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Major function of proteins in the cell membrane

- Anchoring cells to other structures -forming channels -acting as receptors

22) The fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is ________. A) collagen B) reticular C) muscle D) elastic

Answer: A

5) The first step in tissue repair involves ________. A) inflammation B) formation of scar tissue C) replacement of destroyed tissue by the same kind of cells D) proliferation of fibrous connective tissue

Answer: A

Some hormones enter cells via ________. A) receptor-mediated endocytosis B) exocytosis C) pinocytosis D) endocytosis

Answer: A

What are glycosaminoglycans? A) negatively charged polysaccharides B) positively charged proteins C) positively charged polysaccharides

Answer: A

Match the regeneration capacity of the following tissues: 109) Tendons and ligaments. A) Moderate regenerative ability B) Weak regenerative ability

Answer: A) Moderate regenerative ability

Will not scatter light. A) Colloids B) Solutions

Answer: B) Solutions

Match the following systems and organs: 127) Arteries, veins, heart.

Answer: Cardiovascular

Match the following systems to their functions: 125) Delivers oxygen and nutrients to the tissues.

Answer: Cardiovascular

Electrically charged particle due to loss of an electron.

Answer: Cation

Dry ice (frozen carbon dioxide) is a ___.

Answer: Compound

Choose the answer that best describes HCO3-. A) common in the liver B) a weak acid C) a proton donor D) a bicarbonate ion

Answer: D

Choose the answer that best describes fibrous proteins. A) are usually called enzymes B) rarely exhibit secondary structure C) are cellular catalysts D) are very stable and insoluble in water

Answer: D

Lysosomes ________. A) are the major site of protein synthesis B) are always used for the cell to "commit suicide" C) maintain a highly alkaline internal environment D) contain acid hydrolases that are potentially dangerous to the cell

Answer: D

Sucrose is a ________. A) triglyceride B) polysaccharide C) monosaccharide D) disaccharide

Answer: D

________ is fat soluble, produced in the skin on exposure to UV radiation, and necessary for normal bone growth and function. A) Cortisol B) Vitamin K C) Vitamin A D) Vitamin D

Answer: D

142) The patient was admitted to the hospital for severe dehydration. Explain what changes occur in extracellular and intracellular fluid compartments during dehydration.

Answer: Fluid volume deficit occurs when the body loses both water and electrolytes from the extracellular fluid compartment. Fluid is initially lost from the intravascular compartment. Then fluid is drawn from the interstitial compartment into the intravascular compartment, depleting the interstitial compartment. To compensate for the decreased volume, the body then draws intracellular fluid out of the cells. This could lead to collapse and death.

Match the following systems to their functions: 121) Produces antibodies that neutralize foreign substances.

Answer: Immune

Match the following systems to their functions: 96) Removes and filters excess fluid from tissues.

Answer: Lymphatic

What is a neutral subatomic particle.

Answer: Neutron

Homogeneous, will not settle.

Answer: Solutions

Match the following cavities and organs: 120) Lungs.

Answer: Thoracic

T OR F: The lower the pH, the higher the hydrogen ion concentration.

Answer: True

Is a function of, and varies with, gravity.

Answer: weight

Match the following cavities and organs: 104) Uterus.

Answer:Abdominopelvic

Deep (internal)

Away from the body surface; more internal

Cyto

Cell

Proximal

Closer to the origin of the body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk

Passive transport processes

Osmosis, diffusion, facilitated diffusion

What part of the cell membrane is usually in contact with the interstitial fluid?

Phosphate heads of phospholipids

Chondrocytes

The mature cells that live in cartilage and maintain the matrix around them

endo

inside, taking in, or within

What is the main component of the cell membrane?

phospholipids

Which of the following is not a major function of proteins in the cell membrane? A)anchoring cells to other structures B)forming the entire glycocalyx C)forming channels D)acting as receptors

Answer B

92) Briefly name the subphases of interphase and tell what they do.

Answer: G1 - growth phase. The cell is metabolically active and the centriole begins to divide at the end of this phase. S - DNA replicates itself. New histones are made and assembled into chromatin. G2 - Enzymes and proteins are synthesized and centriole replication is completed.This is the final phase of interphase.

55) In all living cells hydrostatic and osmotic pressures exist. Define these pressures and explain how they are used in the concept of tonicity of the cell.

Answer: Hydrostatic pressure is the pressure of water exerted on the cell membrane. Osmotic pressure is created by different concentrations of molecules in a solution separated by the cell membrane. Because these pressures are exerted on the membrane they can be used by the cell to change the shape of the cell, regulate substances entering and exiting the cell, and bring about the polarity of the cell.

A chemical bond never occurs in a mixture. Discuss this.

Answer: Mixtures come in three forms- solutions, colloids, and suspensions. Components of these mixtures always retain their original makeup and can be separated into their individual components; therefore no chemical bonding has taken place

44)All of the following statements refer to events of tissue repair. Put the events in proper numbered order according to the sequence of occurrence. The initial event, the injury, is already indicated as number one. 1. The skin receives a cut that penetrates into the dermis and bleeding begins. 2. Epithelial regeneration is nearly complete. 3. Granulation tissue is formed. 4. Blood clotting occurs and stops the blood flow 5. The scar retracts. 6. Macrophages engulf and clean away cellular debris. 7. Fibroblasts elaborate connective tissue fibers to span the break.

Answer: 1-4-3-7-6-5-2

Name at least four things you know about enzymes.

Answer: 1. They are proteins. 2. They have specific binding sites for specific substrates. 3. They lower the activation barrier for a specific reaction. 4. The names end in "ase." 5. They can be denatured. 6. They can be used again and again

77) List possible causes of aging.

Answer: 1. chemical insults and free radical formation (wear and tear theory) 2. diminished energy production by free radical-damaged mitochondria 3. progressive disorders in the immune system 4. genetic programming

1) The four elements that make up about 96% of body matter are ________. A) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen B) sodium, potassium, hydrogen, oxygen C) nitrogen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium D) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, calcium

Answer: A

23)Which of the following is a single-celled layer of epithelium that forms the lining of serous membranes? A) simple squamous B) simple transitional C) simple columnar D) simple cuboidal

Answer: A

29) Which of the following statements is true of connective tissue? A) Collagen fibers provide high tensile strength. B) When connective tissue is stretched, collagen gives it the ability to snap back. C) Reticular fibers form thick, ropelike structures. D) Elastin fibers are sometimes called white fibers.

Answer: A

37) Multicellular exocrine glands can be classified ________. A) functionally into merocrine, holocrine, and apocrine divisions B) structurally into alveolar and acinar types C) structurally into vascular and avascular types D) functionally into secreting or nonsecreting types

Answer: A

A solution that has a pH of 2 could best be described as being ________. A) acidic B) slightly acidic C) basic D) neutral

Answer: A

A type of bond important in tying different parts of the same molecule together into a three-dimensional structure. A) Hydrogen bond B) Nonpolar covalent bond C) Polar covalent bond

Answer: A

Amino acids joining together to make a peptide is a good example of a(n) ________ reaction. A) synthesis B) exchange C) reversible D) decomposition

Answer: A

An atom with a valence of 3 may have a total of ________ electrons. A) 13 B) 3 C) 8 D) 17

Answer: A

Cell junctions that promote the coordinated activity of cells by physically binding them together into a cell community include all of the following except ________. A) peroxisomes B) desmosomes C) tight junctions D) gap junctions

Answer: A

Choose the statement that is false or incorrect. A) A key feature of the body's metabolism is the almost exclusive use of exergonic reactions by the body. B) Exergonic reactions release more energy than they absorb. C) In chemical reactions, breaking old bonds requires energy and forming new bonds releases energy. D) Endergonic reactions absorb more energy than they release.

Answer: A

DNA replication ________. A) takes place during interphase of the cell cycle B) can also be called mitosis C) is spontaneous, not requiring enzyme action D) occurs only in translationally active areas

Answer: A

Heat shock proteins (hsp) are a type of protein called ________. A) chaperonins B) eicosanoids C) cofactors D) coenzymes

Answer: A

If atom X has an atomic number of 74 it would have which of the following? A) 37 protons and 37 electrons B) 37 protons and 37 neutrons C) 74 protons D) 37 electrons

Answer: A

In liquid XYZ, you notice that light is scattered as it passes through. There is no precipitant in the bottom of the beaker, though it has been sitting for several days. What type of liquid is this? A) colloid B) solution C) suspension D) mixture

Answer: A

In the maintenance of the cell resting membrane potential ________. A) extracellular sodium levels are high B) the steady state involves only passive processes in all cells C) the inside of the cell is positive relative to its outside D) cells are more permeable to Na+ than K+

Answer: A

Match the following systems and organs: 109) Trachea, bronchi, alveoli. A) Respiratory B) Urinary

Answer: A

Match the following: 127) Hollow cytoskeletal elements that act as organizers for the cytoskeleton.

Answer: A

Match the following: 122) The actual site of protein synthesis. A) Ribosomes B) Endoplasmic reticulum C) Nucleoli

Answer: A

Match the following: 126) Attaches the correct amino acid to its transfer RNA. A) Synthetase enzymes B) Messenger RNA

Answer: A

Match the following: 129) Chromosomes decoil to form chromatin. A) Telophase B) Late prophase

Answer: A

Match the following: 132) Abundant in tissues subjected to great mechanical stress. A) Desmosomes B) Gap junctions

Answer: A

Match the following:136) Provides the energy needed for synthesis reactions. A) ATP B) Ribosomal RNA

Answer: A

Peroxisomes ________. A) are able to detoxify substances by enzymatic action B) sometimes function as secretory vesicles C) are also called microbodies, and contain acid hydrolases D) function to digest particles ingested by endocytosis

Answer: A

Select the most correct statement regarding nucleic acids. A) DNA is a long, double-stranded molecule made up of A, T, G, and C bases. B) TDNA is considered a molecular slave of DNA. C) RNA is a long, single-stranded molecule made up of the bases A, T, G, and C. D) Three forms exist: DNA, RNA, and tDNA.

Answer: A

Select which reactions will usually be irreversible regarding chemical equilibrium in living systems. A) glucose to CO2 and H2O B) H2O + CO2 to make H2CO3 C) ADP + Pi to make ATP D) glucose molecules joined to make glycogen

Answer: A

The electron microscope has revealed that one of the components within the cell consists of microtubules arranged to form a hollow tube. This structure is a ________. A) centriole B) chromosome C) centrosome D) ribosome

Answer: A

The functions of centrioles include ________. A) organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division B) providing a whiplike beating motion to move substances along cell surfaces C) producing ATP D) serving as the site for ribosomal RNA synthesis

Answer: A

The single most abundant protein in the body is ________. A) collagen B) glucose C) DNA D) hemoglobin

Answer: A

Which of the following constitutes a long chain of simple sugars? A) polysaccharide B) nucleic acid C) protein D) monosaccharide

Answer: A

Which of the following is a concept of the cell theory? A) A cell is the basic structural and functional unit of living organisms. B) The subcellular organelle is the basic unit of life. C) Only higher organisms are composed of cells. D) Simple cells can arise spontaneously from rotting vegetation.

Answer: A

Which of the following is a function of a plasma membrane protein? A) molecular transport through the membrane B) forms a lipid bilayer C) oxygen transport D) circulating antibody

Answer: A

Which of the following is not an electrolyte? A) H2O B) NaOH C) Ca2CO3 D) HCl

Answer: A

Which of the following statements is correct regarding RNA? A) Messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and ribosomal RNA play a role in protein synthesis. B) There is exactly one specific type of mRNA for each amino acid. C) If the base sequence of DNA is ATTGCA, the messenger RNA template will be UCCAGU. D) rRNA is always attached to the rough ER.

Answer: A

Which of these is not a function of the plasma membrane? A) It prevents potassium ions from leaking out and sodium ions from crossing into the cell. B) It acts as a site of cell-to-cell interaction and recognition. C) It encloses the cell contents. D) It is selectively permeable.

Answer: A

Which statement about enzymes is false? A) Enzymes raise the activation energy needed to start a reaction. B) Enzymes are composed mostly of protein. C) Enzymes may be damaged by high temperature. D) Enzymes are organic catalysts.

Answer: A

Which statement is the most correct regarding transcription/translation? A) The nucleotide sequence in a tRNA anticodon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it except that uracil is substituted for thymine. B) The nucleotide sequence in a mRNA codon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it. C) The nucleotide sequence in a tRNA anticodon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it. D) The nucleotide sequence in a mRNA codon is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that coded for it except that uracil is substituted for thymine.

Answer: A

What does the formula C6H12O6 mean? A) There are 12 hydrogen, 6 carbon, and 6 oxygen atoms. B) There are 6 calcium, 12 hydrogen, and 6 oxygen atoms. C) The molecular weight is 24. D) The substance is a colloid.

Answer: A .

129) A surgeon removed a section of tissue along a transverse plane for microscopic examination. What two names would the section be called?

Answer: A cross section or a transverse section

139) You are giving a tap water enema to a patient. An adverse effect of the tap water enema is water intoxication. Explain.

Answer: A tap water enema is a hypotonic solution. Based on osmosis, water diffuses to the solution of higher concentration, leading to water intoxication.

11) What is the posterior side of the patella called? A) popliteal B) crural C) antecubital D) sural

Answer: A)

17) What is the specific name for the hip region? A) coxal B) manus C) pedal D) inguinal

Answer: A)

22) Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains ________. A) a relatively stable internal environment, within limits B) a dynamic state within an unlimited range C) the lowest possible energy usage D) a static state with no deviation from preset points

Answer: A)

23) Which body cavity protects the nervous system? A) dorsal B) cranial C) thoracic D) vertebral

Answer: A)

34) The heart lies in the ________ cavity. A) pericardial B) superior mediastinal C) pleural D) dorsal

Answer: A)

38) The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except ________. A) palms turned posteriorly B) body erect C) thumbs pointed laterally D) arms at sides

Answer: A)

39) Which of the following statements is true concerning feedback mechanisms? A) Negative feedback mechanisms work to prevent sudden severe changes within the body. B) Positive feedback mechanisms always result in excessive damage to the host. C) Blood glucose levels are regulated by positive feedback mechanisms. D) Negative feedback mechanisms tend to increase the original stimulus.

Answer: A)

4) Which one of the following systems responds to environmental stimuli? A) nervous B) lymphatic C) immune D) muscular

Answer: A)

6) If you consider your home air conditioner in terms of homeostasis, then the wall thermostat would be the ________. A) control center B) effector C) receptor D) variable

Answer: A)

8) Choose the anatomical topic and definition that is not correctly matched. A) Cytology: study of the structures in a particular region. B) Gross anatomy: study of structures visible to the eye. C) Embryology: study of the changes in an individual from conception to birth. D) Microscopic anatomy: study of structures too small to be seen by the naked eye.

Answer: A)

Heterogeneous, will not settle. A) Colloids B) Solutions

Answer: A) Colloids

Match the following: 133) Centrioles move to opposite ends of the cell.

Answer: A) Early prophase

Match the following: 106) Embryonic connective tissue that arises from mesoderm and produces all types of connective tissues. A) Mesenchyme B) Hyaline cartilage

Answer: A) Mesenchyme

Match the following: 99) Source of new cells in mature connective tissue.

Answer: A) Mesenchyme

Match the regeneration capacity of the following tissues: 97) Smooth muscle.

Answer: A) Moderate regenerative ability.

Match the following: 105) The epithelial membrane that lines body cavities open to the exterior.

Answer: A) Mucous membrane

Match the following: 98) Found lining the digestive and respiratory tracts.

Answer: A) Mucous membrane

Match the following:134) Houses DNA and RNA.

Answer: A) Nucleus

Match the following: 111) Forms internal supporting framework of soft organs such as the spleen. A) Reticular tissue B) Elastic cartilage

Answer: A) Reticular tissue

Match the following: 100) The epithelial membrane that lines the closed ventral cavities of the body. A) Serous membrane B) Endothelium

Answer: A) Serous membrane

Match the following: 96) Makes up the pleura and pericardium.

Answer: A) Serous membrane

The ________ molecule directly provides energy for cellular work.

Answer: ATP

Match the following cavities and organs: 101) Stomach.

Answer: Abdominopelvic

61) Since mature adipocytes do not divide, how can adults gain weight?

Answer: Adipocytes contain a fat-filled vacuole that can fill or empty, causing the cell to gain or lose volume.

An amino acid may act as a proton acceptor or donor. Explain.

Answer: Amino acids have two components-a base group (proton acceptor) and an organic acid part (a proton donor).

Match the following: 120) Chromosomal centromeres split and chromosomes migrate to opposite ends of the cell.

Answer: Anaphase

46) Why is anatomical terminology necessary?

Answer: Anatomical terms are precise words that have limited usage, which prevents confusion when describing the location of body parts.

Match the regional/directional terms and examples: 116) The stomach is ________ to the spine.

Answer: Anterior

59) ________ tissue forms the framework for the lamina propria of mucous membranes.

Answer: Areolar or loose connective:

Smallest particle of an element that retains its properties.

Answer: Atom

1) Chondroblasts ________. A) located deep to the perichondrium divide and secrete new matrix on the internal portions of the cartilage B) within the cartilage divide and secrete new matrix C) never lose their ability to divide D) are mature cartilage cells located in spaces called lacunae

Answer: B

1) Which of the following describes the plasma membrane? A) a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell B) the phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell C) a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma D) a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae

Answer: B

11)Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as ________. A) exocrine B) endocrine C) ceruminous D) sebaceous

Answer: B

18) Select the correct statement regarding adipose tissue. A) Mature adipose cells are highly mitotic. B) Its primary function is nutrient storage. C) It is composed mostly of extracellular matrix. D) Most of the cell volume is occupied by the nucleus.

Answer: B

20)The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength to absorb shock is because they possess ________. A) elastic fibers B) collagen fibers C) hydroxyapatite crystals D) reticular fibers

Answer: B

25) Which of the following is true about epithelia? A) Pseudostratified epithelia are commonly keratinized. B) Endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow cardiovascular organs. C) Stratified epithelia are associated with filtration. D) Simple epithelia are commonly found in areas of high abrasion.

Answer: B

30) Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which tissue? A) transitional B) simple columnar C) stratified squamous D) simple squamous

Answer: B

32) What tissue has lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels? A) cartilage tissue B) osseous tissue C) fibrocartilaginous tissue D) areolar tissue

Answer: B

33) The shape of the external ear is maintained by ________. A) hyaline cartilage B) elastic cartilage C) adipose tissue D) fibrocartilage

Answer: B

34) Which tissue type arises from all three embryonic germ layers? A) muscle tissue B) epithelial tissue C) nervous tissue D) connective tissue

Answer: B

35)In adults, new surface epithelial cells and the epithelial cells lining the intestine are derived from_________. A) mitotic division of existing epithelial cells B) stem cells C) components of the connective tissue D) underlying epithelial cells

Answer: B

4) Which of these is not considered connective tissue? A) cartilage B) muscle C) blood D) adipose

Answer: B

7) Epithelial tissue ________. A) is usually acellular B) has a basement membrane C) is highly vascularized D) contains a number of neuron types

Answer: B

9) What feature characterizes simple columnar epithelium of the digestive tract? A) fibroblasts B) dense microvilli C) a rich vascular supply D) cilia

Answer: B

A bond in which electrons are shared equally. A) Hydrogen bond B) Nonpolar covalent bond C) Polar covalent bond

Answer: B

A red blood cell placed in pure water would ________. A) shrink B) swell and burst C) neither shrink nor swell D) swell initially, then shrink as equilibrium is reached

Answer: B

Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and muscles in the form of ________. A) cholesterol B) glycogen C) glucose D) triglycerides

Answer: B

Caveolae are closely associated with all but which of the following? A) receptors for hormones B) enzymes involved in cell metabolism C) lipid rafts D) enzymes involved in cell regulation

Answer: B

Crenation is likely to occur in blood cells in ________. A) a hypotonic solution B) a hypertonic solution C) blood plasma D) an isotonic solution

Answer: B

Enzymes called _________ destroy the cell's DNA and cytoskeleton, producing a quick death of the cell. A) ubiquitins B) caspases C) DNA polymerase III D) cyclins

Answer: B

Extracellular matrix is ________. A) not present in connective tissue B) the most abundant extracellular material C) a type of impermeable cell junction found in epithelia D) composed of strands of actin protein

Answer: B

If the nucleotide or base sequence of the DNA strand used as a template for messenger RNA synthesis is ACGTT, then what would be the sequence of bases in the corresponding mRNA? A) GUACC B) UGCAA C) TGCAA D) ACGTT

Answer: B

In a DNA molecule, the phosphate serves ________. A) as a code B) to hold the molecular backbone together C) as nucleotides D) to bind the sugars to their bases

Answer: B

In general, the lipids that we refer to as oils have ________. A) a high water content B) a high degree of unsaturated bonds C) a high degree of saturated bonds D) long fatty acid chains

Answer: B

Match the following systems and organs: 108) Kidneys, bladder, ureters. A) Respiratory B) Urinary

Answer: B

Match the following: 128) Nuclear membrane and nucleolus disintegrate. A) Telophase B) Late prophase

Answer: B

Match the following: 123) Plays a role in the synthesis of steroid-based hormones and proteins. A) Ribosomes B) Endoplasmic reticulum C) Nucleoli

Answer: B

Match the following: 125) Found in the cytoplasm, this structure specifies the exact sequence of amino acids of the protein to be made. A) Synthetase enzymes B) Messenger RNA

Answer: B

Match the following: 130) Present in electrically excitable tissues. A) Desmosomes B) Gap junctions

Answer: B

Match the following: 131) Communicating junction. A) Desmosomes B) Gap junctions

Answer: B

Match the following:135) May be attached to the ER or scattered in the cytoplasm. A) ATP B) Ribosomal RNA

Answer: B

Mitochondria ________. A) synthesize proteins for use outside the cell B) contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function C) are single-membrane structures involved in the breakdown of ATP D) are always the same shape

Answer: B

Mitosis ________. A) creates diversity in genetic potential B) produces nucleus replication C) is the formation of sex cells D) always results in division of a cell

Answer: B

Salts are always ________. A) double covalent compounds B) ionic compounds C) hydrogen bonded D) single covalent compounds

Answer: B

The endomembrane system is ________. A) the process by which bacteria took up residence in ancient cells B) an interactive system of organelles whose membranes are physically or functionally connected C) a system of hydrophilic lipid monolayers that surround many cell organelles D) a system by which cells are riveted together by desmosomes

Answer: B

The genetic information is coded in DNA by the ________. A) arrangement of the histones B) sequence of the nucleotides C) three-dimensional structure of the double helix D) regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules

Answer: B

The main component of the cytosol is ________. A) sugars B) water C) salts D) proteins

Answer: B

Two good examples of a colloid would be Jell-O® and ________. A) urine B) cytosol C) blood D) toenails

Answer: B

What does CH4 mean? A) This was involved in a redox reaction. B) There is one carbon and four hydrogen atoms. C) This is an inorganic molecule. D) There are four carbon and four hydrogen atoms.

Answer: B

What is a chain of 25 amino acids called? A) starch B) polypeptide C) protein D) nucleotide

Answer: B

What is a dipole? A) a type of reaction B) a polar molecule C) a type of bond D) an organic molecule

Answer: B

What is the ratio of fatty acids to glycerol in neutral fats? A) 1:1 B) 3:1 C) 4:1 D) 2:1

Answer: B

Which of the following describes coenzyme A) enzymes that work together B) organic molecules derived from vitamins C) metal ions D) two enzymes that perform the same function

Answer: B

Which of the following does not describe the ATP molecule? A) transport B) pigments C) mechanical work D) chemical work

Answer: B

Which of the following is not a subcellular structure? A) membranes B) intercellular material C) cytoplasm D) organelles

Answer: B

Which of the following is the major positive ion outside cells? A) hydrogen B) sodium C) nitrogen D) potassium

Answer: B

Which of the following statements is correct regarding diffusion? A) The lower the temperature, the faster the diffusion rate. B) The greater the concentration of gradient, the faster the rate of diffusion. C) Molecular weight of a substance does not affect the rate of diffusion. D) The rate of diffusion is independent of temperature.

Answer: B

Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule? A) NaCl B) CH4 C) NaOH D) H2O

Answer: B

Which of the following would not be a constituent of a plasma membrane? A) glycoproteins B) messenger RNA C) glycolipids D) phospholipids

Answer: B

Which statement best describes transcytosis? A) storing the contents of the endosome B) transporting an endosome from one side of a cell to the other and releasing the contents by exocytosis C) combining an endosome with a lysosome and degrading or releasing the contents D) recycling the contents of the endosome back to the surface of the cell

Answer: B

Which structures are fingerlike projections that greatly increase the absorbing surface of cells? A) cilia B) microvilli C) flagella D) stereocilia

Answer: B

Select the statement about mixtures that is correct. A) Solutions contain particles that settle out in time. B) A solution contains solvent in large amounts and solute in smaller quantities. C) Suspensions can change reversibly from liquid to solid. D) Suspensions are homogeneous mixtures of two or more components.

Answer: B .

19) Choose the following statement that is NOT completely correct regarding serous membranes. A) Serous membranes are divided into parietal and visceral membranes with a potential space between the two. B) Visceral pericardium covers the surface of the heart, and parietal pericardium lines the walls of the heart. C) Serous membranes secrete a watery lubricating fluid. D) Serosa are very thin, double-layered structures.

Answer: B)

2) One of the functional characteristics of life is irritability. This refers to ________. A) the nervous system causing all living things to sometimes experience anger B) sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them C) the necessity for all organisms to reproduce D) indigestible food residues stimulating the excretory system

Answer: B)

21) What is the main, general purpose of negative feedback? A) to regulate excretion B) to maintain homeostasis C) to control all body system tissues D) to keep the body's sugar high

Answer: B)

25) Which of the following imaging devices would best localize a tumor in a person's brain? A) DSA B) MRI C) X ray D) PET

Answer: B)

29) A good example of a positive feedback mechanism would be ________. A) regulating glucose levels in the blood B) enhancement of labor contractions C) body temperature regulation D) blood calcium level regulation

Answer: B)

37) Which of the following are survival needs of the body? A) nutrients, water, growth, and reproduction B) nutrients, water, atmospheric pressure, and oxygen C) nutrients, water, movement, and reproduction D) water, atmospheric pressure, growth, and movement

Answer: B)

40) In which cavities are the lungs located? A) mediastinum, thoracic, and ventral B) pleural, ventral, and thoracic C) pleural, dorsal, and abdominal D) pericardial, ventral, and thoracic

Answer: B)

42) In which abdominopelvic cavity is the stomach located? A) left lower B) left upper C) right lower D) right upper

Answer: B)

9) The term pollex refers to the ________. A) calf B) thumb C) fingers D) great toe

Answer: B)

Match the following: 110) Structural support of the external ear and other structures that need support with flexibility. A) Reticular tissue B) Elastic cartilage

Answer: B) Elastic cartilage

Match the following: 101) Lines blood vessels and the heart. A) Serous membrane B) Endothelium

Answer: B) Endothelium

Match the following:107) Forms much of the fetal skeleton and covers the articular surfaces of long bones. A) Mesenchyme B) Hyaline cartilage

Answer: B) Hyaline cartilage

Match the regeneration capacity of the following tissues: 108) Skeletal muscle. A) Moderate regenerative ability B) Weak regenerative ability

Answer: B) Weak regenerative ability

________ have a bitter taste, feel slippery, and are proton acceptors.

Answer: Bases

50) How is blood unique among connective tissues?

Answer: Blood does not give mechanical support, its matrix is fluid, the cells are loose, the fibers are soluble, it carries nutrients, waste products, and other substances, and it attaches to several gasses.

71) What forces maintain a steady state "resting" membrane potential?

Answer: Both diffusion and active transport mechanisms operate within the cell membrane to maintain a resting membrane potential.

Match the following regional terms and common terms: 100) Arm.

Answer: Brachial

116) A 45-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital for surgical removal of a tumor on her thyroid gland. The surgeon informs her that she will have only a very small scar. How could this be possible?

Answer: By making a thin incision, the amount of granulation (scar-forming) tissue will be minimal. As the scar tissue beneath matures and contracts, the layer of epithelium thickens and resembles the adjacent tissue. The final result may be only a fine white line

12) An epithelial membrane ________. A) is formed of epithelium and smooth muscle B) usually involves transitional epithelium C) contains simple or stratified epithelia and a basement membrane D) never contains mucus-forming cells

Answer: C

13) Which is true concerning muscle tissue? A) cuboidal shape enhances function B) is a single-celled tissue C) highly cellular and well vascularized D) contains contractile units made of collagen

Answer: C

17) Cell types likely to be seen in areolar connective tissue include all except ________. A) macrophages B) mast cells C) chondrocytes D) fibroblasts

Answer: C

19) Which of the following is not found in the matrix of cartilage but is in bone? A) organic fibers B) lacunae C) blood vessels D) live cells

Answer: C

27)________ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane. A) Stratified columnar B) Transitional C) Pseudostratified columnar D) Stratified cuboidal

Answer: C

3) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium ________. A) is not an epithelial classification B) possesses no goblet cells C) lines the respiratory tract D) aids in digestion

Answer: C

31) Mammary glands exhibit a glandular type called ________. A) simple tubular B) compound tubular C) compound alveolar D) simple alveolar

Answer: C

39)Which of the following would be of most importance to goblet cells and other glandular epithelium? A) lysosomes B) microvilli C) Golgi bodies D) multiple nuclei

Answer: C

A chemical reaction in which bonds are broken is usually associated with ________. A) a synthesis B) forming a larger molecule C) the release of energy D) the consumption of energy

Answer: C

Atom X has 17 protons. How many electrons are in its valence shell? A) 5 B) 10 C) 7 D) 3

Answer: C

If a tRNA had an AGC anticodon, it could attach to a(n) ________ mRNA codon. A) UGA B) TCG C) UCG D) AUG

Answer: C

If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution containing a solute to which the membrane is impermeable, what could happen? A) The cells will shrink at first, but will later reach equilibrium with the surrounding solution and return to their original condition. B) The cells will swell and ultimately burst. C) The cells will lose water and shrink. D) The cells will show no change due to diffusion of both solute and solvent.

Answer: C

In certain kinds of muscle cells, calcium ions are stored in ________. A) both smooth and rough ER B) the cytoplasm C) the smooth ER D) the rough ER

Answer: C

Match the following chemical bonds to the correct description: A bond in which electrons are shared unequally. A) Hydrogen bond B) Nonpolar covalent bond C) Polar covalent bond

Answer: C

Match the following: 124) Dense spherical bodies in the nucleus that are the synthesis site for ribosomal RNA. A) Ribosomes B) Endoplasmic reticulum C) Nucleoli

Answer: C

Passive membrane transport processes include ________. A) consumption of ATP B) the use of transport proteins when moving substances from areas of low to high concentration C) movement of a substance down its concentration gradient D) movement of water from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration

Answer: C

Ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, and the Golgi apparatus functionally act in sequence to synthesize and modify proteins for secretory use (export) only, never for use by the cell. This statement is ________. A) false; lipids, not proteins, are synthesized this way B) false; proteins thus manufactured are for use inside the cell only C) false; integral cell membrane proteins are also synthesized this way D) true

Answer: C

Select the correct statement about isotopes. A) Isotopes occur only in the heavier elements. B) All the isotopes of an element are radioactive. C) Isotopes of the same element have the same atomic number but differ in their atomic masses. D) All the isotopes of an element have the same number of neutrons.

Answer: C

What happens in redox reactions? A) the reaction is always easily reversible B) the electron acceptor is oxidized C) both decomposition and electron exchange occur D) the electron donor is reduced

Answer: C

Which bonds often bind different parts of a molecule into a specific three-dimensional shape? A) Oxygen B) Amino acid C) Hydrogen D) Carbon

Answer: C

Which of the following elements is necessary for proper conduction of nervous impulses? A) I B) Fe C) Na D) P

Answer: C

Which of the following is a neutralization reaction? A) HCl H+ + Cl- B) NH3 + H+ NH4+2 C) HCl + NaOH NaCl + H2O D) NaOH Na+ + OH

Answer: C

Which of the following is a principle of the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane structure? A) The lipid bilayer is a solid at body temperature, thus protecting the cell. B) All proteins associated with the cell membrane are contained in a fluid layer on the outside of the cell. C) Phospholipids form a bilayer that is largely impermeable to water-soluble molecules. D) Phospholipids consist of a polar head and a nonpolar tail made of three fatty acid chains.

Answer: C

Which of the following is an example of a suspension? A) rubbing alcohol B) cytoplasm C) blood D) salt water

Answer: C

Which of the following is true regarding the concentration of solutions? A) To calculate molarity, one must know the atomic weight of the solvent. B) Percent solutions are parts per 1000 parts. C) Molarity is one mole of solute per 1000 ml of solution. D) To calculate molarity, one must know the atomic number of the solute.

Answer: C

Which of the following statements is false? A) Chemical reactions progress at a faster rate when the reacting particles are present in higher numbers. B) Catalysts increase the rate of chemical reactions. C) Larger particles move faster than smaller ones and thus collide more frequently and more forcefully. D) Chemical reactions proceed more quickly at higher temperatures.

Answer: C

Which of these is an inclusion, not an organelle? A) microtubule B) cilia C) melanin D) lysosome

Answer: C

Which property of water is demonstrated when we sweat? A) high heat capacity B) reactivity C) high heat of vaporization D) cushioning E) polar solvent properties

Answer: C

Which protein types are vitally important to cell function in all types of stressful circumstances? A) catalytic proteins B) structural proteins C) molecular chaperones D) regulatory proteins

Answer: C

12) Which of these is not part of the dorsal cavity? A) cranial cavity B) spinal cord C) thoracic cavity D) vertebral cavity

Answer: C)

14) The anatomical position is used ________. A) only when a body is lying down B) rarely, because people don't usually assume this position C) as a standard reference point for directional terms regardless of the actual position of the body D) as the most comfortable way to stand when dissecting a specimen

Answer: C)

20) The single most abundant chemical substance of the body, accounting for 60% to 80% of body weight, is ________. A) protein B) oxygen C) water D) hydrogen

Answer: C)

28) The parietal pleural would represent a serous membrane ________. A) covering individual lungs B) covering the heart C) lining the thoracic cavity D) lining the abdominal cavity

Answer: C)

3) Which of the following describes a parasagittal plane? A) two cuts dividing the body into left and right halves B) a transverse cut just above the knees C) any sagittal plane except the median D) any cut dividing the body into anterior and posterior

Answer: C)

30) Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex: 1. molecules 2. atoms 3. tissues 4. cells 5. Organ A) 2-1-3-4-5 B) 1-2-4-3-5 C) 2-1-4-3-5 D) 1-2-3-4-5

Answer: C)

31) Select the most correct statement. A) Organ systems operate independently of each other to maintain life. B) The endocrine system is not a true structural organ system. C) The immune system is closely associated with the lymphatic system. D) Organ systems can be composed of cells or tissues, but not both.

Answer: C)

32) Which of the following statements is the most correct regarding homeostatic imbalance? A) Positive feedback mechanisms are overwhelmed. B) Negative feedback mechanisms are functioning normally. C) It is considered the cause of most diseases. D) The internal environment is becoming more stable.

Answer: C)

33) What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right, called? A) regional B) transverse C) sagittal D) frontal

Answer: C)

35) Which of the following would not be a functional characteristic of life? A) maintenance of boundaries B) responsiveness to external stimuli C) decay D) movement

Answer: C)

43) Which term means toward or at the back of the body, behind? A) lateral B) distal C) dorsal D) anterior

Answer: C)

5) The cavities housing the eyes are called __________ cavities. A) cranial B) nasal C) orbital D) frontal

Answer: C)

Match the following regional terms and common terms: 107) Head.

Answer: Cephalic

Match the following: When the bonds of ATP are broken, energy is released to do cellular work.

Answer: Chemical energy

Explain why chemical reactions in the body are often irreversible.

Answer: Chemical reactions that release energy cannot be reversed unless energy is put back into the system. Also, the body may use the chemicals solely for its energy, such as glucose, or some reactions produce molecules in excessive quantities (like CO2 and NH4) that the body needs to discard.

54) ________ live in the lacunae of cartilage.

Answer: Chondrocytes

138) Your patient has a respiratory disease that has literally paralyzed the cilia. Explain why this patient would be at an increased risk for a respiratory infection.

Answer: Ciliated cells that live in the respiratory tract propel mucus, laden with dust particles and bacteria, upward and away from the lungs. If the cilia are paralyzed, bacteria remain in the lungs and may cause infection.

Water is a __.

Answer: Compound

Match the following cavities and organs: 106) Brain.

Answer: Cranial

Match the following: 103) Consists of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

Answer: Cutaneous membrane

73) ________ is the division of the cytoplasmic mass into two parts.

Answer: Cytokinesis

10) A multilayered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified as ________. A) transitional B) simple cuboidal C) simple squamous D) stratified squamous

Answer: D

15) What are the three main components of connective tissue? A) collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers B) alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells C) fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts D) ground substance, fibers, and cells

Answer: D

16) Matrix is composed of ________. A) cells and fibers B) all organic compounds C) ground substance and cells D) fibers and ground substance

Answer: D

2) Select the correct statement regarding tissue repair. A) Granulation tissue is another name for a blood clot. B) The clot is formed from dried blood and transposed collagen fibers. C) Granulation tissue is highly susceptible to infection. D) Inflammation causes capillaries to dilate and become permeable.

Answer: D

21) Select the correct statement regarding factors that affect the tissue repair process. A) The health of an individual does not seem to make any difference in the speed of repair. B) The type of tissue injured is not an important factor. C) Nutrition does not seem to influence tissue repair. D) The age of the person is a factor in the repair process.

Answer: D

24) Mesenchymal cells are most commonly found in ________ connective tissue. A) dense regular B) reticular C) areolar D) embryonic

Answer: D

26)Organized groups of cells (plus their intercellular substances) that have a common purpose form a(n) ________. A) organism B) organ system C) organ D) tissue

Answer: D

28) Which cells are commonly found wedged between simple columnar epithelial cells? A) cilia B) mast cells C) macrophages D) goblet cells

Answer: D

36) Which statement best describes connective tissue? A) usually lines a body cavity B) primarily concerned with secretion C) always arranged in a single layer of cells D) usually contains a large amount of matrix

Answer: D

38) How is hyaline cartilage different from elastic or fibrocartilage? A) It is more vascularized. B) It contains more nuclei. C) It has more elastic fibers. D) Fibers are not normally visible.

Answer: D

40) Select the correct statement regarding the cells of connective tissue. A) Chondroblasts are the main cell type of connective tissue proper. B) Connective tissue does not contain cells. C) Connective tissue cells are nondividing. D) "Blast" cells are undifferentiated, actively dividing cells.

Answer: D

41) Select the correct statement regarding multicellular exocrine glands. A) Compound glands are so called because they are constructed from more than one cell type. B) Merocrine glands release their secretion by pinching off part of the cell. C) Exocrine glands always lack ducts. D) The secretory cells of holocrine glands release their product by rupturing.

Answer: D

6) Select the correct statement regarding epithelia. A) Pseudostratified epithelia consist of at least two layers of cells stacked on top of one another. B) Stratified epithelia are tall, narrow cells. C) Simple epithelia form impermeable barriers. D) Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important.

Answer: D

8) Which of the following is true about the mode of secretion of exocrine glands? A) Holocrine cells are slightly damaged by the secretory process, but repair themselves. B) Apocrine cells are destroyed, then replaced, after secretion. C) These glands are ductless. D) Merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process.

Answer: D

A gene can best be defined as ________. A) an RNA messenger that codes for a particular polypeptide B) a three-base triplet that specifies a particular amino acid C) noncoding segments of DNA up to 100,000 nucleotides long D) a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain

Answer: D

An example of a coenzyme is ________. A) iron B) copper C) zinc D) riboflavin (vitamin B2)

Answer: D

Carbohydrates and proteins are built up from their basic building blocks by the ________. A) addition of a carbon atom between each two units B) removal of a nitrogen atom between each two units C) addition of a water molecule between each two units D) removal of a water molecule between each two units

Answer: D

Once solid material is phagocytized and taken into a vacuole, which of the following statements best describes what happens? A) The vacuole remains separated from the cytoplasm and the solid material persists unchanged. B) Nitrogen enters the vacuole and "burns" the enclosed solid material. C) A ribosome enters the vacuole and uses the amino acids in the "invader" to form new protein. D) A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material.

Answer: D

Riboswitches are folded RNAs that act as switches to turn protein synthesis on or off in response to _________. A) specific codes from the DNA B) specific tRNAs C) the presence or absence of ubiquitins D) changes in the environment

Answer: D

The RNA responsible for bringing the amino acids to the "factory" site for protein formation is ________. A) ssRNA B) mRNA C) rRNA D) tRNA

Answer: D

The chemical symbol O:O means ________. A) zero equals zero B) this is an ionic bond with two shared electrons C) both atoms are bonded and have zero electrons in the outer orbit D) the atoms are double bonded

Answer: D

The numbers listed represent the number of electrons in the first, second, and third energy levels, respectively. On this basis, which of the following is an unstable or reactive atom? A) 2, 8, 8 B) 2 C) 2, 8 D) 2, 8, 1

Answer: D

What level of protein synthesis is represented by the coiling of the protein chain backbone into an alpha helix? A) quaternary structure B) tertiary structure C) primary structure D) secondary structure

Answer: D

Which of the following does not serve as a signal for cell division? A) surface-to-volume ratio B) joining of cyclins and Cdks C) contact inhibition D) repressor genes

Answer: D

Which of the following is not a factor that binds cells together? A) glycoproteins in the glycocalyx B) special membrane junctions C) wavy contours of the membranes of adjacent cells D) glycolipids in the glycocalyx

Answer: D

Which of the following is not considered a factor in influencing a reaction? A) concentration B) temperature C) particle size D) time

Answer: D

Which of the following is not true of proteins? A) Some types are called enzymes. B) Their function depends on the three-dimensional shape. C) They may be denatured or coagulated by heat or acidity. D) They appear to be the molecular carriers of the coded hereditary information.

Answer: D

Which of the following is true regarding the generation of a membrane potential? A) The maintenance of the potential is based exclusively on diffusion processes. B) When the sodium-potassium pump is activated, potassium is pumped into the cell twice as fast as the sodium is pumped out, thus causing the membrane potential. C) In the polarized state, sodium and potassium ion concentrations are in static equilibrium. D) Both potassium and sodium ions can "leak" through the cell membrane due to diffusion.

Answer: D

Which of the following statements is most correct regarding the intracellular chemical signals known as "second messengers"? A) Second messengers usually inactivate protein kinase enzymes. B) Second messengers usually act to remove nitric oxide (NO) from the cell. C) Second messengers act through receptors called K-proteins. D) Cyclic AMP and calcium may be second messengers.

Answer: D

Which transport process is the main mechanism for the movement of most macromolecules by body cells? A) phagocytosis B) pinocytosis C) secondary active transport D) receptor-mediated endocytosis

Answer: D

1) What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called? A) transverse B) sagittal C) median D) frontal

Answer: D)

10) The study of the heart may incorporate many aspects of anatomy but as a whole you would say it is __________ anatomy. A) developmental B) microscopic C) systemic D) gross

Answer: D)

13) An increased rate of breathing as a result of an increased buildup of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream would be best described as an example of ________. A) metabolism B) responsiveness C) maintaining boundaries D) excretion of metabolic waste

Answer: D)

15) Which of the following organs or structures would be found in the left iliac region? A) stomach B) appendix C) liver D) intestines

Answer: D)

16) An oblique cut is one that is cut ________. A) vertical right and left B) perpendicular to vertical and horizontal C) horizontal right and left D) diagonally between the vertical and horizontal

Answer: D)

18) Which of the following describes the operation of the heart and blood vessels? A) systemic anatomy B) cardiovascular physiology C) systemic physiology D) cardiovascular anatomy

Answer: D)

36) Histology would be best defined as a study of ________. A) cells B) cell chemistry C) the gross structures of the body D) tissues

Answer: D)

41) Subdivisions of anatomy include which of the following? A) gross, macroscopic, visual, and microscopic B) regional, surface, visual, and microscopic C) gross, regional, dissection, and surface D) gross, regional, systemic, and surface

Answer: D)

7) The dorsal body cavity is the site of which of the following? A) intestines B) liver C) lungs D) brain

Answer: D)

Match the following: 116) Type of anchoring junction.

Answer: Desmosomes

Match the following systems and organs : 119) Esophagus, large intestine, rectum.

Answer: Digestive

Match the regional/directional terms and examples: 118) The fingers are ________ to the wrist.

Answer: Distal

Which of the following is not a role of molecular chaperonins? A) help to translocate proteins and certain metal ions across cell membranes B) aid the desired folding and association process of polypeptides C) promote the breakdown of damaged or denatured proteins D) prevent accidental, premature, or incorrect folding of polypeptide chains E) act as a biological catalyst

Answer: E

Represented by the flow of charged particles along a conductor, or the flow of ions across a membrane is what type of energy.

Answer: Electrical energy

What is Carbon.

Answer: Element

Match the following systems and organs: 123) Adrenal glands, pancreas, pituitary.

Answer: Endocrine

Match the following systems to their functions: 112) Controls the body with chemical molecules called hormones.

Answer: Endocrine

Can be measured only by its effects on matter.

Answer: Energy

42) Explain what is meant by epithelial tissue being avascular but innervated.

Answer: Epithelial tissue contains no blood vessels but is supplied by nerve fibers.

112)In adult humans, most cancers are carcinomas or adenocarcinomas. These include cancers of the skin, lung, colon, breast, and prostate. Which of the four basic tissue types is involved? Why do you think this is so?

Answer: Epithelium gives rise to most cancers. This is probably because epithelial cells divide more, leading to more opportunity for damage to growth control mechanisms, and because epithelia are more often in contact with environmental insults such as ultraviolet radiation and carcinogens.

49) What are cell exons and introns?

Answer: Exons are amino acid-specifying informational sequences in genes. Introns are noncoding gene segments that provide a reservoir of ready-to-use DNA segments for genome evolution and a source of a large variety of RNA molecules.

84) TRUE/FALSE The right hypochondriac region contains the majority of the stomach.

Answer: False

86) TRUE/FALSE The serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity wall is called visceral peritoneum.

Answer: False

93) TRUE/FALSE Embryology concerns the structural changes that occur in an individual from conception through old age.

Answer: False

95) TRUE/FALSE The elbow is proximal to the shoulder.

Answer: False

T OR F: A dipeptide can be broken into two amino acids by dehydration synthesis.

Answer: False

T OR F: About 60% to 80% of the volume of most living cells consists of organic compounds.

Answer: False

T OR F: Chemical properties are determined primarily by neutrons.

Answer: False

T OR F: Covalent bonds are generally less stable than ionic bonds.

Answer: False

T OR F: Hydrogen bonds are comparatively strong bonds.

Answer: False

T OR F: Isotopes differ from each other only in the number of electrons contained.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE 100) In their resting state, all body cells exhibit a resting membrane potential ranging from -50 to about +50 millivolts.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE 102) The genetic information is coded in DNA by the regular alternation of sugar and phosphate molecules.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE 103) The glycocalyx is often referred to as the "cell coat," which is somewhat fuzzy and sticky with numerous cholesterol chains sticking out from the surface of the cell membrane.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE 108) In osmosis, movement of water occurs toward the solution with the lower solute concentration.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE 93) Facilitated diffusion always requires a carrier protein.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE 94) Telomeres are the regions of chromosomes that code for the protein ubiquitin.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE 95) Chromatin consists of DNA and RNA.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE 96) Aquaporins are believed to be present in red blood cells and kidney tubules, but very few other cells in the body.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE 98) Microfilaments are thin strands of the contractile protein myosin.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE. 72)Achilles was wounded by damage to the tendon connecting his calf muscles to his heel. This and all tendons are composed mainly of dense irregular connective tissue.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE. 73) A major characteristic of fibrocartilage is its unique amount of flexibility and elasticity.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE. 75)Connective tissues that possess a large quantity of collagen fibers often provide the framework for organs such as the spleen and lymph nodes.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE. 78) Endocrine glands are often called ducted glands.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE. 80)The basic difference between dense irregular and dense regular connective tissues is in the amount of elastic fibers and adipose cells present.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE. 81) Most connective tissues have regenerative capacity, while most epithelial tissues do not.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE. 83) Sweat glands are apocrine glands.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE. 84) Endothelium covers and lines internal cavities such as the pleural and peritoneal cavities.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE. 86) Salivary glands exhibit simple tubuloalveolar glandular arrangement.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE. 87) Intercalated discs and striations are found in skeletal muscle.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE. 92)Stratified cuboidal epithelium is moderately rare in the body and found only in the pharynx, larynx, and anorectal junction.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE. 93) Nervous tissue consists mainly of neurons and collagen fibers.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE. 94)Merocrine glands produce their secretions by accumulating their secretions internally and then rupturing the cell.

Answer: False

72) What is the common route of entry for flu viruses into a cell?

Answer: Flu viruses and diphtheria toxins use receptor-mediated endocytosis. The virus can attach to the receptors or to the substances the receptors accept to "hitch a ride" into the cell.

58) Why are free radicals so dangerous to cells, and how are they dealt with by the body?

Answer: Free radicals are highly reactive chemicals that cause havoc in any cellular environment by reacting with things they should not. Cells with peroxisomes have enzymes specific to reducing free radicals into less reactive chemicals.

63) How are the products of free ribosomes different from membrane-bound ribosomes?

Answer: Free ribosomes make soluble proteins that function in the cytosol. Membrane-bound ribosomes produce proteins that are to be used on the cell membrane or exported from the cell.

Match the following regional terms and common terms: 113) Buttock.

Answer: Gluteal

113) Explain why an open wound would need a bed of granulation tissue for wound healing to occur.

Answer: Granulation tissue contains capillaries that grow in nearby areas and lay down a new capillary bed. This means the wound bed has a meshwork of capillaries that provide oxygen-rich blood to the wound for healing.

What properties does water have that make it a very versatile fluid?

Answer: High heat capacity, high heat of vaporization, polarity and solvent properties, reactivity, and cushioning.

71) What can happen when the usual negative feedback mechanisms are overwhelmed and destructive positive feedback mechanisms take over?

Answer: Homeostatic imbalances increase our risk for illness and produce the changes we associate with aging.

Why must a normal body temperature be maintained in order for chemical reactions to be continued at life-sustaining rates?

Answer: If body temperature is too low, chemical reactions slow and eventually stop. If body temperature is too high, chemical reactions speed up and body proteins lose their normal shape, resulting in loss of function.

60) How is epithelial tissue the opposite of connective tissue?

Answer: In epithelial tissue the cells are packed together very tightly. Epithelial tissue is avascular. Epithelial tissue has three cell types that cover or line things and make tubes. Epithelial tissue has no fibers and it tends to be polar. Connective tissue has cells spaced far apart and is highly vascular (except cartilage). The cells of connective tissue vary greatly in shape and size. Connective tissue glues other tissues together and has three fiber types. Connective tissue tends to be nonpolar. Connective tissue has a large amount of ground substance; epithelial tissue does not.

Match the following systems to their functions: 124) Protects underlying organs from mechanical damage and synthesizes vitamin D.

Answer: Integumentary

A bond in which electrons are completely lost or gained by the atoms involved.

Answer: Ionic bond

47) How is the resting potential formed? How is resting potential maintained?

Answer: It is formed by diffusion of ions resulting in ionic imbalances that polarize the membrane. It is maintained by active transport processes.

75) What does gross anatomy study?

Answer: Larger structures of the body that can be seen with the naked eye.

115) Without macrophages, wound healing is delayed. Why?

Answer: Macrophages are large, irregularly shaped cells that act as key defenders that avidly phagocytize a broad variety of foreign materials, ranging from foreign molecules to entire bacteria to dust particles. This "big eater" also disposes of dead tissue cells, which helps to clean out the wound, allowing for granulation tissue to form.

Although a man who weighs 175 pounds on Earth would be lighter on the moon and heavier on Jupiter, his ________ would not be different.

Answer: Mass

Anything that occupies space and has mass.

Answer: Matter

Legs moving the pedals of a bicycle is what type of energy.

Answer: Mechanical energy

Match the regional/directional terms and examples: 103) The bridge of the nose is ________ to the left eye.

Answer: Medial

Match the following: 118) Chromosomes align on the spindle equator.

Answer: Metaphase

86) ________ are hollow tubes made of spherical protein subunits called tubulins.

Answer: Microtubules

141) Research shows that neurofibrillary tangles are the primary cause of Alzheimer's disease. Neurofibrillary tangles are associated with microtubules. Based on your knowledge of microtubules, explain what may happen to microtubules to cause Alzheimer's disease.

Answer: Microtubules determine the overall shape of the cell, among other things. They are dynamic organelles constantly growing from the centrosome, dissembling, and then reassembling. In Alzheimer's disease the structure of the microtubule collapses.

75) Other than the nucleus, which organelle has its own DNA?

Answer: Mitochondria.

Blood is considered to be what?

Answer: Mixture

Smallest particle of a compound that still retains its properties.

Answer: Molecule

59) Why can we say that cells are protein factories?

Answer: Most of the metabolic machinery of the cell is involved in protein synthesis since structural proteins constitute most of the cell dry material and functional proteins direct all cellular activities.

Match the following systems to their functions: 117) Directly causes mechanical motion.

Answer: Muscular

Match the following examples of feedback mechanisms: 97) Blood pressure

Answer: Negative feedback

Match the following examples of feedback mechanisms: 98) Blood glucose levels

Answer: Negative feedback

Match the following systems to their functions: 102) Responds to environmental changes by transmitting electrical impulses.

Answer: Nervous

81) Are Brownian motion, diffusion, and osmosis seen only in living tissue?

Answer: No. Because they are passive processes that do not require energy, they can occur inthe absence of any cellular processes.

137) Describe the difference in cell division between normal cells and cancer cells.

Answer: Normal cells divide in two distinct events-mitosis and cytokinesis. Cancer cells divide wildly, which makes them dangerous to their host.

Match the following regional terms and common terms: 111) Knee (anterior aspect).

Answer: Patellar

How can phospholipids form a film when mixed in water?

Answer: Phospholipids have both polar and nonpolar ends. The polar end interacts with water, leaving the nonpolar end oriented in the opposite direction.

________ is explained by chemical and physical principles and is concerned with the function of specific organs or organic systems.

Answer: Physiology

What is the major difference between polar and nonpolar covalent bonds?

Answer: Polar bonds have an unequal sharing of electrons resulting in a slight negative charge at one end of the molecule and a slight positive charge at the other end. Nonpolar bonds have an equal sharing of electrons, resulting in a balanced charge among the atoms.

Match the following examples of feedback mechanisms: 115) Blood clotting

Answer: Positive feedback

Match the following examples of feedback mechanisms: 126) Delivering a baby

Answer: Positive feedback

Explain the difference between potential and kinetic energy.

Answer: Potential energy is inactive stored energy that has potential to do work. Kinetic energy is energy in action.

Match the regional/directional terms and examples: 105) The upper arm is ________ to the forearm.

Answer: Proximal

Energy that travels in waves. Part of the electromagnetic spectrum.

Answer: Radiant energy

Match the regeneration capacity of the following tissues: 104) Areolar connective tissue.

Answer: Regenerates extremely well

64) ________ physiology concerns urine production and kidney function.

Answer: Renal

Match the following: 117) Forms part of the protein synthesis site in the cytoplasm.

Answer: Ribosomal RNA

55) ________ muscle cells are multinucleated.

Answer: Skeletal

Match the following systems to their functions: 114) Provides support and levers for muscles to work on.

Answer: Skeletal

84) How are peroxisomes different from lysosomes?

Answer: Some of the peroxisomes are oxidases that use oxygen to detoxify harmfulsubstances. They are very good at neutralizing free radicals. Peroxisomes divide by simply budding. Lysosomes have powerful hydrolytic enzymes that will pretty much destroy anything they come in contact with. They are manufactured by the Golgi apparatus.

51)What is a simple method of telling the difference between stratified squamous epithelium and transitional epithelium?

Answer: Stratified squamous epithelium changes cell shape from the basement membrane to the surface. At the basement membrane the cells tend to be columnar or cuboidal and flatten out as they work their way to the surface. Transitional epithelium has cells that are pretty much the same shape from the basement membrane to the surface. The surface cells are generally the largest cells. The cells change their shape according to the pressure applied.

Match the regional/directional terms and examples: 110) The heart is ________ to the stomach.

Answer: Superior

Heterogeneous, will settle.

Answer: Suspensions

64) Tendon tears or breaks are difficult to repair both physiologically and surgically. Why?

Answer: Tendons are composed of dense regular connective tissue, which consists of densely packed, parallel connective tissue fibers. This type of tissue has relatively few cells and vascular supply is poor; consequently, repair is slow. Because of the structure of the tissue, surgical repair can be compared to attempting to suture two bristle brushes together

What happens when globular proteins are denatured?

Answer: The active sites are destroyed.

61) Fully describe the anatomical position for the human body.

Answer: The body is erect, arms hanging at the sides, palms forward, and thumbs pointed away from the midline.

66) What are the primary germ layers during embryonic development and what do they ultimately produce?

Answer: The ectoderm produces skin, the nervous system, and all tubes opening to the outside. The mesoderm produces muscles and connective tissue. The endoderm produces all internal organs.

114) A 6-year-old child fell off his bike and scraped his knee. Describe the first stage of wound healing.

Answer: The first stage is the inflammatory stage, characterized by hemostasis (cessation of bleeding) and formation of blood clots and phagocytosis by leukocytes and macrophages.

64) Explain the term genetic code. What does it code for? What are the letters of the code?

Answer: The genetic code is the information encoded in the nucleotide base sequence of DNA. A sequence of three bases, called a triplet, specifies amino acid in a protein. The letters of the code are the four nucleotide bases of DNA designated as A, T, C, and G.

68) What is the goal of all of the negative feedback mechanisms of the body?

Answer: The goal is to prevent sudden severe changes within the body.

72) The higher we go in the mountains, the greater the atmospheric pressure, which causes a loss of oxygen. Comment on this statement.

Answer: The statement is backwards-the higher we go, the less atmospheric pressure, therefore less oxygen.

48) Why are the abdominopelvic cavity organs the most vulnerable in an automobile accident?

Answer: The walls of the abdominal cavity are formed only by trunk muscles and are not reinforced by bone. The pelvic organs receive a somewhat greater degree of protection from the bony pelvis.

49) What is the function of the serous membranes?

Answer: They act to reduce friction and allow the organs to slide across cavity walls.

51) What are lipid rafts?

Answer: They are assemblies of saturated phospholipids associated with sphingolipids and cholesterol.

Match the following cavities and organs: 99) Heart.

Answer: Thoracic

Match the following regional terms and common terms: 122) Chest.

Answer: Thoracic

Match the following: 121) Help prevent molecules from passing through the extracellular space between adjacent cells.

Answer: Tight junctions

61) Describe two important functions of the Golgi apparatus.

Answer: To modify, sort, and package proteins.

Match the following: 119) Act as "interpreter" molecules that recognize specific amino acids and nucleotide base sequences.

Answer: Transfer RNA

82) TRUE/FALSE It is important for any organism to maintain its boundaries, so that its internal environment remains distinct from the external environment surrounding it.

Answer: True

83) TRUE/FALSE Lungs carry out an excretory function.

Answer: True

85) TRUE/FALSE The anatomical position means the body is standing at attention with the palms facing forward and the thumbs pointing away from the body.

Answer: True

87) TRUE/FALSE The epigastric region is located superior to the umbilical region.

Answer: True

88) TRUE/FALSE Without some sort of negative feedback mechanism, it would be impossible to keep our body chemistry in balance.

Answer: True

89) TRUE/FALSE A major function of serous membranes is to decrease friction.

Answer: True

90) TRUE/FALSE Regardless of the variable being regulated, all homeostatic control mechanisms have at least three interdependent components.

Answer: True

91) TRUE/FALSE A tissue consists of groups of similar cells that have a common function.

Answer: True

92) TRUE/FALSE Positive feedback mechanisms tend to increase the original stimulus.

Answer: True

94) TRUE/FALSE Imaging is useful in discovering obstructed blood supplies in organs and tissues.

Answer: True

T OR F: A charged particle is generally called an ion.

Answer: True

T OR F: A molecule consisting of one carbon atom and two oxygen atoms is correctly written as CO2.

Answer: True

T OR F: All organic compounds contain carbon.

Answer: True

T OR F: Alpha particles, although relatively weak energy particles, are second only to smoking as a cause of lung cancer.

Answer: True

T OR F: Buffers resist abrupt and large changes in the pH of the body by releasing or binding ions.

Answer: True

T OR F: Current information theorizes that omega-3 fatty acids decrease the risk of heart disease.

Answer: True

T OR F: Emulsions and colloids are the same thing.

Answer: True

T OR F: Glucose is an example of a monosaccharide.

Answer: True

T OR F: Mixtures are combinations of elements or compounds that are physically blended together but are not bound by chemical bonds.

Answer: True

T OR F: No chemical bonding occurs between the components of a mixture.

Answer: True

T OR F: The atomic weight is only an average of relative weights of an atom and its isotopes, and it may vary from the weight of a specific isotope.

Answer: True

T OR F: The fact that no chemical bonding occurs between the components of a mixture is the chief difference between mixtures and compounds.

Answer: True

T OR F: The pH of body fluids must remain fairly constant for the body to maintain homeostasis.

Answer: True

TRUE/FALSE 101) Each daughter cell resulting from mitotic cell division has exactly as many chromosomes as the parent cell.

Answer: True

TRUE/FALSE 104) Final preparation for cell division is made during the cell life cycle subphase called G2.

Answer: True

TRUE/FALSE 105) Apoptosis is programmed cell suicide, but cancer cells fail to undergo apoptosis.

Answer: True

TRUE/FALSE 106) Diffusion is always from areas of greater to areas of lesser concentration.

Answer: True

TRUE/FALSE 109) Interstitial fluid represents one type of extracellular material.

Answer: True

TRUE/FALSE 110) Microtubules are hollow tubes made of subunits of the protein tubulin.

Answer: True

TRUE/FALSE 111) Nitric oxide may act as a biological messenger.

Answer: True

TRUE/FALSE 115) A process by which large particles may be taken into the cell for food, protection of the body, or for disposing of old or dead cells is called phagocytosis.

Answer: True

TRUE/FALSE 97) Only one cell type in the human body has a flagellum.

Answer: True

TRUE/FALSE 99) The cell (plasma) membrane normally contains substantial amounts of cholesterol.

Answer: True

TRUE/FALSE. 71) Functions of connective tissues include binding, support, insulation, and protection.

Answer: True

TRUE/FALSE. 74) Squamous cells are flattened and scale like when mature.

Answer: True

TRUE/FALSE. 76) Simple cuboidal epithelia are usually associated with secretion and absorption.

Answer: True

TRUE/FALSE. 77) Goblet cells are found with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.

Answer: True

TRUE/FALSE. 79) Epithelial tissues always exhibit polarity; that is, they have a free surface and a basal surface.

Answer: True

TRUE/FALSE. 82)Depending on the functional state of the bladder, transitional epithelium may resemble stratified squamous or stratified cuboidal epithelium.

Answer: True

TRUE/FALSE. 85) Macrophages are found in areolar and lymphatic tissues.

Answer: True

TRUE/FALSE. 88) Smooth muscle cells possess central nuclei but lack striations.

Answer: True

TRUE/FALSE. 89) The shock-absorbing pads between the vertebrae are formed of fibrocartilage.

Answer: True

TRUE/FALSE. 90) Brown fat is frequently deposited between the shoulder blades of infants.

Answer: True

TRUE/FALSE. 91) Cartilage tissue tends to heal less rapidly than bone tissue.

Answer: True

TRUE/FALSE. 95) Blood is considered a type of connective tissue.

Answer: True

Match the regeneration capacity of the following tissues: 102) Cardiac muscle.

Answer: Virtually no functional regenerative ability

66) What does the "principle of complementarity of structures and function" mean?

Answer: What a structure can do depends on its specific form, or "structure determines function."

62) Why can we say that a cell without a nucleus will ultimately die?

Answer: Without a nucleus, a cell cannot make proteins, nor can it replace any enzymes or other cell structures (which are continuously recycled). Additionally, such a cell could not replicate.

67) Can lungs carry out excretory functions? Explain your answer.

Answer: Yes, carbon dioxide is a metabolic waste the lungs excrete.

What does the polar end of a phospholipid contain?

Answer: a phosphorus-containing group

What is the pathway between the receptor and the control center in the reflex pathway called?

Answer: afferent pathway

91) Water may move through membrane pores constructed by transmembrane proteins called________.

Answer: aquaporins

Hydrogen bonds are more like a type of weak ________ than true bonds.

Answer: attraction

56) All epithelial tissue rests upon a(n) ________ composed of connective tissue.

Answer: basement membrane

48) Cardiac muscle tissue is single nucleated, has intercalated discs, and is ________.

Answer: branched Explanation:

Weak acids and bases make good ________.

Answer: buffers

47) The term that describes the heel region is ________.

Answer: calcaneal

78) What factors contribute to the fragility of the lysosome and subsequent cell autolysis?

Answer: cell injury, cell oxygen deprivation, presence of excessive amounts of vitamin A in the cell

A holoenzyme is composed of an apoenzyme and a(n) ________.

Answer: cofactor

45) The salivary glands are a good example of a(n) ________ exocrine gland.

Answer: compound tubuloalveolar

80) A ________ is a channel between cells.

Answer: connexon

Molecules such as methane that are made of atoms that share electrons have ________ bonds.

Answer: covalent

In a DNA molecule, guanine would connect to ________.

Answer: cytosine

AB A + B is an example of a(n) ________ reaction.

Answer: decomposition

82) The process of discharging particles from inside a cell to the outside is called ________.

Answer: exocytosis

Starch is the stored carbohydrate in plants, while ________ is the stored carbohydrate in animals.

Answer: glycogen

Which metals have a toxic effect on the body?

Answer: heavy

68) In order for the DNA molecule to get "short and fat" to become a chromosome, it must firstwrap around small molecules called ________.

Answer: histones

What is a dynamic equilibrium of your internal environment termed?

Answer: homeostasis

83) A red blood cell would swell if its surrounding solution were ________.

Answer: hypotonic

65) List the steps in the process of transcription.

Answer: initiation, elongation, transcription

88) The metabolic or growth phase of a cell life cycle is called ________.

Answer: interphase

What type of chemical bond can form between an element with 11 protons and an element with 17 protons?

Answer: ionic

69) Briefly describe the glycocalyx and its functions.

Answer: it is the sticky, carbohydrate-rich area on the cell surface. It helps bind cells together and provides a highly specific biological marker by which cells can recognize each other.

140) Your patient has the flu and reports 5-6 loose stools a day. He has experienced an isotonic fluid volume loss. Explain what an isotonic fluid loss means.

Answer: it occurs when water and electrolytes are lost in equal proportion.

53) The uppermost layer of skin is composed of ________.

Answer: keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

60) What broad term covers all chemical reactions that occur within the body cells?

Answer: metabolism

The ________ cavity contains tiny bones that transmit sound vibrations to the organ of hearing in the inner ear.

Answer: middle ear

48) Aerobic cellular respiration occurs in the ________.

Answer: mitochondria

45) What type of homeostatic feedback reflex is the withdrawal reflex?

Answer: negative feedback

56) What are nucleolar organizer regions?

Answer: nuclear regions containing the DNA that issues genetic instructions for synthesizing ribosomal RNA

76) The term that describes the back of the elbow is ________.

Answer: olecranal

An atom with three electrons would have a valence of ________.

Answer: one

How many phosphates would AMP have attached to it?

Answer: one

The five cavities of the head are cranial, oral, nasal, middle ear, and ________.

Answer: orbital

79) Which cavity contains the bladder, some reproductive organs, and the rectum?

Answer: pelvic

52)Macrophage-like cells are found in many different tissues, and may have specific names that reflect their location or specializations. What is the one functional characteristic common to all macrophage-like cells?

Answer: phagocytosis

80) Which feedback mechanism causes the variable to deviate further and further from its original value or range?

Answer: positive feedback

The atomic number is equal to the number of ________.

Answer: protons (and electrons)

50) The elbow is ________ to the wrist.

Answer: proximal

Which body system would be most affected by a lower than normal atmospheric pressure?

Answer: respiratory system

65) The ability to sense changes in the environment and respond to them is called ________.

Answer: responsiveness or irritability

62) Kidney tubules are composed of ________ epithelium.

Answer: simple cuboidal

66) The most common extracellular ion is ________.

Answer: sodium

59) Similar cells that have a common function are called ________.

Answer: tissues

76) The RNA that has an anticodon and attaches to a specific amino acid is ________ RNA.

Answer: transfer

57) Multiple rows of cells covering a tissue in which the cells are the same shape from the basement membrane to the surfaces would be ________ epithelia.

Answer: transitional

63) What is the serous membrane that covers the intestines called?

Answer: visceral

69) What is the single most abundant chemical substance in the body?

Answer: water

Which muscle cell type as visible striations but is NOT under voluntary control?

Cardiac

Glycocalyx

Composed mostly of carbohydrates

S -

DNA replicates itself. New histones are made and assembled into chromatin.

Osmosis

Diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane; aquaporin

Membrane Potential

Electrical potential energy resulting from the separation of oppositely charged ions across the plasma membrane. At rest membrane potentials are typically negative ranging from -50 to -100mV. More anions concentrated along the internal surface of the membrane and more cations on the external surface.

G2 -

Enzymes and proteins are synthesized and centriole replication is completed.This is the final phase of interphase.

Which tissue type consists of a sheet of cells that covers a body surface or lines a body cavity?

Epithelial Tissue

secondary active transport

Form of active transport which does not use ATP as an energy source; rather, transport is coupled to ion diffusion down a concentration gradient established by primary active transport; for example if sodium is moving down its concentration gradient, glucose will move with it but against its own concentration gradient Sodium moves from high to low from inside the cell to the outside and glucose moves in the same direction out of the cell even though its moving from a low concentration to a high concentration

___ like sagittal planed, lie vertically. However, divide body into anterior and posterior parts

Frontal planes or coronal plane

the navel is ______ to the chin

Inferior (caudal)

Your patient doesn't understand why it takes so long for his ACL tear to heal. What is your best explanation?

Ligaments liek the ACL don't have a good blood supply and therefore take much longer to heal than tissues or glands with more blood vessels.

Several diseases are characterized by fibrosis, which occurs when fibroblasts produce an abnormal amount of connective tissue. Where would fibrosis most critically affect the function of epithelial tissue supported by lamina propria?

Lungs

A sagittal plane that lies exactly in the midline is the ___

Median plane

Mesenchyme

Middle portion of unspecialized mesoderm from which cartilage, bone, and blood develop

Glycoprotein

Molecule made primarily of amino acids with carbohydrate side chains

Diffusion

Movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

Facilitated Diffusion

Movement of specific molecules across cell membranes through protein channels

Nucle

Nucleus or nuclear

Active Transport Processes

Primary active transport, secondary active transport, endocytosis, exocytosis

Exocytosis

Process by which a cell releases large amounts of material from a vesicle to the outside of the cell, an active transport process

Lysosomes

Serve as the cell's garbage disposers, breaking down unwanted materials. A problem with this organelle could lead to hunter and hurler syndromes which are caused by an inability of cells to break down and recycle mucopolysaccharides found in the extracellular areas of the body

The proximal tubule of the nephron (kidney tubule) in the kidney is composed of which type of epithelium?

Simple cuboidal epithelium

Which of the three muscle cell types as multiple nuclei?

Skeletal

Using your hospital's information portal, your patient reviews the report from her recent biopsy, which includes a reference to "smooth muscle". She asks you if this means her muscles are abnormal. What is the best explanation?

Smooth muscle tissue controls many involuntary functions. Unlike the muscles that control voluntary movement and the heart, it has no "stripes" or striations and so it is "smooth".

Which part of the neuron (a specialized nerve cell) receives signals from other cells and is also the main metabolic region of the neuron?

Soma

Drinking alcohol causes dehydration, making the blood hypertonic. What is the consequence of hypertonic blood?

The blood is hypertonic compared to the interstitial fluid. The IF has a greater concentration of water. Water will move out of the IF and into the blood. As water leaves the IF, it becomes hypertonic compared to the cells. This causes the cells to lose water to the IF and shrivel, or crenate.

If a person is severely dehydrated what will happen to their cells?

The extracellular fluid becomes hypertonic to the intracellular fluid. So the hypertonic extracellular fluid will draw water out of the hypotonic intracellular fluid and the cells will shrink

Posterior (dorsal)

Toward or at the back of the body; behind

___ runs horizontally from right to left, dividing the body into superior and inferior parts

Transverse planes or cross section

Primary active transport

active transport that moves ions or small molecules across a membrane and may create a difference in charge across that membrane; uses atp

Mitochondrial diseases

affect energy production and typically the tissues with the highest demands are affected. Symptoms could include muscle weakness, digestive problems, seizures, etc.

anti

against, opposite

facilitated diffusion

allows molecules that cannot pass through the lipid component of the membrane to pass through via a more compatible protein channel or carrier. This includes ions and polar molecules.

the breastbone is _____ to the spine

anterior (ventral)

Stratified epithelia

any tissues that exist in layers and form linings or coverings

What are cell Exons ions?

are amino acid-specifying informational sequences in genes.

What are cell Introns ions?

are noncoding gene segments that provide a reservoir of ready-to-use DNA segments for genome evolution and a source of a large variety of RNA molecules.

Inferior (caudal)

away from the head end or toward the lower part of a structure or the body; below

Lateral

away from the midline of the body; on the outer side of

intermediate

between a more medial and a more lateral structure

the knee is ___ to the thigh

distal

Distal

farther from the origin of a body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk

The collarbone is ___ between the breastbone and shoulder

intermediate

Osmotic pressure

is created by different concentrations of molecules in a solution separated by the cell membrane.

Hydrostatic pressure

is the pressure of water exerted on the cell membrane.

In general, to maintain homeostasis the relationship between our intracellular fluid and extracellular fluid should be?

isotonic to each other; at equilibrium

the arms are _____ to the chest

lateral

hypotonic

low solute concentration to which it's being compared

the heart is _____ to the arm

medial

Simple Diffusion

movement of a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration; must be able to pass the plasma membrane (lipid soluble); like another lipid

All other sagittal planes, offset from the midline, are _____

parasagittal planes

the heart is _____ to the breastbone

posterior (dorsal)

Endocytosis

process by which a cell takes in material in a vesicle which is an infolding in the cell membrane, this is an active transport process

Autophagy

process during which a cell eats itself

Crenulation

process of cell losing water and shrinking

the elbow is _______ to the wrist

proximal

What is required for osmosis to occur?

selectively permeable membrane, water, concentration gradient

auto

self or self acting

Factors influencing the rate of diffusion

small molecule size, high temperature, higher concentration all increase rate of diffusion

Nucleoli

small structures in the nucleus of cells responsible for producing ribosomal subunits

causes of smokers cough

smoking damages the cilia, rendering them unable to sweep mucus out of the respiratory passages, resulting in coughing

isotonic

solute concentration outside the cell is equal to the solute concentration inside a cell

the skin is ________ to the skeletal muscles

superficial (external)

Medial

toward or at the midline of the body; on the inner side of

Superior (cranial)

toward the head end or upper part of a structure or the body; above

Fibrocartilage

type of cartilage with a net of collagen fibers to help resist compression and tension

Reticular connective tissue

type of connective tissue that forms a structural net to support other cells

TRUE/FALSE 112) Most organelles are bounded by a membrane that is quite different in structure from the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE 114) DNA transcription is another word for DNA replication.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE 107) DNA contains "dark matter" that codes for specific structural proteins.

Answer: False

TRUE/FALSE 113) The orderly sequence of the phases of mitosis is prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

Answer: True

53) Two very important second messengers used in the G protein-linked receptor mechanismare cyclic AMP and ________.

Answer: ionic calcium

24) ________ cavities are spaces within joints. A) Orbital B) Oral C) Synovial D) Nasal

Answer: C)

26) A structure that is composed of two or more tissues would be a(n) ________. A) organ system B) complex tissue C) organ D) complex cell

Answer: C)

27) Average body temperature is ________ degrees centigrade. A) 68 B) 47 C) 37 D) 98

Answer: C)

T OR F: Lipids are a poor source of stored energy.

Answer: False

What materials must be provided to damaged tissues to promote healing?

1. Oxygen 2. Nutrients

Endocytosis

Process of bringing substances into a cell.

___ is a vertical plane that divides the body into right and left parts

Sagittal plane

The epithelium of the esophagus is composed of which type of epithelial tissue?

Stratified squamous epithelium

Glyco

Sugar

the head is _______ to the abdomen

Superior (cranial)

The wall of the alveolus (air sac) in the lung is composed of which type of epithelium?

Simple Squamous Epithelium

What are the functions of lipid rafts?

They are concentrating platforms for molecules needed for cell signaling.

Which types of cell junctions are needed in a mucosal membrane, such as the digestive tract, to keep the digestive enzymes, juices, and bacteria from leaking out?

Tight Junctions

Cilia

Whiplike, motile cellular extensions that occur, typically in large numbers on the exposed surfaces of certain cells. Ciliary action moves substances in one direction across cell surfaces. Centrioles forming the bases of cilia and flagella are commonly referred to as basal bodies.

the lungs are _____ to the skin

deep (internal)

Diabetics with poor lower limb circulation often have slow-healing pressure ulcers on the bottom of their feet. In speeding up the healing process, surgical removal (debridement) of dead tissue from an ulcerative area would encourage increased __________.

granulation tissue formation

G1 -

growth phase. The cell is metabolically active and the centriole begins to divide at the end of this phase.

Hypertonic

high solute concentration to which its being compared

Anticodon

the sequence of tRNA that is opposite to the codon on mRNA

Cytoskeleton

the structural framework of the cell

Superficial (external)

toward or at the body surface

Anterior (ventral)

toward or at the front of the body; in front of


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