Increasing the dopamine will tend to increase SVR. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1644 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

20. A patient who has been involved in a motor vehicle crash arrives in the emergency department (ED) with cool, clammy skin; tachycardia; and hypotension. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Insert two large-bore IV catheters. b. Initiate continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring. c. Provide oxygen at 100% per non-rebreather mask. d. Draw blood to type and crossmatch for transfusions.

ANS: C The first priority in the initial management of shock is maintenance of the airway and ventilation. ECG monitoring, insertion of IV catheters, and obtaining blood for transfusions should also be rapidly accomplished but only after actions to maximize oxygen delivery have been implemented. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1641 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

25. After reviewing the information shown in the accompanying figure for a patient with pneumonia and sepsis, which information is most important to report to the health care provider? Petechiae noted on chest and legs Cracks heard bilaterally in lung bases no redness or swelling at IV site BUN 34 Hemaocrit 30% platelets 50,000/mL Temp 100F Pulse 102 Respirations 26 BP 110/60 O2 93% on 2L O2 NC a. Temperature and IV site appearance b. Oxygen saturation and breath sounds c. Platelet count and presence of petechiae d. Blood pressure, pulse rate, respiratory rate.

ANS: C The low platelet count and presence of petechiae suggest that the patient may have disseminated intravascular coagulation and that multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) is developing. The other information will also be discussed with the health care provider but does not indicate that the patient's condition is deteriorating or that a change in therapy is needed immediately. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1640 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

12. A nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving a nitroprusside (Nipride) infusion to treat cardiogenic shock. Which finding indicates that the medication is effective? a. No new heart murmurs b. Decreased troponin level c. Warm, pink, and dry skin d. Blood pressure 92/40 mm Hg

ANS: C Warm, pink, and dry skin indicates that perfusion to tissues is improved. Since nitroprusside is a vasodilator, the blood pressure may be low even if the medication is effective. Absence of a heart murmur and a decrease in troponin level are not indicators of improvement in shock. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1644 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

13. Which assessment information is most important for the nurse to obtain to evaluate whether treatment of a patient with anaphylactic shock has been effective? a. Heart rate b. Orientation c. Blood pressure d. Oxygen saturation

ANS: D Because the airway edema that is associated with anaphylaxis can affect airway and breathing, the oxygen saturation is the most critical assessment. Improvements in the other assessments will also be expected with effective treatment of anaphylactic shock. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1646 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

16. When the nurse educator is evaluating the skills of a new registered nurse (RN) caring for patients experiencing shock, which action by the new RN indicates a need for more education? a. Placing the pulse oximeter on the ear for a patient with septic shock b. Keeping the head of the bed flat for a patient with hypovolemic shock c. Increasing the nitroprusside (Nipride) infusion rate for a patient with a high SVR d. Maintaining the room temperature at 66° to 68° F for a patient with neurogenic shock

ANS: D Patients with neurogenic shock may have poikilothermia. The room temperature should be kept warm to avoid hypothermia. The other actions by the new RN are appropriate. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1634 | 1636 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

A client with septic shock has been started on dopamine (Intropin) at 12 mcg/kg/min. Which response indicates a positive outcome? A. Hourly urine output 10 to 12 mL/hr B. Blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg and mean arterial pressure 70 mm Hg C. Blood glucose 245 mg/dL D. Serum creatinine 3.6 mg/dL

B. Blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg and mean arterial pressure 70 mm Hg Dopamine improves blood flow by increasing peripheral resistance, which increases blood pressure—a positive response in this case. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr or 0.5 mL/kg/hr and elevations in serum creatinine indicate poor tissue perfusion to the kidney and are a negative consequence of shock, not a positive response. Although a blood glucose of 245 mg/dL is an abnormal finding, dopamine increases blood pressure and myocardial contractility, not glucose levels.

Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has cardiogenic shock? A) Avoid elevating head of bed. B) Check temperature every 2 hours. C) Monitor breath sounds frequently. D) Assess skin for flushing and itching.

C

Which problem in the clients below best demonstrates the highest risk for hypovolemic shock? A. Client receiving a blood transfusion B. Client with severe ascites C. Client with myocardial infarction D. Client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion

B. Client with severe ascites Fluid shifts from vascular to intra-abdominal may cause decreased circulating blood volume and poor tissue perfusion. Volume depletion is only one reason why a person may require a blood transfusion; anemia is another. The client receiving a blood transfusion does not have as high a risk as the client with severe ascites. Myocardial infarction results in tissue necrosis in the heart muscle; no blood or fluid losses occur. Owing to excess antidiuretic hormone secretion, the client with SIADH will retain fluid and therefore is not at risk for hypovolemic shock.

The nurse plans to administer an antibiotic to a client newly admitted with septic shock. What action does the nurse take first? A. Administer the antibiotic immediately. B. Ensure that blood cultures were drawn. C. Obtain signature for informed consent. D. Take the client's vital signs.

B. Ensure that blood cultures were drawn. Cultures must be taken to identify the organism for more targeted antibiotic treatment before antibiotics are administered. Antibiotics are not administered until after all cultures are taken. A signed consent is not needed for medication administration. Monitoring the client's vital signs is important, but the antibiotic must be administered within 1 to 3 hours; timing is essential.

How does the nurse caring for a client with septic shock recognize that severe tissue hypoxia is present? A. PaCO2 58 mm Hg B. Lactate 9.0 mmol/L C. Partial thromboplastin time 64 seconds D. Potassium 2.8 mEq/L

B. Lactate 9.0 mmol/L Poor tissue oxygenation at the cellular level causes anaerobic metabolism, with the by-product of lactic acid. Elevated partial pressure of carbon dioxide occurs with hypoventilation, which may be related to respiratory muscle fatigue, secretions, and causes other than hypoxia. Coagulation times reflect the ability of the blood to clot, not oxygenation at the cellular level. Elevation in potassium appears in septic shock due to acidosis; this value is decreased and is not consistent with septic shock.

Which clinical symptoms in a postoperative client indicate early sepsis with an excellent recovery rate if treated? A. Localized erythema and edema B. Low-grade fever and mild hypotension C. Low oxygen saturation rate and decreased cognition D. Reduced urinary output and increased respiratory rate

B. Low-grade fever and mild hypotension Low-grade fever and mild hypotension indicate very early sepsis, but with treatment, the probability of recovery is high. Localized erythema and edema indicate local infection. A low oxygen saturation rate and decreased cognition indicate active (not early) sepsis. Reduced urinary output and increased respiratory rate indicate severe sepsis.

How does the nurse recognize that a positive outcome has occurred when administering plasma protein fraction (Plasmanate)? A. Urine output 20 to 30 mL/hr for the last 4 hours B. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) 70 mm Hg C. Albumin 3.5 g/dL D. Hemoglobin 7.6 g/dL

B. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) 70 mm Hg Plasmanate expands the blood volume and helps maintain MAP greater than 65 mm Hg, which is a desired outcome in shock. Urine output should be 0.5 mL/kg/hr, or greater than 30 mL/hr. Albumin levels reflect nutritional status, which may be poor in shock states due to an increased need for calories. Plasmanate expands blood volume by exerting increasing colloid osmotic pressure in the bloodstream, pulling fluid into the vascular space; this does not improve an abnormal hemoglobin.

A postoperative client is admitted to the intensive care unit with hypovolemic shock. Which nursing action does the nurse delegate to an experienced nursing assistant? A. Obtain vital signs every 15 minutes. B. Measure hourly urine output. C. Check oxygen saturation. D. Assess level of alertness.

B. Measure hourly urine output. Monitoring hourly urine output is included in nursing assistant education and does not require special clinical judgment; the nurse evaluates the results. Obtaining vital signs, monitoring oxygen saturation, and assessing mental status in critically ill clients requires the clinical judgment of the critical care nurse because immediate intervention may be needed.

The nurse is caring for a 29-year-old man who was admitted a week ago with multiple rib fractures, a pulmonary contusion, and a left femur fracture from a motor vehicle crash. After the attending physician tells the family that the patient has developed sepsis, the family members have many questions. Which information should the nurse include in explaining the early stage of sepsis? a-Antibiotics are not useful once an infection has progressed to sepsis. b-Weaning the patient away from the ventilator is the top priority in sepsis. c-Large amounts of IV fluid are required in sepsis to fill dilated blood vessels. d-The patient has recovered from sepsis if he has warm skin and ruddy cheeks.

C-Patients with sepsis may be normovolemic but because of acute vasodilation, relative hypovolemia and hypotension occur. Patients in septic shock require large amounts of fluid replacement and may require frequent fluid boluses to maintain circulation. Antibiotics are an important component of therapy for patients with septic shock. They should be started after cultures (e.g., blood, urine) are obtained and within the first hour of septic shock. Oxygenating the tissues is the top priority in sepsis, so efforts to wean septic patients from mechanical ventilation halt until sepsis is resolving. Addititonal respiratory support may be needed during sepsis. Although cool and clammy skin is present in other early shock states, the patient in early septic shock may feel warm and flushed because of a hyperdynamic state.

Which problem places a client at highest risk for sepsis? A. Pernicious anemia B. Pericarditis C. Post kidney transplant D. Client owns an iguana

C. Post kidney transplant The post-kidney transplant client will need to take lifelong immune suppressant therapy and is at risk for infection from internal and external organisms. Pernicious anemia is related to lack of vitamin B12, not to bone marrow failure (aplastic anemia), which would place the client at risk for infection. Inflammation of the pericardial sac is an inflammatory condition that does not pose a risk for septic shock. Although owning pets, especially cats and reptiles, poses a risk for infection, the immune-suppressed kidney transplant client has a very high risk for infection, sepsis, and death.

21. A patient outcome that is appropriate for the patient in shock who has a nursing diagnosis of decreased cardiac output related to relative hypovolemia is a. urine output of 0.5 ml/kg/hr. b. decreased peripheral edema. c. decreased CVP. d. oxygen saturation 90% or more.

Correct Answer: A Rationale: A urine output of 0.5 ml/kg/hr indicates adequate renal perfusion, which is a good indicator of cardiac output. The patient may continue to have peripheral edema because fluid infusions may be needed despite third-spacing of fluids in relative hypovolemia. Decreased central venous pressure (CVP) for a patient with relative hypovolemia indicates that additional fluid infusion is necessary. An oxygen saturation of 90% will not necessarily indicate that cardiac output has improved.

15. The nurse evaluates that fluid resuscitation for a 70 kg patient in shock is effective on finding that the patient's a. urine output is 40 ml over the last hour. b. hemoglobin is within normal limits. c. CVP has decreased. d. mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 65 mm Hg.

Correct Answer: A Rationale: Assessment of end-organ perfusion, such as an adequate urine output, is the best indicator that fluid resuscitation has been successful. The hemoglobin level is not useful in determining whether fluid administration has been effective unless the patient is bleeding and receiving blood. A decrease in CVP indicates that more fluid is needed. The MAP is at the low normal range, but does not clearly indicate that tissue perfusion is adequate.

12. All of these collaborative interventions are ordered by the health care provider for a patient stung by a bee who develops severe respiratory distress and faintness. Which one will the nurse administer first? a. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) b. Normal saline infusion c. Dexamethasone (Decadron) d. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

Correct Answer: A Rationale: Epinephrine rapidly causes peripheral vasoconstriction, dilates the bronchi, and blocks the effects of histamine and reverses the vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, and histamine release that cause the symptoms of anaphylaxis. The other interventions are also appropriate but would not be the first ones administered.

23. A patient in compensated septic shock has hemodynamic monitoring with a pulmonary artery catheter and an arterial catheter. Which information obtained by the nurse indicates that the patient is still in the compensatory stage of shock? a. The cardiac output is elevated. b. The central venous pressure (CVP) is increased. c. The systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is high. d. The PAWP is high.

Correct Answer: A Rationale: In the early stages of septic shock, the cardiac output is high. The other hemodynamic changes would indicate that the patient had developed progressive or refractory septic shock.

26. An assessment finding indicating to the nurse that a 70-kg patient in septic shock is progressing to MODS includes a. respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. b. fixed urine specific gravity at 1.010. c. MAP of 55 mm Hg. d. 360-ml urine output in 8 hours.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: A fixed urine specific gravity points to an inability of the kidney to concentrate urine caused by acute tubular necrosis. With MODS, the patient's respiratory rate would initially increase. The MAP of 55 shows continued shock, but not necessarily progression to MODS. A 360-ml urine output over 8 hours indicates adequate renal perfusion.

17. Norepinephrine (Levophed) has been ordered for the patient in hypovolemic shock. Before administering the drug, the nurse ensures that the a. patient's heart rate is less than 100. b. patient has received adequate fluid replacement. c. patient's urine output is within normal range. d. patient is not receiving other sympathomimetic drugs.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: If vasoconstrictors are given in a hypovolemic patient, the peripheral vasoconstriction will further decrease tissue perfusion. A patient with hypovolemia is likely to have a heart rate greater than 100 and a low urine output, so these values are not contraindications to vasoconstrictor therapy. Patients may receive other sympathomimetic drugs concurrently with Levophed.

6. A patient who has been involved in a motor-vehicle crash is admitted to the ED with cool, clammy skin, tachycardia, and hypotension. All of these orders are written. Which one will the nurse act on first? a. Insert two 14-gauge IV catheters. b. Administer oxygen at 100% per non-rebreather mask. c. Place the patient on continuous cardiac monitor. d. Draw blood to type and crossmatch for transfusions.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: The first priority in the initial management of shock is maintenance of the airway and ventilation. Cardiac monitoring, insertion of IV catheters, and obtaining blood for transfusions should also be rapidly accomplished, but only after actions to maximize oxygen delivery have been implemented.

11. A patient who is receiving chemotherapy is admitted to the hospital with acute dehydration caused by nausea and vomiting. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care to best prevent the development of shock, systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), and multiorgan dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? a. Administer all medications through the patient's indwelling central line. b. Place the patient in a private room. c. Restrict the patient to foods that have been well-cooked or processed. d. Insert a nasogastric (NG) tube for enteral feeding.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: The patient who has received chemotherapy is immune compromised, and placing the patient in a private room will decrease the exposure to other patients and reduce infection/sepsis risk. Administration of medications through the central line increases the risk for infection and sepsis. There is no indication that the patient is neutropenic, and restricting the patient to cooked and processed foods is likely to decrease oral intake further and cause further malnutrition, a risk factor for sepsis and shock. Insertion of an NG tube is invasive and will not decrease the patient's nausea and vomiting.

8. The nurse caring for a patient in shock notifies the health care provider of the patient's deteriorating status when the patient's ABG results include a. pH 7.48, PaCO2 33 mm Hg. b. pH 7.33, PaCO2 30 mm Hg. c. pH 7.41, PaCO2 50 mm Hg. d. pH 7.38, PaCO2 45 mm Hg.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: The patient's low pH in spite of a respiratory alkalosis indicates that the patient has severe metabolic acidosis and is experiencing the progressive stage of shock; rapid changes in therapy are needed. The values in the answer beginning "pH 7.48" suggest a mild respiratory alkalosis (consistent with compensated shock). The values in the answer beginning "pH 7.41" suggest compensated respiratory acidosis. The values in the answer beginning "pH 7.38" are normal.

25. To monitor a patient with severe acute pancreatitis for the early organ damage associated with MODS, the most important assessments for the nurse to make are a. stool guaiac and bowel sounds. b. lung sounds and oxygenation status. c. serum creatinine and urinary output. d. serum bilirubin levels and skin color.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: The respiratory system is usually the system to show the signs of MODS because of the direct effect of inflammatory mediators on the pulmonary system. The other assessment data are also important to collect, but they will not indicate the development of MODS as early.

14. The triage nurse receives a call from a community member who is driving an unconscious friend with multiple injuries after a motorcycle accident to the hospital. The caller states that they will be arriving in 1 minute. In preparation for the patient's arrival, the nurse will obtain a. a liter of lactated Ringer's solution. b. 500 ml of 5% albumin. c. two 14-gauge IV catheters. d. a retention catheter.

Correct Answer: C Rationale: A patient with multiple trauma may require fluid resuscitation to prevent or treat hypovolemic shock, so the nurse will anticipate the need for 2 large bore IV lines to administer normal saline. Lactated Ringer's solution should be used cautiously and will not be ordered until the patient had been assessed for possible liver abnormalities. Although colloids may sometimes be used for volume expansion, it is generally accepted that crystalloids should be used as the initial therapy for fluid resuscitation. A catheter would likely be ordered, but in the 1 minute that the nurse has to obtain supplies, the IV catheters would take priority.

18. When the nurse is caring for a patient in cardiogenic shock who is receiving dobutamine (Dobutrex) and nitroglycerin (Tridil) infusions, the best evidence that the medications are effective is that the a. systolic BP increases to greater than 100 mm Hg. b. cardiac monitor shows sinus rhythm at 96 beats/min. c. PAWP drops to normal range. d. troponin and creatine kinase levels decrease.

Correct Answer: C Rationale: Because PAWP is increased in cardiogenic shock as a result of the increase in volume and pressure in the left ventricle, normalization of PAWP is the best indicator of patient improvement. The changes in BP and heart rate could occur with dobutamine infusion even if patient tissue perfusion was not improved. Troponin and creatine kinase (CK) levels are indicators of cardiac cellular death and are not used as indicators of improved tissue perfusion.

27. When caring for a patient who has just been admitted with septic shock, which of these assessment data will be of greatest concern to the nurse? a. BP 88/56 mm Hg b. Apical pulse 110 beats/min c. Urine output 15 ml for 2 hours d. Arterial oxygen saturation 90%

Correct Answer: C Rationale: The best data for assessing the adequacy of cardiac output are those that provide information about end-organ perfusion such as urine output by the kidneys. The low urine output is an indicator that renal tissue perfusion is inadequate and the patient is in the progressive stage of shock. The low BP, increase in pulse, and low-normal O2 saturation are more typical of compensated septic shock.

9. The patient with neurogenic shock is receiving a phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) infusion through a left-forearm IV. Which assessment information obtained by the nurse indicates a need for immediate action? a. The patient has an apical pulse rate of 58 beats/min. b. The patient's urine output has been 28 ml over the last hour. c. The patient's IV infusion site is cool and pale. d. The patient has warm, dry skin on the extremities.

Correct Answer: C Rationale: The coldness and pallor at the infusion site suggest extravasation of the Neo-Synephrine. The nurse should discontinue the IV and, if possible, infuse the medication into a central line. An apical pulse of 58 is typical for neurogenic shock but does not indicate an immediate need for nursing intervention. A 28-ml output over 1 hour would require the nurse to monitor the output over the next hour, but an immediate change in therapy is not indicated. Warm, dry skin indicates that the patient is in early neurogenic shock.

24. When caring for a patient with cardiogenic shock and possible MODS, which information obtained by the nurse will help confirm the diagnosis of MODS? a. The patient has crackles throughout both lung fields. b. The patient complains of 8/10 crushing chest pain. c. The patient has an elevated ammonia level and confusion. d. The patient has cool extremities and weak pedal pulses.

Correct Answer: C Rationale: The elevated ammonia level and confusion suggest liver failure in addition to the cardiac failure. The crackles, chest pain, and cool extremities are all consistent with cardiogenic shock and do not indicate that there are failures in other major organ systems.

7. A patient with massive trauma and possible spinal cord injury is admitted to the ED. The nurse suspects that the patient may be experiencing neurogenic shock in addition to hypovolemic shock, based on the finding of a. cool, clammy skin. b. shortness of breath. c. heart rate of 48 beats/min d. BP of 82/40 mm Hg.

Correct Answer: C Rationale: The normal sympathetic response to shock/hypotension is an increase in heart rate. The presence of bradycardia suggests unopposed parasympathetic function, as occurs in neurogenic shock. The other symptoms are consistent with hypovolemic shock.

3. A patient with hypovolemic shock has a urinary output of 15 ml/hr. The nurse understands that the compensatory physiologic mechanism that leads to altered urinary output is a. activation of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS), causing vasodilation of the renal arteries. b. stimulation of cardiac -adrenergic receptors, leading to increased cardiac output. c. release of aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which cause sodium and water retention. d. movement of interstitial fluid to the intravascular space, increasing renal blood flow.

Correct Answer: C Rationale: The release of aldosterone and ADH lead to the decrease in urine output by increasing the reabsorption of sodium and water in the renal tubules. SNS stimulation leads to renal artery vasoconstriction. -Receptor stimulation does increase cardiac output, but this would improve urine output. During shock, fluid leaks from the intravascular space into the interstitial space.

10. A patient in septic shock has not responded to fluid resuscitation, as evidenced by a decreasing BP and cardiac output. The nurse anticipates the administration of a. nitroglycerine (Tridil). b. dobutamine (Dobutrex). c. norepinephrine (Levophed). d. sodium nitroprusside (Nipride).

Correct Answer: C Rationale: When fluid resuscitation is unsuccessful, administration of vasopressor drugs is used to increase the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and improve tissue perfusion. Nitroglycerin would decrease the preload and further drop cardiac output and BP. Dobutamine will increase stroke volume, but it would also further decrease SVR. Nitroprusside is an arterial vasodilator and would further decrease SVR.

16. The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with a urinary tract infection and sepsis. Which information obtained in the assessment indicates a need for a change in therapy? a. The patient is restless and anxious. b. The patient has a heart rate of 134. c. The patient has hypotonic bowel sounds. d. The patient has a temperature of 94.1° F.

Correct Answer: D Rationale: Hypothermia is an indication that the patient is in the progressive stage of shock. The other data are consistent with compensated shock.

2. A diabetic patient who has had vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days is admitted to the hospital with a blood glucose of 748 mg/ml (41.5 mmol/L) and a urinary output of 120 ml in the first hour. The vital signs are blood pressure (BP) 72/62; pulse 128, irregular and thready; respirations 38; and temperature 97° F (36.1° C). The patient is disoriented and lethargic with cold, clammy skin and cyanosis in the hands and feet. The nurse recognizes that the patient is experiencing the a. progressive stage of septic shock. b. compensatory stage of diabetic shock. c. refractory stage of cardiogenic shock. d. progressive stage of hypovolemic shock.

Correct Answer: D Rationale: The patient's history of hyperglycemia (and the associated polyuria), vomiting, and diarrhea is consistent with hypovolemia, and the symptoms are most consistent with the progressive stage of shock. The patient's temperature of 97° F is inconsistent with septic shock. The history is inconsistent with a diagnosis of cardiogenic shock, and the patient's neurologic status is not consistent with refractory shock.

A 78-year-old man has confusion and temperature of 104° F (40° C). He is a diabetic with purulent drainage from his right heel. After an infusion of 3 L of normal saline solution, his assessment findings are BP 84/40 mm Hg; heart rate 110; respiratory rate 42 and shallow; CO 8 L/minute; and PAWP 4 mm Hg. This patient's symptoms are most likely indicative of: a. sepsis. b. septic shock. c. multiple organ dysfunction syndrome. d. systemic inflammatory response syndrome.

Correct answer: b Rationale: Septic shock is the presence of sepsis with hypotension despite fluid resuscitation along with the presence of inadequate tissue perfusion. To meet the diagnostic criteria for sepsis, the patient's temperature must be higher than 100.9° F (38.3° C), or the core temperature must be lower than 97.0° F (36° C). Hemodynamic parameters for septic shock include elevated heart rate; decreased pulse pressure, blood pressure, systemic vascular resistance, central venous pressure, and pulmonary artery wedge pressure; normal or elevated pulmonary vascular resistance; and decreased, normal, or increased pulmonary artery pressure, cardiac output, and mixed venous oxygen saturation.

The nurse is assisting in the care of several patients in the critical care unit. Which patient is at greatest risk for developing multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? a-22-year-old patient with systemic lupus erythematosus who is admitted with a pelvic fracture after a motor vehicle accident b-48-year-old patient with lung cancer who is admitted for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone and hyponatremia c-65-year-old patient with coronary artery disease, dyslipidemia, and primary hypertension who is admitted for unstable angina d-82-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease who is admitted for peritonitis related to a peritoneal dialysis catheter infection

D- A patient with peritonitis is at high risk for developing sepsis. In addition, a patient with diabetes is at high risk for infections and impaired healing. Sepsis and septic shock are the most common causes of MODS. Individuals at greatest risk for developing MODS are older adults and persons with significant tissue injury or preexisting disease. MODS can be initiated by any severe injury or disease process that activates a massive systemic inflammatory response.

Following coronary artery bypass graft surgery a patient has postoperative bleeding that requires returning to surgery to repair the leak. During surgery, the patient has a myocardial infarction (MI). After restoring the patient's body temperature to normal, which patient assessment is the most important for planning nursing care? a- Cardiac index (CI) 5 L/min/m2 b-Central venous pressure 8 mm Hg c-Mean arterial pressure (MAP) 86 mm Hg d-Pulmonary artery pressure (PAP) 28/14 mm Hg

D- Pulmonary hypertension as indicated by an elevated PAP indicates impaired forward flow of blood because of left ventricular dysfunction or hypoxemia. Both can be due to the MI. The CI, CVP, and MAP readings are normal.

What laboratory finding fits with a medical diagnosis of cardiogenic shock? a-Decreased liver enzymes b-Increased white blood cells c-Decreased red blood cells, hemoglobin, and hematocrit d-Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels

D- The renal hypoperfusion that accompanies cardiogenic shock results in increased BUN and creatinine levels. Impaired perfusion of the liver results in increased liver enzymes, while white blood cell levels do not typically increase in cardiogenic shock. Red blood cell indices are typically normal because of relative hypovolemia.

A client with hypovolemic shock has these vital signs: temperature 97.9° F; pulse 122 beats/min; blood pressure 86/48 mm Hg; respirations 24 breaths/min; urine output 20 mL for last 2 hours; skin cool and clammy. Which medication order for this client does the nurse question? A. Dopamine (Intropin) 12 mcg/kg/min B. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) 5 mcg/kg/min C. Plasmanate 1 unit D. Bumetanide (Bumex) 1 mg IV

D. Bumetanide (Bumex) 1 mg IV A diuretic such as bumetanide will decrease blood volume in a client who is already hypovolemic; this order should be questioned because this is not an appropriate action to expand the client's blood volume. The other orders are appropriate for improving blood pressure in shock, and do not need to be questioned.

When caring for an obtunded client admitted with shock of unknown origin, which action does the nurse take first? A. Obtain IV access and hang prescribed fluid infusions. B. Apply the automatic blood pressure cuff. C. Assess level of consciousness and pupil reaction to light. D. Check the airway and respiratory status.

D. Check the airway and respiratory status. When caring for any client, determining airway and respiratory status is the priority. The airway takes priority over obtaining IV access, applying the blood pressure cuff, and assessing for changes in the client's mental status.

The nurse is caring for a critically ill patient. The nurse suspects that the patient has progressed beyond the compensatory stage of shock if what occurs? A. Increased blood glucose levels B. Increased serum sodium levels C. Increased serum calcium levels D. Increased serum potassium levles

D. Increased serum potassium levels

Which nurse should be assigned to care for an intubated client who has septic shock as the result of a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection? A. The LPN/LVN who has 20 years of experience B. The new RN who recently finished orienting and is working independently with moderately complex clients C. The RN who will also be caring for a client who had coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery 12 hours ago D. The RN with 2 years of experience in intensive care

D. The RN with 2 years of experience in intensive care The RN with current intensive care experience who is not caring for a postoperative client would be an appropriate assignment. Care of the unstable client with intubation and mechanical ventilation is not within the scope of practice for the LPN/LVN. A client who is experiencing septic shock is too complex for the new RN. Although the RN who is also caring for the post-CABG client is experienced, this assignment will put the post-CABG client at risk for MRSA infection.

Nursing assessment of a client receiving serum albumin for treatment of shock should include: a.) Assessing lung sounds. b.) Monitoring glucose. c.) Monitoring the potassium level. d.) Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit.

a.) Assessing lung sounds. Rationale: Colloids pull fluid into vascular space. Circulatory overload could occur. The nurse should assess the client for symptoms of heart failure.

A client in shock is prescribed an inotropic drug to act on alpha and beta receptors. The nurse will most likely be administering: a.) Dopamine. b.) Dobutamine. c.) Pavulon. d.) Milrinone.

a.) Dopamine.

A patient is admitted to the emergency department after sustaining abdominal injuries and a broken femur from a motor vehicle accident. The patient is pale, diaphoretic, and is not talking coherently. Vital signs upon admission are temperature 98 F (36 C), heart rate 130 beats/minute, respiratory rate 34 breaths/minute, blood pressure 50/40 mmHg. The healthcare provider suspects which type of shock? a.) Hypovolemic b.) Cardiogenic c.) Neurogenic d.) Distributive

a.) Hypovolemic

Which type of fluid is most appropriate for volume replacement for a patient with non-hemorrhagic hypovolemic shock? a.) Lactated Ringers (LR) b.) 10% Dextrose in Water (D 10 W) c.) One-half Normal Saline (1/2% NS) d.) Packed Red Blood Cells (PRBC)

a.) Lactated Ringers (LR)

The client experiences shock following a spinal cord injury. This type of shock is classified as: a.) Hypovolemic. b.) Neurogenic. c.) Cardiogenic. d.) Anaphylactic.

a.) Neurogenic.

A client has been diagnosed with sepsis. The nurse will most likely find which of the following when assessing this client: Select all that apply: a.) Rapid shallow respirations. b.) Severe hypotension. c.) Mental status changes. d.) Elevated temperature. e.) Lactic acidosis. f.) Oliguria.

a.) Rapid shallow respirations. d.) Elevated temperature.

The client in shock is prescribed an infusion of lactated Ringer's solution. The nurse recognizes that the function of this fluid in the treatment of shock is to: a.) Replace fluid, and promote urine output. b.) Draw water into cells. c.) Draw water from cells to blood vessels. d.) Maintain vascular volume.

a.) Replace fluid, and promote urine output.

A patient with a myocardial infarction (MI) and cardiogenic shock has the following vital signs: BP 86/50, pulse 126, respirations 30. Hemodynamic monitoring reveals an elevated PAWP and decreased cardiac output. The nurse will anticipate: a.) administration of furosemide (Lasix) IV. b.) titration of an epinephrine (Adrenalin) drip. c.) administration of a normal saline bolus. d.) assisting with endotracheal intubation.

a.) administration of furosemide (Lasix) IV. Rationale: The PAWP indicates that the patient's preload is elevated and furosemide is indicated to reduce the preload and improve cardiac output. Epinephrine would further increase myocardial oxygen demand and might extend the MI. The PAWP is already elevated, so normal saline boluses would be contraindicated. There is no indication that the patient requires endotracheal intubation.

An intensive care nurse, is assessing a patient with suspected sepsis. Which predisposing factors would expect to be found in the patient with septic shock? a.) A 45 year old client with a history of renal insufficiency. b.) A client age 65, with a history of cancer who is recovering from an abdominal peritoneal resection. c.) A 27 year old with pyelonephritis responding to treatment with an antibiotic. d.) A 50 year old with community acquired tuberculosis.

b.) A client age 65, with a history of cancer who is recovering from an abdominal peritoneal resection.

The acute care nurse is planning an inservice to present evidence based practices to address the increasing incidence in ventilator associated pneumonia. Interventions included in this protocol include: a.) Avoid the use of agents that increase the pH of the stomach as these blocks their antibacterial properties. b.) Maintaining the head of the bed at 30 degrees and strict hand washing before and after any patient contact. c.) Changing the ventilator circuit at least every 24 hours. d.) Provide routine oral care with a combination of alcohol based products.

b.) Maintaining the head of the bed at 30 degrees and strict hand washing before and after any patient contact.

The nurse caring for a patient in shock notifies the health care provider of the patient's deteriorating status when the patient's ABG results include: a.) pH 7.48, PaCO2 33 mm Hg. b.) pH 7.33, PaCO2 30 mm Hg. c.) pH 7.41, PaCO2 50 mm Hg. d.) pH 7.38, PaCO2 45 mm Hg.

b.) pH 7.33, PaCO2 30 mm Hg. Rationale: The patient's low pH in spite of a respiratory alkalosis indicates that the patient has severe metabolic acidosis and is experiencing the progressive stage of shock; rapid changes in therapy are needed. The values in the answer beginning "pH 7.48" suggest a mild respiratory alkalosis (consistent with compensated shock). The values in the answer beginning "pH 7.41" suggest compensated respiratory acidosis. The values in the answer beginning "pH 7.38" are normal.

The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who has septic shock. Which of these should the healthcare provider administer to the patient first? a.) Antibiotics to treat the underlying infection. b.) Corticosteroids to reduce inflammation. c.) IV fluids to increase intravascular volume. d.) Vasopressors to increase blood pressure.

c.) IV fluids to increase intravascular volume. Rationale: Circulation and perfusion are addressed first so IV fluids will be started immediately. After blood cultures are obtained, broad-spectrum antibiotics should be administered without delay. Vasopressors are administered if the patient is not responding to the fluid challenge. Corticosteroids may be considered to address the inflammatory-induced vasodilation and capillary leakage.

When performing a physical assessment of a patient with severe sepsis, what abnormal assessment would the nurse expect to find? a.) A WBC of 8,100 despite the presence of chills. b.) A blood pressure of 100/72 with a capillary refill of <3 seconds. c.) Leucocytosis in a patient with absent bowel sounds. d.) Renal output that fluctuates according to intravenous intake.

c.) Leucocytosis in a patient with absent bowel sounds. Rationale: Leucocytosis in a patient with absent bowel sounds A white count > 12,000/mm3 and a left shift is one of the diagnostic criteria. Absent bowel sounds indicate a possible ileus. This would allow translocation of the intestinal flora into the bloodstream.

Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) develops in severe sepsis as a result of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), disseminated intravascular coagulation and damage to the endothelium. Which of the following statements best describes the management of MODS? a.) The use of proton pump inhibitors and H2 agents to increase the pH of the stomach inhibit the development of stress ulcers, an ileus and malabsorption issues. b.) Maintaining ventilator settings that ensure a tidal volume of at least 6 mL/kg of body weight will keep the lungs from being injured by endothelial damage. c.) There is no specific therapies for MODS other than supportive care and the early recognition of dysfunctional organ(s). d.) Much of the organ damage that occurs with MODS in the setting of severe sepsis is associated with pre-existing conditions.

c.) There is no specific therapies for MODS other than supportive care and the early recognition of dysfunctional organ(s).

Sepsis is the most common cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). All of the following statements concerning this life threatening complications are true except: a.) The rapidity of onset is determined by the intensity of the trigger and is related to the condition of the patient's liver, bone marrow and endothelium. b.) In the early phase, the patient may demonstrate manifestations of thrombosis and microemboli. c.) Though a coagulopathy is present, excessive blood loss rarely results in hemorrhagic shock. d.) The most critical intervention for DIC is the early identification and treatment of the underlying disorder.

c.) Though a coagulopathy is present, excessive blood loss rarely results in hemorrhagic shock.

A patient in septic shock has not responded to fluid resuscitation, as evidenced by a decreasing BP and cardiac output. The nurse anticipates the administration of a.) nitroglycerine (Tridil). b.) dobutamine (Dobutrex). c.) norepinephrine (Levophed). d.) sodium nitroprusside (Nipride).

c.) norepinephrine (Levophed). Rationale: When fluid resuscitation is unsuccessful, administration of vasopressor drugs is used to increase the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and improve tissue perfusion. Nitroglycerin would decrease the preload and further drop cardiac output and BP. Dobutamine will increase stroke volume, but it would also further decrease SVR. Nitroprusside is an arterial vasodilator and would further decrease SVR.

A patient has a spinal cord injury at T4. Vital signs include falling blood pressure with bradycardia. The nurse recognizes that the patient is experiencing: a. a relative hypervolemia. b. an absolute hypovolemia. c. neurogenic shock from low blood flow. d. neurogenic shock from massive vasodilation.

d Rationale: Neurogenic shock results in massive vasodilation without compensation as a result of the loss of sympathetic nervous system vasoconstrictor tone. Massive vasodilation leads to a pooling of blood in the blood vessels, tissue hypoperfusion, and, ultimately, impaired cellular metabolism. Clinical manifestations of neurogenic shock are hypotension (from the massive vasodilation) and bradycardia (from unopposed parasympathetic stimulation).

A patient has a spinal cord injury at T4. Vital signs include falling blood pressure with bradycardia. The nurse recognizes that the patient is experiencing: a. a relative hypervolemia. b. an absolute hypovolemia. c. neurogenic shock from low blood flow. d. neurogenic shock from massive vasodilation.

d Rationale: Neurogenic shock results in massive vasodilation without compensation as a result of the loss of sympathetic nervous system vasoconstrictor tone. Massive vasodilation leads to a pooling of blood in the blood vessels, tissue hypoperfusion, and, ultimately, impaired cellular metabolism. Clinical manifestations of neurogenic shock are hypotension (from the massive vasodilation) and bradycardia (from unopposed parasympathetic stimulation).

When compensatory mechanisms for hypovolemic shock are activated, the nurse would expect which two patient findings to normalize? a.) Intensity of peripheral pulses and body temperature. b.) Peripheral pulses and heart rate (HR). c.) Metabolic alkalosis and oxygen saturation. d.) Cardiac output (CO) and blood pressure (BP).

d.) Cardiac output (CO) and blood pressure (BP).

The healthcare provider is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of hemorrhagic pancreatitis. The patient's central venous pressure (CVP) reading is 2, blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, lung sounds are clear, and jugular veins are flat. Which of these actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take? a.) Slow the IV infusion rate b.) Administer dopamine c.) No interventions are needed at this time d.) Increase the IV infusion rate

d.) Increase the IV infusion rate