TEST 4 ADV PATHO: Integumentary (CH 47, 48)

Which receptors of the sympathetic nervous system regulate heat loss through the skin? Group of answer choices β-Adrenergic Anticholinergic α-Adrenergic Cholinergic

α-Adrenergic Heat loss can be regulated by varying blood flow through the skin by opening and closing the arteriovenous anastomoses in conjunction with evaporative heat loss of sweat. The sympathetic nervous system regulates vasoconstriction and vasodilation through α-Adrenergic receptors only.

Which contagious disease is caused by the itch mite? Group of answer choices Tinea corporis Miliaria Scabies Pediculosis

Scabies Scabies is the only contagious disease caused by the itch mite, Sarcoptes scabiei

An older adult male presents with inflammation of skin on his forehead, nose, cheeks, and chin. His nose appears bulbous, and he has developed conjunctivitis. Which diagnosis is supported by these symptoms? A. Acne rosacea B. Lupus erythematosus C. Discoid lupus erythematosus D. Acne vulgaris

A. Acne rosacea Acne rosacea usually develops in middle-aged adults and has no known cause. Lesions are associated with vasodilation, flushing, and sun sensitivity in the affected areas. Lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune inflammatory disease that manifests in the skin. Discoid lupus erythematosus occurs in predominantly in females 30-40 years of age. Lesions are typically located in light-exposed areas of the skin. Acne vulgaris is an inflammatory disorder of the pilosebaceous follicle.

Which form of dermatitis is common in infancy and childhood? A. Atopic B. Stasis C. Irritant D. Seborrheic

A. Atopic Atopic dermatitis is common in infancy and childhood. The other options are seen in various age groups.

What is the most common type of skin cancer? A. Basal cell B. Squamous cell C. Melanoma Kaposi

A. Basal cell Basal cell carcinoma is the most common form of skin cancer in the world and is thought to be caused by ultraviolet radiation exposure.

Which organism lives in the crevices and cracks of floors, walls, and furniture, and in bedding or furniture stuffing? A. Bedbug B. Lice C. Flea D. Mite

A. Bedbug Bedbugs live in the crevices and cracks of floors, walls, and furniture, and in bedding or furniture stuffing. They are nocturnal, emerging to feed in the darkness; they are attracted by warmth and carbon dioxide and attach to the skin to suck blood. Lice live on human heads where they can suck the blood needed for survival. Fleas feed on blood and can be found on dogs, cats, and humans. The itch mite causes scabies and is found on human skin.

Which pathogen is associated with diaper dermatitis? A. Candida albicans B. Group A Streptococcus pyogenes C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Tinea pedis

A. Candida albicans C. albicans is associated with diaper dermatitis. Several factors cause diaper dermatitis, including urine, feces, and airtight plastic diaper covers. Tinea pedis is a fungal infection of the feet. Both group A S. pyogenes and S. aureus may cause impetigo.

Which pathogen is found on mucous membranes, on the skin, in the gastrointestinal tract, and in the vagina? A. Candida albicans B. Group A Streptococcus pyogenes C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Tinea pedis

A. Candida albicans Candidiasis is caused by the yeastlike fungus Candida albicans and normally can be found on mucous membranes, on the skin, in the gastrointestinal tract, and in the vagina. Tinea pedis is a fungal infection of the feet. Both group A S. pyogenes and S. aureus may cause impetigo.

Which is a benign tumor that forms from the rapid growth of vascular endothelium and results in the formation of extra blood vessels? A. Hemangioma B. Port wine stain C. Salmon patch D. Miliaria

A. Hemangioma Hemangiomas are benign tumors that form from the rapid growth of vascular endothelium and result in the formation of extra blood vessels. They may be superficial or deep. Port-wine (nevus flammeus) stains are congenital malformations of the dermal capillaries. The lesions are flat and their color ranges from pink to dark reddish purple. Salmon patches (nevus simplex) are macular pink lesions present at birth and located on the nape of the neck, forehead, upper eyelids, or nasolabial fold. They are a more superficial variant of nevus flammeus and one of the most common congenital malformations in the skin. Miliaria is a dermatosis commonly seen in infants and is characterized by a vesicular eruption after prolonged exposure to perspiration, with subsequent obstruction of the eccrine ducts.

A child is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis (AD). What content would be included in the patient's education regarding this disorder? (Select all that apply.) A. Identification of triggers that bring about flare-ups B. The importance of keeping the skin well hydrated C. Recognizing the early symptoms of a bacterial infection D. The role of intravenous corticosteroids in managing this disorder E. Interventions to prevent the development of a secondary fungal infection

A. Identification of triggers that bring about flare-ups B. The importance of keeping the skin well hydrated C. Recognizing the early symptoms of a bacterial infection NOT D E. Interventions to prevent the development of a secondary fungal infection Management of individuals with AD includes accurate diagnosis, comprehensive evaluation of triggers, and response to treatment. Skin hydration is the key to good therapy. Antiinflammatory agents, such as topical, not intravenous, corticosteroids or tar preparations, are necessary during active flares of eczema. Individuals with AD also tend to develop viral, bacterial, and fungal skin infections in the eczematous areas.

Which disease causes a disruption of desmosomal adhesion molecules as a result of a toxin called exfoliative toxin (ET)? A. Vesicular impetigo B. Bullous impetigo C. Tinea corporis D. Thrush

B. Bullous impetigo Bullous impetigo is a rare variant of impetigo caused by S. aureus. This bacterium produces a toxin called exfoliative toxin, which causes a disruption in the desmosomal adhesion molecules. Bullous impetigo is highly contagious. Vesicular impetigo is a contagious, acute, superficial form caused by group A S. pyogenes. Tinea corporis is fungal infection that affects a nonhairy body surface. Thrush is a fungal infection of the mucous membranes in the mouth.

A newborn child has a solitary purplish lesion on the head that appear as spongy mass. Which diagnosis is supported by this type of lesion? A. Strawberry hemangioma B. Cavernous hemangioma C. Port-wine stain D. Salmon patche

B. Cavernous hemangioma Cavernous hemangiomas are present at birth and have larger and more mature vessels within the lesion. They appear mostly on head and neck and have less distinct borders. Strawberry hemangiomas usually emerge 3-5 weeks after birth, are bright red, and are elevated with capillary projections. Port-wine stains are flat pink to dark reddish purple lesions that are present at birth or shortly thereafter. Salmon patches are macular, pink lesions that are present at birth and located on the head and neck.

Which form of acne is highly inflammatory and may cause disfiguration with the formation of communicating cysts? A. Vulgaris B. Conglobata C. Inflammatory D. Noninflammatory

B. Conglobata Acne conglobata is a highly inflammatory form of severe, disfiguring acne with the formation of communicating cysts. Acne vulgaris is the most common skin disease, affecting 85% of the population between 12 and 25 years of age. Noninflammatory acne results in lesions that are either closed or open comedones. Inflammatory acne develops in closed comedones when the follicular wall ruptures.

What is the appropriate term for "inflammation of the hair follicle"? A. Folliculitis B. Furuncles C. Carbuncles D. Cellulitis

B. Furuncles Folliculitis is bacterial infection of the hair follicle. A boil or furuncle is inflammation of the hair follicle and may have spread due to folliculitis into the surrounding dermis. Carbuncles are a collection of curuncles.

Which infections are caused by viruses? (Select all that apply.) A. Erysipelas B. Herpes simplex C. Herpes zoster D. Varicella E. Furuncle

B. Herpes simplex C. Herpes zoster D. Varicella Herpes simplex, herpes zoster, and varicella are all results of a viral infection. Erysipelas is an acute superficial infection of the upper dermis most often caused by group A streptococcal bacteria. Furuncles, or boils, are inflammations of hair follicles. They may develop after folliculitis that spreads through the follicular wall into the surrounding dermis. The invading microorganism is usually S. aureus.

Which condition causes chronic, inflammatory, recurring, scarring of the pilosebaceous follicular ducts? A. Acne vulgaris B. Hidradenitis suppurativa C. Acne rosacea D. Lichen planus

B. Hidradenitis suppurativa Hidradenitis suppurativa is a chronic, inflammatory, recurring scarring disease of the pilosebaceous follicular ducts involving areas of skin where there are folds, hair follicles, and apocrine (sweat) glands (i.e., axillary, inguinal, inframammary, genital, buttocks, and perineal areas of the body). The incidence is unknown but is estimated at 1% to 4% of the population and is more common in females. Acne vulgaris is the most common skin disease, and it mostly occurs during adolescence. Acne rosacea is a chronic inflammatory skin disease with varied presentations and extent of involvement that develops primarily in middle-age adults. There are four subtypes of lesions that can occur singly or in combination: erythematotelangiectatic, papulopustular, phymatous, and ocular. Lichen planus (LP) is a benign, autoimmune inflammatory disorder of the skin and mucous membranes with multiple clinical variations. The age of onset is usually between 30 and 70 years.

Which form of psoriasis presents with large, smooth, dry, and deep red lesions located in the axillae? A. Vulgaris B. Inverse C. Guttate D. Erythrodermic

B. Inverse Psoriasis generally presents with well-demarcated, silvery, scaly erythematous plaques. Inverse psoriasis involves large, smooth, dry, and deep red lesions that develop in the axilla and groin. Psoriasis vulgaris is the most common and usually develops as small lesions that grow. Guttate psoriasis is characterized by small papules that suddenly develop on the trunk and extremities and may appear following a streptococcal respiratory infection. Erythrodermic psoriasis is often accompanied by itching, pain, and widespread erythematous lesions.

Which statement about thrush is correct? A. Thrush occurs in children and adults equally. B. Thrush begins white plaques or spots in the mouth. C. The disease symptoms stay in the area of original infection, without spreading. D. Is typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

B. Thrush begins white plaques or spots in the mouth. Thrush is the term used to describe the presence of Candida albicans in the mucous membranes of the mouth of infants. It occurs less commonly in adults and they are usually immunocompromised. Thrush is characterized by the formation of white plaques or spots in the mouth that lead to shallow ulcers caused by keratolytic proteases from the microorganism. The infection commonly spreads to the groin, buttocks, and other parts of the body. Treatment may be difficult and include oral antifungal washes, such as nystatin oral suspension.

Which statement related to Staphylococcal scalded-skin is correct? A. Is usually seen in late aged teenagers. B. Is caused by streptococcus that produce an exfoliative toxin. C. A source of the disease in neonates may be healthcare workers. D. The typical symptoms begin with nausea, vomiting, and a headache.

C. A source of the disease in neonates may be healthcare workers. Staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome (SSSS) is the most serious staphylococcal infection that affects the skin and is usually seen in infants and children younger than 5 years of age. SSSS is caused by virulent group II strains of staphylococci that produce an exfoliative toxin. A source of the infection in neonates may be from health care workers who are nasal carriers of the microorganism. This reinforces the need for good infection control practices with all neonates. The clinical symptoms begin with fever, malaise, rhinorrhea, and irritability followed by generalized erythema with exquisite tenderness of the skin.

Which finding is associated with atopic dermatitis (AD) diagnosed in children? A. It has a prevalence rate of 50% to 75%. B. There often is an increased IgG level. C. Blood eosinophilia is a common finding in AD. D. Itching is a rare finding.

C. Blood eosinophilia is a common finding in AD. Blood eosinophilia is a common finding in AD. Eosinophilia is the formation and accumulation of an abnormally high number of eosinophils. They contain proteins to help the body fight infections, primarily from parasites. Eosinophils are also elevated in allergic reactions. In children there often is an increased IgE level and eosinophilia. Itching is the hallmark of AD.

Which statement is true concerning scabies infection? A. Pediculus capitis, Pediculus corporis, and Phthirus pubis are the three species that cause scabies. B. A blood-sucking, nocturnal parasite of man causes scabies. C. Burrows and papules are characteristics of a scabies infection. D. Fleas cause a scabies infection.

C. Burrows and papules are characteristics of a scabies infection. Burrows and papules are characteristics of a scabies infection. Sarcoptes scabiei cause a scabies infection. Pediculus capitis, pediculus corporis, and Phthirus pubis are three species of lice. Bedbugs are nocturnal blood-sucking parasites.

Which skin structure is located in the greatest quantity on the palms and soles of the feet? A. Sebaceous gland B. Apocrine sweat gland C. Eccrine sweat gland D. Papillary capillary

C. Eccrine sweat gland Eccrine sweat glands are distributed all over the body, with the greatest numbers in the palms of the hands, soles of the feet, and forehead. The apocrine sweat glands are fewer in number and are located in the axillae, scalp, face, abdomen, and genital area.

Which statement regarding herpes simplex virus (HSV-1) is true? A. There are more than 15 types. B. This is an RNA virus. C. Lesions of HSV-1 are typically found near the mouth. D. HSV-2 is the same as chickenpox.

C. Lesions of HSV-1 are typically found near the mouth. Lesions of HSV-1 are typically found near the mouth, and lesions of HSV-2 are typically found near the genitalia. There are eight types of DNA viruses in this class. Varicella (chickenpox) is caused by varicella-zoster virus (VZV).

Which are characteristics of impetigo contagiosum? (Select all that apply.) A. The most common skin disorder in teenagers. B. Streptococcus pyogenes is the most common cause. C. Occurs most commonly in midsummer and to late summer. D. Begins in the form of a vesicle. E. Lesions are commonly formed around mouth and on the face. F. The treatment of choice for uncomplicated lesions is topical mupirocin or fusidic acid.

C. Occurs most commonly in midsummer and to late summer. D. Begins in the form of a vesicle. E. Lesions are commonly formed around mouth and on the face. F. The treatment of choice for uncomplicated lesions is topical mupirocin or fusidic acid. Impetigo is the most common bacterial skin infection in children 2-5 years of age. Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus) and, less commonly, Streptococcus pyogenes cause impetigo. The disease is more common in midsummer to late summer, with a higher incidence in hot, humid climates. Both forms of impetigo begin as vesicles with a thin vesicular roof composed of stratum corneum that rupture to form a honey-colored crust. The lesions are often located on the face, around the nose and mouth. The treatment of choice for uncomplicated lesions is topical mupirocin or fusidic acid. For extensive or complicated impetigo, systemic antibiotics may be warranted.

Which disease is associated with Koplik spots over the buccal mucosa? A. Roseola B. Rubella C. Rubeola D. Varicella

C. Rubeola ubeola, or the red measles, is a viral disease. It exhibits a high fever, malaise, enlarged lymph nodes, runny nose, and Koplik spots. Koplik spots are pinpoint white spots with an erythematous ring that are found on the buccal mucosa. Roseola is a presumed viral infection of infants between the ages of 6 months and 2 years. A sudden onset of fever usually develops and lasts 3-5 days, and then the rash becomes evident. Rubella has a faint pink-to-red maculopapular rash that develops on the face and spreads to the trunk and extremities in 1-4 days after the onset of symptoms. Varicella (chickenpox) has a rash that is vesicular in nature, with lesions in various stages of maturation.

With regard to pressure ulcers, which stage correctly correlates to the description? A. Stage III—partial-thickness skin loss involving epidermis or dermis B. Stage II—full-thickness skin loss involving damage or necrosis C. Stage I—nonblanchable erythema of intact skin D. Stage IV—partial thickness involving damage and necrosis of subcutaneous tissue

C. Stage I—nonblanchable erythema of intact skin The stages and their correct descriptions are as follows: Stage I—nonblanchable erythema of intact skin; Stage II—partial-thickness skin loss involving epidermis or dermis; Stage III—full-thickness skin loss involving damage or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue that may extend to, but not through, underlying fascia; Stage IV—full-thickness skin loss with extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures.

Which statements regarding scabies, sarcoptes scabiei, are true? (Select all that apply.) A. The three types of scabies include pediculus capitis, pediculus corporis, and phthirus pubis. B. The causative mite is a blood-sucking, nocturnal parasite of man. C. The condition is characterized by burrows and papules. D. Scabies bite in clusters along extremities and where clothing is tight. E. Treatment includes ivermectin.

C. The condition is characterized by burrows and papules. E. Treatment includes ivermectin. Scabies are characterized by burrows and papules. Bed bugs are nocturnal, blood-sucking parasites. Pediculus capitis, pediculus corporis, and phthirus pubis are three types of lice. Fleas bite in clusters along extremities and where clothing is tight fitting. Scabies is treated with oral invermectin and scabicides.

Which statement regarding scleroderma is true? A. It is more prominently diagnosed in men. B. It involves only the connective tissue of the lungs. C. There are massive deposits of collagen with fibrosis. D. These skin lesions contain dark pigment and are dull.

C. There are massive deposits of collagen with fibrosis. There are massive deposits of collagen with fibrosis, and the skin lesions are hypopigmented and shiny. The disease is more common in women, and it involves connective tissue of the kidney, heart, lungs, GI tract, and peripheral nervous system.

What is the appropriate term for a "fungal infection of the scalp"? A. Tinea pedis B. Tinea corporis C. Tinea capitis D. Candidiasis

C. Tinea capitis Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the scalp. Tinea pedis is athlete's foot. Tinea corporis is a fungal infection of the body, also known as ringworm. Candidiasis is the yeast-like fungus that is normally found on the skin, gastrointestinal (GI) tract, and vagina.

The superficial layer of the skin is referred to as the A. dermis. B. dermal appendages. C. epidermis. D. hypodermis.

C. epidermis. The epidermis is referred to as the superficial or outer layer of skin. The next layer is the dermis, also called the true skin. Dermal appendages include the nails, hair, sebaceous glands, and eccrine and apocrine sweat glands. The hypodermis is the underlying layer of connective tissue containing macrophages, fibroblasts, and fat cells.

A baby has diaper dermatitis. What secondary infection does the healthcare professional assess for? Group of answer choices Escherichia coli Proteus spp. Staphylococcus aureus Candida albicans

Candida albicans Frequently the infant with diaper dermatitis has a secondary infection with C. albicans

Keloids are caused by excessive amounts of which substance in the corneum during connective tissue repair? Group of answer choices Stroma Reticular fibers Elastin Collagen

Collagen Abnormal wound healing with excessive fibroblast activity and collagen formation during dermal connective tissue repair cause keloids. The other substances are not associated with keloid formation.

What skin disease begins with a single lesion that is circular, well demarcated, and salmon pink in color and progresses to secondary oval lesions extending over the trunk and extremities? A. Lichen planus B. Acne vulgaris C. Lupus erythematosus D. Pityriasis rosea

D. Pityriasis rosea Pityriasis rosea is a benign, self-limiting inflammatory disorder. It starts with a herald patch, a well-demarcated salmon pink lesion. It then spreads with oval lesions. Lichen planus is a benign inflammatory disorder of the skin and mucous membranes that have nonscaling, violet-colored pruritic papules that are usually located on the wrists, ankles, lower legs, and genitalia. Acne vulgaris is an inflammatory disorder of the pilosebaceous follicle. Lupus erythematosus is an inflammatory, autoimmune, systemic disease. The cutaneous lesions are symmetric 1- to 2-cm raised red plaques with a brownish scale.

Which type of dermatitis is characterized by chronic scaly, white, or yellowish inflammatory plaques with pruritus? A. Atopic B. Stasis C. Irritant contact D. Seborrheic

D. Seborrheic Seborrheic dermatitis occurs in all age groups and is chronic inflammation of the skin involving the scalp, eyebrows, eyelids, ear canals, nasolabial folds, axillae, chest, and back. In infants, it is known as cradle cap. Irritant contact dermatitis is a nonimmunologically mediated inflammation of the skin. It is related to the amount of irritant and the exposure time. Atopic dermatitis occurs with a family history of asthma, allergic rhinitis, dry skin, and food allergy. Stasis dermatitis usually occurs on the legs as a result of venous stasis.

Which statements regarding erythema multiforme are correct? (Select all that apply.) A. It has systemic symptoms. B. It is common in the elderly. C. There is seldom mucous membrane involvement. D. The lesions are bull's-eye or target lesions. E. It is rarely related to drug interactions.

D. The lesions are bull's-eye or target lesions. E. It is rarely related to drug interactions. Erythema multiforme is a syndrome characterized by inflammation of the skin and mucous membranes, but which has no systemic symptoms. It is most common in children and young adults, and is rarely associated with drug interactions. The lesions may be bull's-eye or target lesions.

Which gland releases secretions that are important in thermoregulation and cooling of the body through evaporation? Group of answer choices Eccrine Exocrine Apocrine Sebaceous

Eccrine The eccrine sweat glands are distributed over the body, with the greatest numbers in the palms of the hands, soles of the feet, and forehead. These secretions are important in thermoregulation and cooling of the body through evaporation. Sebaceous glands secrete sebum which is a lipid substance that protects from drying. Apocrine glands are found in the axillae, scalp, face, abdomen, and genital area and have very limited proven function. Exocrine glands secrete substances onto the epithelial surface; an example is a sweat gland

Which leukocytes are elevated in atopic dermatitis? Group of answer choices Neutrophils Basophils Monocytes Eosinophils

Eosinophils In the acute phase of atopic dermatitis, inflammation is associated with the activation of T helper 1 (Th-1) cells with an overexpression of cytokines (interleukin [IL]-4, IL-5, and IL-13) and chemokine ligand 1 (CCL1) and 18 (CCL18) with increases in IgE, eosinophils, and macrophages. IgA, IgM, and IgG are not involved in atopic dermatitis.

What clinical manifestations do allergic contact and stasis dermatitis have in common? Group of answer choices Edema and vesicular lesions Scaling and crusting of lesions Petechiae and hyperpigmentation Erythema and pruritus

Erythema and pruritus Only erythema and pruritis are exhibited with both conditions

Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is elevated in atopic dermatitis? Group of answer choices IgE IgM IgA IgG

IgE In the acute phase of atopic dermatitis, inflammation is associated with the activation of T helper 1 (Th-1) cells with an overexpression of cytokines (interleukin [IL]-4, IL-5, and IL-13) and chemokine ligand 1 (CCL1) and 18 (CCL18) with increases in IgE, eosinophils, and macrophages. IgA, IgM, and IgG are not involved in atopic dermatitis.

Cutaneous vasculitis develops from the deposit of which substance? Group of answer choices T lymphocytes Immune complexes Complement proteins Immunoglobulin E (IgE)

Immune complexes Cutaneous vasculitis involves the deposit of immune complexes, initiating an uncontrolled inflammatory response and causing the lesions that are often polymorphic.

What term is used to identify skin lesions that are elevated, rounded, and firm with irregular clawlike margins that extend beyond the original site of injury? Group of answer choices Dermatitis Psoriasis Keloid Acne

Keloid Keloids typically send out clawlike projections from the margins.

In allergic contact dermatitis, which cells possess the antigens and present them to T cells? Group of answer choices Merkel cells Langerhans cells Macrophages Keratinocytes

Langerhans cells In allergic contact dermatitis, Langerhans cells process the antigen and carry it to T cells that then become sensitized to the antigen-releasing cytokines and chemokines, leading to leukocyte infiltration and inflammation. Merkel cells are associated with touch receptors and function as slowly adapting mechanoreceptors when stimulated by deformation of the epidermis. Keratinocytes produce keratin, a scleroprotein that provides protection from mechanical stress. Keratin is the main constituent of skin, hair, and nail cells.

Which component of the epidermis initiates immune responses and provides a defense against environmental antigens? Group of answer choices Langerhans cells Melanocytes Merkel cells Keratinocytes

Langerhans cells Langerhans cells (a type of dendritic cell) and dermal dendritic cells initiate an immune response by presenting processed antigen to T cells, thus providing a defense against environmental antigens. This function is not carried out by Merkel cells, keratinocytes, or melanocytes.

Which cells of the dermis release histamine and play a role in the hypersensitivity reactions of the skin? Group of answer choices Fibroblasts Mast cells Histiocytes Macrophages

Mast cells Only mast cells release histamine and play a role in hypersensitivity reactions in the skin. Histiocytes are macrophages that reside in loose connective tissue and phagocytize pigments and the debris of inflammation. Fibroblast cells secrete collagen and connective tissue matrix. Macrophages are phagocytic.

Which acne lesions are classified as inflammatory? (Select all that apply.) Group of answer choices Papules Nodules Pustules Opened comedones Closed comedones

Papules Nodules Pustules Acne lesions may be divided into inflammatory lesions (pustules, papules, nodules) and noninflammatory lesions (closed and open comedones).

Which contagious disease creates a primary skin lesion that is a pinpointed macule, papule, or wheal with hemorrhagic puncture site? Group of answer choices Tinea capitis Rubeola Pediculosis Scabies

Pediculosis Of the options available, only the primary lesion of the body louse (pediculosis) exhibits a pinpoint red macule, papule, or wheal with a hemorrhagic puncture site.

Bowen disease is a form of which type of cancer? Group of answer choices Basal cell carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma Kaposi sarcoma Malignant melanoma

Squamous cell carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) is a tumor of the epidermis and the second most common human cancer. Two types are characterized: (1) in situ (Bowen disease) and (2) invasive. Bowen disease is not a form of any of the other cancers.

The disruption in cellular adhesion observed in bullous impetigo is caused by an exfoliative toxin related to which organism? Group of answer choices Streptococcus pyogenes Escherichia coli Candida albicans Staphylococcus aureus

Staphylococcus aureus Bullous impetigo is a rare variant of impetigo caused by S. aureus. The staphylococci produce a bacterial toxin called exfoliative toxin (ET), which causes a disruption in desmosomal adhesion molecules with blister formation characteristic of bullous impetigo. The other organisms are not involved in this disorder.

Rubeola is a highly contagious acute disease in children caused by which type of infection? Group of answer choices Viral Yeast Bacterial Fungal

Viral Rubeola, a highly contagious acute disease in children, is a result of only a viral infection.

Rubella (German or 3-day measles) is caused by what type of organism? Group of answer choices Bacterium Virus Fungus Yeast

Virus Rubella is a common communicable disease in children and young adults and is caused only by a ribonucleic acid (RNA) virus that enters the bloodstream through the respiratory route.

The student learns that the cause of molluscum contagiosum is which of these? Group of answer choices Rickettsia Virus Bacteria Fungi

Virus The poxvirus is the only organism that induces epidermal cell proliferation and blocks immune responses that would control the virus as noted with molluscum contagiosum.