topic 2 review
An AP Hip projection should demonstrate what?
-femoral neck without foreshortening -greater trochanter in profile laterally -lesser trochanter superimposed by the femoral neck
Place the following milliampere-seconds (mAs) selections in order from which will cause the greatest exposure to the image receptors (IR) to the least exposure, if all other factors remain the same. a. 25 b. 200 c. 50 d. 100
200 100 50 25
What is the annual effective dose limit in millisievert (mSv) for a radiography student who is less than 18-years-old? A. 1 mSv. B. 0.1 mSv. C. 0.5 mSv. D. 5 mSv.
A
Which component of radiographic noise in digital imaging is controlled by the radiographer? A. Quantum mottle. B. Film graininess. C. Structure mottle. D. Electronic noise.
A
A radiographer is using a c-arm to assist during an intraoperative left hip pinning. The surgeon asks for a lateral view, so the radiographer swings the c-arm to comply with this request. With the c-arm in this position, where should the radiographer stand to limit radiation exposure? a. Immediately behind the tube side. b. Six feet behind the tube side. c. Six feet behind the image intensifier. d. Immediately behind the image intensifier.
C
At a 50 inch source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID), how closely must the x-ray beam and the light field be aligned? A. 0.5 inches. B. 2 inches. C. 5 inches. D. 1 inch.
D
Which thickness of aluminum filtration will most decrease the patient's skin dose? A. 2 mm. B. 0.5 mm. C. 1 mm. D. 2.5 mm.
D
Which will decrease a radiographer's occupational exposure most during an exam? A. Cut the time of exposure in half. B. Increase apron thickness from 0.5 mm to 1 mm of aluminum equivalent. C. Increase apron thickness from 0.5 mm to 1 mm of lead equivalent. D. Double the distance between the radiographer and the source.
D
What is the single, most important step radiographers can take to protect themselves and their patients from infection? a. Use exam gloves. b. Wash their hands between patients. c. Clean the surfaces the patient touches with diluted bleach solution. d. Touch the patient only when absolutely necessar
b
When imaging the toes, how much is the central ray (CR) angled for the anteroposterior (AP) axial image? a. No angle. b. 15 degrees. c. 25-30 degrees. d. 5 degrees.
b
Which central ray (CR) angulation is recommended for an anteroposterior (AP) axial projection of the toes? a. 5 degrees toward the heel. b. 15 degrees toward the heel. c. 30 degrees toward the heel. d. 40 degrees toward the heel.
b
If a patient is to undergo a small bowel series without a preceding upper gastrointestinal series, how much barium sulfate suspension should the patient be given? a. Two 250 cc cups. b. One 250 cc cup. c. Two 360 cc cups. d. One 360 cc cup.
a * a typical hand mixed cup of barium contains 16 ounces or 500 cc. that corresponds to two 250 cc prepackaged cups
On a radiograph of a shoulder, the greater tubercle is visualized in profile. Which projection was taken? a. Scapular-Y. b. Anteroposterior (AP), external rotation. c. Transthoracic lateral (Lawrence method). d. Anteroposterior (AP), internal rotation.
b
Under which condition might an x-ray photon be deviated from its original direction? a. Photon mass increases. b. Interaction occurs. c. Speed increases. d. Focused by a lens.
b
Which characteristic of cells makes them more radiosensitive? a. Shorter mitotic duration. b. High reproductive rate. c. Low metabolic rate. d. High specialization.
b
Which component of a diagnostic x-ray tube restricts the primary beam to the area of interest? a. Protective housing. b. Collimator. c. Focusing cup. d. Electrostatic lenses.
b
Using manual fixed fluoroscopic technology, which method will lessen patient dose? a. Use an image intensification a system with 50 kilovolts peak (kVp). b. Increase kilovolts peak (kVp) and filtration. c. Decrease kilovolts peak (kVp) and filtration. d. Make sure the x-ray source-to-skin distance is 12 inches.
b
What advantage does a thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) have over a film badge? a. Cheaper. b. More accurate. c. TLD can be read more than once. d. TLD is only worn one month at a time.
b
While reviewing an anteroposterior (AP) portable chest exam on the display a radiographer notices the medial ends of the clavicles are demonstrated just below the top of the apices of the lungs. Which positioning error has occur? a. The central ray angle was angled toward the head. b. The patient elevated their shoulders during inspiration. c. The patient was somewhat rotated. d. The patient did not take in a full inspiration.
a
Who should stay in the patient's room during a portable x-ray examination done in a hospital room? a. Radiographers. b. Nurses. c. Visitors. d. Physicians.
a
identify the medical condition in a patient's history which should be cleared by the radiologist before injection of an ionic, water soluble, injectable contrast agent. a. Diabetes. b. Osteomyelitis. c. Phenylketonuria. d. Age over 40.
a
A lateral knee image reveals that the femoral condyles are not superimposed with the medial condyle situated posteriorly. How should the radiographer correct this image a. Position patella closer to the image receptor (IR). b. Increase cephalic angulation. c. Position patella further away from the image receptor (IR). d. No correction needed.
a
A patient is scheduled for a voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG). The radiographer explains the procedure in these terms: "This tubing will be connected to your catheter. It's very important that the bladder gets very full, so please let us know when you feel the urge to urinate." For which patient is this explanation most appropriate? a. 24-year-old woman. b. 6-year-old child. c. 6-month-old baby. d. 2-year-old child.
a
A radiographer critiques an anteroposterior (AP) ankle projection. The medial mortise joint is open while the lateral mortise joint is closed. How can the radiographer adjust the ankle to correct this image? a. No correction needed. b. Increase internal rotation. c. Increase external rotation. d. Dorsiflex the foot.
a
A radiographer is performing a portable abdomen is using an image receptor with an 8:1 grid. The radiographer knows a technique for the abdomen using a 12:1 grid is 80 kilovolts peak (kVp) using 50 milliampere-seconds (mAs). Which would the new technique be in order to maintain image quality? a. 80 kVp @ 40 mAs. b. 80 kVp @ 25 mAs. c. 80 kVp @ 60.5 mAs. d. 80 kVp @ 30 mAs.
a
A step-up transformer with 300 turns in the primary coil is supplied with 220 volts to this primary. How many secondary turns are needed to produce a 66,000 volt output? a. 90,000 turns. b. 1 turn. c. 14 turns. d. 66,000 turns.
a
Characteristic x-rays, which are useful in diagnostic radiography, are more likely to be produced when the projectile electron interacts with a bound electron in which shell? a. K. b. L. c. M. d. N.
a
During a routine chest x-ray, the radiographer stands the patient up and walks them to the chest stand. The patient seems unsteady; the radiographer observes the patient's eyes rolling back. What is the first thing the radiographer should do? a. Assist the patient into a safe position and call for help. b. Prepare to administer oxygen. c. Get the emergency cart. d. Open an ammonia capsule under patient's nose.
a
For a lateral femur, if a patient is rotated too far anteriorly, what will happen to the condyles on the distal femur? a. Medial condyle will be anterior to the lateral condyle. b. They will superimpose. c. Medial condyle will be inferior to the lateral condyle. d. Medial condyle will be posterior to the lateral condyl
a
To demonstrate scoliosis, which procedure is best? a. Erect anteroposterior (AP) of the entire spine. b. Anteroposterior (AP) projections at each vertebral level. c. Fluoroscopy of the spine, with key "spot" images. d. Recumbent anteroposterior (AP) of the entire spine.
a
What is the correct position of the midsagittal plane with respect to the image receptor when performing a true lateral projection of the skull? a. Parallel to the image receptor. b. 45 degrees to the image receptor. c. Perpendicular to the image receptor. d. 60 degrees to the image receptor.
a
Which exam may be used to assess cruciate ligament pathology? a. Knee arthrogram. b. Shoulder arthrogram. c. Three view elbow series. d. Wrist including navicular views.
a
Which is the proper amount and direction of heel rotation recommended for a posteroanterior (PA) projection of the patella? a. 5 to 10 degrees laterally. b. 5 to 10 degrees medially. c. 10 to 15 degrees laterally. d. 10 to 15 degrees medially.
a
Which procedure is most appropriate when performing a cervical spine exam for suspected trauma on a patient on a backboard with the head immobilized? a. Obtain a cross-table lateral for the physician prior to further imaging. b. Acquire all images with patient in an upright position if possible. c. Pull the patient's arms down to help visualize the lower cervical spine. d. remove the cervical collar to check for metallic objects.
a
Which projection of the skull will result in the greatest exposure to the lens of the eye? a. Anteroposterior (AP) axial. b. Verticosubmental. c. Lateral. d. Posteroanterior (PA) axial.
a
Which statement most accurately explains the typical reaction a patient can expect following the intravenous administration of low-osmolar iodinated contrast media? a. You may feel a warm sensation." b. "You may experience cardiac arrest." c. "You may develop itching or hives." d. "You may go into shock."
a
Which type of exposure technique chart would allow the radiographer to make small, fine adjustments for orthopedic work? a. Variable kilovolts peak (kVp). b. Automatic exposure control (AEC). c. Anatomically programmed radiography (APR). d. Fixed kilovolts peak (kVp).
a
While performing an anteroposterior (AP) projection of a scapula, what should be done to the patient's arm to move the patient's scapula in a lateral direction? a. Abduction. b. External rotation. c. Internal rotation. d. Adduction.
a
What is the annual occupational effective dose limit for a 43-year-old radiographer? a. 5 millisievert (mSv). b. 50 millisievert (mSv). c. 4.3 millisievert (mSv). d. 43 millisievert (mSv).
b
A breathing technique is planned for a right anterior oblique (RAO) sternum radiograph. The intended exposure is 50 milliampere-seconds (mAs) at 75 kilovolts peak (kVp) at 100 centimeter source to image receptor distance (SID). Which milliampere (mA) station is preferred, assuming the radiographer ensures exposure occurs during the act of inspiration? a. 50. b. 100. c. 25. d. 10.
a *exposure of 1 second is optimal for breathing technique mA station = mAs X time (seconds) so 50 mAs X 1 second = 50 mA
How does a radiographer maximize signal to digital image receptors? (Select the three that apply.) a. Shorter source to image receptor distance (SID). b. Compression of the body part. c. Lower milliamperage (mA). d. Longer exposure time. e. Longer source to image receptor distance (SID).
a b d
Which may be effects of fetal irradiation? (Select the four that apply.) a. Childhood and early adult cancers. b. Developmental abnormalities. c. Prenatal death. d. Cancers late in adult life. e. Growth retardation.
a b d e
How can the radiographer decrease radiation exposure when performing radiographic examinations on pediatric patients? (Select the three that apply.) a. Effectively communicate expectations to patient. b. Increase field size. c. Decrease field size. d. Use non-grid techniques. e. Use high milliampere-seconds (mAs), low kilovolts peak (kVp) techniques.
a c d
Which describes correct positioning for a posteroanterior (PA) chest projection? (Select the three that apply.) a. the shoulders are depressed. b. The arms and shoulders are rotated posteriorly. c. The clavicles are elevated. d. The shoulders are at equal distances from the image receptor (IR). e. The midcoronal plane is parallel with the image receptor (IR).
a d e
How can the contrast scale be modified on a digital image? (Select the two that apply.) a. Collimate more closely. b. Alter the window level. c. Decrease the kilovolts peak (kVp). d. Increase the kilovolts peak (kVp). e. Alter the window width.
a e close collimation positively impacts the contrast scale by decreasing scatter
What results from utilizing a lower ratio grid? a. Lower contrast, but greater error margin in central ray (CR) placement. b. Lower contrast, but less leeway in positioning the central ray (CR) to the grid. c. Higher contrast and greater latitude in central ray (CR) positioning. d. Higher contrast and less latitude in central ray (CR) positioning.
a * using a lower ratio allows more scatter to pass and hit IR which lowers contrast greater margin for error
Why is it important for the radiographer to observe the milliampere seconds (mAs) readout at the end of each exposure when using automatic exposure control (AEC) a. This value may be used as a basis for calculating manual techniques. b. It provides a visual cue to release the exposure switch. c. It provides an indication that the proper amount of exposure was used. d. This value may be used to estimate patient dose.
a DR uses DAP to estimate patient dose
A patient with advanced Alzheimer's disease needs to have a lung biopsy. Which condition is involved in legally obtaining informed consent to perform this procedure? a. A guardian has been fully informed. b. The patient has signed an informed consent form of their own volition in view of multiple witnesses. c. The patient is mentally competent. d. The patient has been informed about the risks involved in the procedure.
a a guardian has been fully informed
An image demonstrates the patella superimposing the medial condyle of the knee and little superimposition between the head of the fibula and the proximal tibia. Which projection of the knee has been correctlly performed? a. Anteroposterior (AP) with medial rotation. b. Anteroposterior (AP) with lateral rotation. c. Anteroposterior (AP). d. Mediolateral lateral.
a.
Pelvis routine calls for an anteroposterior (AP) with a perpendicular central ray (CR), and an axial AP with a 40 degree cephalic angle. Using a caliper measurement, the technique chart yields a perfect set of exposure factors for the perpendicular AP. How will the necessary exposure factors for the axial differ from the perpendicular AP? a. Greater measurement, higher kilovolts peak (kVp) and milliampere-seconds (mAs). b. Same measurement, but more bone, higher kilovolts peak (kVp) and milliampere-seconds (mAs). c. Same measurement, same technical factors. Incorrect d. Smaller measurement, lower kilovolts peak (kVp) and milliampere-seconds (mAs).
a.
What is the result if the total lead content of a grid is decreased? a. Decreased scatter absorption. b. Increased scatter absorption. c. Higher patient dose. d. Greater image contrast.
a.
When applying gonadal shielding to the ovaries of a patient, the ovarian shields should be placed where? a. 1 inch medial to each anterior superior iliac spine. b. 2 inches superior to each anterior superior iliac spine. c. 2 inches medial to each anterior inferior iliac spine. Incorrect d. 1 inch inferior to each anterior inferior iliac spine.
a.
Which projection is the freest of bony superimposition over the temporomandibular joint a. Axiolateral (Schuller). b. Axiolateral oblique (Law). c. Axiolateral oblique (Stenvers). d. Tangential (M
a.
Which statement correctly identifies appropriate use of fluoroscopic technology? a. The fluoroscopist must ensure that a cumulative timer is present and used. b. Mobile C-arm fluoroscopic devices are routinely used for walk-in radiology patients. c. During C-arm fluoroscopy, the patient-image intensifier distance should be as long as possible. d. A primary protective barrier of 1 mm lead equivalent is required.
a.
Which statement is correct regarding the relationship of patient dose to exposure index (EI)? a. EI gives an approximation of the patient's dose. b. EI is always greater than the patient's dose. c. EI gives a very accurate representation of patient dose. d. EI gives an exact measurement of patient dose.
a.
If all the bucky digital images from one radiographic room seem to appear excessively noisy, what might the radiographer suspect? a. The automatic exposure control (AEC) is set at an inappropriate speed class. b. There is a problem with the digital receptor. c. It could be an anomaly and should continue to be monitored. d. The x-ray room may need recalibration.
a. * if images using AEC are underexposed, it is possible that the AEC is set for a faster system than the one in use
Which computed radiography (CR) or digital radiography (DR) system produces images with the highest spatial resolution? a. amorphous selenium - direct capture DR. b. Cesium iodide - indirect capture DR c. Photostimulable phosphor CR. d. Cesium iodide / amorphous silicon - indirect DR.
a. *direct capture DR has the highest contrast resolution since the remnant x-rays are directly converted to electrons by the detector
Which describes the correct positioning for demonstrating the right sacroiliac (SI) joint, with the joint space open? a. 25 degrees, left posterior oblique (LPO). b. 35 degrees, left posterior oblique (LPO). c. 35 degrees, right posterior oblique (RPO). d. 25 degrees, right posterior oblique (RPO).
a. 25-30 degree
Which bony landmark is commonly used for central ray location on an anteroposterior (AP) chest projection? a. Jugular notch. b. T7 spinous process. c. Vertebrae prominens. d. Xiphoid process.
a. 3-4inches above T7
How should the radiographer alter an anteroposterior (AP) or oblique lumbar spine projection in order to reduce genetically significant dose (GSD) to the patient? (Select the four that apply.) a. Use 85 kilovolts peak (kVp), instead of 75 kVp. b. Carefully collimate to include the psoas muscles on all images. c. Employ gonadal shielding. d. Perform posteroanterior (PA), instead of AP, and anterior obliques, instead of posterior obliques. e. Use automatic exposure control (AEC), and be sure the spine is positioned over the single, center cell.
a. c d. e
What could cause a computed radiography image with very noticeable lines uniformly in the same direction over the entire image? (Select the three that apply.) a. Grid used with grid frequency equal to the image reader's laser scan lines. b. Cassette was exposed to background radiation. c. Grid utilized with grid lines running parallel to the laser scan lines of the image reader device. d. Cassette exposed to the wrong side. e. Noise resulting from the plate reader electronics.
a. c. e
Which disease requires the infected patient to be placed on airborne precautions? a. Chickenpox. b. AIDS. c. MRSA. d. Pneumonia
a. chickenpox
Which characteristics are true of both x-rays and gamma rays? (Select the three that apply.) a. Are electromagnetic radiation. b. Originate outside of the nucleus. c. Possess the same frequencies and energy. d. Are low linear energy transfer (LET) radiation. e. Damage biologic tissue through indirect action.
a. d e
Which is one function of a picture archiving and communication system (PACS) network? a. Downloading images from different imaging modalities. b. Listing inpatient ordering information. c. Tracking billing information. d. Holding reports dictated by the radiologist.
a. downloading images from different imaging modalities
A patient is having a lengthy procedure done in the medical imaging department. The patient seemed to be anxious at the beginning of the procedure and starts wheezing. What should the radiographer do next? a. Ask the patient if they have a history of asthma. b. Initiate oxygen therapy. c. Allow the patient to use an inhaler. d. Call for medical assistance.
a. first ask if the patient has medical issues such as asthma
patient with a wound infection caused by methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) should be placed under which type of precaution? a. Contact. b. Universal. c. Droplet. d. Airborne.
a. contact
Which protective features are designed to reduce exposure to the patient during fluoroscopic procedures? (Select the three that apply.) a. Foot switch. b. Protective curtain. c. Bucky slot cover. d. Automatic collimation. e. Five-minute reset timer.
a. foot switch d. automatic collimation e. five-minute reset timer
A patient receives an entrance skin dose of 5 mGy during a lumbar spine procedure. How much exposure will the radiographer receive when standing 1 meter from the patient? a. 0.01 mGy. b. 0.005 mGy. c. 0.025 mGy. d. 0.015 mGy.
b
A radiographer evaluates a posteroanterior (PA) chest radiograph. The image demonstrates rotation, but the radiographer believes that the rotation resulted from the patient's scoliosis. What would be demonstrated on the image to make the radiographer believe this is the case? a. Asymmetrical appearance of the sternoclavicular (SC) joints. b. The distance between the lung margins and the spine varies down the length of each lung.Correct c. One clavicle is closer to the spine than the other. d. The right lateral lung margin is consistently closer to the spine than the left.
b
According to "Merrill's Atlas," where should the central ray (CR) be centered to best demonstrate the rami for a posteroanterior (PA) mandible projection? a. The point of contact between the lips. b. The acanthion. c. the occlusal plane. d. The glabella.
b
How does emphysema impact radiographic imaging of the chest? a. Emphysema has no effect on the chest tissue, requiring no technical compensation. b. Emphysema is a destructive disease, meaning the chest tissue is more radiolucent. c. Emphysema is a destructive disease, but this will not have an effect on the patient's mass. d. Emphysema is an additive disease, meaning the chest tissue is more radiopaque.
b
How much lead equivalence is required for fluoroscopic curtains? a. 0.5 mm. b. 0.25 mm. c. 0.4 mm. d. 0.2 mm
b
On a fan lateral radiograph of a left hand, which group of bones is best visualized? a. Tarsals. b. Phalanges. c. Metacarpals. d. Carpals.
b
Which example represents a violation of the Health Information Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Privacy Rule? a. Whiteboards in public view contain the patients' initials. b. Patient's condition is discussed by staff in the break room. c. Patient's name is called out in a crowded waiting room. d. Waiting room sign-in sheet is placed at the reception desk.
b
Which fluoroscopic kilovolts peak (kVp) factor is most appropriate for optimal patient radiation protection? a. 60 - 70 kVp. b. 100 - 110 kVp. c. 80 - 90 kVp. d. 70 -80 kVp.
b
Which material is used on most anode disks and is light, strong, and heat-resistant? a. Lead. b. Molybdenum. c. Chrome vanadium steel alloy. d. Mild steel
b
Which pathologic condition will result in the greatest attenuation of the beam? a. Emphysema. b. Ascites. c. Multiple Myeloma. d. Gout.
b
Which represents the proper amount of internal leg rotation for the ankle mortise joint to appear open? a. 0 degrees. b. 15 to 20 degrees. c. 45 degrees. d. 30 to 35 degrees.
b
Which will increase the appearance of noise in a digital image, assuming only the named factor in each response is changed? a. Increased mAs. b. Large matrix. c. Short SID. d. High kVp technique.
b
during a myelogram, a patient on the table stops breathing, and cardiac arrest is suspected. In an emergency like this, where are the needed equipment and supplies found? a. Supply cabinet. b. Crash cart. c. Code blue cabinet. d. Oxygen.
b
hat is a method of electronic display resolution quality control testing? a. Detective quantum efficiency (DQE) test. b. Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers (SMPTE) test pattern. c. Wire mesh test. d. Luminescence test.
b
when should a radiographer stand in the primary beam to restrain a patient? a. During an emergency. b. Never. c. Patient is a child. d. patient has a fractured hip.
b
which term refers to the process by which digital radiography (DR) systems adjust for exposure errors so that the image is displayed with proper brightness and contrast levels? a. Contrast manipulation. b. Automatic rescaling. c. Image inversion. d. Edge enhancement
b
Which facial bones projection should the radiographer use to most clearly demonstrate a blowout fracture? a. Submentovertical projection. b. Parietoacanthial (Waters) projection. c. Lateral projection. d. Posteroanterior (PA) Caldwell projection.
b *most useful in demonstrating facial fractures such as a blow out and Le fort fractures
If a radiographer wanted to double image density without doubling the patient's dose, which action should be taken? a. Double milliampere-seconds (mAs). b. Increase kilovolts peak (kVp) by 15%. c. Increase milliampere-seconds (mAs) by 15%. d. Double kilovolts peak (kVp).
b *will double image density but will not double patients dose
Which position most accurately describes the Camp Coventry method for demonstrating the intercondylar fossa of the knee? a. Kneeling with the lower leg parallel to the image receptor (IR). b. Prone with the femur parallel to the image receptor (IR). c. Standing with the lower leg parallel to the image receptor (IR). d. Supine with the image receptor (IR) under the knee.
b beclere method: patient supine and IR under knee holmblad method: patient kneeling with lower leg parallel to IR
Which diseases are most prevalent in connection with the 1986 chernobyl nuclear power accident? (Select the three that apply.) a. Sickle cell anemia. b. Leukemia. c. Human immunodeficiency virus. d. Thryroid cancer. (number one adverse reaction) e. Breast cancer.
b d e
Which factors will result in greater x-ray attenuation? (Select the three that apply.) a. High kilovolts peak (kVp) levels. b. Greater tissue density. c. Use of a negative contrast agent. d. Higher atomic number. e. Increased thickness of body part
b d e
Which projection will most clearly show a clay shoveler's fracture? a. Lateral wrist. b. Lateral cervical. c. Oblique hand. d. Axiolateral hip.
b *cervical hyper flexion mechanism that causes avulsion of the spinous processes of C6 through T1
What should be done to correct positioning on an anteroposterior (AP) elbow with lateral rotation, when the radial head is slightly superimposed over the proximal ulna on the first effort? a. The forearm should be pronated to correct the error. b. The elbow joint should be rotated laterally. c. The elbow joint should be rotated medially. d. The humerus and forearm should be placed in the same horizontal plane.
b *should demonstrate radial head, neck and tuberosity free from superimposition of the ulna
Hematologic depression is noted on blood tests of a patient who has had several radiation therapy treatments. What is the most probable minimum dose that this patient received? a. 0.01 Gy. b. 0.25 Gy. c. 0.50 Gy. d. 0.15 Gy.
b 0. 25 Gy
If a patient contracts an infectious microorganism from soiled linen, which term refers to this method of disease transmission? a. Vehicle. b. Fomite. c. Spore. d. Vector.
b fomite
A finished radiograph has marked quantum mottle. Positioning, collimation, and identification markers are correct. Which action should the radiographer take? a. Reprocess the image under a different algorithm to improve visual appearance. b. Repeat the image with an appropriate increase in technical factors. c. Alter the image window width and level to improve the visual appeal, then approve. d. Approve the image and send it to Picture Archiving and Communication System (PACS).
b.
Is the radiographer meeting as low as reasonably achievable (ALARA) principles if images stay within recommended exposure index ranges, but are always at the high end of the range? a. No, the radiographer should always aim for the middle of the index range. b. No, the radiographer should aim for the lowest index within range that produces an acceptable image. Correct c. Yes, it is best to aim toward the high end of the index range to provide better image resolution. d. Yes, staying within recommended index range meets ALARA guidelines.
b.
What would a continuous, fine, horizontal white line across the computed radiography image indicate? a. Backscatter artifact. b. Dirt on the light guide or laser head. c. A crack in the phosphor layer of the cassette. d. Static electricity.
b. dirt on the light guide or laser head
A 41-year-old male is having a radiographic procedures performed. The patient asks the radiographer, '"What kind of radiation protection policy do you have in place for your patients?" How should the radiographer respond? a. We use protective aprons to block radiation, so we don't have a policy in place. b. We use film badges to determine the amount of radiation that is reasonable for our patients. c. We use the "as low as reasonably achievable" (ALARA) philosophy. d. Radiology equipment doesn't really produce radiation.
c
A 9-year-old has just fallen off the monkey bars. She has obvious deformity to her mid forearm. How should the radiographer care for her when taking x-rays? a. Move the arm any way needed. b. Remove any immobilization devices. c. Support the joints above and below the deformity. d. Nothing, let her move her own arm.
c
A patient becomes unresponsive after receiving an injection of iodinated contrast media. The patient's blood pressure is 80/50. What has likely occurred? a. Seizure. b. Insulin shock. c. Anaphylactic shock. d. Syncopal episode.
c
A patient is scheduled for an interventional radiological procedure that requires general anesthesia. Who is the most appropriate person to obtain informed consent for the procedure in this situation? a. Anesthesiologist. b. Interventional nurse. c. Radiologist. d. Radiographer.
c
A patient with a history of stroke and hemi-paralysis is transported to the x-ray department by wheelchair. Which action should be first taken by the radiographer? a. Brace the weak leg as the patient stands. b. Instruct the patient to lead with his strong leg. c. Place the patient's strong side next to the table. d. Stand behind the patient during the transfer.
c
An 82-year-old female patient is transported to the x-ray department for an examination of the right hip. The ordering physician informs the radiographer that the patient fell at home, and there is high suspicion for a femoral neck fracture. Which positioning guideline is best for the radiographer to follow? a. Abduct the affected leg. b. Internally rotate the affected leg. c. Do not move the affected leg. d. Externally rotate the affected leg.
c
Digital radiography has the ability to produce 16,000 shades of gray. What appropriate bit depth (dynamic range) does this represent? a. 16 bit depth. b. 12 bit depth. c. 14 bit depth. d. 10 bit depth.
c
How can a radiographer be less intimidating to a child? a. Put the child on the x-ray table. b. Sit in a chair. c. Squat down to the child's level. d. Converse with the parents.
c
In order to increase the number of shades of gray displayed on a digital image what should be done? a. Decrease the window width. b. Increase the window level. c. Increase the window width. d. Decrease the window level.
c
In the event that a pregnant patient is inadvertently irradiated, who should perform the calculations necessary to determine fetal dose? a. Imaging department manager. b. Radiologist. c. Radiologic physicist. d. Radiographer performing the examination.
c
On a lateral radiograph of a patient's leg, where will the patient's tibia be in relation to the fibula? a. Superior to fibula. b. Completely superimposed. c. Partially superimposed. d. Posterior to fibula.
c
The large amount of heat generated during x-ray production is primarily the result of which? a. The buildup of tungsten deposits on the glass envelope. b. The heat buildup in the oil surrounding the x-ray tube. c. The bombardment of the target by high-speed electrons. d. The high speed at which the anode rotates.
c
What is the National Council on Radiation Protection's (NCRP) recommended maximum annual equivalent dose to the general public for frequent exposure? a. 50 millisievert (mSv). b. 5 millisievert (mSv). c. 1 millisievert (mSv). d. 10 millisievert (mSv)
c
What is the purpose of shuttering? a. To remove extraneous information from the digital image and not overload the system with unneeded data. b. To improve image appearance and replace the need for close collimation. c. To black out areas of light and make fine details more visible. d. Solely to replace the need for close collimation.
c
When attempting to move a 300 pound object, which rule of body mechanics represents the safest option? a. Lift the object with knees bent. b. Carry the load close to the body. c. Roll or push the object. d. Ask for help to lift the object.
c
Where are the pedicles located on a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine image? a. the pedicles are not demonstrated on this image. b. Anterior to the vertebral body. c. At the center of the vertebral body. d. Posterior to the vertebral body.
c
Where should radiographers clip their radiation monitors when wearing an apron for fluoroscopy a. At the waist, beneath the lead apron. b. At the waist, outside of the lead apron. c. At the collar, outside of the lead apron. d. At the collar, beneath the lead apron.
c
Which best describes anode heel effect? a. Absorption of part of the x-ray beam by the target track. b. A phenomenon where x-ray intensity is greater under the anode. c. A phenomenon where x-ray intensity is greater under the cathode. d. Absorption of part of the x-ray beam by the focusing cup.
c
Which central ray angulation is recommended to prevent foreshortening of the sacrum on an anteroposterior (AP) projection? a. 10 degrees cephalad. b. 15 degrees caudad. c. 15 degrees cephalad. d. 10 degrees caudad.
c
Which disease is contracted by exposure to infected blood and blood products? a. Rubella. b. Tuberculosis. c. Hepatitis B. d. Small pox.
c
Which factor would the radiographer choose to maximize recorded detail in the image? a. High kilovolts peak (kVp). b. Small focal spot. c. Low milliampere-seconds (mAs). d. 100 cm source to image receptor distance (SID).
c
Which is the best projection to evaluate the coronoid process in profile? a. Anteroposterior (AP) elbow. b. Scapular Y view. c. Medial oblique elbow. d. Inferosuperior axial shoulder.
c
Which is the most effective way to give instructions to a patient who does not speak English? a. Allow a family member who also speaks English to translate. b. Communicate nonverbally with demonstrations or sketches. c. provide a certified interpreter to translate for the patient. d. Read from a card containing translations of important phrases.
c
Which of these atoms or parts of atoms exhibits no charge? a. Electron. b. Proton. c. Neutron. d. Hydrogen nucleus.
c
Which position of the elbow will clearly demonstrate the radial neck free of ulnar superimposition? a. Lateral. b. Anteroposterior (AP). c. Lateral oblique. d. Medial oblique.
c
Which property describes x-rays? a. Are electrically negative. b. Are focused by the collimator. c. Cause biological and chemical changes. d. Travel faster than 186,282 miles per second.
c
Which type of x-ray photons are present in the remnant x-ray beam, but not in the primary beam? a. Bremsstrahlung. b.Unattenuated. c. Scattered. d. Characteristic.
c
An electrically neutral sodium atom has 1 valence electron. What chemical event happens when the sodium atoms encounter a chlorine atom with 7 valence electrons? a. Repulsion. b. Covalent bonding. c. Ionic bonding. d. Attraction
c * the sodium atom will tend to give up its valence electron to the chlorine atom, converting both atoms to ions. These ions will ionically bond to form a molecule of salt
A 49-year-old female was referred for mammography, but she is very apprehensive after reading about the risk of ionizing radiation. How should the radiographer handle this situation? a. Tell her breast cancer is detrimental to one's health and the procedure is imperative. b. Advise her there is no such thing as "ionizing radiation" and continue with the procedure. c. Reassure her that the benefit of the procedure outweighs the potential consequences. d. Inform her that shielding will block any bad radiation.
c.
This 45 degree oblique ankle image demonstrates the calcaneus obscuring the distal aspect of the lateral mortise and distal fibula. How should the radiographer correct this image? a. No correction needed. b. Depress distal tibia. c. Dorsiflex foot. d. Increase internal rotation.
c.
What can be demonstrated with a left lateral decubitus position of the thorax? a. Fluid in the right pleural space and air in the left pleural space. b. Fluid in the pleural spaces of the apices and air in the pleural space of the costophrenic angles. c. Air in the right pleural space and fluid in the left pleural space. Correct d. Air in the pleural spaces of the apices and fluid in the pleural space of the costophrenic angles.
c.
Which example represents a violation of a patient's privacy, if communicated to anyone not directly involved with the care of the patient? a. Results of this exam should be available in 24 hours. b. A named physician is an internal medicine specialist. c. A named patient is called for his barium enema. d. This exam will take about 10 minutes.
c.
Which projection demonstrates the right kidney in profile? a. 45 degre right posterior oblique (RPO). b. 45 degree left posterior oblique (LPO). c. 30 degree right posterior oblique (RPO). d. 30 degree left posterior oblique (LPO).
c.
Which projection of the foot demonstrates the cuboid bone in profile with the least bony superimposition? a. Anteroposterior (AP), lateral oblique. b. Anteroposterior (AP). c. Anteroposterior (AP), medial oblique. d. Latera
c.
Which projection of the stomach demonstrates the duodenal bulb filled with barium and free of superimposition? a. Posteroanterior (PA) oblique projection, left anterior oblique (LAO) position. b. Anteroposterior (AP) oblique projection, right posterior oblique (RPO) position. c. Posteroanterior (PA) oblique projection, right anterior oblique (RAO) position. Correct d. Anteroposterior (AP) oblique projection, left posterior oblique (LPO) position.
c.
Which type of medication is diphenhydramine (Benadryl) a. Antipsychotic. b. Anticonvulsant. c. Antihistamine. d. Muscle relaxant.
c.
which description best defines a histogram? a. The mathematical analysis of the data set received by the image receptor (IR). b. The quantization of photon data striking the image receptor (IR). c. Graph where x-axis is the amount of exposure read, and the y-axis is the number of pixels. d. The visual means for the radiographer to critique the radiographic image.
c.
Correct positioning for an anteroposterior (AP) pelvis requires the lower limbs to be internally rotated until which structures are parallel with the image receptor (IR)? a. Innominate bones. b. Sacral alae. c. Femoral necks. d. Pubic rami.
c. *demonstrates the proximal femur and hip joint in true AP
Which increases a radiographer's radiation exposure? a. Use of positive beam limitation (PBL). b. Choosing high kilovolts peak (kVp), low milliampere seconds (mAs) factors. c. Choosing low kilovolts peak (kVp), high milliampere-seconds (mAs) exposure factors. Correct d. Use of high-speed image receptor (IR) systems.
c. * as kVp is reduced, Compton events become more likely *compton scattered photons contribute the most to radiographers dose
Fetal exposure, in excess of which level, warrants possible termination of a pregnancy? a. 150 mGy. b. 50 mGy. c. 250 mGy. d. 100 mGy.
c. *exposure to radiation in excess of 150 mGy increases the risk of damage to the fetus
Which position is used to demonstrate the left kidney in profile for an intravenous urogram (IVU)? a. 45-degree right posterior oblique (RPO). b. 45-degree left posterior oblique (LPO). c. 30-degree right posterior oblique (RPO). d. 30-degree left posterior oblique (LPO)
c. 30 degree RPO
If 7 milliampere-seconds (mAs) provides optimal density without a grid, which mAs should be used with a 12:1 grid? a. 42. b. 21. c. 35. d. 28.
c. GCF= 12:1 is 5 requires the use of 5 times the mAs used without a grid
Which type of radiation causes cells to demonstrate the greatest increase in radiosensitivity when in an highly oxygenated state? a. Fast neutrons. b. Alpha particles. c. Diagnostic x-rays. d. Ions of heavy nuclei.
c. diagnostic x-rays
Determine the file size for an image with a 512 x 512 matrix and 12 gray scale bit depth. a. 3,145,748 bytes. b. 25,165,824 bytes. c. 393,216 bytes. d. 262,144 bytes.
c. file size is determined by determining the total number of pixels multiplied by the scale bit depth divided by 8 8 bits are in 1 byte
A 30-year-old male was exposed to a large amount of radiation in an accident last week; he experienced general malaise, diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting 2 days after the initial exposure, but now feels fine and reports the symptoms have subsided. The patient's presentation is mimicking which stage of acute radiation syndrome (ARS)? a. Recovery. b. Prodromal. c. Latent. d. Manifest.
c. prodromal: few hours post exposure latent: comes after manifest: suffer GI issues, confused recovery: if not lethal ; not until the manifest illness symptoms fade
An imaging department, having difficulty obtaining acceptable tangential patella images, has opted to have the post processing mode set to "fixed" for all patella images. Why is this a good choice? a. Fixed mode does not recognize collimation borders. b. Fixed mode ignores exposure index (EI) and is useful for body parts with a prosthesis. c. Fixed mode works well for exams where it is difficult to center the image on the image receptor (IR). d. Fixed mode compares acquired data to a histogram and chooses appropriate brightness and contrast.
c. resultant image shows a direct reflection of the signal received *useful for body parts where ideal EI is to attain, anatomy difficult to center to IR, or anatomy with large metal appliances
Which type of contrast is best if a patient is suspected of having a perforated bowel? a. Gadolinium. b. Isovue. c. Gastrografin. d. Barium sulfate.
c. water soluble safer to leak out of bowel and into peritoneal cavity
Which condition may increase bowel motility? a. Peritonitis. b. Intussusception. c. Malabsorption syndrome. d. Ileus
c. EX. celiac disease
Which position was used to produce the image of the stomach? a. Left anterior oblique (LAO). b. Right posterior oblique (RPO). c. Left posterior oblique (LPO). d. Right anterior oblique (RAO)
c. LPO *bulk of barium is seen in the fungus which is the lowest part of the stomach
During an esophagram, which action may demonstrate esophageal varices? a. Have the patient swallow a barium tablet. b. Position the table in the Fowler position. c. Perform images in the upright position. d. nstruct the patient to do the Valsalva maneuver.
d
Historically, rhenium was alloyed to the tungsten in the filament of valve tubes to increase electron emission. What is the major reason this isn't used in x-ray tube filaments? a. to maximize the melting point of the filament. b. To reduce the vaporization of the filament. c. To increase the working life of the filament. d. To permit fine control of electron emission by filament heating current
d
How much compensation is needed for a change to a small focal spot? a. Add 30% to milliampere-seconds (mAs). b. Add 15% to kilovolts peak (kVp). c. Double milliampere-seconds (mAs). d. None
d
How much total aluminum equivalent filtration is required for a fixed (not mobile) x-ray unit operating over 70 kilovolts peak (kVp)? a. 1.5 mm. b. 1.0 mm. c. 2.0 mm. d. 2.5 mm.
d
If a patient with a compound fracture has an immobilization device in place, what is the best action by the radiographer? a. Remove the device if it interferes with the images to be produced. b. Determine if the device is really needed and remove it if possible. c. Remove the device it if the patient is uncomfortable. d. Leave the device in place unless directed by a physician to remove it.
d
If a transformer has a greater number of turns in the secondary coil than in the primary coil, how will the output voltage be affected? a. Unable to determine from information given. b. Decreased. c. No change. d. Increased.
d
If computed radiography (CR) imaging plates (IP) haven't been used, how often should they be erased? a. 24 hours. b. 96 hours. c. 72 hours. d. 48 hours
d
In conventional tomography, the radiographer is able to control the thickness of the tomographic slice by altering which of the following? a. Fulcrum height. b. Tube trajectory. c. Amplitude. d. Exposure angle.
d
In which way can the radiographer minimize motion due to peristalsis? a. Expose the radiograph on inspiration. b. Give the patient explicit instructions. c. Expose the radiograph on expiration. d. Decrease exposure time.
d
Pediatric patients require special consideration and appropriate radiation protection procedures because they are more vulnerable to which? A. Only the genetic effects of radiation. B. Only the early somatic effects of radiation. Incorrect C. Only the late somatic effects of radiation. D. Both the late somatic effects and genetic effects of radiation
d
There are several methods to overcome sagging of the lumbar spine in the lateral position. Where should the radiographer begin? a. Building up under the lowest part of the spine to place the spine parallel to the table. b. Flexing the hips and knees more than 90 degrees to engage spinal alignment muscles. c. Using a 5 degree caudal central ray angle to open up the intervertebral joints. d. Assessing the line connecting the spinous processes relative to the tabletop.
d
What are three common sites for measuring the pulse of an adult patient? a. Ulnar artery, brachial artery, carotid artery. b. Ulnar artery, subclavian artery, carotid artery. c. Radial artery, subclavian artery, temporal artery. d. Radial artery, brachial artery, carotid artery.
d
What is the angle between the intervertebral foramina and the midsagittal plane in the thoracic spine? a. 110 degrees. b. 45 degrees. c. 70 degrees. d. 90 degrees
d
What is the maximum leakage radiation quantity permitted for a diagnostic x-ray tube housing when measured 1 meter from the housing? a. 100 mGya/hour. b. 1000 mGya/hour. c. 10 mGya/hour. d. 1 mGya/hour.
d
What is the term for the pressure in the arterial blood vessels when the left ventricle contracts? a. Hypotensive. b. Hypertensive. c. Diastolic. d. Systolic.
d
When attempting to demonstrate air-fluid levels, what is the correct central ray orientation for an anteroposterior (AP) semierect chest projection? a. Perpendicular to the midcoronal plane. b. Parallel to the midsagittal plane. c. Perpendicular to the image receptor. d. Parallel to the floor
d
When performing a right anterior oblique (RAO) projection of the sternum, a radiographer will rotate the patient 15-20 degrees. Why is this done? a. To superimpose the vertebrae and sternum. b. To prevent the sternum from being in the shadow of the heart. c. To flatten the sternum out. d. To prevent superimposition of the vertebrae and sternum.
d
Which advantage does a 500 milliampere (mA) station have over a 200 mA station? a. Longer exposure time. b. Higher load on the x-ray tube. c. Greater visibility of detail. d. Increased photon flux to the image receptor (IR).
d
Which chest x-ray projection reduces exposure to female breast tissue? a. Left lateral. b. Apical lordotic. c. Anteroposterior (AP). d. Posteroanterior (PA).
d
Which condition could lead to neurogenic shock? a. External hemorrhage. b. A pulmonary embolism. c. A massive infection. d. Head trauma.
d
Which finding is considered a contraindication for myelography? a. Malignant spinal cord tumor. b. Bone fragments in the spinal canal. c. Herniated nucleus pulposus. d. Blood in the cerebrospinal fluid.
d
Which is considered a nonessential exam? a. Lumbar spine x-rays for suspected spinal stenosis. b. Knee arthrogram for a suspected Baker's cyst. c. A chest x-ray for suspected hypertension. d. Whole-body multislice computed tomography (CT) screening.
d
Which is described as an interaction between an x-ray photon and an outer-shell electron, weakly bound to an atom of the absorbing medium? a. Coherent scattering. b. Pair production. c. Photoelectric effect. d. Compton scattering.
d
Which is the preferred method for indicating the correct anatomic side on a radiographic image? a. Write the appropriate marker directly on the film after exposure. b. Electronically annotate the correct side prior to exposure. c. Photoflash the marker on a corner of the image after exposure. d. Place a side marker directly on the image receptor (IR) prior to exposure.
d
Which normal effect of aging is a common obstacle to communication with elder adults? a. Senile dementia. b. Decreased intelligence. c. Aphasia. d. Hearing impairment
d
Which patient is most at risk for catastrophic embryonic damage from radiation? a. A 26-year-old that has not had a period for 12 weeks and does not believe she's pregnant. b. A 16-year-old experiencing abdominal pain during her third trimester. c. A 36-year-old who is 22 weeks gestation. d. A 46-year-old that just found out she is 6 weeks pregnant by her physician.
d
Which patient is most likely to suffer ill effects from a contrast medium injection? a. Teenager. b. Healthy adult. c. Patient who refuses contrast. d. Elderly patient in renal failure.
d
Which projection is a radiographer performing if the patient's hand is turned in extreme internal rotation, with the central ray directed perpendicular to the first metacarpophalangeal joint? a. Lateral thumb. b. Posterior-anterior (PA) hand. c. Oblique thumb. d. Anteroposterior (AP) thumb.
d
Where should the radiographer direct the central ray for a posteroanterior (PA) chest? a. Midsagittal plane and 7-9 cm below the vertebral prominens. Incorrect b. Midsagittal plane and 14-16 cm below the vertebral prominens. c. Midsagittal plane and 11-13 cm below the vertebral prominens. d. Midsagittal plane and 18-20 cm below the vertebral prominens.
d 18-20 cm below vertebral prominens
Which items can be used as indicators of the quality of the diagnostic x-ray beam? (Select the two that apply.) a. Source to image receptor distance (SID). b. Object to image receptor distance (OID). c. Milliamperage (mA). d. Kilovolts peak (kVp). e. Half Value Layer (HVL).
d e
Which qualification is needed to hold the position of Radiation Safety Officer (RSO) a. Master's or PhD in Health Physics. b. Credentials as a Radiologist or well qualified physician. c. Satisfactory completion of RSO training course. d. Knowledge of proper radiation safety.
d knowledge of proper radiation safety
Assuming other exposure factors remain the same, which source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID) causes the greatest reduction in x-ray quantity at the image receptor (IR)? a. 60 inches. b. 44 inches. c. 40 inches. d. 72 inches
d 72 inches
Which part of the scapula is used as a positioning landmark due to its location at the level of the seventh thoracic vertebra? a. Acromion. b. Coracoid process. c. Lateral angle. d. Inferior angle.
d inferior scapular angle
A patient arrives in the emergency department on a backboard with suspicion for cervical spine injury. Prior to radiographs being taken, the physician notes that the patient's anterior neck muscles are rigidly contracted. In light of this information, which should be done first? a. Obtain an open-mouth projection of C1 and C2. b. Cancel the radiographs and order an MRI. c. Cancel the radiographs and order a CT. d. Obtain a cross-table lateral projection
d.
A patient with which condition is most at risk for complications related to intravenous contrast administration? a. Heart Disease. b. Alcoholism. c. Diabetes. d. Renal failure.
d.
A radiographer critiques an anteroposterior (AP) image of the ribs. The left sternoclavicular (SC) joint is demonstrated without vertebral column superimposition. What should the radiographer do? a. Rotate the patient to the left. b. Ask the patient to take a deeper inspiration. c. Accept the image. d. Rotate the patient to the right.
d.
As linear energy transfer (LET) increases, the ability of ionizing radiation to cause biologic effects does what? a. Decreases slightly. b. Decreases considerably, c. Remains constant, not increasing or decreasing. d. Increases until it reaches a maximal value.
d.
Which term refers to unwanted fluctuations in the brightness of an image? a. Interference. b. Static. c. Flux. d. Noise.
d.
Which type of x-ray interaction results in the complete absorption of the incident photon by an orbital electron? a. Pair production. b. Compton effect. c. Classical scattering. d. Photoelectric effect.
d.
Which is an advantage of an optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter (OSL)? a. Incredibly expensive device to purchase, especially for departments with a large radiology staff. b. Very sensitive to heat and humidity exposure. c. The device can be used for up to 90 days. d. Classifies various energy levels of radiation received.
d. more cost effective used 1 year
A radiographer prepares to do an excretory urogram on a patient who has a history of asthma. At this institution, policies are in place to select the type of contrast used based on the needs of the patient. Which type of contrast should be used in this situation? a. Iodinated, ionic. b. This condition does not define type of contrast given. c. The exam would be cancelled. d. Iodinated, nonionic.
d. *nonionic contrast agents are considered to be safer. *asthma increases risk of contrast reaction
Which factor will increase x-ray beam quantity at the image receptor (IR) without increasing heat units produced by the tube? a. Increased source-image distance (SID). b. Decreased filtration. c. Increased grid ratio. d. Decreased potential difference.
d. allows more low energy photons to reach the IR without affecting heat production
Which function are Radiology information system (RIS) networks are capable of performing? a. Processing laboratory reports. b. Recording and retrieving diagnostic images. c. Tracking billing information. d. Tracking radiology scheduling information.
d. tracking radiology scheduling information
Computed radiography (CR) imaging creates images with poorer resolution than that of film screen. What compensates for this loss of resolution? a. Use of edge enhancement. b. Use of high-pass filtering. c. The ability to reprocess images. d. The wide latitude.
d. wide latitude *wide spectrum of grays sets off the loss of geometric detail with CR
Place the parts of the gastrointestinal tract in order from proximal to distal.
duodenum jejunum ileum cecum
Body habitus can affect many things, including the position of the gallbladder. Place the body habitus in order from which habitus will cause the gallbladder to occupy the highest position in the abdominal cavity to the habitus that will cause the gallbladder to occupy the lowest position in the abdominal cavity.
hypersthenic sthenic hyposthenic asthenic
covalent bonding is the ______of Valence electrons
sharing
What is the proper sequencing of exams if a patient is scheduled for a barium enema (BE), intravenous urogram (IVU), and thyroid uptake and scan on the same day?
thyroid uptake and scan IVU barium enema