SWM 301 search

Lakukan tugas rumah & ujian kamu dengan baik sekarang menggunakan Quizwiz!

In ... Organization structure type, project manager has 'Moderate to high' authority A. Functional B. Balance Matrix C. Week Matrix D. Projectized E. Strong Matrix

Which of the following are NOT inputs to the Develop Project Charter process? A. Enterprise environmental Factors B. Organizational Process Assets C. Project Statement of works D. Contract E. Expert Judgment

"Will the project meet NPV, ROI, and payback estimates?" applies to which risk category? a.Financial risk b.Technology risk c.Structure/process risk d.Market risk

____ should be forgotten. a. Sunk costs b. Indirect costs c. Direct costs d. Intangible costs

Project quality management involves ____ main processes. a.two c.four b.three d.five

Effective project integration usually requires an emphasis on: A. Effective communications at key interface points B. Product control C. The personal careers of the team members D. Timely updates to the project management plan

If estimates for total discounted benefits for a project are $130,000 and total discounted costs are $100,000, what is the estimated return on investment (ROI)? A. 30 percent B. $130,000 C. 130 percent D. $30,000

___________causes people to participate in an activity for their own enjoyment. A. Extrinsic motivation B. Intrinsic motivation C. Self motivation D. Social motivation

What percentage of the total distribution is 2 sigma from the mean equal to? A. 68.29% B. 95.46% C. 99.99% D. 99.73%

B ( 1sigma 68.29 3sigma 99.73)

13. Personnel in a organizational structure often report to two or more bosses. a. functional b. project c. matrix d. hybrid

7. Why did McDonald's terminate a large project after spending $170 million on it? a. The company found a better technology. b. The company decided to outsource the work. c. The scope was too much to handle. d. The government requirement that prompted the project was repealed.

Project setup costs are example of A. Opportunity costs B. Variable costs C. Fixed costs D. Overhead costs

Q45: The risk register describes all identified risks. Which of the following is NOT including as a part of risk register? A. Proposed responses, owners, current status B. Probability of occurrence, impact on objectives C. Risk description, category, causes D. Reporting formats, tracking

Which of the following describes the assumptions of the theory Y style of management? A. People have no ambitions, wants no responsibility, and would rather follow than lead. B. Theory Y assumes workers dislike and avoid work, so managers must use coercion, threats, and various control schemes to get workers to meet objectives. C. People work only for money and security D. Theory Y assumes individuals consider work as natural as play or rest and enjoy the satisfaction of esteem and self-actualization needs.

The ____ is a network diagramming technique in which boxes represent activities. a.PDM b.AOA c.ADM d.POA

____ correct(s) or prevent(s) further quality problems based on quality control measurements. a.Process adjustments c.Acceptance decisions b.Rework d.Auditing

____ is the earned value minus the planned value. a. SV c. CPI b. CV d. SPI

____, with assistance from financial experts in their organizations, should create estimates of the costs and benefits of the project for its entire life cycle. a. Financial managers b. Project managers c. Budget managers d. System managers

QN=41 Which tool or technique for collecting requirements is often the most expensive and time consuming? a. surveys b. focus group c. interview d. observation

____ risks are a direct result of implementing a risk response. a. Primary b. Tertiary c. Secondary d. Residual

QN=1 Which is the one not included in the features of a project? a. Temporary b. Unique purpose c. Progressive elaboration d. Fixed operation

The ____ is the ratio of earned value to planned value and can be used to estimate the projected time to complete the project. a. SV c. CPI b. CV d. SPI

14. You cannot start editing a technical report until someone else completes the first draft. What type of dependency does this represent? a. finish-to-start b. start-to-start c. finish-to-finish d. start-to-finish

_____ is getting people to do things based on a position of authority. A. Coercive power B. Expert power C. Legitimate power D. Reward power E. Referent power

What tool can you use to help manage stakeholders by ranking scope, time, and cost goals in order of important and provide guidelines on balancing these constraints? A. expectations matrix B. priority log C. triple constraint matrix D. issue log

____ results in supporting detail to document important product information as well as assumptions and constraints related to specific activities. a.Defining activities b.Sequencing activities c.Estimating activity resources d.Estimating activity duration

QN=26 In which process group do we identify human and non-human resources required for a project? a. Planning b. Initiating c. Executing d. Closing

The term "systems approach" emerged in the ____. a. 1940s b. 1950s c. 1960s d. 1970s

____ involves identifying and documenting the relationships between project activities. a.Defining activities b.Sequencing activities c.Estimating activity resources d.Estimating activity durations

____ involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner. a.Reporting performance c.Managing stakeholder expectations b.Distributing information d.Planning communications

____ wrote Quality Is Free in 1979 and is best known for suggesting that organizations strive for zero defects. a.Juran c.Crosby b.Ishikawa d.Deming

____ is a problem-solving approach that requires defining the scope of the system, dividing it into its components, and then identifying and evaluating its problems, opportunities, constraints, and needs. a. Systems philosophy b. Systems management c. Systems troubleshooting d. Systems analysis

1. Which of the following is not part of project human resource management? a. resource estimating b. acquiring the project team c. developing the project team d. managing the project team

11. Which of the following processes involves determining the policies, procedures, and documentation that will be used for planning, executing, and controlling the project schedule? a. planning schedule management b. defining activities c. estimating activity resources d. activity sequencing

15. A is a product or service, such as a technical report, a training session, or hard ware, produced or provided as part of a project. a. deliverable b. product c. work package d. tangible goal

16. A(n) ________________ report describes where a project stands at a specific point in time. a. status b. performance c. forecast d. earned value

17. Which of the following terms describes a framework of the phases involved in developing information systems? a. systems development life cycle b. rapid application development c. predictive life cycle d. extreme programming

2. Which tool or technique for collecting requirements is often the most expensive and time consuming? a. interviews b. focus groups c. surveys d. observation

2. causes people to participate in an activity for their own enjoyment. a. Intrinsic motivation b. Extrinsic motivation c. Self motivation d. Social motivation

24. If a company loses $5 for every $100 in revenue for a certain product, what is the profit margin for that product? a. - 5 percent b. 5 percent c. - $5 d. $5

24. Your project involves using a new release of a common software application, but if that release is not available, your team has _____________ plans to use the current release. a. contingency b. fallback c. reserve d. mitigation

26. You are preparing a cost estimate for a building based on its location, purpose, number of square feet, and other characteristics. What cost-estimating technique are you using? a. parametric b. analogous c. bottom-up d. top-down

27. Initiating involves developing a project charter, which is part of the project ______ management knowledge area. a. integration b. scope c. communications d. risk

29. Which of the following is not a typical reason that project teams would use a predictive approach versus an agile approach to managing a project? a. The project has unclear up-front requirements. b. The project team is inexperienced and dispersed. c. Large risks are involved. d. The completion date is fairly rigid.

29. _____________ is a quantitative risk analysis tool that uses a model of a system to analyze its expected behavior or performance. a. Simulation b. Sensitivity analysis c. Monte Carlo analysis d. EMV

3.3 In which project procurement management process is an RFP often written? a. planning procurement management b. conducting procurements c. controlling procurements d. selecting sellers

30. Your project team has decided not to use an upcoming release of software because it might cause your schedule to slip. Which negative risk response strategy are you using? a. avoidance b. acceptance c. transference d. mitigation

31. Which of the following processes is not part of project integration management? a. developing the project business case b. developing the project charter c. developing the project management plan d. closing the project or phase

31. is the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements. a. Quality b. Conformance to requirements c. Fitness for use d. Reliability

35. Which type of contract has the least amount of risk for the buyer? a. fixed-price b. cost plus incentive fee (CPIF) c. time and material d. cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)

36. A is a document that formally recognizes the existence of a project and provides direction on the project's objectives and management. a. project charter b. contract c. business case d. project management plan

38. What is the preferred order for performing testing on IT projects? a. unit testing, integration testing, system testing, user acceptance testing b. unit testing, system testing, integration testing, user acceptance testing c. unit testing, system testing, user acceptance testing, integration testing d. unit testing, integration testing, user acceptance testing, system testing

38. ensures that the descriptions of the project's products are correct and complete. a. Configuration management b. Integrated change control c. Integration management d. A change control board

40. is a term used to describe various procurement functions that are now done electronically. a. E-procurement b. eBay c. E-commerce d. EMV

44. What type of grid can categorize stakeholders based on their level of authority and concern? a. a power/interest grid b. an authority/concern grid c. an authority/interest grid d. a resistance/support grid

47. What tool can you use to document, monitor, and track items that need resolution on a project? a. an issue log b. a risk register c. an issue register d. a resolution log

48. When should you start controlling stakeholder engagement on a project? a. in the early phases b. in the middle phases c. in the latter phases d. none of the above; you cannot control stakeholder engagement

6. is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements. a. Project management b. Program management c. Project portfolio management d. Requirements management

7. Project portfolio management addresses goals of an organization, while project management addresses goals. a. strategic, tactical b. tactical, strategic c. internal, external d. external, internal

9. What are the five stages in Tuckman's model of team development, in chronological order? a. forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning b. storming, forming, norming, performing, and adjourning c. norming, forming, storming, performing, and adjourning d. forming, storming, performing, norming, and adjourning

A ... is a deliverable-oriented grouping of the work involved in a project that defined the total scope of the project. A. WBS B. WBS dictionary C. scope statement D. work package

A _________ is a deliverable-oriented grouping of the work involved in a project that defined the total scope of the project A. WBS B. WBS dictionary C. scope statement D. work package

A project has several teams. Team C has repeatedly missed deadlines in the past. This has cause team D have to crash the critical path several times. As the team leader for team D, you should meet with the... A. Project manager and the leader of team C B. Project manager and management C. Project manager alone D. Manger of team D

A project has several teams. Team C has repeatedly missed deadlines in the past. This has cause team D have to crash the critical path several times. As the team leader for team D, you should meet with the＿＿＿＿＿ A. Project manager and the leader of team C B. Project manager and management C. Project manager alone. D. Manager of team D

A project has several teams. Team C has repeatedly missed deadlines in the past. This has cause team D have to crash the critical path several times. As the team leader for team D. you should meet with the A. Project manager and the leader of team C B. Project manager and management C. Project manager alone. D. Manager of team D

All of the following statements about change control are INCORRECT EXCEPT A. Contract should include procedures to accommodate changes B. More detailed specifications eliminate the cause of changes C. A fixed price contract will minimize the need for change control D. Changes seldom provide real benefits to the project.

All of the following statements about change control are INCORRECT EXCEPT: A. Contracts should include procedures to accommodate changes B. More detailed specifications eliminate the cause of changes C. A fixed price contract will minimize the need for change control D. Changes seldom provide real benefits to the project

All of the following statements about change control are INCORRECT EXCEPT_____ A. Contract should include procedures to accommodate changes B. More detailed specifications eliminate the cause of changes C. A fixed price contract will minimize the need for change control Next D. Changes seldom provide real benefits to the project.

An item you need for a project has a daily lease cost of $200. To purchase the item, there is an investment cost of $6000 and a daily cost of $50. Calculate the number of days when the lease cost would be the same as the purchase cost. A. 40 B. 30 C. 60 D. 50

An output of the Close Project or Phase process is the creation of ____ A. Project archives B. A project charter C. A project management plan D. A risk analysis plan

Bidder conferences are part of A. Conduct Procurements B. Administer Procurements C. Plan Procurements D. Communication Management.

Bidder conferences are part of... A. Conduct Procurements B. Administer Procurements C. Plan Procurements D. Communication Management

Bidder conferences are part of____ A. Conduct Procurements B. Administer Procurements C. Plan Procurements D. Communication Management.

Closure includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Determining performance measures. B. Updating the company's organizational process assets. C. Turning over the product of the project. D. Documenting the degree to which each project phase was properly closed after its completion.

Closure includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Determining performce measures B. Updating the company's organizational process assets C. Turning over the product of the project D. Documenting the degree to which each project phase was properly closed after its completion.

During project executing, a major problem occurs that was not included in the risk register. What should you do FIRST? A. Create a workaround B. Reevaluate the Identify Risks process C. Look for any unexpected effects of the problem D. Tell management

If estimates for total discounted benefits for a project are $130.000 and total discounted costs are $100.000. what is the estimated return on investment (ROI)? A. 30 percent B. $130.000 C. 130 percent D. $30.000

If the estimates for total discounted benefits for a project are $130.000 and total discounted costs are $100,000, what is the estimated return on investment (ROI)? A. 30 percent B. $130.000 C. 130 percent D. $30,000

If your college or university wanted to get information from potential sellers for providing a new sports stadium, what type of document would they require of the potential sellers? A. Proposal B. RFQ C. RFP D. Quote

Q05: The project status report is an example of which type of communication? A. Formal written communication B. Formal verbal communication C. Informal written communication D. Informal verbal communication

Q13: Which of the following sequences represents straight line depreciation? A. $100,$100,$100 B. $100,$120,$140 C. $100,$120,$160 D. $160, $140, $120

Q21: ________________ refer(s) to all project work involved in creating the products of the project and processes used to create them. A. Scope B. Deliverables C. Product development D. Milestones

Q22: Which of the following can be used to determine what work is included in each work package for each of your team members? A. Work Breakdown Structure Dictionary B. Project Charter C. Project scope statement D. Project schedule

Q30: Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding the procurement management plan? A. The procurement management plan defines the statement of work which contains the details of the procurement item/ service in specific terms B. The procurement management plan explains how multiples vendors should be managed C. The procurement management plan is an output of the plan Contracting process D. None of the statements are true

Q35: Which of the following is not a suggestion for improving user input? A. Only have meeting as needed, not on a regular basis B. Co-locate users with developers C. Develop a good project selection process for IT projects D. Have users on the project team

Q44: Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding project charter? A. Document that constitute what the project is, what the project will deliver, and how all the processes will be managed B. Provide the product manager with authority to assign organization resources C. Provides details on the business justification for the project D. None of the choices are correct E. Formally authorizes the project

Q49: All of the following statements are true regarding decomposition EXCEPT: A. Work should be decomposed to a level where it can be performed by one person B. Work should be decomposed to a level where it can be outsourced or contracted out if necessary C. Work should be decomposed to a level where it cannot be logically subdivided further D. Work should be decomposed to a level where it can be realistically estimated

Q51: Which of the following are outputs of the Risk Management Planning process? A. Risk management plan B. Checklists C. Overall risk planning D. Residual risk

Q52: The line in the middle of a control chart is called the: A. mean B. Specification limit C. Upper and lower control limit D. Rule of seven

Q53: Stakeholders can be identified in which project management process A. Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing B. Initiating and planning C. Planning and monitoring and controlling D. Monitoring and controlling and closing

Q57: At the bottom of Maslow's pyramid or hierarchy of needs are _________ needs A. Physiological B. Self-actualization C. Esteem D. Safety

Q58: Which is one of the advantages of a functional structure? A. All employees report to one manager and have a clear chain of command. B. All employees report to two or more managers, but project team members show loyalty to functional managers. C. The organization is focused on project and project work. D. Teams are collocated.

QN=109 Which is not included in Risk Response Planning? a. Centralization b. Exploitation c. Acceptance d. Enhancement

Risk tolerances are determined in order to help ______ A. The team rank the project risks B. The project manager estimates the project C. The team schedule the project D. Management knows how other managers will act on the project

Suppose there is a 20 percent chance that you will earn $10,000 and a 80 percent chance that you will lose $100,000 on a particular protect. What is the projects estimated monetary value? A. -$78.000 B. $80,000 C. -$20,000 D. $78,000

The amount of authority a project manager possesses can be related to A. The organization structure B. The project manager's communication skills C. Key stakeholder's influence on the project D. The amount of authority the manager of the project manager possesses

The amount of authority a project manager possesses can be related to... A. The organization structure B. The project manager's communication skills C. Key stakeholder's influence on the project D. The amount of authority the manager of the project manager possesses

The amount of authority a project manager possesses can be related to______ A. The organization structure B. The project manager's communication skills C. Key stakeholder's influence on the project D. The amount of authority the manager of the project manager possesses

The customer requests a change to the project that would increase the project risk. Which of the following should you do before all the others? A. Analyze the impacts of the change with the team B. Change the risk management plan C. Include the expected monetary value of the risk in the new cost estimate D. Talk to the customer about the impact of the change

The customer requests a change to the project that would increase the project risk. Which of the following should you do before all the others? A. Analyze the impacts of the change with the team B. Change the risk management plan. C. Include the expected monetary value of the risk in the new cost estimate. D. Talk to the customer about the impact of the change.

The highest point of Maslow's hierarchy of needs are listed below is called A. Esteem. B. Physiological satisfaction. C. Need for association D. Attainment of survival.

The highest point of Maslow's hierarchy of needs are listed below is called... A. esteem B. Physiological satisfaction C. Need for association D. Attainment of survival

The highest point of Maslow's hierarchy of needs are listed below is called____ A. Esteem. B. Physiological satisfaction. C. Need for association D. Attainment of survival.

The management theory that states that all people can direct their own effort is _______ A. Theory Y B. Herzberg's theory C. Maslow's theory D. Theory X

The management theory that states that workers dislike and avoid work, so managers must use coercion, threats, and various control schemes to get workers to meet objectives is A. Theory Y B. Theory X C. Maslow's theory D. Herzberg's theory

The process of monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards is called: A. Quality Control B. Quality Review C. Quality Planning D. Quality Assurance

The project schedule information section should include the following items, except for A. Payment schedule B. Summary schedule C. Detailed schedule D. Other schedule-related information

What is ONE of the KEY objectives during contract negotiations? A. Obtain a fair and reasonable price B. Negotiate a price under the seller's estimate C. Ensure that all project risks are thoroughly delineated D. Ensure that an effective communications management plan is established

What percentage of the total distribution is 1 sigma from the mean equal to? A. 68.29% B. 99.99% C. 95.46% D. 99.73%

When should be the Verify Scope process be done? A. At the end of each phase of the project B . During the planning processes C. At the end of the project D. At the beginning of the project

When should the Verify Scope process be done? A. At the end of each phase of the project B. During the planning processes C. At the end of the project D. At the beginning of the project

Which of the following can be used to determine what work is included in each work package for each of your team members? A. Work Breakdown Structure Dictionary B. Project scope statement C. Project schedule D. Project Charter

Which of the following can be used to display the assigned roles and responsibilities of project team members? A. RAM B. ADM C. AON D. PDM

Which of the following is CORRECT? A. The critical path helps prove how long the project will take. B. There can be only one critical path. C. The network diagram will change every time the end date changes. D. A project can never have negative float.

Which of the following is NOT an input to overall change control? A. Configuration management system B. Performance reports C. Project plan D. Change requests

Which of the following is an example of a parametric estimate? A. Dollars per module B. Learning blend C. Buttom-up

Which of the following is an output of the Collect Requirements process? A. Requirement traceability matrix B. Project scope statement C. Work Breakdown Structure D. Change requests

Which of the following is the BEST thing to do to try to complete a project two days earlier? A. Meet with the team and look for options for crashing (or fast tracking) the critical path. B. Tell senior management that the project critical path does not allow the project to be finished earlier. C. Tell your boss. D. Work hard and see what the project status is next month.

Which of the following is the BEST thing to do to try to complete a project two days earlier? A. Meet with the team and look for options for crashing (or fast tracking) the critical path. B. Tell senior management that the project critical path does not allow the project to be finished earlier. C. Tell your boss D. Work hard and see what the project status is next month.

Workarounds are determined during which risk management process? A. Monitor and Control Risks B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis C. Identify risks D. Plan Risk Responses

You are the project manager for the LLL Project. Steven, a project team member, is confused about network diagrams. Specifically, he wants to know what the critical path is in a network diagram. Your answer is which one of the following? A. The critical path is the path with the longest duration. B. The critical path is always one path that cannot be delayed or the entire project will be delayed. C. The critical path is the network that hosts the activities most critical to the project success. D. The critical path is the path from start to completion with no deviation from the project plan

You in the project executing process group, and would like to confirm the implementation of approved change request, corrective actions, and defect repairs. Which of the following tool/technique can you leverage? A. Quality audits B. Process analysis C. Benchmarking D. Cost-benefit analysis

Your cost forecast shows that you will have a cost overrun at the end of the project. Which of the following should you do? A. Eliminate risks in estimates and reestimate B. Meet with the sponsor to find out what work can be done sooner C. Cut quality D. Decrease scope

____is a deliverable-oriented grouping of the work involved in a project that defined the total scope of the project A. WBS B. WBS dictionary C. scope statement Next D. work package

1. Approximately what percentage of the world's gross product is spent on projects? a. 10 percent b. 25 percent c. 50 percent d. 75 percent

10. What is the name of one of the popular certifications provided by the Project Management Institute? a. Certified Project Manager (CPM) b. Project Management Professional (PMP) c. Project Management Expert (PME) d. Project Management Mentor (PMM)

11. What do many experts agree is the greatest threat to the success of any project? a. lack of proper funding b. a failure to communicate c. poor listening skills d. inadequate staffing

11. Which of the following is not part of the three-sphere model for systems management? a. business b. information c. technology d. organization

15. Which of the following statements is false? a. A resource breakdown structure is a hierarchical structure that identifies the project's resources by category and type. b. Duration and effort are synonymous terms. c. A three-point estimate includes an optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimate. d. A Gantt chart is a common tool for displaying project schedule information.

16. Which of the following statements is false? a. An analysis project life cycle is a collection of project phases. b. A product life cycle is the same as a project life cycle. c. The waterfall approach is an example of a predictive life cycle model. d. Agile is an example of an adaptive life cycle model.

17. What term describes information that is sent to recipients at their request via Web sites, bulletin boards, e-learning, knowledge repositories like blogs, and other means? a. push communications b. pull communications c. interactive communications d. customer communications

19. What term describes an organization's acquisition of goods and services from an outside source in another country? a. globalization b. offshoring c. exporting d. global sourcing

19. Which of the following is not a guideline to help improve time spent at meetings? a. Determine if a meeting can be avoided. b. Invite extra people who support your project to make the meeting run more smoothly. c. Define the purpose and intended outcome of the meeting. d. Build relationships.

20. A ________________ report is a reflective statement that documents important information learned from working on the project. a. final project b. lessons-learned c. project archive d. progress

21. A ______ is a series of actions directed toward a particular result. a. goal b. process c. plan d. project

22. A person who is risk-_____________ receives greater satisfaction when more payoff is at stake and is willing to pay a penalty to take risks. a. averse b. seeking c. neutral d. aware

22. What is the main goal of project cost management? a. to complete a project for as little cost as possible b. to complete a project within an approved budget c. to provide truthful and accurate cost information on projects d. to ensure that an organization's money is used wisely

23. Which of the following is not an output of the project cost management process called esti mating costs, according to the PMBOK® Guide? a. activity cost estimates b. a cost baseline c. basis of estimates d. project documents updates

25. Which of the following outputs is often completed before initiating a project? a. stakeholder register b. business case c. project charter d. kick-off meeting

26. A risk _____________ is a document that contains results of various risk management pro cesses, and is often displayed in a table or spreadsheet format. a. management plan b. register c. breakdown structure d. probability/impact matrix

26. A work breakdown structure, project schedule, and cost estimates are outputs of the ______ process. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling e. closing

3. A ______ is a deliverable-oriented grouping of the work involved in a project that defines its total scope. a. scope statement b. WBS c. WBS dictionary d. work package

30. If a project is halfway completed, its schedule performance index is 110 percent, and its cost performance index is 95 percent, how is it progressing? a. It is ahead of schedule and under budget. b. It is ahead of schedule and over budget. c. It is behind schedule and under budget. d. It is behind schedule and over budget.

30. Many people use ______ to have a standard format for preparing various project manage ment documents. a. methodologies b. templates c. project management software d. standards

31. What is the top reason for global outsourcing of IT services? a. cost reduction b. a shortage of qualified personnel c. decreasing time to market d. increasing revenues

33. Which of the following is not a best practice for new product development projects? a. aligning projects and resources with business strategy b. selecting projects that will take less than two years to provide payback c. focusing on customer needs in identifying projects d. assigning project managers to lead projects

35. What tool can you use to determine whether a process is in control or out of control? a. a cause-and-effect diagram b. a control chart c. a run chart d. a control panel diagram

37. The seven run rule states that if seven data points in a row on a control chart are all below the mean, above the mean, or all increasing or decreasing, then the process needs to be examined for problems. a. random b. nonrandom c. Six Sigma d. quality

38. Buyers often prepare a list when selecting a seller to make the process more manageable. a. preferred b. short c. qualified suppliers d. BAFO

39. Which of the following is not a suggestion for performing integrated change control? a. use good configuration management b. minimize change c. establish a formal change control system d. view project management as a process of constant communication and negotiation

39. is known for his work on quality control in Japan, and he developed the 14 Points for Management in his text Out of the Crisis. a. Juran b. Deming c. Crosby d. Ishikawa

42. Suppliers and concerned citizens are examples of which type of stakeholders? a. internal b. external c. supportive d. unsupportive

5. power is based on a person's individual charisma. a. Affiliation b. Referent c. Personality d. Legitimate

50. After a series of large project disasters, what country is requiring people to complete a new academic program in project management before leading a large government project? a. Australia b. U.K. c. India d. Japan

8. Scope ______ is often achieved by a customer inspection and then sign-off on key deliverables. a. acceptance b. validation c. completion d. close-out

8. Several application development projects done for the same functional group might best be managed as part of a . a. portfolio b. program c. investment d. collaborative

8. What technique can you use to resolve resource conflicts by delaying tasks? a. resource loading b. resource leveling c. critical path analysis d. overallocation

A detailed project schedule can be created only after creating the ___ A. Project budget B. Work breakdown structure C. Project management plan D. Detailed risk assessment

A program is which one of the following? A. A collection of small projects with a common goal B. A collection of projects with a common cause C. A very large, complex project D. A collection of subprojects with a common customer

A program is which one of the following? A. A collection of small projects with a common goal B. collection of projects with a common cause C. A very large, complex project D. A collection of subprojects with a common customer

A program is which one of the following? A. A collection of small projects with a common goal B. collection of projects with a common cause C. A very large. complex project D. A collection of subprojects with a common customer

A project manager has a project team consisting of people in four countries. The project is very important to the company, and the project manager is concerned about its success. The length of the project schedule is acceptable. What type of communication should he use? A. Informal verbal communication B. Formal written communication C. Formal verbal communication D. Informal written communication

A project team is working on manufacturing a new product, but they are having difficulty creating a project charter. What is the BEST description of the real problem? A. They are not identified the project objectives B. They are working on a process and not a project C. The end date has not been set D. They are not identified the product of the project

A risk impact scale that uses rank-ordered values as very low, low, moderate, and high is considered: A. A cardinal scale B. An ordinal scale C. Non linear scale D. Probability scale impact

A risk impact scale that uses rank-ordered values as very low, low, moderate, and high is considered: A. A cardinal scale B. An ordinal scle C. None linear scale D. Probability scale impact

A_____ report describes where the project stands at a specific point time. A. performance B. status C. forecast D. earned value

All of the following statements are true regarding decomposition EXCEPT: A. Work should be decomposed to a level where it can be realistically estimated B. Work should be decomposed to a level where it can be performed by one person C. Work should be decomposed to a level where it can be outsourced or contracted out if necessary D. Work should be decomposed to a level where it cannot be logically subdivided further

An output of the Close Project or Phase process is the creation of A. A risk analysis plan. B. Project archives C. A project management plan D. A project charter

An output of the Close Project or Phase process is the creation of... A. A risk analysis plan B. Project archives C. A project management plan D. A project charter

Decomposition of project work involves all of the following EXCEPT: A. Identifying deliverables B. Presenting hierarchal depiction of project organization so that work packages can be related to performing organizational units C. Structuring and organizing the Work Breakdown Structure D. Decomposition upper Work Breakdown Structure level into lower level detailed components

Decomposition of project work involves all the following EXCEPT: A. Identifying deliverables B. Presenting hierachal depiction of project organization so that work packages can be related to performing organization units C. Structuring and organizing the Work Breakdown Structure D. Decomposition upper Work Breakdown Structure level into lower level detailed components

During what part of the project management process is the project scope statement created? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Executing D. Monitoring and controlling

In which process group does the team measure and analyze the work being done on the project? A. Closing B. Monitoring and controlling C. Executing D. Initialting

In which process group does the team measure and analyze the work being done on the project? A. Closing B. Monitoring and controlling C. Executing D. Initiating

In which project procurement management process is an RFQ often written? A. conducting procurements B. planning procurements C. administering procurements D. selecting sellers

Project management is "the application of knowledge tools and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements." A. Human resource management skills B. Skills C. Technical skills D. Project experiences

Project management is "the application of knowledge,..., tools and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements." A. Human resource management skills B. Skills C. Technical skills D. Project experiences

Q01: Which of the following is not a preferred section in communication plan? A. Define information to be communicated B. Training activities C. A glossary of common terminology D. Stakeholder communication requirements

Q10: To what does the following sentence refer? "The point where the benefits or revenue to be archived from improving quality equals the incremental cost to archieve that quality." A. Standard quality analysis B. Marginal analysis C. Quality control analysis D. Conformance analysis

Q11: You have just started administrating a contract when management decides to terminate the contract. What should you do FIRST? A. Finish the Adiminister Procurement process B. Go back to the Close Procurement process C. Go back to the Plan Procurement process D. Go back to the Conduct Procurement process

Q12: Assume you have a project with major categories called planning, analysis, design, and testing. What level of the WBS would these items fall under? A. 4 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1

Q14: Project management is "the application of knowledge,..., tools and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements." A. Human resource management skills B. Skills C. Technical skills D. Project experiences

Q18: Which of the following process involves determining project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships, and develops the staffing management plan? A. Acquire project team B. Human resource planning C. Develop project team D. Manage project team

Q26: __________ processes include coordinating people and other resources to carry out the project plans and produce the products, services, or results of the project or phase. A. Monitoring and controlling B. Executing C. Initiating D. Planning

Q27: A project is plagued by change to the project charter. Who has primary responsibility to decide if there changes are necessary? A. The project manager B. The sponsor C. The project team D. The stakeholders

Q29: A program in which one of the following? A. A collection of small projects with a common goal B. Collection of projects with a common cause C. A collection of subprojects with a common customer D. A very large, complex project

Q32: In a projectized organization, the project team: A. Reports to the functional manager B. Will not always have a 'home' C. Has no loyalty to the project D. Reports to many bosses

Q36: All of the following MUST be present to have a contract EXCEPT _________ A. Buyers' signatures B. Address of the seller C. Procurement statement of work D. Acceptance

Q38: Control project schedule belongs to the ___________ PM Process Group. A. Planning B. Monitoring and Controlling C. Initialing D. Closing E. Executing

Q40: Direct and manage project executing belongs to the ... PM Process Group. A. Closing B. Executing C. Planning D. Monitoring and Controlling E. Initiating

Q41: Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate thing to do during the initiating process group? A. Create a detailed description of the project deliverables. B. Get familiar with the company culture and structure as it relates to the project. C. Identify the root cause of problems. D. Ensure all project management processes are complete.

Q42: Which of the following processes includes asking team members abolut the time estimates for their activities and reaching agreement on the calender date for each activity? A. Develop Project Charter B. Develop Schedule C. Define Scope C. Sequence Activities

Q56: You are the project manager for the 987 Project. Should this project run over schedule, it will cost your organization $35,000 per day in lost sales. With four months to completion, you realize the project is running late. You decide, with management's approval, to add more project team members to the project plan to complete the work on time. This is an example of which of the following? a. Fast tracking b. Crashing c. Expert judgment d. Cost benefit analysis

The MOST likely result of communication blockers is that A. The project is delayed B. Conflict occurs C. Senior management is displeased. D. Trust level is enhanced

The MOST likely result of communication blockers is that... A. The project is delayed B. Conflict occurs C. Senior management is displeased D. Trust level is enhanced

The management theory that states that workers dislike and avoid work, so managers must use coercion, threats, and various control schemes to get workers to meet objectives is:... A. Theory Y B. Theory X C. Maslow's theory D. Herzberg's theory

The management theory that states that workers dislike and avoid work, so managers must use coercion, threats, and various control schemes to get workers to meet objectives is_______ A. Theory Y B. Theory X C. Maslow's theory D. Herzberg's theory

The project scope management plan is an output of which of the following process A. Scope verification B. Scope planning C. Scope definition D. Scope control

The project scope management plan is an output of which of the following process? A. Scope verification B. Scope planning C. Scope definition D. Scope control

The project scope statement, __________, and organizational process assets are primary inputs for creating a WBS. A. Project management plan B. Requirements documents C. Stakeholder register D. Requirements traceability

What are five stages in Tuckman's model of team development, in chronological order? A. forming, norming, storming, performing, and adjourning B. forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning C. forming, storming, performing, norming, and adjourning D. forming, storming, norming, adjourning, and performing

What is the process of gradual, step-wise reduction to details of the project products and the characteristics of new services called? A. Structurize B. Progressive elaboration C. Coordination between items D. Temporary

What percentage of the total distribution is 2 sigma from the mean equal to? A. 68.29% B. 95.46% C. 99.99% D. 99.73%

Whatt percentage of the total distribution is 2 sigma from the mean equal to? A. 68.29% B. 95.46% C. 99.99% D. 99.73%

When a project manager is engaged in negotiations, nonverbal communication skills are of ____ A. Little importance B. Major importance C. Importance only when cost and schedule objectives are involved D. Importance only to ensure you win the negotiation

Which of the following formulas is used to calculate the CV (Cost variance)? A. EV/ AC B. EV-AC C. EV-PV D. EV/PV

Which of the following formulas is used to calculate the SPI (Schedule performance index)? A. EV - AC B. EV/PV C. EV - PV D. EV/AC

Which of the following formulas is used to calculate the SPI (Schedule performance index)? A. EV-AC B. EV/ PV C. EV-PV D. EV/ AC

Which of the following formulas is used to calculate the SPI (Schedule performance index)? A. EV-AC B. EV/PV C. EV-PV D. EV/ AC

Which of the following is likely to be part of an operation? A. Building a new dam as a source for electricity B. Providing electricity to a community C. Informing the public about changes at the electrical company D. Designing an electrical grid for a new community

Which of the following is not part of project human resource management? A. Acquiring the project team B. Resource estimating C. Developing the project team D. Managing the project team

Which of the following processes involves analyzing activity sequences, activity duration, and resource requirements, to develop the project schedule? A. Activity sequencing B. Schedule development C. Scope definition D. Activity definition

Which process group includes processes used to formally terminate all activities of a project or a project phase? A. Executing B. Closing C. Planning D. Initiating E. Monitoring and controlling

Which strategic technology considers in efficient using of computer resources, social responsibility, and environmental impact? A. Unified communication B. Green IT C. Business process modeling D. Virtualization 2.0 E. Social software

Who of the following are ALWAYS stakeholders? A. A person who does not want the project to be completed B. An assembly line worker that will use the product of the project C. A functional manager from the engineering deparment D. A person who might lose his or her position in the company because of the project

You are asked to prepare a budget for completing a project that was started last year and then shelved (not to continue) for six months. All the following would be included in the budget EXCEPT: A. Fixed costs B. Sunk(expended) costs C. Direct costs D. Variable costs

You have two project stakeholders who do not get along at all. You know they both enjoy travelling, so you discuss great travel destinations when they are both in the room together to distract them from arguing with each other. What conflict-handling mode are you using? A. compromise mode B. smoothing mode C. collaborating mode D. confrontation mode

1. ______ refer(s) to all the work involved in creating the products of the project and the processes used to create them. a. Deliverables b. Milestones c. Scope d. Product development

10. Project management software helps you develop a ______, which serves as a basis for creating Gantt charts, assigning resources, and allocating costs. a. project plan b. schedule c. WBS d. deliverable

12. In face-to-face interactions, how is most information conveyed? a. by the tone of voice b. by the words spoken c. by body language d. by the location

13. As the project manager for a software development project, you are helping to develop the project schedule. You decide that writing code for a system should not start until users sign off on the analysis work. What type of dependency is this? a. technical b. mandatory c. discretionary d. external

17. What type of diagram shows planned and actual project schedule information? a. a network diagram b. a Gantt chart c. a Tracking Gantt chart d. a milestone chart

18. The nature of IT projects is different from projects in many other industries because they are very . a. expensive b. technical c. diverse d. challenging

18. Which of the following is not a recommendation for improving project communications? a. You cannot overcommunicate. b. Project managers and their teams should take time to develop their communications skills. c. Do not use facilitators or experts outside of the project team to communicate important information. d. Use templates to help prepare project documents.

18. is a network diagramming technique used to predict total project duration. a. PERT b. A Gantt chart c. Critical path method d. Crashing

2. Which of the following is not a potential advantage of using good project management? a. Shorter development times b. Higher worker morale c. Lower cost of capital d. Higher profit margins

22. ______ processes include coordinating people and other resources to carry out project plans and create the products, services, or results of the project or phase. a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Monitoring and controlling e. Closing

23. Which process group normally requires the most resources and time? a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Monitoring and controlling e. Closing

23. Which risk management process involves prioritizing risks based on their probability and impact of occurrence? a. planning risk management b. identifying risks c. performing qualitative risk analysis d. performing quantitative risk analysis

25. _________________ reserves allow for future situations that are unpredictable. a. Contingency b. Financial c. Management d. Baseline

27. _________________ involves allocating the project cost estimate to individual material resources or work items over time. a. Reserve analysis b. Life cycle costing c. Project cost budgeting d. Earned value analysis

28. Suppose there is a 30 percent chance that you will lose $10,000 and a 70 percent chance that you will earn $100,000 on a particular project. What is the project's estimated monetary value? a. $30,000 b. $70,000 c. $67,000 d. - $67,000

3. A is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result. a. program b. process c. project d. portfolio

32. What is the purpose of project quality management? a. to produce the highest-quality products and services possible b. to ensure that appropriate quality standards are met c. to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken d. all of the above

32. Your organization hired a specialist in a certain field to provide training for a short period of time. Which reason for outsourcing would this example fall under? a. reducing costs b. allowing the client organization to focus on its core business c. accessing skills and technologies d. providing flexibility

34. A new government law requires an organization to report data in a new way. Which of the following categories would include a new information system project to provide this data? a. problem b. opportunity c. directive d. regulation

35. If estimates for total discounted benefits for a project are $120,000 and total discounted costs are $100,000, what is the estimated return on investment (ROI)? a. $20,000 b. $120,000 c. 20 percent d. 120 percent

36. Six Sigma's target for perfection is the achievement of no more than defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities. a. 6 b. 9 c. 3.4 d. 1

37. If your college or university wanted to get information from potential sellers for providing a new sports stadium, what type of document would be required of the potential sellers? a. RFP b. RFQ c. proposal d. quote

4. According to McClelland's acquired-needs theory, people who desire harmonious relations with other people and need to feel accepted have a high need. a. social b. achievement c. affiliation d. extrinsic

40. PMI's OPM3 is an example of a model or framework for helping organizations improve their processes and systems. a. benchmarking b. Six Sigma c. maturity d. quality

40. What tool and technique is used for all processes of project integration management? a. project management software b. templates c. expert judgment d. all of the above

45. One of your project stakeholders has a high amount of authority and a high amount of interest. How should you manage that relationship? a. keep informed b. keep satisfied c. manage closely d. monitor

46. Which type of matrix can help clarify which knowledge areas are most important to stake holders on a project? a. a knowledge area matrix b. a prioritization matrix c. an expectations management matrix d. a stakeholder management matrix

49. Which of the following statements is false about software that can assist in project stake holder management? a. Social media tools can assist in stakeholder management. b. Some project management software includes features like giving high fives. c. Texting is an example of a microblog that can keep stakeholders informed about proj ect work. d. A vodcast is a video podcast that can inform and engage stakeholders.

5. Assume that you have a project with major categories called planning, analysis, design, and testing. What level of the WBS would these items fall under? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3

5. Which of the following is not part of the triple constraint of project management? a. meeting scope goals b. meeting time goals c. meeting communications goals d. meeting cost goals

7. A staffing management plan often includes a resource , which is a column chart that shows the number of resources assigned to the project over time. a. chart b. graph c. histogram d. timeline

A Work Breakdown Structure numbering system allows the project staff to _____ A. Systematically estimate costs of the work breakdown structure elements B. Provide project justification C. Identify the level at which individual elements are found D. Use it in project management software

A control chart shows seven data points in a row on one side of the mean, What should be done? A. Perform a design of experiments B. Adjust the chart to reflect the new mean C. Find an assignable cause D. Nothing. This is the rule of seven and can be ignored

A dependency requiring that design be complete before manufacturing can start is an example of a ____ A. Discretionary dependency B. External dependency C. Mandatory dependency D. Scope dependency

All of the following are common results of risk management EXCEPT A. The communication management plan is changed. B. The project management plan is changed. C. The project charter is changed. D. Contract terms and conditions are created.

All of the following are common results of risk management EXCEPT... A. The communication management plan is changed B. The project management plan is changed C. The project charter is changed D. Contract terms and conditions are created

All of the following are common results of risk management EXCEPT______ A. The communication management plan is changed. B. The project management plan is changed. C. The project charter is changed. D. Contract terms and conditions are created.

Buyers often prepare a ... list when selecting a seller to make this process more manageable. A. preferred B. qualified suppliers C. short D. BAFO

Buyers often prepare a _____________ list when selecting a seller to make this process more manageable. A. preferred B. qualified suppliers C. short D. BAFO

Buyers often prepare a list when selecting a seller to make this process more manageable. A. preferred B. qualified suppliers C. short D. BAFO

Buyers often prepare a______list when selecting a seller to make this process more manageable. A. preferred B. qualified suppliers C. short D. BAFO

During the six month update on a 1 year, $50,000 project, the analysis shows that the PV is $25,000; the EV is $20,000 and the AC is $15,000. What can be determined from these figures? A. The project is behind schedule and over cost. B. The project is ahead of schedule and under cost. C. The project is behind schedule and under cost. D. The project is ahead of schedule and over cost.

During the six month update on a 1 year, $50.000 project, the analysis shows that the PV is $25.000: the EV is $20.000 and the AC is $15,000. What can be determined from these figures? A. The project is behind schedule and over cost. B. The project is ahead of schedule and under cost. C. The project is behind schedule and under cost. D. The project is ahead of schedule and over cost.

Durring the six mouth update on a 1 year, $50000 project, the analysis shows that the PV is $25000, the EV is $20000 and the AC is $15000. What can be determined from these figures? A. The project is behind schedule and over cost. B. The project is ahead of schedule and under cost C. The project is behind schedule and under cost. D. The project is ahead of schedule and over cost.

Earned value analysis is a performance reporting tool/ technique used in the Manage Stakeholders process. Which of the following performance measurements is derived by the following formula: (EV/PV)? A. CPI B. SV C. SPI D. CV

Expert judgement is a tool/technique in all of the following EXCEPT: A. Develop preliminary project scope state ment B. Develop project management plan C. Communications planning D. Develop project charter

Expert judgment is a tool/ technique in all of the following EXCEPT: A. Develop preliminary project scope statement B. Develop project management plan C. Communications planning D. Develop project charter

From the buyer's perspective, in a Fix Price (FP) contract, the fee or profit is... A. Determined with the other party at the end of the project B. Part of the negotiation involved in paying every invoice C. Unknown D. Applied as a line item to every invoice

From the buyer's perspective, in a Fix Price (FP) contract, the fee or profit is____ A. Determined with the other party at the end of the project. B. Part of the negotiation involved in paying every invoice C. Unknown D. Applied as a line item to every invoice.

From the buyer's perspective. in a Fix Price (FP) contract. the fee or profit is A. Determined with the other party at the end of the project. B. Part of the negotiation involved in paying every invoice C. Unknown D. Applied as a line item to every invoice.

In which process management group is the detailed project budget created? A. Initiating B. Before the project management process C. Planning D. Executing

Lag (in time management) means ___ A. The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project finish date B. The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date its successor C. Waiting time D. The product of a forward and backward pass

Management by objectives works only if: A. It is supported by management. B. The project does not impact the objectives. C. The project includes the objectives in the project charter. D. The rules are written down.

Project setup costs are example of A. Opportunity costs B. Variable costs C. Fixed costs D. Overhead costs

Project setup costs are example of ... A. Opportunity costs B. Variable costs C. Fixed costs D. Overhead costs

Q02: The project manager is allocating overall cost estimates to individual activities to establish a baseline for measuring project performance. What process is this? A. Cost Management B. Estimate Costs C. Determine Budget D. Control Costs

Q03: When it comes to changes, the project manager's attention is BEST spent on: A. Informing the sponsor of changes. B. Making changes. C. Preventing unnecessary changes. D. Tracking and recording changes.

Q15: In Balanced Matrix Organization Structure type, ... will control the project budget. A. Project manager B. Functional manager C. Mixed (Functional manager and PM) D. Program manager

Q17: Which of the following is the cost of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure that a project is error-free or within an accepted or rejected? A. Internal failure cost B. Quality cost C. Appraisal cost D. Prevention cost

Q19: You are finding it difficult to evaluate the exact cost impact of risks. You should evaluate on a (n) _____________ A. Quantitative basic B. Numerical basic C. Qualitative basic D. Econometric basic

Q23: What does a resource histogram show that a responsibility assignment matrix does not? A. Interrelationships B. Activity C. Time D. The person in charge of each activity

Q24: Consideration of ongoing operations and maintenance is crucially important to products of projects. Ongoing operations and maintenance should: A. Be included as activities to be performed during project closure. B. Have a separate phase in the project life cycle, because a large portion of life cycle costs is devoted to maintenance and operations. C. Not be viewed as part of a project. A project is temporary with a definite beginning and end. D. Be viewed as a separate project.

Q25: The risk register describes all the identified risks. Which of the following is NOT included as part of the risk register? A. Proposed responses, owners, current status B. Risk description, category, cause C. Risk-related contractual agreements D. Probability of occurrence, impact on objectives

Q31: What is the process of gradual, step-wise reduction to details of the project products and the characteristics of new services called? A. Structurize B. Coordination between items C. Progressive elaboration D. Temporary

Q33: Which tool or technique for collecting requirements is often the most expensive and time consuming? A. observation B. surveys C. interview D. focus group

Q37: All the following statements about change control are incorrect EXCEPT: A. A fixed price contract will minimize the need for change control. B. Changes seldom provide real benefits to the project. C. Contracts should include procedures to accommodate changes. D. More detailed specifications eliminate the causes of changes.

Q46: Extensive use of _________ communication is most likely to aid in solving complex problems. A. Nonverbal B. Formal C. Written D. Verbal

Q59: Which of the following is NOT included in the project scope statement? A. Product acceptance criteria B. Initial cost estimate C. Stakeholders influences D. Schedule milestones E. Initial defined risks

Q60: You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before. You have been asked to plan for a new project. It would be BEST in this situation to rely on ___________ during planning in order to improve your chance of success.. A. Your intuition and training B. Stakeholder analysis C. Historical information D. Configuration management

Quality is ___ A. Meeting and exceeding the customer's expectations B. Adding extras to make the customer happy C. The degree to which the project meets requirements D. Conformance to management's objectives

The amount of authority a project manager possesses can be related to ______________ A. Key stakeholder's influence on the project B. The project manager's communication skills C. The organization structure D. The amount of authority the manager of the project manager possesses

The customer requests a change to the project that would increase the project risk. Which of the following should you do before all the others? A. Include the expected monetary value of the risk in the new cost estimate B. Talk to the customer about the impact of the change C. Analyze the impacts of the change with the team D. Change the risk management plan

The first phase of your project has come to an end. What should you ensure is done BEFORE beginning the next phase? A. Verify that the resources are available for the next phase B. Check the project's progress compared to its baselines C. Confirm that the phase has reached its objectives and have its deliverables formally accepted D. Recommend corrective action to bring the project result in line with expectations

The main focus of life cycle costing is to: A. Estimate installation costs B. Estimate the cost of operations and maintenance C. Consider operations and maintenance costs in making project decisions D. Consider installation costs when planning the project costs

The main focus of life cycle costing is to: A. Estimate installation costs B. Estimate the cost of operation and maintenance C. Consider operations and maintenance costs in making project decisions. D. Consider installation costs when planning the project costs.

The risk register is an input to all of the following processes EXCEPT: A. Risk response planning B. Risk monitoring and control C. Risk identification D. Qualitative risk analysis E. Quantitative risk analysis

Which is not a project attribute? A. A project should have a primary customer and sponsor B. A project is temporary C. A project should have only one project manager and one technical leader D. A project involves uncertainty

Which is not included in Risk Response Planning? A. Acceptance B. Exploitation C. Centralization D. Enhancement

Which is the correct explanation of a Stakeholder? A. Construction of building and equipment B. Leading the project to success. C. Individual or organization influenced by the project D. New information system development

Which is the correct explanation of a stakeholder? A. Construction of building and equipment B. Leading the project to success C. Individual or organization influenced by the project D. New information system development

Which of the following create MOST misinterpretation in the scope statement? A. Too much detail. B. Small variation in size of work package or detail of work. C. Imprecise language D. Poor pattern, structure, and chronological order

Which of the following create MOST misinterpretation in the scope statement? A. Too much detail B. Small variation in size of work package or detail of work C. Imprecise lanaguage D. Poor pattern, structure, and chronological order

Which of the following is the BEST thing to do to try to complete a project two days earlier? A. Tell senior management that the project critical path does not allow the project to be finished earlier B. Tell your boss C. Meet with the team and look for options for crashing (or fast tracking) the critical path D. Work hard and see what the project status is next month

Which of the following statements regarding project charter is FALSE? A. Once the project charter is published, charter may be change or revised B. The project charter should be published by the manager external to the project and not by the project manager C. Document that constitute what the project is, what the project will deliver, and how all the processes will be managed D. The project charter describes the business needs for the project, such as marketing demands, legal requirements, technological advances....

Which of the following statements regarding project charter is FALSE? A. Once the project charter is published, charter may be change or revised B. The project charter should be published by the manager external to the project and not by the project manager C. Document that constitute what the project is, what the project will deliver. and how all the processes will be managed D. The project charter describes the business needs for the project, such as marketing demands. legal requirements, technological advances...

10. Which of the following is not a tool or technique for managing project teams? a. observation and conversation b. project performance appraisals c. conflict management d. Social Styles Profile

12. Predecessors, successors, logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, constraints, imposed dates, and assumptions are all examples of . a. items in an activity list b. items on a Gantt chart c. milestone attributes d. activity attributes

12. Which of the four frames of organizations addresses how meetings are run, employee dress codes, and expected work hours? a. structural b. human resources c. political d. symbolic

13. Which of the following is not a process in project communications management? a. planning communications management b. controlling communications c. managing communications d. managing stakeholders

14. Project work is most successful in an organizational culture where all of the following char acteristics are important except . a. member identity b. group emphasis c. risk tolerance d. control

14. What strategy can a project manager use to deliver bad news? a. Tell a joke first. b. Tell senior management as soon as possible so they can develop alternatives and recommendations. c. Ask the project champion to deliver the news. d. Set the stage by putting the news into context, emphasizing the impact on the bottom line.

15. If you add three more people to a project team of five, how many more communication channels will you add? a. 2 b. 12 c. 15 d. 18

16. What symbol on a Gantt chart represents a slipped milestone? a. a black arrow b. a white arrow c. a black diamond d. a white diamond

19. Which of the following statements is false? a. Growing grass was on the critical path for a large theme park project. b. The critical path is the series of activities that determine the earliest time by which a project can be completed. c. A forward pass through a project network diagram determines the early start and early finish dates for each activity. d. Fast tracking is a technique for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule compression for the least incremental cost.

20. is a method of scheduling that considers limited resources when creating a project schedule and includes buffers to protect the project completion date. a. Parkinson's Law b. Murphy's Law c. Critical path analysis d. Critical chain scheduling

20. is the leading agile development method. a. Extreme programming b. Sprint c. Six sigma d. Scrum

21. Accountants usually define _________________ as a resource sacrificed or foregone to achieve a specific objective or something given up in exchange. a. money b. liability c. trade d. cost

21. _____________ is an uncertainty that can have a negative or positive effect on meeting project objectives. a. Risk utility b. Risk tolerance c. Risk management d. Risk

24. What methodology was developed in the United Kingdom, defines 45 separate subprocesses, and organizes them into eight process groups? a. Six Sigma b. RUP c. PMBOK® Guide d. PRINCE2

25. Which risk identification tool involves deriving a consensus among a panel of experts by using anonymous input regarding future events? a. risk breakdown structure b. brainstorming c. interviewing d. Delphi technique

27. _____________ are indicators or symptoms of actual risk events, such as a cost overrun on early activities being a symptom of poor cost estimates. a. Probabilities b. Impacts c. Watch list items d. Triggers

28. ______ involves measuring progress toward project objectives and taking corrective actions. a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Monitoring and controlling e. Closing

28. __________________ is a project performance measurement technique that integrates scope, time, and cost data. a. Reserve analysis b. Life cycle costing c. Project cost budgeting d. Earned value management

29. If the actual cost for a WBS item is $1,500 and its earned value is $2,000, what is its cost variance, and is it under or over budget? a. The cost variance is - $500, which is over budget. b. The cost variance is - $500, which is under budget. c. The cost variance is $500, which is over budget. d. The cost variance is $500, which is under budget.

3. At the bottom of Maslow's pyramid or hierarchy of needs are needs. a. self-actualization b. esteem c. safety d. physiological

32. What is the last step in the four-stage planning process for selecting IT projects? a. IT strategy planning b. business area analysis c. mind mapping d. resource allocation

33. generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the perform ing organization. a. Quality audits b. Design of experiments c. Six Sigma d. Benchmarking

34. An item you need for a project has a daily lease cost of $200. If you decide to purchase the item, the investment cost is $6,000 and the daily cost is $100. After how many days will the lease cost be the same as the purchase cost? a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60

34. What does the term kaizen mean? a. minimize waste b. maximize value c. do it right the first time d. improvement

36. The is the point at which the contractor assumes total responsibility for each additional dollar of contract cost. a. breakeven point b. Share Ratio Point c. Point of Reconciliation d. Point of Total Assumption

37. Which of the following items is not normally included in a project charter? a. the name of the project manager b. budget information c. stakeholder signatures d. a Gantt chart

39. A proposal evaluation sheet is an example of a(n) . a. RFP b. NPV analysis c. earned value analysis d. weighted scoring model

4. What approach to developing a WBS involves writing down or drawing ideas in a nonlinear format? a. top-down b. bottom-up c. analogy d. mind mapping

4. Which of the following is not an attribute of a project? a. projects are unique b. projects are developed using progressive elaboration c. projects have a primary customer or sponsor d. projects involve little uncertainty

41. Which knowledge area was first introduced in the PMBOK® Guide in 2012? a. project engagement management b. project consulting management c. project stakeholder engagement d. project stakeholder management

43. What type of information about stakeholders is not included in a stakeholder register? a. identification b. classification c. assessment d. engagement level

6. A maps the work of a project, as described in the WBS, to the people responsible for performing the work. a. project organizational chart b. work definition and assignment process c. resource histogram d. responsibility assignment matrix

6. Which of the following is not a best practice that can help in avoiding scope problems on IT projects? a. Keep the scope realistic. b. Use off-the-shelf hardware and software whenever possible. c. Follow good project management processes. d. Don't involve too many users in scope management.

9. Which of the following is not a suggestion for improving user input? a. Develop a good project selection process for IT projects. b. Have users on the project team. c. Co-locate users with developers. d. Only have meetings as needed, not on a regular basis.

9. Which of the following is not true? a. Most American companies have a project management office. b. You can earn an advanced degree in project management from hundreds of colleges and universities. c. Employers are looking for project management skills in new graduates. d. IT hiring managers reported that project management certification did not affect starting pay.

A Cost Performance Index (CPI) of 0.89 means ___ A. At this time, we expect the total project to cost at 89 percent more than planned B. When the project is completed we will have spent 89 percent more than planned C. The project is only progressing at 89 percent of the rate planned D. The project is only getting 89 cents out of every dollar invested

A cost baseline is an output of which cost management process? A. Estimate Costs B. Estimate Activity Resources C. Control Costs D. Determine Budget

A project can best be defined as: A. Series of non-related activities designed to accomplish single and multiple objectives B. Coordinated effort of related activities designed to accomplish a goal without a well-established end point C. Cradle-to-grave activities which must be accomplished in less than one year and consumes human and non-human resources D. Any undertakings with a definable time frame, well-defined objectives, and consume both human and non-human resources with certain constraints

A project team is working on manufacturing a new product, but they are having difficulty creating a project charter. What is the BEST description of the real problem? A. They are not identified the project objectives. B. They are not identified the product of the project. C. The end date has not been set. D. They are working on a process and not a project.

A project team is working on manufacturing a new product, but they are having difficulty creating a project charter. What is the BEST description of the real problem? A. They are not identified the project objectives. B. They are not identified the product of the project. C. The end date has not been set. D. They are working on a process and not a project

A project team is working on manufacturing a new product, but they are having difficulty creating a project charter. What is the BEST description of the real problem? A. They are not identified the project objectives. B. They are not identified the product of the project. C. The end date has not been set. D. They are working on a process and not a project.

All are the part of scope baseline EXCEPT: A. Project scope statement B. Work Breakdown Structure C. Work Breakdown Structure dictionary D. Corrective actions

All of the following are characteristics of a project EXCEPT: A. Temporary B. Definite beginning and end C. Interrelated activities D. Repeats itself every month

All of the following are examples of the cost of nonconformance EXCEPT A. Scrap B. Warranty cost C. Rework D. Quality training

All of the following are examples of the cost of nonconformance EXCEPT A. Scrap. B. Warranty costs C. Rework D. Quality training

All of the following are examples of the cost of nonconformance EXCEPT____ A. Scrap. B. Warranty costs C. Rework D. Quality training

All of the following are parts of Direct and Manage Project Execution EXCEPT: A. Identifying changes B. Using a Working Breakdown Structure C. Implementing corrective actions D. Setting up a project control system

All of the following are parts of an effective change management plan EXCEPT: A. Procedures B. Meetings C. Standards for reports D. Lessons learned.

All of the following are parts of an effective change management plan EXCEPT: A. Procedures B. Meetings C. Standards for reports D. Lessons learned

All of the following are parts of an effective change management plan EXCEPT: A. Procedures B. Meetings C. Standards for reports D. Lessons learned.

All of the following statements are true regarding decomposition EXCEPT: A. Work should be decomposed to a level where it can be realistically estimated B. Work should be decomposed to a level where it can be performed by one person C. Work should be decomposed to a level where it can be outsourced or contracted out if necessary D. Work should be decomposed to level where it cannot be logically subdivided further

During project executing, a large number of changes are made to the project. The project manager should A. Make only the changes approved by management. B. Wait until all changes are known and printout a new schedule. C. Talk to management before any changes are made. D. Make approved changes as needed, but retain the schedule baseline.

During project executing, a large number of changes are made to the project. The project manager should: A. Make only the changes approved by management B. Wait until all changes are known and printout a new schedule C. Talk to management before any changes are made D. Make approved changes as needed, but retain the schedule baseline.

During the first half of the project, five team member left for other projects without being replaced, two team members went on vacation without informing you, and other team members expressed uncertainty about the work they were complete. In this situation, it is the BEST if you create a _______ for the second half of the project? A. Work Breakdown Structure B. Responsibility assignment matrix C. Resource histogram D. Staffing management plan.

During the first half of the project, five team member left for other projects without being replaced, two team members went on vacation without informing you, and other team members expressed uncertainty about the work they were complete. In this situation, it is the BEST if you create a______for the second half of the project? A. Work Breakdown Structure B. Responsibility assignment matrix C. Resource histogram D. Staffing management plan.

During the first half of the project, five team member left for other projects without being replaced, two team members went on vacation without informing you, and other team members expressed uncertainty about the work they were complete. In this situation. it is the BEST if you create a for the second half of the project? A. Work Breakdown Structure B. Responsibility assignment matrix C. Resource histogram D. Staffing management plan.

In planning your project, which would generally have highest priority: quality, cost or schedule? A. Schedule is most important, quality next, and then cost B. Quality is more important than cost or schedule C. Cost is most important, quality next, and then schedule D. It should be decided for each project

In planning your project, which would generally have highest priority: quality, cost, or schedule? A. Schedule is most important, quality next, and then cost B. Quality is more important than cost or schedule C. Cost is most important, quality next, and then schedule. D. It should be decided for each project.

In planning your project, which would generally have highest priority: quality, cost. or schedule? A. Schedule is most important, quality next. and then cost B. Quality is more important than cost or schedule C. Cost is most important. quality next, and then schedule. D. It should be decided for each project.

In which of the project processes should one determine whether to obtain products and services from outside the organization? A. Activity sequencing B. Risk identification C. Schedule development D. Plan purchases and acquisition

Management by objectives works only if: A. It is supported by management B. The rules are written down C. The project does not impact the objectives D. The project includes the objectives in the project charter

Project mangers often refer to a project's triple constraints as a framework for evaluating completing demands. Please select which of the following describes the triple constraints? A. Risks, time cost B. Risks, scope, cost C. Initiation, planning, controlling D. Time, scope, cost

Q04: According to McClelland's acquired-needs theory, people who desire harmonious relations with other people and need to feel accepted have a high _____ need. A. Social B. Extrinsic C. Achievement D. Affiliation

Q06: The work breakdown structure can be an effective aid for communication in which situation(s)? A. Internal within the project team B. Internal within the organization C. External with the customer D. Internal and external to the project

Q07: What approach to developing a WBS involves writing down or drawing ideas in a nonlinear format? A. top-down B. bottom-up C. analogy D. mind mapping

Q08: Which of the following describes the assumptions of the theory X style of management? A. People have no ambitions, wants no responsibility, and would rather follow than lead B. People work only for money and security C. Theory X assumes individuals consider work as natural as play or rest and enjoy the satisfaction of esteem and self-actualization needs D. Theory X assumes workers dislike and avoid work, so managers must coercion, threats, and various control schemes to get workers to meet objectives

Q09: Assumptions analysis, checklist analysis, and risk diagramming techniques are tools/ techniques of which of the following processes? A. Qualitative risk analysis B. Quantitative risk analysis C. Risk management planning D. Risk identification

Q16: A project team has invited many of the project stakeholders to help them inspect quality on the project. Which of the following would NOT be an output of this activity? A. Process adjustments B. Quality improvement C. Rework D. Quality management plan

Q20: Which of the following represent the total of direct and indirect costs incurred in accomplishing work on an activity during a given period? A. Earned value (EV) B. Planned value (PV) C. Cost variance (CV) D. Actual cost (AC)

Q28: Which of the following is not a primary input of activity duration estimation process? A. The activity list B. Activity resource requirements C. Activity attributes D. WBS Dictionary

Q39: Project Stakeholders are defined as: A. Individuals and organizations who use the project's product B. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected as a result of project execution or successful project completion C. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resources D. All of the above

Q43: Which of the following choices indicates that a project has a burn rate of 1.5? (Hint: Burn rate is same as the Cost Performance Index) A. The AC is 150 and the EV is 100 B. The EV is 100 and the PV is 150 C. The PV is 100 and the EV is 150 D. The AC is 100 and the EV is 150

Q47: Which of the following formulas is used to calculate the SPI (Schedule performance index)? A. EV-PV B. EV/AC C. EV-AC D. EV/PV

Q48: A unilateral contract under which the seller is paid a preset amount per unit of service is called: A. A cost reimbursable contract B. A lump sum contract C. A fixed price contract D. A unit price contract

Q50: What percentage of the total distribution is 2 sigma from the mean equal to? A. 99.73% B. 99.99% C. 68.29% D. 95.46%

Q54: Which of the following best describes the amount of time one can delay the start of a task without delaying the start of a successor task? A. Total slack B. Lead time C. Lag time D. Free slack

Q55: Which is not included in Risk Response Planning? A. Exploitation B. Enhancement C. Acceptance D. Centralization

The project manager has just received a change from the customer that does NOT affect the project schedule and is EASY to complete. What should the project manager do FIRST? A. Make the change happen as soon as possible B. Contact the project sponsor for permission C. Go to the change control board D. Evaluate the impacts on other project constraints

The purpose of status meetings is to A. Issue work authorizations B. Have team members report on what they are doing. C. Confirm the accuracy of the costs submitted by the team. D. Exchange information about the project.

The purpose of status meetings is to... A. Issue work authorization B. Have team members report on what they are doing C. Confirm the accuracy of the costs submitted by the team D. Exchange information about the project

What do many experts agree is the greatest threat to the success of any project? A. lack of proper funding B. inadequate staffing C. poor listening skill D. a failure to communicate

What percentage of the total distribution is 3 sigma from the mean equal to? A. 68.29% B. 99.99% C. 95.46% D. 99.73%

What tool can you use to help manage stakeholders by ranking scope, time, and cost goals in order of importance and provide guidelines on balancing these constraints? A. expectations matrix B. priority log C. triple constraint matrix D. issue log

When a product or service completely meet customer's requirements? A. The customer pays minimum prices B. The cost of quality is low C. The cost of quality is high D. Quality is archived

When a product or service completely meet customer's requirements? A. The customer pays minimum prices B. The cost of quality is low C. The cost of quality is high D. Quality is archived.

Which is the most appropriate description of the stakeholder's influence on the project life cycle? A. Maximum at the start, minimum at the middle phase, and maximum at the end of the project. B. Minimum at the start and maximum at the end. C. Constant. D. Maximum at the start and then gradually weakens towards the end of the project.

Which is the most appropriate description of the stakeholder's influence on the project life cycle? A. Maximum at the start. minimum at the middle phase. and maximum at the end of the project. B. Minimum at the start and maximum at the end. C. Constant. D. Maximum at the start and then gradually weakens towards the end of the project.

Which is the most appropriate description of the stakeholder's influence on the project life cycle? A. Maximum at the start, minimum at the middle phase, and maximum at the end of the project B. Minimum at the start and maximum at the end C. Constant D. Maximum at the start and then gradually weakens towards the end of the project.

Which of the following describes the assumptions of the theory Y style of management? A. People have no ambitions, wants no responsibility, and would rather follow than lead B. Theory Y assumes workers dislike and avoid work, so managers must use coercion, threats, and various control schemes to get workers to meet objectives C. People work only for money and security D. Theory Y assumes individuals consider work as natural as play or rest and enjoy the satisfaction of esteem and self-actualization needs

Which of the following is CORRECT statement? A. The network diagram will change every time the end date changes. B. A project can never have negative float. C. There can be only one critical path D. The critical path helps prove how long the project will take.

Which of the following is likely to be part of an operation? A. Informing the public about changes at the electrical company B. Building a new dam as a source for electricity C. Designing an electrical grid for a new community D. Providing electricity to a community

Which of the following is not an output of activity resource estimation process? A. a resource breakdown structure B. a list of activity resource requirements C. project document updates D. WBS Dictionary

Which of the following statements is not true? A. Only those who realize that cultural differences are a resource to leverage will survive in the twenty-first century B. There is a common ground for people from different cultures to work from to help resolve project conflicts. C. Culture is a critical lever for competitive advantage. D. Cultural differences will always be an obstacle to overcome.

Which of the following statements is not true? A. Only those who realize that cultural differences are a resource to leverage will survive in the twenty-first century. B. There is a common ground for people from different cultures to work from to help resolve project conflicts C. Culture is a critical lever for competitive advantage D. Cultural diffirences will always be an obstacle to overcome

You are the project manager for the LLL Project. Steven, a project team member, is confused about network diagrams. Specifically, he wants to know what the critical path is in a network diagram. Your answer is which one of the following? A The critical path is the network that hosts the activities most critical to the project success. B. The critical path is the path from start to completion with no deviation from the project plan C. The critical path is always one path that cannot be delayed or the entire project will be delayed. D. The critical path is the path with the longest duration.

All of the following statements are true regarding decomposition EXCEPT: A. Work should be decomposed to a level where it can be realistically estimated B. Work should be decomposed to a level where it can be performed by one person C. Work should be decomposed to a level where it can be outsourced or contracted out if necessary D. Work should be decomposed to level where it cannot be logically subdivided further

In... . Organization structure type. project manager has "Moderate to high" authority A. Functional B. Balance Matrix C. Week Matrix D. Projectized E. Strong Matrix

In... ... ... Organization structure type, project manager has "Moderate to high" authority A. Functional B. Balance Matrix C. Week Matrix D. Projectized E. Strong Matrix

"Outsourcing suppliers are often able to use economies of scale that may not be available to the client alone, especially for hardware and software." refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing. a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs b. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business c. Access skills and technologies d. Provide flexibility

A PMO, or Project ____ Office, is an organizational group responsible for coordinating the project management function throughout an organization. a. Management b. Money c. Municipal d. Marketing

A ____ is a collection of project phases. a. project life cycle b. project feasibility c. project planning cycle d. project acquisition

A ____ is a document that includes details related to the identified project stakeholders. a. stakeholder register b. stakeholder list c. stakeholder directory d. stakeholder contact list

A ____ is used to allocate money into an organization's budget. a. budgetary estimate b. definitive estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate d. final estimate

A program is which one of the following? A. collection of projects with a common cause B. A collection of subproject with a common customer C. A very large. complex project D. A collection of small projects with a common goal

A project manager needs to analyze the project costs to find ways to decrease costs. It would be BEST if the project manager looks at: A. Direct costs and variable costs B. Fixed costs and indirect costs C. Direct costs and indirect costs D. Fixed costs and variable costs

A project manager needs to analyze the project costs to ﬁnd ways to decrease costs. It would be BEST if the project manager looks at _ A. Direct costs and variable costs B. Fixed costs and variable costs C. Direct costs and indirect costs D. Fixed costs and indirect costs

A(n) ____ is a diagramming analysis technique used to help select the best course of action in situations in which future outcomes are uncertain. a.decision tree b.EMV c.Monte Carlo analysis d.watch list

A(n) ____ is a document used to coordinate all project planning documents and help guide a project's execution and control. a. project management plan b. statement of work c. scope statement d. contact

A(n) ____ is a document used to solicit quotes or bids from prospective suppliers. a. RFQ b. RFP c. COW d. SOW

A(n) ____ is any instance where the product or service fails to meet customer requirements. a.defect c.error b.failure d.recall

A(n) ____ often deals with the day-to-day details of meeting specific goals. a. manager b. leader c. programmer d. analys

According to Thamhain and Wilemon, ____ is the legitimate hierarchical right to issue orders. a.authority c.expertise b.assignment d.promotion

According to the Standish group, which of the following factors contributes most to the success of information technology projects? a. Executive support b. User involvement c. Experienced project manager d. Clear business objectives

According to the guideline governing ____, designate someone to take minutes and send the minutes out soon after the meeting. a.running the meeting professionally b.providing an agenda to participants before the meeting c.determining who should attend the meeting d.building relationships

Communications are often enhanced when the sender _ the receiver. A. Shows concern for the perspective of B. Talks slowly to C. Uses more physical movements when talking to D. Speaks up to

During ____ processes for a new project, the organization recognizes that a new project exists, and completes a project charter as part of this recognition. a. initiating b. planning c. opening d. controlling

Earned value analysis is an example of______ A. Performance reporting B. Planning control C. Ishikawa diagrams D. Integrating the project components into a whole

For many projects, properly ____ some information technology functions can be a great investment. a. outsourcing b. scaling c. increasing d. planning

Having ____ review and approve all stakeholder communications analysis will ensure that the information is correct and useful. a.stakeholders c.top management b.project team members d.customers

Important tools used in the ____ phase of the DMAIC process include a project charter, a description of customer requirements, process maps, and Voice of the Customer (VOC) data. a.define c.analyze b.measure d.improve

In a ____ relationship, the "from" activity cannot start until the "to" activity is started. a.start-to-start b.finish-to-start c.finish-to-finish d.start-to-finish

In a ____, program managers report to the CEO. a. project organizational structure b. system organizational structure c. matrix organizational structure d. functional organizational structure

In a risk breakdown structure, competitors, suppliers, and cash flow are categories that fall under ____ risk. a.business b.technical c.organizational d.project management

In early phases of a project life cycle, resource needs are usually ____ and the level of uncertainty is ____. a. lowest; highest b. high; lowest c. lowest; lowest d. highest; highest

In the Tuckman model, ____ occurs when the emphasis is on reaching the team goals, rather than working on team process. a.performing c.forming b.norming d.storming

In the ____ phase, the project team creates more detailed project plans, a more accurate cost estimate, and a more thorough WBS. a. development b. implementation c. concept d. close-out

In the ____ stage of selecting information technology projects, organizations define project scope, benefits, and constraints. a. Project Planning b. Business Area Analysis c. Resource Allocation d. Information Technology Strategy Planning

In which process is formal acceptance and handover of the ﬁnal product/service performed? A. Close project B. Scope veriﬁcation C. Contract closure D. Contract administration

In.___ Organization structure type. project manager has "Moderate to high" authority A. Strong Matrix B. Projectized C. Week Matrix D. Balance Matrix E. Functional

KLCI Research Group's 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent of the organizations surveyed had a Project Management Office. a.64 b.75 c.85 d.94

Of the following constraints, it is most difficult to describe, agree upon, and meet the ____ goal of many projects. a.scope b.time c.cost d.technical

One method for selecting projects based on ____ is to determine whether they first meet three important criteria: need, funding, and will. a. broad organizational needs b. using a weighted scoring model c. implementing a balanced scorecard d. categorizing information technology projects

One of ____ 14 Points for Management states that an organization should cease dependence on inspection to achieve quality. a.Deming's c.Crosby's b.Juran's d.Ishikawa's

OutPuts fom the Initiation process include: A. Project Chater, constraints, assumptions B. Scope Statement, Project Manager identified, Product Description C. Constraints, Assumtions, Product Description D. Project Manager identified, Project Chater, Product Description

People with a high need for ____ desire harmonious relationships with other people and need to feel accepted by others. a.affiliation c.power b.money d.achievement

Project ____ management involves defining and managing all the work required to complete the project successfully. a. scope b. quality c. time d. costn the example of the project of building a house

Project ____ management is concerned with making effective use of the people involved with the project. a. human resource b. risk c. communications d. procurement

Project managers have the least amount of authority in a pure ____. a. functional organizational structure b. project organizational structure c. matrix organizational structure d. circular organizational structure

Project managers often illustrate progress with a ____ showing key deliverables and activities. a.Tracking Gantt chart b.Gantt chart c.network diagram d.PERT chart

Project sponsors can usually rank scope, time, and cost goals in order of importance in a(n) ____. a.expectations management matrix c.issue log b.responsibility assignment matrix d.priority matrix

Q05: The highest point of Maslow's hierarchy of needs are listed below is called ... a. Esteem b. Need for association c. Physiological satisfaction d. Attainment of survival

Q08: Which of the following formulas is used to calculate the SV (Schedule cariance)? a. EV-PV b. EV-AC c. EV/AC d. EV/PV

Q20: Which of the following best describes secondary risk? a. Risk that come about as a direct result of implementing a risk respose b. Risk that arise due to qulity issue c. Risks that still remain after implemening a risk response d. None of the choices are correct

Q23: ... power is based on a person's individual charisma a. Referent b. Personality c. Affiliation d. Legitimate

Q25: A project team member comes to the project manager during project execution to tell him that they feel the project cannot meet its quality standards. The project manager callls a meeting of the affected stakeholders to work through the problem. a. Quality assurance b. Quality control c. Quality analysis d. Quality planning

Q34: What should be done with risks on the watch list? a. Document them and revisit during project monitoring and controlling b. Document them for historical use on other projects c. Document them and give them to the customer d. Document them and set them aside because they are already covered in your contingency plans

Q40: The purpose of status meetings is to ... a. Exchange information about the project b. Issue work authorization c. Have team members report on what they are doing d. Confirm the accuracy of the cost summitted by the team

Q47: Earned value analysis is an example of ... a. Performance reporting b. Integrating the project component into a whole c. Planning control d. Ishikawa diagrams

Q53: Your program manager has come to you, the project manager for help with a bid for the newest project. You want to protect you company from financial risk. You have limited scope definition. What is the BEST type of contract to choose? a. Cost plus fixed fee b. Fixed price c. Timeand material d. Cost plus percnet of cost

Q55: An example of a project is: a. Constructing a building or facility b. Providing technical support c. Managing an organization d. Billing customers

QN=101 Which is not a process in the Risk Management knowledge area? a. Risk Design b. Risk Identification c. Perform qualitative risk analysis d. Plan Risk Response

QN=105 When should a risk be avoided? a. When the risk event is unacceptable -- generally one with a very high probability of occurrence and high impact. b. When the risk event has a low probability of occurrence and low impact. c. When it can be transferred by purchasing insurance. d. A risk event can never be avoided.

QN=108 Suppose there is a 20 percent chance that you will earn $10,000 and a 80 percent chance that you will lose $100,000 on a particular protect. What is the projects estimated monetary value? a. -$78.000 b. $80,000 c. -$20,000 d. $78,000

QN=112 Which type of contract has the least amount of risk for seller a. cost plus percentage of costs b. cost plus incentive fee c. fixed-price d. cost plus fixed fee

QN=113 An item you need for a project has a daily lease cost of $200. To purchase the item, there is an investment cost of $6000 and a daily cost of $50. Calculate the number of days when the lease cost would be the same as the purchase cost. a. 40 b. 30 c. 60 d. 50

QN=115 Your organization hired a specialist in a certain field to provide training for a short period of time. Which reason for outsourcing would this fall under? a. accessing skills and technologies b. allowing the client organization to focus on its core business c. reducing costs d. providing flexibility

QN=118 If your college or university wanted to get information from potential sellers for providing a new sports stadium, what type of document would they require of the potential sellers? a. Proposal b. RFQ c. RFP d. Quote

QN=19 Which is not a disadvantage of virtual teams? a. Increasing costs because it requires office space or requires more support b. A. Isolating team members c. Increasing the potential for communications problems d. Reducing the ability for team members to network and transfer information informally

QN=21 Develop project charter work belongs to the_________ PM Process Group. a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Monitoring and Controlling e. Closing

QN=24 During project plan execution: a. The project manager uses corrective action to bring future performance in line with the project plan. b. The stakeholders are involved to provide input to the plan c. The project charter is generated d. A milestone schedule is developed

QN=28 Which of the following outputs is often completed before initiating a project? a. Business case b. Stakeholder register c. Project charter d. Kick-off meeting

QN=3 Which is not an advantage of project management? a. Improve developer's skill b. Better control of financial, physical, and human resource c. Improve customer relations d. Shorter development times e. Lower costs and improved productivity

QN=38 Which of the following items is not normally included in a project charter? a. a Gant chart b. the name of the project manager c. budget information d. stakeholder signatures

QN=40 Which of the following is not a suggestion for performing integrated change control? a. minimize change b. establish a format change control system c. view project management as a progress of constant communication and negotiation d. use good configuration management

QN=42 A__________________ is a deliverable-oriented grouping of the work involved in a project that defined the total scope of the project a. WBS b. scope statement c. WBS dictionary d. work package

QN=48 Which of the following is not a suggestion for improving user input? a. Only have meetings as needed, not on a regular basis b. Have users on the project team c. Co-locate users with developers d. Develop a good project selection process for IT projects

QN=54 You are the project manager for the POL Project. This project will use PERT to calculate the estimates for activity duration. For activity D, you have the following information: P=10 days, O=6 days, M=5 days. What is the result of PERT? a. 6 days b. 3.5 days c. 4.3 days d. 5 days

QN=60 You are the project manager for the 987 Project. Should this project run over schedule, it will cost your organization $35,000 per day in lost sales. With four months to completion, you realize the project is running late. You decide, with management's approval, to change the relationship between several of the work packages so they begin in tandem rather than sequentially. This is an example of which one of the following? a. Fast tracking b. Crashing c. Expert judgment d. Cost benefit analysis

QN=62 Schedule variance can be determined by: a. EV - PV b. AC - EV c. EAC - AC d. EV - AC

QN=65 During the six month update on a 1 year, $50,000 project, the analysis shows that the PV is $25,000; the EV is $20,000 and the AC is $15,000. What can be determined from these figures? a. The project is behind schedule and under cost. b. The project is ahead of schedule and under cost. c. The project is ahead of schedule and over cost. d. The project is behind schedule and over cost.

QN=68 How close to actual costs should a definitive budget estimate be? a. -5 percent to +10 percent b. -10 percent to +25 percent c. +10 percent to -25 percent d. -50 percent to +100 percent

QN=69 The main focus of life cycle costing is to: a. Consider operations and maintenance costs in making project decisions b. Estimate the cost of operations and maintenance c. Consider installation costs when planning the project costs d. Estimate installation costs

QN=73 Quality is a. conforming to requirements, specifications, and fitness of use. b. conforming to management's requirements c. meeting and exceeding the customer's expectations. d. adding extras to make the customer happy.

QN=78 The process of monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards is called: a. Quality Control b. Quality Assurance c. Quality Review d. Quality Planning

QN=84 At the top of Maslow's pyramid or hierarchy of needs are _____ needs a. self- actualization b. Esteem c. Physiological d. Safety

QN=85 According to McClelland's acquired needs theory, people who desire harmonious relation with other people and need to feel accepted have a high_______ need. a. Affiliation b. Achievement c. Social d. Extrinsic

QN=88 A staffing management plan often includes a resource ___________, which is a column chart that shows the number of resources assigned to the project overtime. a. Histogram b. Chart c. Graph d. Timeline

QN=91 What do many experts agree is the greatest threat to the success of any project? a. a failure to communicate b. lack of proper funding c. poor listening skill d. inadequate staffing

QN=98 When using the ________, project managers directly face a conflict using a problem-solving approach that allows affected parties to work through their disagreements. a. confrontation mode b. compromise mode c. smoothing mode d. collaborating mode

Stakeholders can be identiﬁed in which project management process groups? A. Initiating, planning. executing, monitoring and controlling. and closing B. Monitoring and controlling and closing C. Planning and monitoring and controlling D. Initiating and planning

The Project Management ____, a Web site for people involved in project management, provides an alphabetical directory of more than 300 project management software solutions. a. Center b. Alliance c. Consortium d. Facility

The ____ assumes that organizations are coalitions composed of varied individuals and interest groups. a. political frame b. symbolic frame c. structural frame d. human resources frame

The ____ focuses on different groups' roles and responsibilities in order to meet the goals and policies set by top management. a. structural frame b. human resources frame c. political frame d. symbolic frame

The ____ is the total direct and indirect costs incurred in accomplishing work on an activity during a given period. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV

The ____ mode is also called the problem-solving mode. a.confrontation c.smoothing b.compromise d.forcing

The ____ serves as a good starting point for information distribution. a.stakeholder communications analysis c.communications management plan b.WBS d.status report

The ____ step in the planning process is to tie the information technology strategic plan to the organization's overall strategic plan. a. first b. second c. third d. fourth

The first step in determining the NPV is to ____. a. determine the estimated costs and benefits for the life of the project and the products it produces b. determine the discount rate c. calculate the net present value d. determine the cash flow

The goal of ____ is to ensure that the project team has complete understanding of all the work they must do as part of the project scope so they can start scheduling the work. a.defining activities b.sequencing activities c.estimating activity resources d.estimating activity durations

The high-level project schedule constraints have just been determined. What project management process group are you in? A. Initiating B. Monitoring and controlling C. Executing D. Planning

The highest point of Maslow's hierarchy of needs are listed below is called _ A. Esteem. B. Need for association C. Attainment of survival. D. Physiological satisfaction.

The main goal of the ____ process is to produce a cost baseline for measuring project performance and project funding requirements. a. cost budgeting b. cost consolidation c. cost control d. cost estimating

The main outputs of the ____ process are an activity list, activity attributes, milestone list, and requested changes. a.defining activities b.sequencing activities c.resource estimating activities d.duration estimating activities

The majority of time on a project is usually spent on ____, as is most of the project's budget. a. execution b. planning c. closing d. monitoring and controlling

The project integration management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activities of developing project charters. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling

The project management plan, project funding requirements, work performance data, and organizational process assets are inputs for the process of ____. a. controlling costs b. budgeting costs c. consolidating costs d. estimating costs

Those who are ____ have a higher tolerance for risk, and their satisfaction increases when more payoff is at stake. a.risk-seeking b.risk-averse c.risk-neutral d.risk-indifferent

To control the schedule. a project manager is reanalyzing the project to predict project duration. He does this by analyzing the sequence of activities with the least amount of scheduling ﬂexibility. What technique is he using? A. Critical path method B. Work Breakdown Structure C. Precedence diagramming D. Flowchart

Using simplified percentage complete amounts for a one-year project with weekly reporting and an average task or work packet size of one week, you can expect about a(n) ____ percent error rate. a. 1 c. 11 b. 5 d. 15

Variances are calculated by subtracting the actual cost or planned value from ____. a. EV c. PV b. AC d. RP

What is ONE of the KEY objectives during contract negotiations? A. Obtain a fair and reasonable price B. Negotiate a price under the seller's estimate C. Ensure that an effective communications management plan is established. D. Ensure that all project risks are thoroughly delineated

What major restaurant chain terminated a large project after spending $170 millions on it. primarily because they realized the project scope was too much to handle? A. McDonald's B. Taco Bell C. Burger King D. Pizza Hut

What should be done with risks on the watch list? A. Document them and revisit during project monitoring and controlling B. Document them and set them aside because they are already covered in your contingency plans. C. Document them for historical use on other projects. D. Document them and give them to the customer.

When it comes to changes. the project manager's attention is BEST given to: A. Preventing unnecessary changes B. Tracking and recording changes. C. Informing the sponsor of changes. D. Making changes.

Which of the following best describes the amount of time one can delay the start of a task without delaying the start of a successor task? A. Free float B. Critical ﬂoat C. Average ﬂoat D. Total float

Which of the following statements regarding Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is FALSE? A. To identify the major deliverable of the project requires analyzing the preliminary project scope statement B. Different deliverable in the WEB can have different levels of decomposition C. A WBS from a previous project can often be used as a template for a new project D. The work package is the lowest level in the Work Breakdown Structure E. The WBS is an outcome of the Create WBS process

Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate thing to do during the initiating process group? A. Get familiar with the company culture and structure as it relates to the project. B. identify the root cause of problems. C. Ensure all project management process are complete. D. Create a detailed description of the project deliverables.

Who of the following are ALWAYS stakeholders? A. An assembly line worker that will use the product of the project. B. A person who does not want the project to be completed. C. A functional manager from the engineering department D. A person who might lose his or her position in the company because of the project.

With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs plus a fixed fee payment usually based on a percentage of estimated costs. a. CPFF b. CPIF c. CPPC d. CPPF

You can determine a project's ____ by finding what discount rate results in an NPV of zero for the project. a. internal rate of return (IRR) b. required rate of return c. payback period d. return on investment (ROI)

_ is getting people to do things based on a position of authority. A. Legitimate power B. Referent power C. Expert power D. Coercive power E. Reward power

____ allow for future situations that may be partially planned for. a. Contingency reserves b. Management reserves c. Unknown unknowns d. Direct reserves

____ are a complete set of organized project records that provide an accurate history of the project. a.Project archives c.Project databases b.Project backups d.Project notes

____ are developed for risks that have a high impact on meeting project objectives, and are put into effect if attempts to reduce the risk are not effective. a.Fallback plans b.Contingency reserves c.Contingency plans d.Contingency allowances

____ are the system's special characteristics that appeal to users. a.Features c.Properties b.System outputs d.Functions

____ dependencies are inherent in the nature of the work being performed on a project. a.Mandatory b.Discretionary c.External d.Internal

____ describe what the project team has accomplished during a certain period. a.Progress reports c.Forecasts b.Status reports d.Updates

____ employees are also more likely to enroll voluntarily in classes on the latest technology than those on developing their soft skills. a.Individual c.Groups of b.Service d.Team

____ fill in for project managers in their absence and assist them as needed. a.Deputy project managers c.Assistant project managers b.Subproject managers d.Second-tier project managers

____ include defining and authorizing a project or project phase. a. Initiating processes b. Planning processes c. Executing processes d. Monitoring and controlling processes

____ involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work items to establish a baseline for measuring performance. a. Determining the budget b. Consolidation of costs c. Controlling costs d. Estimating costs

____ involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection. a.Statistical sampling c.Six Sigma b.Pareto analysis d.Quality control charting

____ involves collecting and disseminating performance information, including status reports, progress measurement, and forecasting. a.Reporting performance c.Managing stakeholder expectations b.Distributing information d.Planning communications

____ involves defining and documenting the features and functions of the products produced during the project as well as the processes used for creating them. a.Collecting requirements b.Defining scope c.Controlling scope d.Verifying scope

____ involves determining which risks are likely to affect a project and documenting the characteristics of each. a.Identifying risks b.Planning risk management c.Performing qualitative risk analysis d.Performing quantitative risk analysis

____ involves doing whatever you can to make sure the positive risk happens. a.Risk exploitation b.Risk sharing c.Risk enhancement d.Risk acceptance

____ involves eliminating a specific threat, usually by eliminating its causes. a.Risk avoidance b.Risk acceptance c.Risk transference d.Risk mitigation

____ involves formal acceptance of the completed project scope by the stakeholders. a.Scope verification b.Scope planning c.Scope control d.Scope definition

____ involves identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. a.Developing the human resource plan c.Acquiring the project team b.Developing the project team d.Managing the project team

____ involves identifying the specific activities that the project team members and stakeholders must perform to produce the project deliverables. a.Defining activities b.Sequencing activities c.Estimating activity resources d.Estimating activity durations

____ involves obtaining seller responses, selecting sellers, and awarding contracts. a. Conducting procurements b. Selecting sellers c. Requesting seller responses d. Planning purchases and acquisitions

____ involves periodically evaluating overall project performance to ensure that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards. a.Performing quality assurance c.Checking quality b.Performing quality control d.Planning quality

____ involves prioritizing risks based on their probability and impact of occurrence. a.Performing qualitative risk analysis b.Planning risk management c.Planning risk responses d.Performing quantitative risk analysis

____ involves working with stakeholders to create the document that formally authorizes a project. a. Developing the project charter b. Developing the preliminary project scope statement c. Developing the project management plan d. Directing and managing project execution

____ is best known for distinguishing between motivational factors and hygiene factors when considering motivation in work settings. a.Frederick Herzberg c.Abraham Maslow b.David McClelland d.Douglas McGregor

____ is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions. a.Reliability c.Maintainability b.Performance d.Functionality

____ is the amount of time an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the planned project finish date. a.Total slack b.Free float c.Total time d.Free slack

____ means the project's processes and products meet written specifications. a.Conformance to requirements c.Quality conformance b.Fitness for use d.Documentation matching

____ provide information on how project execution is going. a. Performance reports b. Change requests c. Deliverables d. Contracts

____ provide(s) a standard format for displaying project schedule information by listing project activities and their corresponding start and finish dates in a calendar format. a.Gantt charts b.Critical path analysis c.Critical chain scheduling d.PERT analysis

____ refers to the amount of individual resources an existing schedule requires during specific time periods. a.Resource loading c.Resource allocation b.Resource leveling d.Resource requesting

____ should result in improvements in project performance. a. Corrective actions b. Corrective reports c. Preventive actions d. Proactive methods

____ should serve as the foundation for deciding which projects to pursue. a. Strategic planning b. Project managers c. Successful past projects d. Employee abilities

____ the project involves taking the actions necessary to ensure that activities in the project plan are completed. a. Executing b. Initiating c. Starting d. Coordinating

____ tools are often recommended for small projects and single users. a. Low-end b. Midrange c. High-end d. Expensive

____ tools track the execution of business process flows and expose how the state of supporting IT systems and resources is impacting end-to-end business process performance in real time. a. BSM b. CCB c. CCA d. BSC

____ was an early project management software product that helped managers analyze complex schedules for designing aircraft. a. Artemis b. Columbia c. Vega d. Oberlin

_____is the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements. A. Quality B. Conformance to requirements C. Fitness for use D. Reliability

"Outsourcing to provide extra staff during periods of peak workloads can be much more economical than trying to staff entire projects with internal resources." refers to the ____ benefit. a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs b. Provide flexibility c. Access skills and technologies d. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business

15. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate thing to do during the initiating process group? A. Create a detailed description of the project deliverables B. Get familiar with the company culture and structure as it relates to the project C. Identify the root cause of problems D. Ensure all project management processes are complete

A ____ can have many different job descriptions, which can vary tremendously based on the organization and the project. a. project supervisor b. project manager c. job coordinator d. project coordinator

A ____ is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical regarding the average value of the population (the data being analyzed). a.skewed distribution c.polynomial distribution b.normal distribution d.symmetrical distribution

A ____ is a hierarchical structure that identifies the project's resources by category and type. a.work breakdown structure b.resource breakdown structure c.network diagram d.critical path analysis

A ____ is used for making many purchasing decisions for which accurate estimates are required and for estimating final project costs. a. budgetary estimate b. definitive estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate d. final estimate

A certainty factor of 1.960 is used for ____ percent desired certainty. a.75 c.96 b.95 d.99

A(n) ____ is a column chart that shows the number of resources assigned to a project over time. a.responsibility assignment matrix c.RACI charts b.resource histogram d.organizational breakdown structure

A(n) ____ is a document that describes the products or services to be created by the project team. a. contract b. statement of work c. project charter d. business case

A(n) ____ is a document used to solicit proposals from prospective suppliers. a. RFQ b. RFP c. COW d. SOW

A(n) ____ is a formal group of people responsible for approving or rejecting changes to a project. a. CCA b. CCB c. CCC d. CCD

A(n) ____ is a methodology that converts an organization's value drivers, such as customer service, innovation, operational efficiency, and financial performance, to a series of defined metrics. a. payback analysis b. balanced scorecard c. weighted scoring model d. net present value analysis

A(n) ____ is done to test each individual component (often a program) to ensure that it is as defect-free as possible. a.integration test c.user acceptance test b.unit test d.system test

A(n) ____ might provide an estimate of $50 per line of code for a software development project based on the programming language the project is using, the level of expertise of the programmers, the size and complexity of the data involved, and so on. a. analogous cost estimate b. parametric model c. bottom-up estimate d. reserve analysis

A(n) ____ represents decision problems by displaying essential elements, including decisions, uncertainties, causality, and objectives, and how they influence each other. a.risk breakdown structure b.influence diagram c.process flow chart d.system flow chart

Abraham Maslow, a highly respected psychologist, rejected the dehumanizing negativism of psychology in the ____. a.1940s c.1960s b.1950s d.1970s

According to the guideline governing ____, many meetings are most effective with the minimum number of participants possible. a.determining if a meeting can be avoided b.determining who should attend the meeting c.defining the purpose and intended outcome of the meeting d.running the meeting professionally

According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the only method that is "excellent" for encouraging creative thinking. a.phone call c.meeting b.e-mail d.Web Site

Achieving high performance on projects requires ____, otherwise called human relations skills. a. capital skills b. soft skills c. light skills d. hard skills

All of the following statements about change control are INCORRECT EXCEPT___ A. A ﬁxed price contract will minimize the need for change control B. Contract should include procedures to accommodate changes C. Changes seldom provide real beneﬁts to the project. D. More detailed speciﬁcations eliminate the cause of changes

All the following statements about change control are incorrect EXCEPT: A. Changes seldom provide real benefits to the project. B. Contracts should include procedures to accommodate changes C. Afixed price contract will minimize the need for change control D. More detailed specfications eliminate the cause of changes

An October 2005 Information Technology Association of America (ITAA)-sponsored report stated that spending for global sources of computer software and services is expected to grow at a compound annual rate of about ____ percent. a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40

An October 2005 Information Technology Association of America (ITAA)-sponsored report stated that total savings from offshore resources during the 2005-2010 period are estimated to grow from $8.7 billion to ____. a. $10.2 billion b. $20.4 billion c. $50.4 billion d. $107.9 billion

An organization may initiate information technology projects for several reasons, but the most important reason is to support ____. a. financial security b. business objectives c. technological advances d. shareholders

An up-to-date ____ is an important document for developing and confirming a common understanding of the project scope. a.scope management plan b.project scope statement c.WBS d.decomposition

Author ____, who developed the concept of the strategic value of competitive advantage, has written several books and articles on strategic planning and competition. a. James Bacon b. Michael Porter c. Robert Cooper d. Carol Matlack

Buyers often prepare a _____ list when selecting a seller to make this process more manageable. A. preferred B. short C. BAFO D. qualiﬁed suppliers

Buyers typically develop a short list of the top ____ suppliers to reduce the work involved in selecting a source. a. one to two b. three to five c. eight to ten d. twelve to fifteen

By the ____, the U.S. military and its civilian suppliers developed software to assist in managing large projects. a. 1960s b. 1970s c. 1980s d. 1990s

Critical chain scheduling protects tasks on the critical chain from being delayed by using ____, which consist of additional time added before tasks on the critical chain that are preceded by non-critical-path tasks. a.critical paths b.feeding buffers c.dummy activities d.fast tracking

During the Cold War years of the 1950s and '60s, ____ continued to be key in refining several project management techniques. a. NASA b. the military c. steel manufacturing d. marine biology

Examples of ____ include acquiring and developing the project team, performing quality assurance, distributing information, managing stakeholder expectations, and conducting procurements. a. monitoring and controlling processes b. executing processes c. planning processes d. initiating processes

Human resource management includes ____ processes. a.three c.five b.four d.six

If the cost estimate will be the basis for contract awards and performance reporting, it should be a ____ and as accurate as possible. a. budgetary estimate b. definitive estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate d. final estimate

In ____, Henry Gantt developed the famous Gantt chart as a tool for scheduling work in factories. a. 1897 b. 1917 c. 1927 d. 1957

In a ____ relationship, the "from" activity must finish before the "to" activity can start. a.start-to-start b.finish-to-start c.finish-to-finish d.start-to-finish

In the WBS, the name of the entire project is the top box, called Level ____. a.0 b.1 c.2 d.3

In the ____ information technology planning stage, the analysis outlines business processes that are central to achieving strategic goals and helps determine which ones could most benefit from information technology. a. Project Planning b. Business Area Analysis c. Resource Allocation d. Information Technology Strategy Planning

In the ____ phase, the project team creates a definitive or very accurate cost estimate, delivers the required work, and provides performance reports to stakeholders. a. development b. implementation c. concept d. close-out

In the mathematical formula for determining the NPV, the variable n is ____. a. the year of the cash flow b. the last year of the cash flow c. the amount of cash flow each year d. the discount rate

It took only ____ years for 50 million people to use the Internet compared to 25 years for 50 million people to use telephones. a.three c.seven b.five d.nine

KLCI Research Group's 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent identified anticipating and avoiding problems as the primary benefit of risk management. a.60 c.89 b.80 d.99

Key outputs of ____ process are project staff assignments, resource calendars, and project management plan updates. a.managing the project team c.developing the project team b.acquiring the project team d.developing the human resource plan

Many organizations are now using enterprise or project ____ management software to help manage projects. a. path b. portfolio c. institute d. office

Many organizations assert that using project management provides advantages, such as ____. a. lower profit margins b. lower costs c. less internal coordination d. lower worker morale

Many users prefer ____ to learn how to use a new system. a.phone conversations c.e-mail conversations b.face-to-face meetings d.reading user guides

Most trade schools, colleges, and universities did not start offering degrees in computer technology, computer science, management information systems, or other information technology areas until the ____. a. 1950s b. 1970s c. 1980s d. 1990s

Outputs to the ____ process include selected sellers, procurement contract awards, resource calendars, change requests, and updates to the project management plan and other project documents. a. Closing the contract b. Conducting procurements c. Requesting seller responses d. Administering the contract

People who believe in ____ assume that the average worker wants to be directed and prefers to avoid responsibility. a.Theory W c.Theory Y b.Theory X d.Theory Z

Project management software helps you develop a _____which serves as basis for creating Gantt charts. assigning resources. and allocating costs. A. schedule B. WBS C. project plan D. deliverables and WBS Dictionary

Project managers have the most authority in a pure ____. a. functional organizational structure b. project organizational structure c. matrix organizational structure d. circular organizational structure

Project managers must use discipline to control ____. a.project bursts b.project schedules c.project critical paths d.project dependencies

Project managers often use the ____ approach for projects that represent entirely new systems or approaches to doing a job, or to help create buy-in and synergy with a project team. a.analogy b.bottom-up c.top-down d.mind mapping

Project mangers often refer to a project's triple constraints as a framework for evaluating completing demands. Please select which of the following describes the triple constraints? A. Risks, scope. cost B. Time, scope, cost C. Initiation, planning. controlling D. Risks. time cost

Projects involve ____ project management process groups. a. three b. five c. eight d. ten

Q01: When using the ...., project managers directly face a conflict using a problem-solving approach that allows affected parties to work through their disagreements. a. Smoothing mode b. Confrontatin mode c. Collaborating mode d. Conpromise mode

Q02: Which of the following statements regarding work breakdown structure(wbs) is False? a. The WBS is an outcome of the Create WBS process b. To identify the major deliverables of the project requires analyzing the preliminary project scope statement c. The work package is the lowest level in the WBS Structure d. A WBS from a previous project can often be used as a template for a new project e. Different deliverables in the WBS can have different levels of decomposition

Q07: All the following are example of Perform Quality Control EXCEPT ... a. Parote chart b. Cost of quality c. Inspection d. Fishbone diagram

Q16: According to the PMI, which of the following best describes "phase exists"? a. Assignment of additional resources to the project in an attempt to decrease the project timeline/ schedule b. Reviews at the conslusion of a project phase to determine whether the project should continue c. Process of exceeding the specified project requirement d. Schedule compression by starting a new task/ phase prior to completing the current project task

Q21: You are the project manager for the POL Project. Thí project will use PERT to calculate the estimates for activity duration. For activity D, you have the following information: P = 10 days, O = 6 days, M = 5 days a. 3.5 days b. 6 days c. 5 days d. 4.3 days

Q24: Bertha is the project manager for the HAR Project. The project is behind schedule and Bertha has elected, with management's approval, to crash the critical path. This process adds more what? a. Documentation b. Cost c. Time d. Risk

Q26: Perform quality assurance belong to the ... PM Process Group. a. Initiating b. Executing c. Planning d. Monitoring and Controlling e. Closing

Q28: During which risk management process is a determination to transfer a risk made? a. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis b. Plan Risk Responses c. Monitor and Control Risks d. Identify risks

Q32: Which of the following are the part of WBS dictionary EXXCEPT: a. Who is responsible for the work b. Activity attributes c. Statement of work to be performed d. Schedule milestone

Q35: A project team member is talking to another team member and complaning that many people are asking him to do things. If he works in a fuctional organization, who has the power to give direction to the team member? a. The project manager b. The functional manager c. The team d. Tight matrix

Q36: Lessons learned are BEST completed by: a. The team b. The stakeholders c. The project manager d. The sponsor

Q39: A company is making an effort to improve its project performance and create historical records of past projects. What is the BEST way to accomplish this? a. Create network diagrams b. Create lessons learned c. Create project management plans d. Create status reports

Q41: During a project team meeting, a team member suggests an enhancement to the scope that is beyond the project charter. The project manager points out the team needs to concentrate on completing all the work and only the work required. This is an example of: a. Quality analisis b. Scope management c. Scope decomposition d. Change management process

Q42: Who has the MOST power in a projectized organization? a. The functional manager b. The project manager c. They all share power d. The team

Q45: You are currently in processs of prioritizing risks by their impact and probability of occurrence. The risk register updates from this process includes all of the following EXCEPT: a. Risk requiring reponses in the near term b. Root cause of risks c. Priortity list of project risk d. Risk group by caterories e. Low priority risk

Q46: The main focus of life cycle costing is to ... a. Consider installation costs when planning the project costs b. Consider operations and maintenace costs in making project decisions c. Estimate the cost of operation and maintenance d. Estimate installation costs

Q48: Which is the correct explanation of scope? a. Group that works toward the same target b. The sum of the products and services created as a project c. Skills for work subdividing d. Skills for reporting results

Q54: A team member is not performing well on the project because she is inexperienced in system development work. There is no one else available who is better qualified to do the work. What is BEST solution for the project manager? a. Consult with the fuctional manager to determine project completion incentives b. Arrange for the team member to get traning c. Obtain a new resource more skilled in development work d. Allocate somw of the project schedule reserve

Q56: ... is a document that describes when and how people will be added to and taken off a project team a. Team development plan b. Staffing management plan c. Responsibility assignment matrix d. RACI chart

Q59: Which of the following contract types places the greatest risk on the seller? a. Fixed-price-incentive contract b. Firm-fixed-price contract c. Cost plus-incentive-fee contract d. Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract

QN=100 You have two project stakeholders who do not get along at all. You know they both enjoy travelling, so you discuss great travel destinations when they are both in the room together to distract them from arguing with each other. What conflict-handling mode are you using? a. compromise mode b. smoothing mode c. collaborating mode d. confrontation mode #$

QN=104 A risk response which involves reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the probability of its occurrence is called: a. Acceptance b. Mitigation c. Avoidance d. Transference

QN=106 An example of risk mitigation is: a. Eliminating the cause of a risk b. Using proven technology in the development of a product to lessen the probability that the product will not work c. Accepting a lower profit if costs overrun d. Eliminating the impact of a risk

QN=11 In which organization are the project manager's independence and authority weakest? a. Projectized organization b. Functional organization c. Weak matrix organization d. Strong matrix organization

QN=110 In general, for which phase is risk and uncertainty minimum? a. Initial phase b. Final phase c. End of the Development phase d. Middle phase

QN=119 In which project procurement management process is an RFQ often written? a. conducting procurements b. planning procurements c. administering procurements d. selecting sellers

QN=12 The __________ deal with how the organization is structured and focuses on different groups' roles and responsibilities in order to meet the goals and policies set by top management a. Human resource frame b. Structural frame c. Political frame d. Symbolic frame

QN=120 In which project procurement management process is an RFP often written? a. conducting procurements b. planning procurements c. administering procurements d. selecting sellers

QN=15 In Balanced Matrix Organization Structure type, .... will control the project budget. a. Functional manager b. Mixed (Functional manager and PM) c. Project manager d. Program manager

QN=25 What is the last step in the four-stage planning process for selecting information technology projects? a. information technology strategy planning b. resource allocation c. business area analysis d. mind mapping

QN=27 _______processes include coordinating people and other resources to carry out the project plans and produce the products, services, or results of the project or phase a. Initiating b. Monitoring and controlling c. Planning d. Executing

QN=30 Define activities and sequence activities belong to the__________PM Process Group. a. Initiating b. Planning c. Closing d. Executing e. Monitoring and Controlling

QN=36 If estimates for total discounted benefits for a project are $130,000 and total discounted costs are $100,000, what is the estimated return on investment (ROI)? a. $30,000 b. 30 percent c. 130 percent d. $130,000

QN=39 _________ ensures that the descriptions of the project's products are correct and complete. a. Integrated change control b. Configuration management c. Integration Management d. A change control board

QN=4 Which strategic technology considers in efficient using of computer resources, social responsibility, and environmental impact? a. Unified communication b. Green IT c. Business process modeling d. Virtualization 2.0 e. Social software

QN=43 What approach to developing a WBS involves writing down or drawing ideas in a nonlinear format? a. top-down b. mind mapping c. bottom-up d. Analogy

QN=44 Assume you have a project with major categories called planning, analysis, design, and testing. What level of the WBS would these items fall under? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

QN=45 Which of the following is not a best practice that can help in avoiding scope problems on information technology project? a. Keep the realistic scope b. Don't involve too many users in scope management c. Follow good project management processes d. Use off-the-shelf hardware and software whenever possible

QN=46 What major restaurant chain terminated a large project after spending $170 millions on it, primarily because they realized the project scope was too much to handle? a. Burger King b. McDonald's c. Taco Bell d. Pizza Hut

QN=49 Project management software helps you develop a __________, which serves as basis for creating Gantt charts, assigning resources, and allocating costs. a. project plan b. WBS c. Schedule d. deliverables and WBS Dictionary

QN=50 The project scope statement, __________, and organizational process assets are primary inputs for creating a WBS. a. Project management plan b. Requirements documents c. Stakeholder register d. Requirements traceability

QN=55 You are the project manager for the MNB Project. You and your project team are about to enter into the activity duration estimating process. Which of the following will not be helpful in your meeting? a. Constraints b. The project contract c. Assumptions d. Identified risks

QN=56 Which of the following is not an output from the activity duration estimating process? a. Activity list updates b. WBS c. Project document updates d. Duration estimates

QN=6 Which is the correct explanation of a Stakeholder? a. New information system development b. Individual or organization influenced by the project c. Construction of building and equipment d. Leading the project to success.

QN=63 Project Cost Management includes all of the following except: a. Cost Controlling b. Resource leveling c. Cost estimating d. Cost budgeting

QN=70 Which type of cost is team training? a. Indirect b. Direct c. NPV d. Fixed

QN=71 During the completion of the project, a project manager wants to ensure that the quality of the end product is acceptable. The BEST way to do this is by: a. identifying the quality standards you want the end product to meet. b. checking quality levels against the standards set in the quality plan. c. performing cost/benefit analyses. d. determining the cause of a problem using a fishbone diagram.

QN=77 A project team member comes to the project manager during project execution to tell him that they feel the project cannot meet its quality standards. The project manager calls a meeting of the affected stakeholders to work through the problem. Which step of the quality management process is the project manager in? a. Quality analysis b. Quality assurance c. Quality control d. Quality planning

QN=80 Which of the following methods is used to provide a standard to measure performance? a. Leveling b. Benchmarking c. Sampling d. Estimating

QN=81 Which of the following is not part of project human resource management? a. Acquiring the project team b. Resource estimating c. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team

QN=82 ___________causes people to participate in an activity for their own enjoyment. a. Extrinsic motivation b. Intrinsic motivation c. Self motivation d. Social motivation

QN=87 A________ maps the work of a project as described in the WBS to the people responsible for performing the work. a. project organizational chart b. responsibility assignment matrix c. resource histogram d. work definition and assignment process

QN=9 Which is the most appropriate description that explains a project team member? a. Management representative of the project b. The group that carries out the work of the project. c. Individual or organization who will use the products of the project. d. Individual or group outside the organization that provides financial resources for the project.

QN=90 What are five stages in Tuckman's model of team development, in chronological order? a. forming, norming, storming, performing, and adjourning b. forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning c. forming, storming, performing, norming, and adjourning d. forming, storming, norming, adjourning, and performing

QN=92 Which communication skill is most important for information technology professionals for career advancement? a. writing b. speaking c. listening d. using communication technologies

QN=96 A_____ report describes where the project stands at a specific point time. a. performance b. status c. forecast d. earned value

QN=97 What tool can you use to help manage stakeholders by ranking scope, time, and cost goals in order of important and provide guidelines on balancing these constraints? a. triple constraint matrix b. issue log c. expectations matrix d. priority log

Six Sigma's target for perfection is the achievement of no more than ____ defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities. a.1.34 c.34 b.3.4 d.340

Some people say that ____ achieve the vision of a project. a. leaders b. managers c. stakeholders d. supervisors

The Manhattan Project cost almost $2 billion in ____. a. 1936 b. 1946 c. 1956 d. 1966

The ____ focuses on producing harmony between the needs of the organization and the needs of the people. a. structural frame b. human resources frame c. political frame d. symbolic frame

The ____ is an estimate of the value of the physical work actually completed. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV

The ____ is often held after the business case and project charter are completed, but it could be held sooner, as needed. a. kick-off project b. kick-off meeting c. launch meeting d. launch project

The ____ model assumes that requirements will remain stable after they are defined. a. spiral life cycle b. waterfall life cycle c. prototyping life cycle d. RAD life cycle

The ____ model requires heavy user involvement, and developers use a model to generate functional requirements and physical design specifications simultaneously. a. RAD life cycle b. prototyping life cycle c. spiral life cycle d. incremental build life cycle

The ____ process involves gaining stakeholder and customer acceptance of the final products and services and bringing the project, or project phase, to an orderly end. a. ending b. closing c. developing d. completing

The ____ section of the project management plan describes how to monitor project progress and handle changes. a. management objectives b. project controls c. risk management d. technical processes

The ____ should list and describe all of the deliverables required for the project. a.project charter b.scope statement c.WBS d.Gantt chart

The amount of authority a project manager possesses can be related to A. The project manager's communication skills B. The organization structure C. The amount of authority the manager of the project manager possesses D. Key stakeholder's influence on the project

The bottom four needs in Maslow's structure are referred to as ____ needs. a.self-actualization c.safety b.deficiency d.growth

The communications management plan can be part of the team ____. a.WBS c.plan b.contract d.guidelines

The critical path is the ____ path through a network diagram, and it represents the ____ time it takes to complete a project. a.longest; longest b.longest; shortest c.shortest; longest d.shortest; shortest

The goal of ____ is to influence the factors that cause scope changes, assure changes are processed according to procedures developed as part of integrated change control, and manage changes when they occur. a.scope verification b.scope control c.scope planning d.scope definition

The highest level of needs in Maslow's structure is referred to as a ____ need. a.deficiency c.safety b.growth d.physiological

The limitations of scope, time, and cost goals are sometimes referred to as the ____. a. double bind b. triple constraint c. double constraint d. double obstacle

The main outputs of ____ are a quality management plan, quality metrics, quality checklists, a process improvement plan, and project document updates. a.quality control c.quality assurance b.quality planning d.quality certification

The project ____ usually provides the direction and funding for the project. a. leader b. sponsor c. manager d. director

The project cost management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activities of estimating costs and budget determination. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling

There are ____ main processes involved in project integration management. a. three b. six c. ten d. fifteen

There are ____ main processes of project procurement management a. three b. four c. five d. six

Tom DeMarco, a well-known author on software development, suggests ____ reasons for the inaccuracies of many information technology project cost estimates and some ways to overcome them. a. three b. four c. five d. six

Two people have ____ communications channel(s). a.zero c.two b.one d.three

Utility rises at a decreasing rate for a ____ person. a.risk-seeking b.risk-averse c.risk-neutral d.risk-indifferent

When using the ____, project managers retreat or withdraw from an actual or potential disagreement. a.confrontation mode c.smoothing mode b.withdrawal mode d.forcing mode

Which of Covey's habits does Douglas Ross suggest differentiates good project managers from average or poor project managers? a.Think win/win b.Seek first to understand, then to be understood c.Begin with the end in mind d.Synergize

Which of the following is an important input to the integrated change control process? a. Deliverables b. Work performance information c. Approved and rejected change requests d. Approved and validated defect repair

Which of the following processes includes asking team members about the time estimates for their activities and reaching the agreement on the calendar date for each activity? A. Sequence activities B. Develop Schedule C. Deﬁne Scope D. Develop Project Charter

With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined fee and an incentive bonus. a. CPFF b. CPIF c. CPPC d. CPPF

With the ____, project managers use a give-and-take approach to resolving conflicts. a.confrontation mode c.smoothing mode b.compromise mode d.forcing mode

____ addresses how well a product or service performs the customer's intended use. a.Reliability c.Maintainability b.Performance d.Functionality

____ allow for future situations that are unpredictable. a. Contingency reserves b. Management reserves c. Known unknowns d. Indirect reserves

____ analysis is a method of calculating the expected net monetary gain or loss from a project by discounting all expected future cash inflows and outflows to the present point in time. a. Cost of capital b. Net present value c. Cash flow d. Payback

____ applies to positive risks when the project team cannot or chooses not to take any actions toward a risk. a. risk enhancement b. risk acceptance c. risk sharing d. risk exploitation

____ are often more effective particularly for sensitive information. a.Electronic communications c.Telephone conversations b.Short face-to-face meetings d.Long face-to-face meetings

____ are the people involved in or affected by project activities and include the project sponsor, project team, support staff, customers, users, suppliers, and even opponents of the project. a. Managers b. Stakeholders c. Directors d. Citizens

____ change orders are oral or written acts or omissions by someone with actual or apparent authority that can be construed to have the same effect as a written change order. a. Direct b. Constructive c. Destructive d. Instructive

____ contracts involve a fixed total price for a well-defined product or service. a. CPFF b. Lump sum c. Cost-reimbursable d. Time and material

____ dependencies are sometimes referred to as soft logic and should be used with care since they may limit later scheduling options. a.Mandatory b.Discretionary c.External d.Internal

____ describe where the project stands at a specific point in time. a.Progress reports c.Forecasts b.Status reports d.Updates

____ describes a holistic view of carrying out projects within the context of the organization. a. Systems philosophy b. Systems thinking c. Systems analysis d. Systems approach

____ help(s) you identify the vital few contributors that account for most quality problems in a system. a.Statistical sampling c.Six Sigma b.Pareto charts d.Quality control charts

____ include devising and maintaining a workable scheme to ensure that the project addresses the organization's needs. a. Initiating processes b. Planning processes c. Executing processes d. Monitoring and controlling processes

____ involves allocating ownership of the risk to another party. a. risk exploitation b. risk sharing c. risk enhancement d. risk acceptanceb

____ involves analyzing activity sequences, activity resource estimates, and activity duration estimates to create the project schedule. a.Estimating activity durations b.Developing the schedule c.Controlling the schedule d.Estimating activity resources

____ involves building individual and group skills to enhance project performance. a.Developing the human resource plan c.Acquiring the project team b.Developing the project team d.Managing the project team

____ involves deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for the project. a.Identifying risks b.Planning risk management c.Performing qualitative risk analysis d.Performing quantitative risk analysis

____ involves evaluating the reasons for dependencies and the different types of dependencies. a.Defining activities b.Sequencing activities c.Estimating activity resources d.Estimating activity duration

____ involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality. a.Performing quality assurance c.Checking quality b.Performing quality control d.Planning quality

____ involves reviewing the project charter, requirements documents, and organizational process assets to create a scope statement, adding more information as requirements are developed and change requests are approved. a.Planning scope b.Defining scope c.Controlling scope d.Verifying scope

____ involves taking steps to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to meeting project objectives. a.Performing quantitative risk analysis b.Planning risk responses c.Monitoring and controlling risk d.Performing qualitative risk analysis

____ involves using punishment, threats, or other negative approaches to get people to do things they do not want to do. a.Legitimate power c.Reward power b.Coercive power d.Referent power

____ is a network diagramming technique used to predict total project duration. a.A Gantt chart b.Critical path analysis c.Critical chain scheduling d.PERT analysis

____ is a planning process falling under the Project Integration Management knowledge area. a. Schedule development b. Develop project management plan c. Create WBS d. Quality planning

____ is a project performance measurement technique that integrates scope, time, and cost data. a. Cost baseline b. Earned value management c. Constructive cost modeling d. Parametric modeling

____ is a technique for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule compression for the least incremental cost. a.Crushing b.Crashing c.Fast tracking d.Expediting

____ is a technique for resolving resource conflicts by delaying tasks. a.Resource loading c.Resource allocation b.Resource leveling d.Resource requesting

____ is action taken to bring rejected items into compliance with product requirements or specifications or other stakeholder expectations. a.A process adjustment c.An acceptance decision b.Rework d.Auditing

____ is at the top of Maslow's structure. a.Esteem c.Physiological b.Self-actualization d.Social

____ is crucial in information technology projects because once a project team implements a new system, it takes a considerable amount of effort to change the system. a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Closing

____ is the cost of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure that a project is error-free or within an acceptable error range. a.Prevention cost c.Internal failure cost b.Appraisal cost d.External failure cost

____ is the earned value minus the actual cost. a. SV c. CPI b. CV d. SPI

____ is the ratio of revenues to profits. a. Profit b. Profit margin c. Cost structure d. Cost margin

____ proposed that an individual's specific needs are acquired or learned over time and shaped by life experiences. a.Frederick Herzberg c.Abraham Maslow b.David McClelland d.Douglas McGregor

____ refers to the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment. a. Means-ends orientation b. Open-systems focus c. Conflict tolerance d. Risk tolerance

____ uses highly organized and intensive workshops to bring together project stakeholders—the sponsor, users, business analysts, programmers, and so on—to jointly define and design information systems. a.Prototyping b.JAD c.RAD d.Use case modeling

____, a quality system standard developed by the ISO, is a three-part, continuous cycle of planning, controlling, and documenting quality in an organization. a.IEEE 15504 c.IEEE 9000 b.ISO 9000 d.ISO 15504

_____ is getting people to do things based on a position of authority. A. Reward power B. Legitimate power C. Referent power D. Coercive power E. Expert power

____power is based on a person's individual charisma. A. Personality B. Referent C. Legitimate D. Afﬁliation

QN=59 You are the project manager for the 987 Project. Should this project run over schedule, it will cost your organization $35,000 per day in lost sales. With four months to completion, you realize the project is running late. You decide, with management's approval, to add more project team members to the project plan to complete the work on time. This is an example of which of the following? a. Fast tracking b. Crashing c. Expert judgment d. Cost benefit analysis

"All project leaders use a shared road map, focusing on key business aspects of their projects while integrating goals across all parts of the organization" describes the ____ best practice for project delivery. a. Use an integrated toolbox b. Grow project leaders c. Develop a streamlined project delivery process d. Measure project health using metrics

"Organizations can gain access to specific skills and technologies when they are required by using outside resources." refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing. a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs b. Provide flexibility c. Access skills and technologies d. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business

A ____ is a meeting held at the beginning of a project so that stakeholders can meet each other, review the goals of the project, and discuss future plans. a. kick-off party b. launch meeting c. kick-off meeting d. project launch meeting

A ____ is a time-phased budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance. a. budget baseline b. ledger c. cost baseline d. cost line

A ____ is an approach to help increase the support of stakeholders throughout the project. a. stakeholder management plan b. stakeholder strategy c. stakeholder management strategy d. stakeholder management list

A ____ is done very early in a project or even before a project is officially started. a. budgetary estimate b. definitive estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate d. final estimate

A ____ provides an estimate of what a project will cost. a. budgetary estimate b. definitive estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate d. final estimate

A common ____ is reporting performance, where project stakeholders can identify any necessary changes that may be required to keep the project on track. a. executing process b. closing process c. monitoring and controlling process d. planning process

A new government law requires an organization to report data in a new way. Under which category would a new information system project to provide this data fall? A. Regulation B. Problem C. Directive D. Opportunity

A preliminary or rough cost estimate is developed in the ____ phase, and an overview of the work involved is created. a. implementation b. development c. concept d. close-out

A project manager can chart the probability and impact of risks on a ____. a.risk ranking chart b.risk probability table c.probability/impact matrix d.risk assessment matrix

A research report showed that the U.S. spends ____ on projects every year. a. $2.3 billion b. $23 billion c. $2.3 trillion d. $23 trillion

A research report showed that the U.S. spends the equivalent of ____ percent of the nation's gross domestic product on projects every year. a. 10 b. 20 c. 25 d. 50

A(n) ____ focuses on long-term goals and big-picture objectives, while inspiring people to reach those goals. a. assistant b. programmer c. leader d. manager

According to the Standish Group study describing what factors contribute most to the success of information technology projects, ____ percent of successful projects are led by experienced project managers. a. 75 b. 80 c. 97 d. 100

According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the most appropriate method for giving complex instructions. a.phone call c.meeting b.e-mail d.Web Site

All of the following are examples of the cost of nonconformance EXCEPT _ A. Warranty costs B. Rework C. Quality training D. Scrap.

All of the following are outputs of the Risk Monitoring and Control process EXCEPT: A. Recommended corrective actions B. Recommended preventive actions C. Work performance information D. Risk register updates

All technical work is completed on the project. Which of the following remains to be done? A. Plan risk responses B. Verify scope C. Complete lessons learned D. Create a staffing management plan

All technical work is completed on the project. Which of the following remains to be done? A. Plan risk responses B. Verify scope C. Complete lessons learned. D. Create a staffing management plan

An important tool used in the ____ phase of the DMAIC process is the fishbone or Ishikawa diagram. a.define c.analyze b.measure d.improve

Assume you have a project with major categories called planning. analysis. design. and testing. What level of the WBS would these items fall under? A. 4 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

At the bottom of Maslow's structure are ____ needs. a.esteem c.physiological b.self-actualization d.social

Because a project requires resources, often from various areas, many projects cross ____ or other boundaries to achieve their unique purposes. a. financial b. spatial c. departmental d. technological

During the completion of the project. a project manager wants to ensure that the quality of the end product is acceptable. The BEST way to do this is by: A. determining the cause of a problem using a fish-bone diagram. B. performing cost/beneﬁt analyses. C. checking quality levels against the standards set in the quality plan. D. identifying the quality standards you want the end product to meet.

During which risk management process is a determination to transfer a risk made? A. Identify risks B. Monitor and Control Risks C. Plan Risk Responses D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

During which risk management process is a determination to transfer a risk made? A. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis B. Identify risks C. Plan Risk Responses D. Monitor and Control Risks

Earned value analysis is an example of— A. lshikawa diagrams B. integrating the project components into a whole C. Performance reporting D. Planning control

Four people have ____ communications channel(s). a.one c.six b.four d.eight

From the supplier's perspective, there is the least risk with a(n) ____ contract a. CPFF b. FFP c. CPPC d. CPFF

Good ____ is very important to project success because it helps improve the accuracy of time, cost, and resource estimates, it defines a baseline for performance measurement and project control, and it aides in communicating clear work responsibilities. a.scope planning b.scope management c.scope definition d.scope verification

I, the ____ would normally be the general contractor responsible for building the house. a. project sponsors b. project team c. project manager d. support staff

In a ____ matrix organizational structure, the project manager controls the project budget and has moderate to high authority. a. weak b. balanced c. strong d. functional

In a ____ relationship, one task cannot finish before another finishes. a.start-to-start b.finish-to-start c.finish-to-finish d.start-to-finish

In a ____, personnel often report to both a functional manager and one or more project managers. a. project organizational structure b. system organizational structure c. matrix organizational structure d. functional organizational structure

In a weighted scoring model, the sum of all of the criteria's weights must total ____ percent. a. 0 b. 50 c. 100 d. 150

In any normal distribution, ____ percent of the population is within three standard deviations of the mean. a.95.5 c.99.7 b.99.0 d.99.9

In the WBS, the main groupings for the work are listed in Level ____. a.0 b.1 c.2 d.3

In the ____ stage of selecting information technology projects, organizations select information technology projects. a. Project Planning b. Business Area Analysis c. Resource Allocation d. Information Technology Strategy Planning

In which process is formal acceptance and handover of the final product/ service performed? A. Contract closure B. Scope verification C. Close project D. Contract administration

Information regarding the content of essential project communications comes from the ____. a.organizational chart c.work breakdown structure (WBS) b.communications management plan d.expectations management matrix

It takes ____ to help improve communication. a.timing c.leadership b.highly skilled employees d.outside consultants

Just as passing the CPA exam is a standard for accountants, passing the ____ exam is becoming a standard for project managers. a. PMI b. PM c. PMP d. PMO

KLCI Research Group's 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent of the participants said they had procedures in place to identify and assess risk. a.75 b.87 c.97 d.99

Many people are familiar with SWOT analysis—analyzing Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats—which is used to aid in ____. a. project initiation b. project planning c. strategic planning d. strategic initiation

Many people cite research that says in a face-to-face interaction, ____ percent of communication is through body language. a.10 c.58 b.25 d.85

Many practitioners define project success as ____. a.meeting project scope goals c.satisfying the customer/sponsor b.meeting time goals d.meeting cost goals

On a network diagram, all arrowheads should face toward the ____. a.top b.left c.right d.bottom

On large projects, many project managers say that ____ percent of the job is communicating and managing changes. a. 50 b. 70 c. 90 d. 100

One of ____ ten steps states that an organization should build awareness of the need and opportunity for improvement. a.Deming's c.Juran's b.Crosby's d.Ishikawa's

One of your team members informs you that he does not know which of the many projects he is working on is the most important. Who should determine the priorities among projects in a company? A. The project management team B. The team C. The project management ofﬁce D. The project manager.

Outputs from ____ include performance measurements, organizational process assets updates, change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates. a.estimating activity durations b.developing schedules c.controlling the schedule d.estimating activity resources

PMI provides certification as a Project Management ____ (PMP), someone who has documented sufficient project experience and education, agreed to follow the PMI code of professional conduct, and demonstrated knowledge of the field of project management by passing a comprehensive examination. a. Producer b. Practitioner c. Professional d. Professor

People who need personal ____ want to direct others and can be seen as bossy. a.affiliation c.power b.advancement d.achievement

Personnel in a _____ organization structure often report to two or more bosses A. Project B. Functional C. Matrix D. Hybrid

Personnel in a _____________ organization structure often report to two or more bosses A. Hybrid B. Functional C. Matrix D. Project

Project ____ management is an overarching function that affects and is affected by all of the other knowledge areas. a. cost b. quality c. integration d. time

Project managers should focus on ____, since they can control them. a. sunk costs b. indirect costs c. direct costs d. intangible costs

Projects that address ____ are much more likely to be successful because they will be important to the organization. a. a balanced scorecard b. a weighted scoring model c. broad organizational needs d. net present value

Psychologist David Merril describes ____ as reactive and task-oriented. a."Expressives" c."Analyticals" b."Drivers" d."Amiables"

Q03: The ... deal with how the organization is structured and focuses on different group's roles and responsibilities in order to meet the goals and policies set by top management. a. Symbolic frame b. Political frame c. Structural frame d. Human resource frame

Q10: The management theory that states that individual consider work as natural as play or rest and enjoy the satisfaction of esteem and self-actualization needs is ... a. Herzedrg's theory b. Theory X c. Theory Y d. Maslow's theory

Q12: Which of the following documents describes the details of the procurement items in order to allow prospective seller to determine whether they are capable of the providing the product a. Scope statement b. Project charter c. Contract statement of work d. Procurement management plan

Q13: Which of the following describle the BEST use of historical record from previous project? a. Risk management, estimating, and creating lessons learned b. Estimating, life cycle costing, and project planning c. Estimating, risk management, and project planing d. Project plannning, estimating, and creating a status report

Q17: Which of the following is a chief characteristic of the Delphi technique? a. Bottom-up approach b. Extrapolation from historical record form previous projects c. Expert opinion d. Analytical hierarchy process

Q18: The primary objective of contract negotiations is to ... a. Get the most from the other side b. Define objectives and stick to them c. Protect the relationship d. Get the highest monetary return

Q19: A SPI < 1 indicates which of the following? a. Project is under budget b. Project is ahead of schedule c. Project is behind schedule d. Project is over budget

Q27: During which project management process group are budget forecasts created? a. Initiating b. Planning c. Monitoring and Controlling

Q29: Which of the following statements are true regarding the scope baseline for a project? a. The scope baseline is an input of the scope verification process b. The scope baseline is an input of the scope control process c. The scope baseline is an ouput of the create work Breakdown Structure processs d. The scope baseline is an input of the create Work Breakdown Structure process

Q30: Formal written correspondence with the customer is required when ... a. The project has schedule slippage that includes changes to the critical path b. Defects are detected c. The customer request additional work not covered under contract d. The project has cost overruns

Q37: Which of the follwing is a characteristic of project management proccesses? a. Unnecessary b. Standardized c. Iterative d. Unique

Q50: During the completion of the project, a project manager wants to ensure that the quality of the end product is acceptable. The BEST way to do this is by: a. Identifying the quality standards you want the end product to meet b. Performing cost/ benefit analyses c. Checking quality level against the stardards set in the quality plan d. Determining the cause of a problem using a fishbone diagram

Q52: Which of the following explain why quality is planned in and not inspected in? a. It improves quality and is less expensive b. It reduces quality and is more expensive c. It improves quality and is more expensive d. It reduces quality and is less expensive

Q57: Which of the following BEST describes the project manager's role during the procurement process? a. The project manager should be the negotiator b. The project manager should tell the contract manager how the contracting process should be handle c. The project manager should supply an understanding of the risks of the project d. The project manager has only minor involvement

Q58: All technical work is completed on the project. Which of the following remains to be dones? a. Verify scope b. Create a staffing management plan c. Complete lession learned d. Plan risk responses

Q60: Which of the following BET describes a project management plan? a. The project scope b. A printout from project management software c. Risk, staffing, process improvement, and other management plans d. A bar chart

QN=102 Contingency reserves are used to handle which type of risk? a. Business risks b. Unknown unknowns c. Known unknowns d. Pure risks

QN=107 A risk ________ is a document that contains results of various risk management processes, often displayed in a table or spreadsheet format. a. management plan b. breakdown structure c. register d. probability-impact matrix

QN=114 A proposal evaluation sheet is an example of a(n) ________________ a. RFP b. NPV analysis c. weighted scoring model d. earned value analysis

QN=116 Buyers often prepare a _____________ list when selecting a seller to make this process more manageable. a. preferred b. qualified suppliers c. short d. BAFO

QN=17 The amount of authority a project manager possesses can be related to ______________ a. Key stakeholder's influence on the project b. The project manager's communication skills c. The organization structure d. The amount of authority the manager of the project manager possesses

QN=2 Which is the correct explanation of Scope? a. Skills for work subdividing b. Skills for reporting results c. The sum of the products and services created as a project d. Group that works toward the same target,

QN=22 Direct and manage project executing belongs to the ...... PM Process Group. a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Monitoring and Controlling e. Closing

QN=29 Which is not a task that is taken in pre-initiation phase? a. Select the project manager b. Identify the project sponsor c. Develop project charter d. Develop a business case

QN=32 What is the last step in four-stage planning processes for selecting information technology project? a. information technology strategy planning b. business area analysis c. resource allocation d. mind mapping

QN=37 A____________ is a document that formally recognizes the existence of a project and provides direction on the project's objectives and management. a. project contract b. project charter c. project management plan d. business case

QN=5 Which is not a project attribute? a. A project should have a primary customer and sponsor b. A project is temporary c. A project should have only one project manager and one technical leader d. A project involves uncertainty

QN=51 Michael is the project manager of the 98GH Project. This project requires several members of the project team to complete a certification class for another project the week of November 2. This class causes some of the project activities on Michael's activities to be delayed from his target schedule. This is an example of which of the following? a. Hard logic b. Soft logic c. External dependencies d. Conflict of interest

QN=53 What is the difference between PDM and ADM? a. ADM hosts activities on nodes, while PDM hosts activities on arrows. b. ADM is also known as AOA, while PDM is also known as GERT. c. ADM places activities on arrows; PDM places activities on nodes. d. PDM can have two types of relationships between tasks, while ADM can have only type of relationship between tasks

QN=58 Which of the following is not a primary input of activity duration estimation process? a. The activity list b. Activity attributes c. WBS Dictionary d. Activity resource requirements

QN=61 Which of the following choices indicates that a project has a burn rate of 1.5? (Hint: Burn rate is the same as the Cost Performance Index) a. The PV is 100 and the EV is 150. b. The AC is 150 and the EV is 100. c. The AC is 100 and the EV is 150. d. The EV is 100 and the PV is 150.

QN=64 Earned value is all of the following except: a. Completed work value. b. Budgeted cost of work performed. c. Actual cost of work performed. d. Percent complete.

QN=66 The inputs to Cost Budgeting includes all of the following except: a. Cost estimates b. WBS c. Cost baseline d. Project schedule

QN=67 Parametric cost estimating involves: a. Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package. b. Using the actual cost of a similar project to estimate total project costs. c. Using rates and factors based on historical experience to estimate costs. d. Calculating individual cost estimates for biggest or smallest work package.

QN=7 What is the process of gradual, step-wise reduction to details of the project products and the characteristics of new services called? a. Structurize b. Coordination between items c. Progressive elaboration d. Temporary

QN=72 The line in the middle of a control chart is called the: a. specification limit. b. rule of seven. c. Mean d. upper and lower control limit

QN=75 All of the following are outputs of quality planning EXCEPT? a. Creation of checklists b. Quality management plan c. Acceptance decisions d. Metrics

QN=8 According to textbook, every project is constrained in different ways by its scope,...., and cost goals a. Quality b. Customer's satisfaction c. Time d. Sponsor's satisfaction

QN=83 At the bottom of Maslow's pyramid or hierarchy of needs are _____ needs a. self-actualization b. Esteem c. Physiological d. Safety

QN=89 What technique can you use to resolve resource conflicts by delaying tasks? a. resource loading b. critical path analysis c. resource leveling d. Over allocation

QN=93 Which of the following is not a process of communication management? a. Identify stakeholders b. Plan communication c. Acquiring project team d. Distribute information

QN=99 When using the ________, the project manager deemphasizes or avoids areas of differences and emphasizes areas of agreement. a. confrontation mode b. compromise mode c. smoothing mode d. collaborating mode

Research indicates that project managers favor using ____ for conflict resolution over the other four modes. a.compromise c.confrontation b.smoothing d.forcing

Research shows that ____ is the number one reason cited for why organizations invest in information technology projects. a. providing financial incentives b. supporting implicit business objectives c. supporting explicit business objectives d. keeping abreast of technological advances

Since information technology projects often require a lot of coordination, it is a good idea to have ____ meetings. a.long, frequent c.short, frequent b.short, infrequent d.long, infrequent

The Standish Group's CHAOS studies reported an average cost overrun for unsuccessful IT projects range from 180 percent in 1994 to ____ percent in 2004. a. 28 b. 43 c. 56 d. 73

The ____ approach involves refining the work into greater and greater levels of detail. a.analogy b.bottom-up c.top-down d.mind mapping

The ____ approach is best suited to project managers who have vast technical insight and a big-picture perspective. a.analogy b.bottom-up c.top-down d.mind mapping

The ____ characteristic of organizational culture describes the degree to which management's decisions take into account the effect of outcomes on people within the organization. a. member identity b. group emphasis c. people focus d. unit integration

The ____ for an activity is the latest possible time an activity might begin without delaying the project finish date. a.early entry date b.late entry date c.late start date d.early start date

The ____ is an estimate of what it will cost to complete the project based on performance to date. a. CPI c. EAC b. SV d. SPI

The ____ is the ratio of actual work completed to the percentage of work planned to have been completed at any given time during the life of the project or activity. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV

The ____ is the ratio of earned value to actual cost and can be used to estimate the projected cost of completing the project. a. SV c. CPI b. CV d. SPI

The ____ line for any e-mail messages you write should clearly state the intention of the e-mail. a.to c.subject b.from d.cc

The ____ model uses an approach in which developers work with an evolving prototype. a. incremental build life cycle b. waterfall life cycle c. RAD life cycle d. spiral life cycle

The ____ presents subjects with a series of ambiguous pictures and asks them to develop a spontaneous story for each picture, assuming they will project their own needs into the story. a.RAM c.TAT b.MBTI d.RACI

The ____ provides a basis for creating the project schedule and performing earned value management for measuring and forecasting project performance. a. WSB b. project team analysis c. WBS d. project tool

The ____ section of the project plan should describe the major project functions and activities and identify those individuals who are responsible for them. a. organizational charts b. other organizational or process-related information c. project responsibilities d. management objectives

The ____ states that if seven data points in a row are all below the mean, above the mean, or are all increasing or decreasing, then the process needs to be examined for non-random problems. a.ten run rule c.seven run rule b.six 9s of quality rule d.Six Sigma rule

The first step in the framework for defining and assigning work is ____. a.defining how the work will be accomplished b.breaking down the work into manageable elements c.finalizing the project requirements d.assigning work responsibilities

The goal of ____ is to know the status of the schedule, influence the factors that cause schedule changes, determine that the schedule has changed, and manage changes when they occur. a.activity duration estimating b.schedule development c.schedule control d.activity resource estimating

The longest path through a network diagram that determines the earliest completion of a project is called the ____ path. a. essential b. important c. critical d. vital

The main outputs of ____ process are team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factors update. a.managing the project team c.developing the project team b.acquiring the project team d.human resource planning

The project communications management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activity of information distribution. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling

The project procurement management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activities conducting procurements. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling

The project schedule information section of the project management plan might include ____. a. a detailed budget b. key deliverables c. a detailed schedule d. project staffing

The project scope statement.____and organizational process assets are primary inputs for creating a WBS. A. Stakeholder register B. Requirements trace ability C. Requirements documents D. Project management plan

The term ____ describes a product produced as part of a project. a.end-product b.scope c.deliverable d.outcome

The ultimate goal of ____ is to create a realistic project schedule that provides a basis for monitoring project progress for the time dimension of the project. a.defining activities b.sequencing activities c.developing the schedule d.estimating activity duration

There are ____ main processes in project communications management. a.two c.four b.three d.five

There are ____ main processes involved in project scope management. a.three b.four c.five d.six

There are ____ main processes involved in project time management. a.two b.four c.six d.ten

Three separate surveys of software project cost overruns found that the average cost overrun for all of the projects in their survey samples (not just unsuccessful projects) were ____ percent. a. 13-14 b. 23-24 c. 33-34 d. 43-44

To ensure the effectiveness of corrective actions. corrective actions frequently require which of the following? A. Rebaselining project cost baseline B. Rebaselining project schedule baseline C. Root-cause analysis D. Performance measurementst

Unenforceable conditions or contract clauses, and adversarial relations are risk conditions associated with the ____ project management knowledge area. a.Integration b.Quality c.Procurement d.Human Resources

What is the first step in a Monte Carlo analysis? a. Determine the probability distribution of each variable. b. For each variable, such as the time estimate for a task, select a random value based on the probability distribution for the occurrence of the variable. c. Assess the range for the variables being considered. d. Run a deterministic analysis or one pass through the model using the combination of values selected for each one of the variables.

When a product or service completely meet customer's requirements? A. The cost of quality is low B. The cost of quality is high C. Quality is archived. D. The customer pays minimum prices

When using the ____, the project manager deemphasizes or avoids areas of differences and emphasizes areas of agreement. a.confrontation mode c.smoothing mode b.withdrawal mode d.forcing mode

Which is the correct explanation of Scope? A. Skills for work subdividing B. Skills for reporting results C. The sum of the products and services created as a project D. Group that works toward the same target,

Which of the following MUST be an agenda item at all team meeting? A. Status of current activities B. Identiﬁcation of new activities C. Discussion of the project risks D. Review of the project problems

Which of the following describes the assumptions of the theory Y style of management? A. People work only for money and security B. Theory Y assumes workers dislike and avoid work, so managers must use coercion, threat, and various control schemes to get workers to meet objectives C. Theory Y assumes individuals consider work as natural as play or rest and enjoy the satisfaction of esteem and self-actualization needs D. People have no ambitions, wants no responsibility, and would rather follow than lead

Which of the following is an input of scope change control? A. Work around B. Corrective actions C. Performance reports D. Performance measurements

Which of the following is the BEST thing to do to try to complete a project two days earlier? A. Tell your boss. B. Work hard and see what the project status is next month. C. Meet with the team and look for options for crashing (or fast tracking) the critical path. D. Tell senior management that the project critical path does not allow the project to be ﬁnished earlier.

William Ibbs and Young H. Kwak's study revealed that the ____ industry had the lowest level of project management maturity in the area of quality management. a.engineering/construction b.telecommunications c.information systems d.high-tech manufacturing

William Ibbs and Young H. Kwak's study revealed that the ____ industry had the lowest level of project management maturity in the area of risk management. a.engineering/construction b.telecommunications c.information systems d.high-tech manufacturing

With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined percentage based on total costs. a. CPFF b. CPIF c. CPPC d. CPPF

You are asked to prepare a budget for completing a project that was started last year and then shelved (not to continue) for six months. All the following would be included in the budget EXCEPT: A. Direct costs B. Variable costs C. Sunk(expended) costs D. Fixed costs

You are in the process of making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner. Which of the following statements are TRUE? A. Cost reporting systems and time reporting systems are tools/techniques you can use in this process. B. Forecasts and performance reports are outputs of this process C. You need the communications management plan as one of the process inputs D. You are in the Project Monitoring and Controlling process group

____ addresses the ease of performing maintenance on a product. a.Reliability c.Maintainability b.Performance d.Functionality

____ analysis simulates a model's outcome many times to provide a statistical distribution of the calculated results. a.Decision tree b.EMV c.Monte Carlo d.Watch list

____ are predefined actions that the project team will take if an identified risk event occurs. a.Fallback plans b.Contingency reserves c.Contingency plans d.Contingency allowances

____ are those costs that an organization can easily measure in dollars. a. Intangible costs b. Direct costs c. Tangible costs d. Indirect costs

____ dependencies involve relationships between project and non-project activities. a.Mandatory b.Discretionary c.External d.Internal

____ ensures that the descriptions of the project's products are correct and complete. a. CCB b. Correction management c. Configuration management d. Product description management

____ helps you develop an accurate projection of a project's financial costs and benefits. a. Profit cycle costing b. Financial costing c. Life cycle costing d. Profit margin costing

____ involve estimating individual work items or activities and summing them to get a project total. a. Actual estimates b. Parametric estimates c. Bottom-up estimates d. Analogous estimates

____ involve payment to the supplier for direct and indirect actual costs. a. CPFF contracts b. Lump sum contracts c. Cost-reimbursable contracts d. Time and material contracts

____ involves changing the size of the opportunity by identifying and maximizing key drivers of the positive risk. a. risk exploitation b. risk sharing c. risk enhancement d. risk acceptance

____ involves completion and settlement of each contract, including resolution of any open items. a. Exiting procurements b. Closing out accounts c. Closing procurements d. Ending procurements

____ involves controlling and managing changes to the project schedule. a.Estimating activity durations b.Developing the schedule c.Controlling the schedule d.Estimating activity resources

____ involves controlling changes to project scope throughout the life of the project, which is a challenge on many information technology projects. a.Planning scope b.Defining scope c.Controlling scope d.Verifying scope

____ involves coordinating all planning efforts to create a consistent, coherent document. a. Developing the project charter b. Developing the preliminary project scope statement c. Developing the project management plan d. Directing and managing project execution

____ involves doing activities in parallel that you would normally do in sequence. a.Crushing b.Crashing c.Fast tracking d.Expediting

____ involves getting the needed personnel assigned to and working on the project. a.Developing the human resource plan c.Acquiring the project team b.Developing the project team d.Managing the project team

____ involves monitoring identified and residual risks, identifying new risks, carrying out risk response plans, and evaluating the effectiveness of risk strategies throughout the life of the project. a.Performing quantitative risk analysis b.Planning risk responses c.Monitoring and controlling risk d.Performing qualitative risk analysis

____ involves shifting the consequence of a risk and responsibility for its management to a third party. a.Risk avoidance b.Risk acceptance c.Risk transference d.Risk mitigation

____ involves using incentives to induce people to do things. a.Legitimate power c.Reward power b.Coercive power d.Referent power

____ is a comprehensive and flexible system for achieving, sustaining and maximizing business success. a.Statistical sampling c.Six Sigma b.Pareto analysis d.Quality control charting

____ is a method of scheduling that considers limited resources when creating a project schedule and includes buffers to protect the project completion date. a.A Gantt chart b.Critical path analysis c.Critical chain scheduling d.PERT analysis

____ is a planning process falling under the Project Scope Management knowledge area. a. Schedule development b. Develop project management plan c. Create WBS d. Quality planning #$

____ is a set of shared assumptions, values, and behaviors that characterize the functioning of an organization. a. Organizational politics b. Organizational philosophy c. Organizational culture d. Organizational structure

____ is an independent test performed by end users prior to accepting the delivered system. a.Integration testing c.User acceptance testing b.Unit testing d.System testing

____ is an iterative software development process that focuses on team productivity and delivers software best practices to all team members. a. RAP b. RIP c. RUP d. ROP

____ is best known for developing a hierarchy of needs. a.Frederick Herzberg c.Abraham Maslow b.David McClelland d.Douglas McGregor

____ predict future project status and progress based on past information and trends. a.Progress reports c.Forecasts b.Status reports d.Updates

____ states that work expands to fill the time allowed. a.Murphy's Law b.Newton's Law c.Parkinson's Law d.Moore's Law

____ support contributes the most to successful information technology projects. a. Stakeholder b. Team c. Executive d. User

____ tools, sometimes referred to as enterprise project management software, provide robust capabilities to handle very large projects. a. Low-end b. Midrange c. High-end d. Inexpensive

____determine(s) if the products or services produced as part of the project will be accepted or rejected. a.Process adjustments c.Acceptance decisions b.Rework d.Auditing

"If the information technology project is to produce a new product or service, will it be useful to the organization or marketable to others?" applies to which risk category? a.Financial risk b.Technology risk c.Structure/process risk d.Market risk

"Is there a project champion?" applies to which risk category? a.Financial risk b.Technology risk c.Structure/process risk d.People risk

"Most organizations are not in business to provide information technology services, yet many have spent valuable time and resources on information technology functions when they should have focused on core competencies such as marketing, customer service, and new product design." refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing. a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs b. Provide flexibility c. Access skills and technologies d. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business

A Gantt chart is a standard format for displaying project schedule information by listing project activities and their corresponding start and finish dates in a ____ format. a. pie chart b. line graph c. bar graph d. calendar #$

A ____ is a graphic display of data that illustrates the results of a process over time. a.statistical sampling chart c.Six Sigma chart b.Pareto chart d.control chart

A ____ is the hierarchy most people think of when picturing an organizational chart. a. project organizational structure b. system organizational structure c. matrix organizational structure d. functional organizational structure

A ____ person achieves a balance between risk and payoff. a.risk-seeking b.risk-averse c.risk-fearing d.risk-neutral

A project can best be deﬁned as: A. Cradle-to-grave activities which must be accomplished in less than one year and consumes human and non-human resources. B. Series of non-related activities designed to accomplish single and multiple objectives. C. Coordinated effort of related activities designed to accomplish a goal without a well-established end point. D. Any undertakings with a deﬁnable time frame, well-deﬁned objectives, and consume both human and non-human resources with certain constraints.

A rough order of magnitude estimate is made during which project management process group? A. Project executing B. Project closing C. Project planning D. Project initiating

A(n) ____ is a deliverable-oriented grouping of the work involved in a project that defines the total scope of the project. a.project charter b.business case c.project scope statement d.work breakdown structure

A(n) ____ is a document that formally recognizes the existence of a project and provides direction on the project's objectives and management. a. balanced scorecard b. business case c. net present value analysis d. project charter

A(n) ____ is a formal, documented process that describes when and how official project documents may be changed. a. integrated change control b. change request c. performance report d. change control system

According to Thamhain and Wilemon, ____ is the ability to improve a worker's position. a.authority c.expertise b.assignment d.promotion

According to the Standish Group's success potential scoring sheet, ____ has the highest relative importance. a.executive management support b.clear statement of requirements c.proper planning d.user involvement

According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the only inappropriate method for expressing support/appreciation. a.phone call c.meeting b.e-mail d.Web site

Administrative activities are often involved in ____, such as archiving project files, closing out contracts, documenting lessons learned, and receiving formal acceptance of the delivered work as part of the phase or project. a. monitoring and controlling processes b. executing processes c. initiating processes d. closing processes

After discovering WBS items and structure using the ____ technique, you could then translate the information into chart or tabular form. a.analogy b.bottom-up c.top-down d.mind mapping

All of the following are sources of conﬂict EXCEPT: A. Scarce resources B. Personal work styles C. Scheduling priorities D. Ground rules

An example of a project is: A. Billing customers B. Providing technical support C. Managing an organization D. Constructing a building or facility

An item you need for a project has a daily lease cost of $200. To purchase the item. there is an investment cost of $6000 and a daily cost of $50. Calculate the number of days when the lease cost would be the same as the purchase cost. A. 50 B. 60 C. 30 D. 40

As the number of people involved in a project ____, the complexity of communications ____. a.increases, decreases c.increases, stays constant b.decreases, increases d.increases, increases

If earned value (EV) = 350 and actual cost (AC) = 400. What is cost variance (CV)? A. 50 B. -100 C. 100 D. -50

If earned value (EV) = 350, actual cost (AC) = 400, what is cost variance (CV)? A. 100 B. -100 C. 50 D. -50

In an interview with two chief information officers (CIOs), both men agreed that the most important project management skills seem to depend on ____. a. the difficulty of the project and the resources involved b. the difficulty of the task and the people involved c. the uniqueness of the project and the difficulty of the task d. the uniqueness of the project and the people involved

In the MBTI, the ____ dimension relates to the manner in which you gather information. a.Extrovert/Introvert c.Judgment/Perception b.Thinking/Feeling d.Sensation/Intuition

In the Tuckman model, ____ occurs as team members have different opinions as to how the team should operate. a.performing c.forming b.norming d.storming

In the ____ stage, organizations tie information technology strategy to mission and vision of organization and identify key business areas. a. Project Planning b. Business Area Analysis c. Resource Allocation d. Information Technology Strategy Planning

In the ____, you use a similar project's WBS as a starting point. a.top-down approach b.bottom-up approach c.mind-mapping approach d.analogy approach

In the example of the project of building a house, the project sponsors would be the potential ____. a. contractors b. support staff c. managers d. new homeowners

It is good practice to focus on the ____ of meetings. a. flow b. planning c. agenda d. results

Juran's final step to quality improvement is ____. a.organize to reach the goals (establish a quality council, identify problems, select projects, appoint teams, designate facilitators) b.keep score c.report progress d.maintain momentum by making annual improvement part of the regular systems and processes of the company

KLCI Research Group's 2001 survey revealed that the most frequently cited benefit from software risk management practices is to ____. a.prevent surprises b.improve ability to negotiate c.meet customer commitments d.anticipate/avoid problems

Many companies have realized that information technology is integral to their business and have created a vice president or equivalent-level position for the head of information technology, often called the ____. a. CPO b. CFO c. CEO d. CIO

Many organizations use ____ and templates to generate SOWs. a. details b. outlines c. plans d. samples

Many people confuse tasks on a WBS with ____. a.goals b.objectives c.responsibilities d.specifications

Most people agree that the modern concept of project management began with the ____. a. Great Wall of China b. first space shuttle c. Egyptian pyramids d. Manhattan Project

Most systems analysts begin their careers as ____. a. database administrators b. CEOs c. project managers d. programmers

Often, many non-technical professionals—from colleagues to managers—prefer to ____ about project information to try to find pertinent information. a.read detailed reports c.read Web pages b.read e-mails d.have a two-way conversation

Outputs from the Initiation process include: A. Constraints. Assumptions. Product Description B. Project Manager identified, Project Charter, Product Description C. Scope Statement. Project Manager identiﬁed. Product Description D. Project Charter, constraints, assumptions

Poor conflict management, poor project organization and definition of responsibilities, and absence of leadership are risk conditions associated with the ____ project management knowledge area. a.Integration b.Quality c.Time d.Human Resources

Project ____ management ensures that the project will satisfy the stated or implied needs for which it was undertaken. a. cost b. time c. scope d. quality

Project ____ management involves generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing project information. a. risk b. procurement c. communications d. resource

Project management software highlights the critical path in ____ on a network diagram. a.blue b.yellow c.green d.red

Psychologist David Merril describes ____ as reactive and people-oriented. a."Expressives" c."Analyticals" b."Drivers" d."Amiables"

Q04: Define activities and sequence activities belong to the ... PM process Group a. Executing b. Closing c. Initiating d. Planing e. Moniroting and Controlling

Q06: Your are the project manager for the LLL Project. Steven, a project team member, is confused about netwok diagrams. Specifically, he wants to know what the critical path is in a network diagram. Your answer is which one of the following? a. The critical path is the network that hosts the activities most critical to the project success b. The critical path is the path from start to completion with no deviation from the project plan c. The critical path is always one path that cannot be delayed or the entire project will be delayed d. The critical path is the path with the longest duration

Q09: From the project perspective, quality attributes ... a. Are object criteria that must be met b. Provide the basic for juding the project's success or failure c. Determine how effectively the performing organization supports the project d. Are specific characteristics for which a project is desinged and tested.

Q11: The preliminary Scope Statement which is and output of the Develop Preliminary Project Scope Statement process, is an input to all of the following EXCEPT: a. Develop project management plan b. Scope planing c. Scope definition d. Integrated change control

Q15: Develop project charter work belongs to the ... PM Process Group. a. Executing b. Planing c. Monitoring and Controlling d. Initiating e. Closing

Q22: All of the following occur during the planning process group EXCEPT: a. Sequence activities b. Create Work Breakdown Structure c. Estimates costs d. Develop project Charter

Q38: Which is the one not included in the features of a project? a. Temporary b. Progressive elaboration c. Unique purpose d. Fixed operation

Q43: A project management plan should be realistic in order to be use to manage project. Which of the following is the BEST method to achieve a realistic project management plan? a. Project manager creates the project management plan based on input from senior management b. Sponsor creates the project management plan based on input from project manager c. Functional project manager create the project management plan base on input form the project manager d. Project manager creates the project management plan based on input from the team

Q49: Which is not a process in the Risk Management knowledge area? a. Risk Identification b. Plan Risk Response c. Perform qualitative risk analysis d. Risk Design

Q51: Analogous estimating ... a. Is used most frequently during the executing processes of the project b. Uses bottom-up estimating techniques c. Uses actual detailed historical costs d. Uses top-down estimating techniques

QN=10 Which of the following is likely to be part of an operation? a. Informing the public about changes at the electrical company b. Building a new dam as a source for electricity c. Designing an electrical grid for a new community d. Providing electricity to a community

QN=103 Which of the following statements is false? a. Uncertainty and risk are greatest at the start of the project and lowest at the end. b. Expected monetary value can be expressed as the product of the risk event probability and the risk event value. c. Opportunities are positive outcomes of risk. d. Uncertainty and risk are lowest at the start of the project and greatest at the end.

QN=111 Which type of contract has the least amount of risk for buyer a. cost plus fixed fee b. Cost plus incentive fee c. time and material d. fixed-price

QN=117 A unilateral contract under which the seller is paid a preset amount per unit of service is called: a. A cost reimbursable contract b. A lump sum contract c. A fixed price contract d. A unit price contract

QN=13 Which of the following statements is not true? a. Only those who realize that cultural differences are a resource to leverage will survive in the twenty-first century b. There is a common ground for people from different cultures to work from to help resolve project conflicts. c. Culture is a critical lever for competitive advantage. d. Cultural differences will always be an obstacle to overcome.

QN=14 In... ... .... Organization structure type, project manager has "Moderate to high" authority a. Functional b. Week Matrix c. Balance Matrix d. Strong Matrix e. Projectized

QN=16 Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between project lifecycle phases and project management processes? a. Project management processes correspond one to one with project lifecycle phases. b. Project lifecycle phases can repeat within a project management process. c. Project management processes are completely independent of project lifecycle phases d. Project management processes can repeat within a project lifecycle.

QN=18 What is core of the advantages of a functional organization? a. All employees report to two or more managers, but project team members show loyalty to functional managers b. The organization is focused on projects and project work c. Team are collocated d. All employees report to one manager and have a clear chain of command

QN=20 Which is the most appropriate description of the stakeholder's influence on the project life cycle? a. Minimum at the start and maximum at the end. b. Maximum at the start, minimum at the middle phase, and maximum at the end of the project. c. Constant. d. Maximum at the start and then gradually weakens towards the end of the project.

QN=23 Which is not a process group in project management lifecycle (as mentioned in the PMBOK)? a. Planning process group b. Closing process group c. Execution process group d. Feedback process group

QN=31 Which of the following processes is not part of project integration management? a. close the project or phase b. develop the project charter c. develop the project management plan d. develop the project business case

QN=33 Which of the following items is not a step in four-stage planning processes for selecting IT project? a. information technology strategy planning b. business area analysis c. resource allocation d. mind mapping

QN=34 Which of the following is not a best practice for new product development projects? a. align projects and resources with business strategy b. assign project managers to lead projects c. focus on customer needs in identifying projects d. select projects that will take less than two years to provide payback

QN=35 A new government law requires an organization to report data in a new way. Under which category would a new information system project to provide this data fall? a. Problem b. Opportunity c. Regulation d. Directive

QN=47 Scope________ is often achieved by a customer inspection and then sign-off on key deliverables. a. Validation b. Completion c. close-out d. Verification

QN=52 You are the project manager for the LLL Project. Steven, a project team member, is confused about network diagrams. Specifically, he wants to know what the critical path is in a network diagram. Your answer is which one of the following? a. The critical path is the network that hosts the activities most critical to the project success. b. The critical path is the path from start to completion with no deviation from the project plan c. The critical path is always one path that cannot be delayed or the entire project will be delayed. d. The critical path is the path with the longest duration.

QN=57 Which of the following is not an output of activity resource estimation process? a. a resource breakdown structure b. a list of activity resource requirements c. project document updates d. WBS Dictionary

QN=74 A project team has invited many of the project stakeholders to help them inspect quality on the project. Which of the following would NOT be an output of this activity? a. Quality improvement b. Rework c. Process adjustments d. Quality management plan

QN=76 Who is ultimately responsible for quality management in the project? a. Project engineer b. Quality manager c. Team member d. Project manager

QN=79 _________ is the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfils requirements, a. Conformance to requirements b. Fitness for use c. Reliability d. Quality

QN=86 ________ power is based on a person's individual charisma. a. Affiliation b. Legitimate c. Personality d. Referent

QN=94 A_______ is an approach to help increase the support of stakeholders throughout the project a. stakeholder register b. expectations management matrix c. reporting performance d. stakeholder management strategy

QN=95 Which of the following is not a preferred section in communication plan? a. Stakeholder communication requirements b. Define information to be communicated c. A glossary of common terminology d. Training activities

Quality metrics are an output of project ____. a. cost management b. scope management c. integration management d. quality management

Since organizations depend on reliable information technology, there are also huge costs associated with ____. a. work time b. technical planning c. uptime d. downtime

Some items discussed in a(n) ____ include reflections on whether project goals were met, whether the project was successful or not, the causes of variances on the project, the reasoning behind corrective actions chosen, the use of different project management tools and techniques, and personal words of wisdom based on team members' experiences. a.final project report c.audit report b.design document d.lessons-learned report

Stakeholders can be identified in which project management process group? A. Initiating and planning B. Planning and monitoring and controlling C. Monitoring and controlling and closing D. Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing.

The ____ is a description of the work required for the procurement. a. RFQ b. RFP c. COW d. SOW

The ____ is that portion of the approved total cost estimate planned to be spent on an activity during a given period. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV

The ____ is the minimum acceptable rate of return on an investment. a. return on investment b. internal rate of return c. external rate of return d. required rate of return

The ____ model provides for progressive development of operational software, with each release providing added capabilities. a. spiral life cycle b. RAD life cycle c. waterfall life cycle d. incremental build life cycle

The ____ process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling. a.quality planning c.quality assurance b.quality certification d.quality control

The ____ provide(s) schedule-related information about each activity, such as predecessors, successors, logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, constraints, imposed dates, and assumptions related to the activity. a.activity list b.milestones c.activity descriptions d.activity attributes

The ____ section of the project management plan describes specific methodologies a project might use and explains how to document information. a. management objectives b. project controls c. risk management d. technical processes

The ____ tasks vary the most from project to project. a.closing b.monitoring and controlling c.planning d.executing

The ____ ultimately decides if quality is acceptable. a.project team c.project manager b.CEO d.customer

The activity list, activity attributes, activity resource requirements, resource calendars, project scope statement, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets all include information that affect ____. a.definitions b.sequences c.resource estimates d.duration estimates

The main outputs of ____ are accepted deliverables and change requests. a.planning scope b.controlling scope c.defining scope d.verifying scope

The management theory that states that individuals consider work as natural as play or rest and enjoy the satisfaction of esteem and self-actualization needs is _ A. Theory X B. Herzberg's theory C. Maslow's theory D. Theory Y

The output of the ____ process is a communications management plan. a.reporting performance c.managing stakeholder expectations b.distributing information d.planning communications

The outputs of ____ include change request status updates, project management plan updates, and project document updates. a. monitoring and controlling the project work b. closing the project c. developing the project management plan d. performing integrated change control

The project procurement management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activity of administering procurements. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling

The project scope management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activities of scope verification and scope control. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling

The project time management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activity of schedule control. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling

There are ____ major processes involved in risk management. a.three b.four c.five d.six

What is the duration of a milestone? A. Same the length as the activity it represents B. Shorter than the duration of the longest activities C. Shorter than the activity it represents. D. There is no duration.

What is the duration of a milestone? A. Shorter than the activity it represents. B. Shorter than the duration of the longest activities. C. Same the length as the activity it represents D. There is no duration.

What works on one project may not work on another, so it is essential for project managers to continue to develop their knowledge and ____ in managing projects. a. time b. resources c. funding d. skills

When using the ____, project managers exert their viewpoint at the potential expense of another viewpoint. a.confrontation mode c.smoothing mode b.compromise mode d.forcing mode

Which of the following items is not normally included in a project charter? A. stakeholder signatures B. the name of the project manager C. budget information D. a Gant chart

Which of the following represent the portion of the approved total cost estimate planned to be spent on an activity during a given period? A. Actual cost(AC) B. Cost variance(CV) C. Earned value(EV) D.Planned value (PV)

Which of the following represent the portion of the approved total cost estimate planned to be spent on an activity during a given period? A. Cost variance (CV) B. Actual cost (AC) C. Earned value (EV) D. Planned value (PV)

Workarounds are determined during which risk management process? A. Identify risks B. Plan Risk Responses C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis D. Monitor and Control Risks

You have just started administrating a contract when management decides to terminate the contract. What should you do FIRST? A. Go back to the Conduct Procurement process B. Finish the Administer Procurement process C. Go back to the Plan Procurement process D. Go back to the Close Procurement process

You have just started administrating a contract when management decides to terminate the contract. What should you do FIRST? A. Go to the Plan Procurements process B. Go to the Conduct Procurements process C. Finish the Administer Procurements process D. Go to the Close Procurements process

____ are a good way to highlight information provided in important project documents, empower people to be accountable for their work, and have face-to-face discussions about important project issues. a.Information retreats c.Information review meetings b.Status planning meetings d.Status review meetings

____ are costs that are not directly related to the products or services of the project, but are indirectly related to performing the project. a. Intangible costs b. Tangible costs c. Direct costs d. Indirect costs

____ are new requirements imposed by management, government, or some external influence. a. Opportunities b. Commands c. Problems d. Directives

____ are/is a qualitative risk analysis tool, and in addition to identifying risks, it maintains an awareness of risks throughout the life of a project. a.Risk factor analysis b.Probability/impact matrices or charts c.Risk registering d.Top Ten Risk Item Tracking

____ emphasizes things such as job rotation, broadening of skills, generalization versus specialization, and the need for continuous training of workers. a.Theory W c.Theory Y b.Theory X d.Theory Z

____ found that people were motivated to work mostly by feelings of personal achievement and recognition. a.Maslow c.McClelland b.McGregor d.Herzberg

____ generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization. a.Design of experiments c.Testing b.Quality auditing d.Benchmarking

____ helps integrate traditionally separate organizational functions, set process improvement goals and priorities, provide guidance for quality processes, and provide a point of reference for appraising current processes. a.SQFD c.SQMMI b.CMM d.CMMI

____ includes identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and how to satisfy those standards. a.Performing quality assurance c.Checking quality b.Performing quality control d.Planning quality

____ includes the processes required to ensure that a project team completes a project within an approved budget. a. Cost budgeting b. Cost estimating c. Cost control d. Project cost management

____ involves determining the information and communications needs of the stakeholders. a.Reporting performance c.Managing stakeholder expectations b.Distributing information d.Planning communications

____ involves determining what to procure, when, and how. a. Planning contracting b. Administrating procurements c. Conducting procurements d. Planning procurements

____ involves developing an approximation or estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete project. a. Determining the budget b. Consolidation of costs c. Controlling costs d. Estimating costs

____ involves estimating the number of work periods that are needed to complete individual activities. a.Defining activities b.Sequencing activities c.Estimating activity resources d.Estimating activity durations

____ involves formalizing acceptance of the project deliverables and during this phase the key project stakeholders, such as the customer and sponsor for the project, inspect and then formally accept the deliverables during this process. a.Planning scope b.Defining scope c.Controlling scope d.Verifying scope

____ involves managing relationships with sellers, monitoring contract performance, and making changes as needed. a. Closing procurements b. Selecting sellers c. Requesting seller responses d. Administering procurements

____ involves numerically estimating the effects of risks on project objectives. a.Performing qualitative risk analysis b.Planning risk responses c.Planning risk management d.Performing quantitative risk analysis

____ involves reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the probability of its occurrence. a.Risk avoidance b.Risk acceptance c.Risk transference d.Risk mitigation

____ involves tracking team member performance, motivating team members, providing timely feedback, resolving issues and conflicts, and coordinating changes to help enhance project performance. a.Developing the human resource plan c.Acquiring the project team b.Developing the project team d.Managing the project team

____ is a cost that relates to all errors not detected and not corrected before delivery to the customer. a.Prevention cost c.Internal failure cost b.Appraisal cost d.External failure cost

____ is a fact-finding technique for collecting information in face-to-face, phone, e-mail, or instant-messaging discussions. a.Brainstorming b.SWOT analysis c.The Delphi technique d.Interviewing

____ is a method for determining the estimated annual costs and benefits for a project and the resulting annual cash flow. a. Life cycle costing b. Profit margin analysis c. Cost estimating d. Cash flow analysis

____ is a monitoring and controlling process. a. Develop project team b. Request seller responses c. Risk response planning d. Integrated change control

____ is a process for identifying and modeling business events, who initiated them, and how the system should respond to them. a.Prototyping c.RAD b.JAD c.RAD d.Use case modeling

____ is based on an individual's personal charisma. a.Legitimate power c.Reward power b.Coercive power d.Referent power

____ is best known for developing Theory X and Theory Y. a.Frederick Herzberg c.Abraham Maslow b.David McClelland d.Douglas McGregor

____ is matching certain behaviors of the other person. a.Empathic listening c.Synergy b.Rapport d.Mirroring

____ is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately following activities. a.Total slack b.Total float c.Free time d.Free slack

____ is the degree to which a system performs its intended function. a.Reliability c.Maintainability b.Performance d.Functionality

____ issues cause the most conflicts over the project life cycle. a.Project priority c.Cost b.Staffing d.Schedule

____ occur when two or more activities follow a single node. a.Combinations b.Conflicts c.Merges d.Bursts

____ project management software integrates information from multiple projects to show the status of active, approved, and future projects across an entire organization. a. Investment b. Active c. Enterprise d. Budget

____ use the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. a. Actual estimates b. Parametric estimates c. Bottom-up estimates d. Analogous estimates

____ use(s) probabilistic time estimates—duration estimates based on using optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates of activity durations—instead of one specific or discrete duration estimate. a.Critical Path Analysis b.Gantt charts c.Critical Chain Scheduling d.PERT

ople with a high need for ____ seek to excel and tend to avoid both low-risk and high-risk situations to improve their chances for achieving something worthwhile. a.affiliation c.power b.money d.achievement

Q14: Which of the following are NOT inputs to the develop preliminary project scope statement? a. Project charter b. Enterprise enviromental factors c. Project statement of word d. Organizational process assets e. Work Breakdown Structure

Q33: Which of the following best describes a directly face a conflict using a problem-solving conflict resolution rechnique? a. Compromise b. Smoothing c. Withdrawal d. Forcing e. Confrontation

SWM 301 search

Set pelajaran terkait

Anatomy II exam 1

Role junk

BA 3302 ch.3

Economic Growth

Accounting Exam 2 Concepts

ECON Chapter 2

CHapter 26 & 27 Economics Exam Study Guide

SOC 4220 Final Exam

Supervision Chapter 3

Ch 15 HW

The skeletal system

Periodic table 60-70

Study Guide chapter 31 phlebotomy in chapter 32 hematology

NDFS 1010

Iteration

BUAD 471 EXAM 3

Growth and Development HESI EXIT

Chapter 3

OB STUDY

Pediatrics Chapter 29