UW PSYCH

Appraisal theory

Appraisal theory states that one's evaluation of a stimulus determines one's emotional response. In a primary appraisal, an individual determines whether a stimulus is a threat, positive, or irrelevant. If it is deemed a threat, the individual evaluates whether their resources are sufficient to cope with the stressor in the secondary appraisal.

What does the physician's quote in the passage best exemplify? A.Availability heuristic B.Belief perseverance C.Overconfidence bias D.Representativeness heuristic "In the past ten years, we've been bombarded with ads, 'These are the symptoms of BD—they're easily missed—and here is a new drug to treat it.' I think that when you're constantly being reminded not to overlook something, you start looking for it everywhere, even when it's not there."

Availability heuristic In psychology, heuristics are defined as mental shortcuts that allow for more rapid problem solving and faster decision making than algorithms (ie, step-by-step processes that guarantee a correct solution but can be time intensive). Although faster, heuristics are often less accurate. The two major types are the availability heuristic and the representativeness heuristic. The availability heuristic is the tendency to make decisions or base judgments on how easily something is recalled from memory. In other words, things that are readily available in memory are thought to be more common. The physician's quote describing heightened exposure to the symptoms of BD leading to a propensity to overdiagnose is an example of the availability heuristic influencing a decision-making process. The representativeness heuristic is the tendency to compare things (eg, people, events) to existing mental prototypes when making judgments. Mental representations (eg, nurses tend to be women) may cause one to draw a conclusion that is inaccurate, such as assuming that a woman in scrubs is a nurse instead of a doctor (Choice D). (Choice B) Belief perseverance occurs when one refuses to be influenced in the face of convincing evidence. In other words, the original belief is maintained despite new information to the contrary. There is no evidence that the physician is refusing to be persuaded. (Choice C) The overconfidence bias occurs when one's confidence in knowledge or abilities exceeds accuracy (eg, an individual who is sure of acing a test but actually receives an average grade). The physician does not indicate overconfidence. Educational objective:Heuristics are mental shortcuts that save time but are often less accurate. The availability heuristic is the tendency to believe that if something is easily recalled from memory, it must be common. The representativeness heuristic is the tendency to compare things (eg, people, events) to our mental prototypes when coming to conclusions.

Researchers conduct an experiment using dogs. Each dog is placed in a cage with a short middle partition. A light turns on five seconds before the dog receives a painful electric shock through the floor, which stops when the dog jumps over the partition. If researchers count the number of trials each dog needs until it jumps over the partition before the shock is administered, they are most likely studying: A.escape learning. B.avoidance learning. C.habituation. D.sensitization.

B.avoidance learning. In operant conditioning, negative reinforcement is the withdrawal of an unpleasant stimulus (eg, ongoing electric shock) following a behavior, which increases the likelihood that the behavior will occur again. Negative reinforcement can lead to escape and/or avoidance learning. Escape learning occurs when an organism learns how to terminate an ongoing unpleasant stimulus (eg, a dog jumps over a partition to flee from or stop a continuous electric shock). Escape learning becomes avoidance learning when an organism prevents coming into contact with an unpleasant stimulus (eg, a dog jumps over a partition to avoid the electric shock before it occurs). Because the researchers are counting the number of trials each dog needs until it jumps over the partition before the shock is administered (ie, avoid the shock), they are studying avoidance learning. (Choice A) Escape learning is demonstrated by the dog jumping over the partition to terminate the electric shock, an ongoing unpleasant stimulus. Because the researchers are counting how many trials each dog needs until it jumps over the partition before the shock was administered, they are studying avoidance (not escape) learning. Escape learning occurs when an organism learns how to terminate an ongoing unpleasant stimulus. Avoidance learning occurs when an organism learns how to prevent coming into contact with an unpleasant stimulus before it occurs.

cultural diffusion vs transmission

Cultural diffusion is the spread of beliefs and behaviors from one cultural group to another. Cultural diffusion describes exchange between out-groups, such as the popularity of sushi (Japanese cuisine) in America. (Choice B) Cultural transmission is the passing of knowledge and values to the next generation. Cultural transmission occurs within in-groups through education and socialization.

The cognition studies and focus studies suggest that aging is correlated with declines in: A.crystallized intelligence and divided attention. B.crystallized intelligence and selective attention. C.fluid intelligence and divided attention. D.fluid intelligence and selective attention.

D.fluid intelligence and selective attention.

Which of the following helps explain the demographic disparities of the prison population described in the passage? A.Social reproduction, because a child whose parent has been incarcerated is more likely to stay away from criminal activities. B.Occupational prestige, because individuals with higher-paying, professional jobs are not motivated to commit crime. C.Social capital, because females are more likely to have contacts in the criminal justice system who can get them released without a conviction. D.Intersectionality, because white males are more likely to be incarcerated than black females, but less likely than black males.

Intersectionality, because white males are more likely to be incarcerated than black females, but less likely than black males. The intersectionality approach describes how all individuals hold multiple, interconnected identities that simultaneously impact their lives and perspectives. For example, being female is not the only identity that affects how a woman sees, experiences, or is treated in the world. Her experiences and perspectives are also a product of her other identities (eg, race/ethnicity, class, sexual orientation). With respect to incarceration, the U.S. prison population is both disproportionately black and disproportionately male, placing individuals who are black and male at the intersection of statuses most represented in prisons. Although white males are more likely to be incarcerated than black females, black males are more likely to be imprisoned than white males. (Choice A) Social reproduction refers to the transmission of society's values, norms, and practices, including social inequality, from one generation to the next. Children with a parent who has been incarcerated are more (not less) likely to be incarcerated themselves. The passage does not mention generational effects on prison demographics. (Choice B) Occupational prestige is a measure of the respect and esteem (prestige) of a given occupation. Occupations requiring the most education are generally ranked highest. However, the passage does not mention occupational status or prestige. (Choice C) Social capital refers to one's social network and the value of those connections. Although one may have connections in the criminal justice system who can impact outcomes, the example given here addresses only sex/gender disparities. Racial disparities are more emphasized in the passage, and both racial and sex/gender disparities are accounted for with intersectionality. Educational objective:An intersectional analysis argues that people hold several statuses (group memberships) simultaneously, which must be considered together in understanding an individual's overall perspective and experience. An individual does not operate simply based on race, gender, or any other social identity alone, but more specifically as (for example) a y

The DSM-5 describes AN as characterized by a distorted body image and excessive food restriction leading to severe weight loss. How would a behaviorist explain the behavior of an individual diagnosed with AN? A.The eating behavior is evidence of a biochemical imbalance in the dopamine reward system in the brain. B.Positive attention from others for initially losing weight motivates the individual to want to lose more weight. C.The individual is behaving in a way to attain the "thin ideal" portrayed by celebrities in the media. D.The individual most likely has a close friend or family member with an eating disorder and is imitating that behavior.

Positive attention from others for initially losing weight motivates the individual to want to lose more weight. Behaviorism is a theory in psychology that focuses on the role the environment plays in shaping human behavior. Specifically, behaviorism focuses on how reinforcement and punishment shape human behavior. Reinforcement is anything that increases the likelihood of the behavior happening again. For example, positive attention for losing weight would reinforce that behavior and make it more likely the individual will lose more weight. Punishment is anything that decreases the likelihood of a behavior happening again. For example, if individuals are ridiculed for a behavior, they are less likely to engage in that behavior again. Although positive attention for losing weight might initially reinforce the behaviors (eg, food restriction) associated with that weight loss, additional weight loss can become a self-reinforcing cycle in which an individual no longer needs external reinforcement and the weight loss itself is reinforcing. (Choice A) A behaviorist approach is more likely to be focused on the environmental factors influencing behavior whereas a biological approach is more likely to consider biochemical factors. (Choice C) A behaviorist might consider the role of idealized body types portrayed in the media and societal standards of beauty but would be more concerned with the direct reinforcements and punishments that shape individual behavior. (Choice D) A social learning theorist is more likely to suggest that individuals with AN have close friends or family members whose behavior they are imitating. Social learning theory suggests that behavior is shaped through social interaction, imitation, and modeling, and can occur in the absence of direct reinforcement. Educational objective:Behaviorism focuses on how an individual's behavior is shaped by the environment, particularly through reinforcement and punishment. Reinforcement tends to increase the likelihood of the behavior happening again whereas punishment decreases the likelihood of the behavior happening again.

PTSD brain

The hippocampus, amygdala, and prefrontal cortex (anterior portion of the frontal lobe) are sensitive to stress hormones and demonstrate structural changes in response to chronic stress, such as what might be experienced with PTSD. (Number I) Prefrontal cortex: Chronic stress has been shown to decrease dendritic branching in areas associated with cognitive flexibility, resulting in reduced coping mechanisms. It also increases dendritic branching in areas associated with hypervigilance. (Number II) Hippocampus: Chronic stress has been shown to increase inflammation while decreasing dendritic branching and volume in the hippocampus. These physiological changes may inhibit learning and memory and produce emotional changes, such as anhedonia (decreased ability to experience pleasure). (Number III) Amygdala: Chronic stress changes the growth of dendritic spines and alters the excitability of neurons in the amygdala, leading to more anger, fear, and anxiety. Overall, chronic stress changes the brain in ways that fundamentally reduce one's ability to manage further stressors (ie, decreased coping mechanisms) while increasing anxiety and hypervigilance. Compared to controls, patients with PTSD would be likely to exhibit altered functioning of the prefrontal cortex, hippocampus, and amygdala.

taste aversion

A learned taste aversion is a specific and powerful type of classical conditioning that occurs when an organism becomes ill after consuming something (eg, food, alcohol). Whatever was consumed prior to the illness becomes associated with the illness (even if it did not cause the illness) and is avoided by the organism afterward. Unlike other forms of typical classical conditioning, which require two stimuli to be paired together repeatedly before the organism learns to associate the two, a taste aversion develops after just one pairing. In other words, an organism needs to become ill only once to associate the food consumed with the illness. Similarly, whereas typical classical conditioning requires the two stimuli to be presented within a very short time frame for the organism to learn to associate them, taste aversions occur despite hours passing between the consumption of a food and subsequent illness. Finally, whereas typical classical conditioning rapidly extinguishes when the two stimuli are no longer paired, taste aversions have long durations. In other words, once becoming ill, the organism will likely never consume the associated food again.

meta analyses

A meta-analysis statistically analyzes data combined from multiple studies with a common experimental goal. To combine study results for a meta-analysis, studies must use parallel methodology and outcome measures. Averages between groups cannot be compared if they are not based on the same outcome measures.

Which of the following is an inherent limitation in assessing the efficacy of DBS for controlling depression symptoms? A.A placebo control group would be unethical. B.Depressed patients are a vulnerable population. C.The benefits do not outweigh the risks of the procedure. D.The mechanism of action of DBS is unknown.

A.A placebo control group would be unethical. The placebo effect occurs when the administration of an inactive substance or sham procedure (the placebo) corresponds to the improvement of symptoms, often related to a person's belief that a treatment will work. In a placebo-controlled randomized trial, participants are randomized into either an active treatment group or a group that receives a placebo. Comparison of treatment and placebo groups helps to determine the true benefit of a given treatment when patients are unaware of whether they have received the real treatment or the placebo. A placebo control group for this experiment would receive a sham surgery, with all of the same procedures as the treatment groups (including the insertion of electrodes into the brain), but without the electrical impulse. Exposing patients to the risks associated with a surgical procedure (eg, infection, damage to brain tissue) for an inactive sham procedure would be unethical. In such cases, an active control group (in which the patient receives a standard approved treatment) is recommended for comparison.

Which psychophysiology concept determines how high the volume of the tone must be for participants to detect it roughly half the time? A.Absolute threshold B.Difference threshold C.Just noticeable difference D.Sensory adaptation

A.Absolute threshold Perceptual threshold refers to the strength of a stimulus at which one can detect its presence or a change in its intensity. The absolute threshold is the intensity value at which an individual is able to detect the stimulus 50% of the time. In this example, that threshold is the tone volume at which a participant can detect the tone about half the time. The absolute threshold can be applied to other sensations and perceptions, and usually will be of a similar value among different individuals. For instance, the absolute threshold for tasting sweetness is equivalent to the concentration of sugar resulting from 1 teaspoon dissolved in 2 gallons of water, and a given individual should be able to detect this sweetness about half the time. Stimuli presented at intensities above the absolute threshold value are more likely to be detected, and intensities presented below the absolute threshold are more likely to be missed. (Choices B and C) Difference threshold and just noticeable difference are equivalent concepts: The smallest difference between two stimuli that a person can detect 50% of the time is called the difference threshold, or just noticeable difference. (Choice D) Sensory adaptation occurs when an individual's sensory receptors adapt to the presence of a stimulus. For example, when you first put on your wristwatch in the morning, you notice it against your skin but within a few minutes, you completely forget it is there. Educational objective:Threshold refers to the strength of a stimulus required to detect its presence or a change in its intensity. The absolute threshold is the smallest value of a stimulus intensity at which the stimulus will be just detectable 50% of the time.

Which of the following correctly pairs a brain area vital for learning in the Morris Water Maze with its appropriate function? A.Cerebellum; motor learning B.Frontal lobe; motor coordination C.Occipital lobe; spatial processing D.Hypothalamus; sensory relay

A.Cerebellum; motor learning The cerebellum is critical for motor learning, which occurs whenever an organism repeatedly practices a motor task, such as swimming, driving, or speaking. Motor learning is the foundation for procedural memory, the acquisition of which relies heavily on the cerebellum. Because the mice were tested in the Morris Water Maze each day for one week, the cerebellum would be involved in motor learning of this skill. The cerebellum is also responsible for integrating information from the visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems to maintain balance and posture, coordinate complex movements requiring multiple muscles, and control precision of fine motor movements. The cerebellum also receives feedback from the body regarding the position of body parts in space and relative to each other (proprioception). (Choice B) The frontal lobe of the brain is responsible for many functions, including the active manipulation of information involved in reasoning and problem solving (known as working memory) and the initiation of voluntary motor movements. The cerebellum (not the frontal lobe) ensures motor coordination by balancing excitatory and inhibitory neural impulses so movement is smooth and precise rather than jerky. (Choice C) The occipital lobe is primarily responsible for processing visual information. The parietal lobe (not the occipital lobe) processes spatial information (proprioception) and is responsible for cognitive mapping, our ability to represent mentally the spatial relationships concerning things in our environment. (Choice D) The hypothalamus is important for many metabolic processes that maintain homeostasis. The thalamus (not the hypothalamus) is responsible for relaying sensory information to the cerebral cortex. Educational objective:The cerebellum is central to motor learning, maintaining balance and posture, coordinating complex movements, and controlling precision of fine motor movements. The cerebellum does not initiate voluntary movement, which occurs in the primary motor cortex of the frontal lobe; however, the cerebellum is critical for most other aspects of motor planning and execution.

Based on the symptoms of schizophrenia, which statement is accurate regarding the symptoms measured by the SPI? A.Incoherent speech would be assessed by the PSS. B.Delusions would be assessed by the NSS. C.Emotional flattening would be assessed by the PSS. D.Reduced need for sleep would be assessed by the NSS.

A.Incoherent speech would be assessed by the PSS. Psychotic disorders are severe psychological disorders characterized by a loss of contact with reality. Schizophrenia is the most common psychotic disorder, with a prevalence of about 1% in the United States. Schizophrenia typically involves both positive symptoms, which are "pathological excesses" (eg, hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech), and negative symptoms, which are "pathological deficits" (eg, apathy, inability to experience pleasure). Many people with schizophrenia also experience psychomotor symptoms (ie, changes in muscle tone or activity), which can occur either as a symptom of schizophrenia or as a side effect of medication. Incoherent speech, a positive symptom of schizophrenia, would be assessed by the PSS (Positive Symptom Scale). (Choice B) Delusions are a positive symptom of schizophrenia, so they would be assessed by the PSS (Positive Symptom Scale), not the NSS (Negative Symptom Scale). (Choice C) Emotional flattening is a negative symptom of schizophrenia, so it would be assessed by the NSS (Negative Symptom Scale), not the PSS (Positive Symptom Scale). (Choice D) Reduced need for sleep is a symptom of mania, which is also characterized by increased energy or agitation, flight of ideas (rapid thoughts), feelings of grandiosity, distractibility, and/or impulsive or reckless behaviors. Mania is indicative of bipolar disorder (not psychosis or schizophrenia), so it would not be assessed by the SPI.

Based on the results of these two studies, which conclusion is most supported? A.Infants have innate perceptual preferences that confer a survival advantage. B.Human perceptual abilities appear to be both innate and fixed. C.Human visual perception is more developed than auditory perception at birth. D.Infant perception relies more on top-down processing than on bottom-up processing.

A.Infants have innate perceptual preferences that confer a survival advantage. Adaptive value refers to the extent to which a trait or behavior helps an organism survive and reproduce. Traits and behaviors that are innate are genetically determined. For example, babies are born with many reflexes (eg, feeding reflexes like suckling and rooting) that are preprogrammed behaviors meant to help them survive. Behaviors that are learned result from observation and experience. They can change over time with practice or environmental demands. For example, feeding oneself with utensils (eg, spoon, chopsticks) is a learned behavior. Most human behaviors are complex, falling along the continuum from innate to learned. Babies prefer human faces (Study 1) and human speech (Study 2), suggesting that infants have evolved an innate preference for human faces and speech because recognition of these stimuli confers a survival advantage. Faces convey social cues (eg, emotion), and eye contact between infants and caregivers is critical for the pair-bonding process. Speech, particularly the voice of one's mother (which studies suggest newborns prefer), also conveys important social information, helps with pair-bonding, and begins priming the brain for language processing. (Choice B) Many perceptual abilities and preferences appear to be innate, but it is not possible to conclude from the presented studies that these abilities are also fixed (unchanging), as only infants were assessed. In order to conclude that certain perceptual abilities are fixed, data would need to show similar responses from infancy to adulthood. (Choice C) Neither study tested for perceptual maturity, and the results of the two studies were not compared. Furthermore, at birth, auditory perception is more developed than visual perception, which matures over the first two years of life. (Choice D) Bottom-up processing starts with the sensory input and builds up to a final perception in the brain. Top-down processing involves prior knowledge and expectations influencing perception. Infants rely more heavily on bottom-up processing because they are too young to have formed a significant amount of prior knowledge.

Which of the following processes assists in the perception of depth and motion required during the driving simulation? A.Motion parallax B.Retinal disparity C.Convergence D.Phi phenomenon

A.Motion parallax People use a variety of monocular (one eye) and binocular (both eyes) visual cues to perceive depth and motion. Since the driving simulator projected computer-generated two-dimensional visuals on a screen a few feet away from the participants, monocular cues would generate a sense of motion and depth. In other words, since there is no real depth or distance, participants are not relying on binocular cues. Motion parallax (or relative motion) is a monocular cue whereby objects in the foreground are perceived as moving faster than objects in the background. Motion parallax is a perceptual process that would not require three-dimensional depth but would still allow subjects to perceive both depth and motion (Choices B and C) Retinal disparity and convergence are both binocular cues for depth/distance. Retinal disparity occurs because each eye transmits a slightly different image to the brain, which infers distance from the disparity. Convergence is the extent to which the eyes turn inward (converge) to focus on an object; closer objects require more convergence, which helps the brain infer distance. The two-dimensional simulation made the use of binocular cues irrelevant, and neither convergence nor retinal disparity is involved with motion perception. (Choice D) The phi phenomenon (also known as the motion picture effect) is an optical illusion in which a series of still photographs presented in rapid succession appear to be moving. The phi phenomenon may have been relevant to perceiving motion during the simulation but is irrelevant to depth perception. Educational objective:Monocular (one eye) and binocular (both eyes) cues are important for visual perception. Motion parallax (relative motion) is a monocular cue important for the perception of motion and distance. Motion parallax describes when objects in the foreground appear to be moving faster than objects in the background.

Researchers designed the two distraction conditions to require multitasking and predicted that the hands-free conversation condition would be less distracting than the texting condition because of: A.task dissimilarity. B.the cocktail party effect. C.the interference effect. D.speech shadowing

A.task dissimilarity. divided attention (multitasking) task similarity Easy: dissimilar tasks (eg, listening to audiobook while running) Hard: similar tasks (eg, listening to audiobook while writing a paper) Task difficulty Easy: simple tasks (eg, tapping foot while clapping hands) Hard: challenging tasks (eg, performing surgery while doing complex mental math) Task practice Easy: well-practiced tasks (eg, talking on the phone while walking) Hard: unfamiliar tasks (eg, practicing a new language while learning to knit) Attention, cognitive processes that focus on certain stimuli while filtering out others, can be divided or selective. Divided attention ("multitasking") describes attending to more than one stimulus/task at a time, while selective attention describes focusing on one stimulus and ignoring others. Multitasking is impacted by task similarity, difficulty, and practice. It is easier to perform two dissimilar tasks than two similar tasks. Driving, which requires visual attention, is easier to do while engaging in a hands-free call (auditory attention) than while texting, because both texting and driving require visual attention. Tasks that are easier to perform are also easier to do simultaneously. When driving a familiar route in nice weather, it is easy for the driver to simultaneously hold a conversation. However, if driving an unfamiliar route in terrible weather, the driver may ask passengers to stop talking. Tasks that are well practiced are also easier to do simultaneously. A 45-year-old may have no problem driving and talking on the phone, whereas a 16-year-old who is still learning to drive will find it more difficult to do both. (Choice B) The cocktail party effect describes when attention quickly shifts from an attended stimulus to an unattended stimulus when something significant occurs. At a crowded party you tune out all competing noise to focus on the person you are talking to (attended stimulus), but if you hear your name in another conversation, your attention quickly shifts to that unattended stimulus. This is a selective attention (not multitasking) process. (Choice C) Interference is a memory (not attention) process describing when old information prevents recollection o

ablation

Ablation (the removal or destruction of tissue) is a technique used to study the brain by measuring the deficits that result from ablation of specific brain areas. Bilateral ablation of the hippocampus, a region that plays an important role in the consolidation of short-term memory into long-term memory, results in severe anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to form new memories. Anterograde amnesia was induced accidentally in the famous case of H.M., a man whose hippocampi were removed bilaterally to eliminate debilitating seizures. As a result, he could no longer form new memories, and to some extent he also experienced retrograde amnesia, which is memory loss for events previously encoded. Ablation of the hippocampus produces anterograde amnesia, the inability to form new memories. However, bilateral hippocampal ablation would also result in some degree of retrograde amnesia, the inability to recall memories that were previously encoded. The hippocampus controls memory consolidation.

divison of labor

Advantages ↑ Efficiency/specialization ↑ Production ↓ Costs Disadvantages ↑ Boredom/monotony ↑ Labor exploitation ↓ Quality

If skeletal muscle force development precedes the CaM complex binding to MLCK as described in the passage, which of the following events would occur first after stimulation? A.Phosphorylation of the RLC of myosin B.Binding of Ca2+ to troponin C.Sarcoplasmic reticulum reuptake of Ca2+ released in response to t-tubule depolarization D.Hydrolysis of ATP by myosin

B.Binding of Ca2+ to troponin Muscle force development is initiated by a series of events that occurs in response to muscle fiber membrane depolarization. This series begins with detection of depolarization by a receptor located in sarcolemmal tubes (called t-tubules) that penetrate deep into the muscle fiber. In response to this depolarization, Ca2+ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) through a Ca2+ channel in the SR membrane. The resultant rise in cytosolic Ca2+ leads to binding of Ca2+ to a specific type of troponin molecule, and this troponin molecule in turn enables stronger binding of the myosin head to actin. This stronger binding enables myosin to pull on the actin filament, thereby generating tension. The passage describes the modulation of skeletal muscle force production by skeletal muscle MLCK activation in response to Ca2+ release, and the question asks which of the listed events would occur first if skeletal muscle force development precedes CaM binding to MLCK. If force development precedes CaM binding to the MLCK, then the Ca2+-mediated events leading to muscle contraction must have already occurred. The first of these events among the answer choices is binding of Ca2+ to troponin. (Choice A) The phosphorylation of the RLC of myosin described in the passage would occur after troponin binding to Ca2+. (Choice C) Reuptake of Ca2+ released in response to t-tubule depolarization is necessary for relaxation to occur after a contraction. Therefore, Ca2+ reuptake would occur after the binding of troponin to Ca2+ that is necessary for contraction to occur. (Choice D) Myosin hydrolysis of ATP occurs after ATP binding to the myosin head, which triggers release of actin from the myosin head after the power stroke. Therefore, myosin hydrolysis would occur after troponin binds Ca2+ in response to a depolarizing stimulus. Educational objective:When Ca2+ binds to troponin, troponin causes a slight rearrangement of the components of the thin filament, thereby allowing the stronger binding between actin and myosin that is necessary for skeletal muscle contraction to occur.

Which of the following would support the claim that the SPI is a valid assessment? A.Scores are positively correlated from one administration to the next. B.Scores are positively correlated to an already established measure of psychotic symptoms. C.Scores are similar for the same patient, regardless of interviewer. D.Scores are similar for all participants at the end of the study.

B.Scores are positively correlated to an already established measure of psychotic symptoms. A variety of criteria are used to judge the extent to which scientific findings are credible (ie, can be trusted or believed). Both the overall study design and particular measures used must be examined for reliability and validity. Validity refers to the accuracy of a study or measure. Internal validity refers to the extent to which a measure or experiment produces a true result. External validity, also known as generalizability, is the extent to which study results can be applied outside the laboratory to real-life situations. The validity of the SPI would be supported by scores that positively correlated to an already established measure of psychotic symptoms because when two different inventories that measure the same construct (eg, psychotic symptoms) are correlated, the validity (ie, accuracy) of both measures is supported. (Choices A and C) Reliability refers to the extent to which an experiment or measure can consistently produce similar results every time. SPI scores that were positively correlated from one administration to the next and SPI scores that are similar regardless of interviewer both reflect two different types of reliability (not validity). (Choice D) If SPI scores were similar for all participants, regardless of their diagnosis at the end of the study, this would undermine its validity; the SPI was designed to detect the presence of psychotic symptoms and should produce significantly different scores for people who later have a diagnosis of a psychotic disorder and those who do not. Educational objective:Validity refers to the accuracy of a measure or experiment (eg, a test accurately assesses what it was designed to measure). Reliability describes the degree to which a measure or experiment is consistent (eg, a test produces a similar score for one person who takes it twice).

Matching the healthy control group in terms of age, gender, and premorbid IQ was meant to account for all of the following, EXCEPT for the: A.biological factors that affect cognition. B.influence of environment on cognitive development. C.cognitive changes that occur in late adulthood. D.correlation between types of intelligence.

B.influence of environment on cognitive development. Cognitive development is influenced by both heredity and environment. Biological factors affecting cognition include structural changes to the brain due to damage or illness and heredity (eg, gene and protein expression). Environmental factors (eg, drug use) also influence the physiology of the brain, impacting cognition. The purpose of the study was to assess differences in nonverbal recall in subjects with cognitive dysfunction compared to healthy controls. The control group was matched to the experimental groups in terms of age, gender, and premorbid IQ. Matching is meant to account for confounding variables that might have an effect on the dependent variable (recall). For example, if the mean age of the control group had been 25, it would have been impossible to determine whether age or time had an effect on recall. Age, gender, and IQ are all factors that significantly impact cognition, but they can be controlled in an experiment. Subjects' individual experiences with the environment vary widely and are much more difficult, if not impossible, to control. In most human studies, it is difficult to control for environmental factors, such as stress, drug and alcohol use, chemical exposure, social factors, and medical care, because such factors vary widely across individuals.

Before Sarah sought therapy, her cleaning rituals acted as: A.positive reinforcement. B.negative reinforcement. C.positive punishment. D.negative punishment.

B.negative reinforcement. Operant conditioning is a type of learning that occurs when the likelihood of an organism repeating a behavior is influenced by the outcome of that behavior (ie, reward or punishment). For example, when a rat receives a food pellet (ie, reward) after pushing a lever, the rat is more likely to push the lever again. Reinforcement increases (or maintains) behavior; negative reinforcement occurs when an undesirable stimulus is removed, which encourages a behavior to happen again. Sarah's cleaning rituals act as negative reinforcement because she experienced a reduction in anxiety (ie, removal of an undesirable stimulus) after performing cleaning rituals, leading her to perform the cleaning rituals more often (ie, behavior increases).

box and whisker confidence intervals

Box-and-whisker plots visually represent the median value and interquartile range. Notched box plots show the 95% confidence interval around the median. If notches do not overlap, medians can generally be inferred to be statistically significantly different.

If a lucid dreamer falls asleep at 10:00 PM and wakes up at 6:00 AM, during what period of sleep would this person have the greatest chance of lucid dreaming? A.Between 10:00 PM and 11:30 PM B.Between 1:00 AM and 3:00 AM C.Between 4:00 AM and 6:00 AM D.Chances of lucid dreaming are roughly equal throughout sleep

C.Between 4:00 AM and 6:00 AM Sleep is broadly divided into non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep (stages 1-4) and rapid eye movement (REM). One sleep cycle includes various proportions of REM and NREM sleep, each lasting about 90 minutes. There are approximately 4-6 sleep cycles in a typical night's sleep. The amount of time spent in each sleep stage differs over the course of a single night's sleep; a typical adult spends about 75% of sleep time in NREM sleep and 25% in REM sleep. The time spent in REM varies, increasing in duration for each subsequent sleep cycle, with the last cycle containing the most REM sleep. Studies suggest that dreaming occurs during both REM and NREM sleep but is most common during REM sleep, particularly during the REM cycles that occur closer to waking. REM dreams tend to be more vivid and memorable and are more likely to be recalled upon waking. Studies suggest lucid dreaming occurs only during REM sleep. An individual sleeping from 10:00 PM to 6:00 AM would have the greatest chance of lucid dreaming during the last sleep cycle, from 4:00 AM to 6:00 AM, because the greatest proportion of REM sleep occurs just before waking. (Choice A) The shortest REM period occurs during the first sleep cycle (10:00 PM to 11:30 PM), so there is the least chance of lucid dreaming during this time. (Choice B) The greatest chance of having a lucid dream is during one of the longer REM periods that occur during the last sleep cycle, rather than during REM sleep that occurs in the middle of the night (1:00 AM to 3:00 AM). (Choice D) Because REM periods increase in duration during the night with each subsequent sleep cycle, the chances of having a lucid dream are not equal throughout the night.

In which region of the brain would a lesion most likely disrupt the sleep/wake cycle? A.Anterior pituitary B.Posterior pituitary C.Hypothalamus D.Hippocampus

C.Hypothalamus The hypothalamus is centrally located in the brain and is the command center for the endocrine system, which produces hormones that regulate a number of the body's functions, such as growth, metabolism, blood pressure, core body temperature, appetite, and sleep. The hypothalamus has several nuclei (collections of neuronal cell bodies) that have specialized functions; one of these nuclei is the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), which regulates the circadian pacemaker that controls circadian rhythms. Photoreceptors in the retina project information about light levels to the SCN. When light levels are high, the SCN downregulates melatonin production by the pineal gland. When light levels are low, the SCN upregulates melatonin production by the pineal gland. Light levels regulate SCN activity, which regulates melatonin release and establishes an internal circadian clock. This clock mechanism helps maintain sleep patterns and other 24-hour circadian cycles, such as those involving blood pressure and core body temperature changes.

Based on the description in the passage, should an individual who is a "short sleeper" be diagnosed with a sleep-wake disorder? A.Yes, because sleeping less than average is considered a sleep disturbance B.Yes, because diurnal circadian rhythms are affected C.No, because daytime functioning is not impaired D.No, because the causes of sleep-wake disorders are psychological, not genetic

C.No, because daytime functioning is not impaired Sleep-wake disorders include conditions marked by disturbed sleep causing distress and/or impaired functioning. Sleep-wake disorders fall broadly into two categories: parasomnias and dyssomnias. Parasomnias are more common in children and involve abnormal function of the nervous system during sleep, while falling asleep, or when rousing from sleep. Common examples include somnambulism (sleepwalking) and night terrors (expressing extreme fear or distress while still asleep). Dyssomnias are more common in adults and involve interference with the quality or timing of sleep, such as difficulty falling or remaining asleep, or periods of excessive sleepiness during waking hours. Common examples include insomnia (difficulty sleeping), sleep apnea (impaired breathing during sleep), and narcolepsy (extreme daytime sleepiness). Most dyssomnias involve disruptions to circadian rhythms or the reticular activating system. Individuals with the "short sleeper" phenotype require less than 6 hours of sleep daily on average and appear to be able to regularly sleep less than 7 hours without negative consequences. Because "short sleepers" do not experience distress or impaired functioning, they should not be diagnosed with a sleep-wake disorder. (Choices A and B) While the "short sleeper" phenotype may include sleeping less than average and having shorter-than-average diurnal circadian rhythms, this should not be considered a sleep-wake disorder because individuals with the mutation do not experience distress or impaired functioning. (Choice D) Sleep-wake disorders can arise from causes that are psychological (eg, stress, clinical depression), physical (eg, poorly managed pain), or genetic (eg, gene mutations). Educational objective:Sleep-wake disorders cause disturbed sleep, distress, and impaired functioning. Parasomnias are characterized by abnormal nervous system function during sleep and are more prevalent during childhood. Dyssomnias interfere with the quality or timing of sleep and are more prevalent in adulthood.

What type of study design is most appropriate to investigate whether the number of hours slept per night predicts the number of health care provider visits for those with and without the DEC2 gene mutation? A.Ethnographic study B.Cross-sectional study C.Observational longitudinal study D.Randomized controlled trial

C.Observational longitudinal study Longitudinal studies involve collecting data over a period of time. Longitudinal studies, which can be either experimental (in which a variable is manipulated) or observational, are useful for measuring how variables change over time. If a researcher wants to investigate whether the number of hours slept per night predicts the number of health care provider visits in those with and without the DEC2 gene mutation, the researcher would need to collect data over a period of time (ie, longitudinally). More specifically, the researcher would perform an observational longitudinal study. Observational studies are conducted when it is unethical or unfeasible to manipulate a variable of interest. (Choice A) Ethnographic studies use observation and interview to qualitatively study people within their own communities and provide descriptive information about their cultures, behaviors, norms, and values. An investigation of whether the number of hours slept per night predicts the number of health care provider visits is more quantitative in nature, so an ethnographic design would not be appropriate. (Choice B) A cross-sectional study is an observational study that measures a variable in a population or subpopulation at one time point. Because this example requires measuring hours slept per night and health care provider visits over time, this would not be an appropriate study design. (Choice D) A randomized controlled trial randomly sorts subjects into treatment and control groups. In this example, researchers cannot manipulate a DEC2 gene mutation in humans, so it is not possible to assign people randomly to one of the two study groups. Educational objective:A longitudinal study is used to investigate a variable of interest within a sample population over a period of time. An observational longitudinal study is performed when it is unethical or unfeasible to manipulate the variable of interest.

How does stereopsis contribute to the processing of two-dimensional retinal images into objects having three-dimensional depth? A.The presence of rods and cones allows for processing different types of light. B.Component attributes, such as color, motion, and form, are integrated in the occipital lobe. C.The relative location of each retina allows for different images of the object to be processed. D.The movement of ciliary muscles controlling the lens provides depth cues to the cortex.

C.The relative location of each retina allows for different images of the object to be processed. Stereopsis is the perception of depth that arises from the integrated information received from both eyes. Binocular depth cues allow accurate perception of depth through the integration of slightly different information from the left and right eyes. Binocular depth cues include retinal disparity and convergence: Retinal disparity, or distance between the two eyes, results in slightly different images projected onto the respective retinas. The closer an object or scene is to the two eyes, the more dramatic the disparity. Higher-order processing in the brain compares the difference between the two-dimensional retinal images to help give rise to the perception of three-dimensional depth. Convergence occurs because of the angular positioning of the eyes: The closer an object is to the observer, the more the eyes turn inward (or converge) to focus on that object. The brain interprets the angle of convergence as an indication of distance from the observer. Binocular cues are less informative at great distances because retinal disparity and convergence decrease as distance increases. Therefore, monocular cues become more important for depth perception over great distances. (Choice A) Rods (light sensitive) and cones (color sensitive) are two different types of photoreceptors in the eye. Although their differences allow for better night vision and color vision, they do not contribute to depth perception. (Choice B) Feature detection involves the analysis of component attributes or features of perceived objects, such as color, form, motion, and depth; feature detection does not explain how depth or three-dimensional form is interpreted. (Choice D) As an object approaches the eye, ciliary muscles alter the shape of the lens. This is referred to as accommodation and is processed by the brain as a depth perception cue. However, accommodation is a monocular cue because it can be performed by only one eye and therefore does not contribute to stereopsis. Educational objective:Binocular depth cues result in depth perception (stereopsis) based on information from both eyes. Retinal disparity allows for integration of sl

The phenomenon induced by high-frequency stimulation (Figure 1) is referred to as: A.sensory adaptation. B.state-dependent memory. C.long-term potentiation. D.tonic stimulus response.

C.long-term potentiation. Long-term potentiation (LTP) describes an enduring increase in synaptic transmission of neurons, which is the neural foundation for learning and memory consolidation. When neurons are repeatedly stimulated, they demonstrate an increased firing rate, known as LTP. The increase in magnitude of excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) in the postsynaptic neurons in the experimental condition (Figure 1) reflects LTP. LTP can also occur when two (or more) neurons repeatedly fire simultaneously. For example, if a neuron repeatedly receives simultaneous input from two sources, neuron A (visual input of flower) and neuron B (smell of flower), the combined inputs may become associated. If this occurs, either input A or input B will activate the postsynaptic neuron, but others, like input C (smell of an onion), will not. This is the neural foundation for how we learn associations. LTP can occur by two mechanisms: An increase in the release of neurotransmitter by the presynaptic neuron and an increase in the number of receptors in the postsynaptic neuron. (Choice A) Sensory adaptation (or neural adaptation) is a decreased responsiveness of a sensory neuron over time in response to a constant stimulus. In other words, when a stimulus doesn't change, the firing rate of the neuron detecting that stimulus declines. Sensory adaptation occurs in the peripheral (not central) nervous system and would produce a graph with a decrease (not increase) in EPSPs. (Choice B) State-dependent memory is a phenomenon whereby memory retrieval is most efficient when an individual's internal state at the time of retrieval is the same as when the memory was encoded. For example, memories encoded while an individual is intoxicated are less easily recalled when sober than when intoxicated at a later time. (Choice D) Tonic receptors are sensory receptors that continue to produce action potentials throughout the duration of a stimulus. Although a tonic stimulus response would produce graph results similar to those of the experimental neurons in Figure 1, tonic receptors are limited to the peripheral nervous system and are not found in the brain.

Which aspect of working memory appears to be overloaded, according to the results of this study? A.Phonological loop B.Visuospatial sketchpad C.Episodic buffer D.Central executive

Central executive Working memory and short-term memory are distinct executive functions. While both involve a limited and temporary store, working memory involves the manipulation and processing of information while short-term memory does not. Working memory is conceptualized as consisting of a central executive, which regulates attention and task switching, and three subsystems, which are controlled by the central executive. The visuospatial sketchpad is employed when manipulating visual and/or spatial information (eg, reading a map). The phonological loop is employed when manipulating spoken and written information (eg, reading a book). The episodic buffer is responsible for temporal processing (understanding the timeline of events) and integrating information from long-term memory into working memory (eg, remembering how to multiply when figuring out a tip at a restaurant). The results indicated that driving was impaired because of the cognitive overload produced by competing tasks and visual inattention. The central executive, responsible for attention and switching among various tasks, such as holding a conversation and driving, appears to be the aspect of working memory that is overloaded. (Choices A and B) Processing linguistic information during both distraction conditions (auditory and texting) would involve the phonological loop. Processing spatial information required for driving tasks would involve the visuospatial sketchpad. However, the central executive is responsible for switching between linguistic and spatial information processing systems, so overloading of the central executive best accounts for the results of this study. (Choice C) Integrating information (such as past driving experiences) into working memory to be used in relationship to one's current task involves the episodic buffer; however, this was not directly assessed by the study. Educational objective:Working memory consists of the central executive (attention, task switching) and three lower subsystems: the visuospatial sketchpad (visual/spatial information), the phonological loop (linguistic information), and the episodic buffer (timeline, long-term memory integration). The central executive controls the lower subsystems

During Task 1, the researcher found that subjects' response time was slower and color identification accuracy was worse during the natural condition. Which of the following best accounts for this finding? A.Color and motion are processed simultaneously. B.Color information is processed slower than motion. C.Motion is processed in the retina whereas color is processed in the occipital lobe. D.Color and motion information are transmitted to the brain via the same pathway.

Color and motion are processed simultaneously. Parallel processing describes the brain's ability to simultaneously process the various components of visual stimuli. Information from the retina is transmitted to the primary visual cortex (V1) of the occipital lobe via two separate pathways, which are named according to where they project in the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN), the region of the thalamus that receives visual input. The parvo pathway travels from the retina to the ventral (lower) layers of the LGN, then to the V1, and eventually to the ventral brain regions. This pathway, known as the "what" pathway, is responsible for the perception of finer detail, such as form and color. The magno pathway travels from the retina to the dorsal (upper) layers of the LGN, then to the V1, and eventually to the dorsal brain regions. This pathway, known as the "where" pathway, is responsible for the perception of coarser detail, such as depth and motion. Color and motion are processed simultaneously via two different pathways. The artificial condition involved identifying the color of a fixed, nonmoving object, which required processing of only one component (color), whereas the natural condition required the simultaneous processing of two components, motion and color. Therefore, subjects' response time and accuracy should be worse during the natural condition. (Choice B) Information about color (parvo pathway) and motion (magno pathway) is processed simultaneously via two different pathways. One is not processed faster than the other. (Choice C) Detection refers to the recognition of the stimulus (eg, light wavelengths); processing involves making sense of the information. Both color and motion are detected by cells in the retina and processed by the occipital lobe. Cones detect information about color whereas specialized cells in the retina (eg, amacrine cells) detect information about motion and transfer that information to the occipital lobe for processing. (Choice D) Color and motion information are both transmitted to the brain via different pathways. Color is transmitted via the parvo pathway and motion is transmitted via the magno pathway. Educational objective:Parallel processing is the cognitive

constancy

Constancy refers to our perception that an object's characteristics remain stable even when the sensory input from that object changes due to alterations in the environment such as distance or lighting. Constancy applies to shape, color, brightness, and size. For example, the shape of a door is perceived as a rectangle whether it is open or closed; a banana is seen as yellow despite shadow or lighting; and with proper depth and distance cues, an object's size appears to stay constant even when the distance increases (and the retinal image gets smaller). The Ames room is constructed so that the principle of size constancy is overridden. Because the viewer can see the room with only one eye (through a monocular peep hole), binocular depth cues are absent and the arrangement of the room is in a trapezoidal configuration. However, to the viewer, it appears that the room is constructed as a normal rectangle and that person A is the same distance away and much smaller than person B.

If the students who related the toy objects and definitions to each other had higher-than-average recall scores, to which of the following might this be attributed? I. Spreading activation II. Semantic networks III. Source monitoring A.I only B.II only C.III only D.I and II only

I and II only Semantic long-term memory appears to be organized as a network of interconnected nodes containing factual concepts (eg, colors, objects). The organization and relationship between nodes (how linked or connected they are in memory) is unique to each individual. For example, an individual with an uncle who is a firefighter may think of "uncle" when viewing a fire engine, which would not occur for most people. (Number I) The spreading activation model suggests that when a node in the semantic network is activated (eg, viewing a picture of a toy fire engine), nodes directly connected to that node (eg, firefighter, alarm) are activated as well, which is known as priming. Spreading activation could account for better recall when students related the toy objects and definitions to each other. (Number II) Each individual has a uniquely organized semantic network according to the personal meaning associated with each node. It tends to be easier to recall information that is semantically relevant (ie, meaningful). Therefore, better recall for students who related the toy objects and definitions to each other may be attributable to the use of semantic networks. (Number III) Source monitoring refers to errors that occur when an individual incorrectly attributes a memory to the wrong source. For example, an individual who reads on the AAMC website (source) that the MCAT is adding a new behavioral sciences section, but when recalling this information remembers hearing it from a friend (incorrect source), has committed a source monitoring error. Source monitoring errors do not explain why those students who related the toy objects and definitions to each other had higher-than-average recall scores. Their strategy and improved recall can best be explained by spreading activation, semantic networks, and priming. Educational objective:Semantic long-term memory is thought to be stored as a network of interconnected concepts (nodes) in a semantic (meaning-based) network. Spreading activation suggests that when a node in the semantic network is activated, the nodes directly connected to that node are then activated as well (ie, priming).

A conditioned fear response during phase 2 occurs as a result of which type of memory? A.Implicit memory B.Procedural memory C.Explicit memory D.Semantic memory

Implicit memory Research suggests that humans have two long-term memory systems, referred to as implicit and explicit. Implicit/nondeclarative memory is memory for things that cannot be consciously recalled, such as skills, tasks, emotions, and reflexes. Examples of implicit memory include: Procedural memory, which is memory for motor skills (eg, riding a bicycle) (Choice B). Emotional/reflexive memory, which is memory for associations between stimuli (eg, salty ocean air triggers pleasant emotions from childhood beach vacations). Classically conditioned fear responses are emotional, outside of conscious recall (ie, automatic/involuntary), and often elicit reflexive responses (eg, startle reflex). Therefore, the conditioned fear response during phase 2 occurs as a result of implicit memory. (Choices C and D) Explicit/declarative memory is memory for facts and events that can be consciously or intentionally recalled. Explicit memory consists of episodic memory, which is memory for personal experiences (eg, what you ate for dinner last night), and semantic memory, which includes knowledge about facts (eg, apples are a type of fruit). Educational objective:Implicit/nondeclarative memory is memory for things that cannot be consciously recalled, such as skills, tasks, emotions, and reflexes. Classically conditioned responses rely on implicit memory.

reinforcements and punishers

In operant conditioning, reinforcers encourage behavior whereas punishers discourage behavior. Reinforcers and punishers can be primary (innate) or secondary (learned). Primary reinforcers fulfill a biological urge and are naturally rewarding. Examples of primary reinforcers are food, comforting physical contact, and praise. Secondary reinforcers are not inherently rewarding but are conditioned to be desirable through associative learning. For example, if a child brings home good grades, the parent may reinforce this behavior with praise or candy (primary reinforcers) so the child feels happy. The child then associates feeling good with good grades, resulting in grades becoming a secondary reinforcer. Primary punishers are naturally undesirable and cause negative emotions such as pain or fear. Examples of primary punishers include an electric shock or a loud noise. Secondary punishers are not inherently negative but are conditioned to be undesirable through associative learning. For example, if a child brings home bad grades, the parent may punish this behavior with a scolding (primary punisher) so the child feels bad. The child then associates feeling bad with bad grades, resulting in grades becoming a secondary punisher.

Counterbalancing in research

In research, counterbalancing is used to control for the potential effects that the order of intervention administration may have on the results. For example, if participants were given two different interventions, A and B, a counterbalancing measure would involve separating participants into two groups, one receiving intervention A first, and the other receiving intervention B first.

Pilots who experienced perceptual distortions while landing on an unusually wide runway were most likely affected by which type of monocular depth cue? A.Interposition B.Linear perspective C.Light and shadow D.Texture gradient

Linear perspective Both monocular and binocular cues are used to determine depth and distance. Monocular cues are depth cues that can be perceived using one eye only and often rely on comparisons between objects. Examples of monocular cues include: Interposition: Closer objects will overlap in front of objects that are further away (Choice A). Light and shadow: Highlights and shadows help to give objects the appearance of depth (Choice C). Texture gradient: Closer objects show more fine detail than objects that are further away (Choice D). Relative size: Further objects appear smaller than closer objects of the same size. Relative height: Further objects are perceived at higher distances within a field. Linear perspective: Distances between parallel lines appear narrower as they become further away. A pilot will rely on visual cues from the runway to help determine her distance from it. As the aircraft moves closer to the runway, it takes up a larger portion of her visual field, and the relative distance between the nearest parallel edges of the runway will grow (ie, the linear perspective of the runway shifts as the pilot changes altitude). If the runway is much wider than runways with which the pilot is familiar, she is more likely to misperceive the distance of the unfamiliar runway because it will look different from a familiar runway at the same altitude. Educational objective:Monocular cues are depth cues that can be perceived using one eye only and often rely on comparisons between objects. Examples include relative size, texture gradient changes, relative height, and the distance between parallel lines. Deviations from standard objects could interfere with monocular distance cues.

Which of the following is true regarding two classes of drugs commonly used to treat depression, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)? A.Both classes of drugs stimulate the release of serotonin into the synaptic cleft. B.SSRIs block uptake of serotonin into the post-synaptic neuron. C.MAOIs decrease the breakdown of serotonin within the pre-synaptic neuron. D.MAOIs promote uptake of serotonin into the pre-synaptic neuron.

MAOIs decrease the breakdown of serotonin within the pre-synaptic neuron. Depression symptoms appear to be related to decreased levels of the monoamine neurotransmitters serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine in the central nervous system (monoamine hypothesis). Many antidepressant medications increase the concentration or prolong the function of one or more of these neurotransmitters at the synaptic cleft. These drugs usually function via one of four general mechanisms: Increasing production of neurotransmitters within the presynaptic neuron Promoting release of neurotransmitters from the axon terminal into the synaptic cleft Blocking reabsorption (reuptake) of neurotransmitters into the presynaptic neuron Decreasing breakdown of neurotransmitters within the presynaptic neuron For instance, MAOIs inhibit monoamine oxidase, an enzyme attached to the mitochondria in axon terminals that catalyzes the oxidation (breakdown) of monoamines such as serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine. This enzyme functions in the presynaptic neuron to recycle monoamines that have been removed from the synaptic cleft. Inhibition of monoamine oxidase therefore increases the concentrations of monoamines in the axon terminal and eventually within the synaptic cleft. SSRIs belong to another class of antidepressants that selectively block the reabsorption (reuptake) of serotonin into the presynaptic neuron, thereby prolonging the presence of serotonin in the synaptic cleft. (Choice A) Neither SSRIs nor MAOIs directly stimulate the release of serotonin or other monoamines. However, some drugs, such as serotonin-releasing agents and amphetamines, promote the release of neurotransmitters to increase the activity of these in the synaptic cleft. (Choice B) Reuptake inhibitors such as SSRIs block the uptake of neurotransmitters into the pre-synaptic cleft, where they were originally synthesized and released. (Choice D) Promoting uptake of serotonin would decrease the concentration of serotonin in the synaptic cleft, likely exacerbating the symptoms of depression. Educational objective:Antidepressants increase the function of one or more neurotransmitters within the synaptic cleft. This is often done by increasing the production o

religion and social change

Modernization Reduced importance of religion as society industrializes Secularization Reduced power of religion as religious involvement declines Fundamentalism Renewed commitment to traditional religion as a reaction to secularization

negative priming

Negative priming refers to the impaired processing (ie, slower response or reduced accuracy) that occurs when a stimulus is initially ignored and then later attended to (eg, first being asked to pick a red pen and ignore other colored pens in a cup, and then when asked to pick a blue pen, response time is slower). Negative priming does not account for misattributing information to the wrong source.

neuroplasticity

Neuroplasticity (or neural plasticity) refers to lasting changes in the brain that occur when interactions with the environment alter neurons and/or pathways. Neuroplasticity refers to both increases in neuronal connections, known as potentiation, and decreases in neuronal responses, known as depression. Neuroplasticity is highest during early development but continues throughout our lifetime. Neuroplasticity can occur on the synaptic or structural level. Synaptic plasticity results from changes in the firing rate of the presynaptic neuron, which alters the amount of neurotransmitter released into the synaptic cleft and the number of receptors on the postsynaptic target. Synaptic changes are associated with both immediate and more delayed potentiation or depression. At the structural level, sprouting (increased connections between neurons), rerouting (new connections between neurons), and pruning (decreased connections between neurons) contribute to structural plasticity. Structural plasticity does not happen quickly, so it is not responsible for immediate changes (Choice D). Study 1 demonstrated long-term potentiation (LTP) within a relatively immediate time frame (90 minutes). Therefore, the neuroplasticity demonstrated by the postsynaptic neurons was due to synaptic plasticity.

Does the concept of the critical period of language development help explain the differences between the age groups seen in this study? A.Yes, because only the youngest age group was still within the critical period of language development B.No, because all the children studied were likely still within the critical period of language development C.Yes, because older children demonstrated greater brain volume activation than younger children D.No, because there does not appear to be a connection between brain volume activation and language comprehension

No, because all the children studied were likely still within the critical period of language development The concept of the critical period of language development suggests that there is a time-sensitive period early in life during which language acquisition is easier (with proper exposure), as compared to the period afterward, during which language acquisition is much more difficult. The nativist theory of language development asserts that humans are biologically programmed to acquire language and will learn whatever language(s) they are exposed to during the critical period. This theory suggests that language acquisition is a universal developmental accomplishment; indeed, certain brain regions involved in language development (eg, Wernicke area) are similar in all humans. The concept of the critical period does not help explain the differences between the age groups in this study because the children were age 12 or younger, so they were all likely still within the critical period of language development. (Choice A) All the children studied, not just the youngest age group, were still within the critical period of language development. Therefore, the concept of the critical period does not help to explain the differences between the age groups seen in this study. (Choices C and D) Results do suggest that there is a connection between brain volume activation and language comprehension: Older children demonstrated greater brain volume activation and language comprehension than younger children. However, these results are unrelated to the concept of the critical period. Educational objective:The nativist theory of language development asserts that humans are biologically programmed to acquire language if exposed to it during a critical (time-sensitive) period in early life.

parkinsons

Parkinson disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disease caused by death of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra, located in the midbrain (mesencephalon). The substantia nigra is part of a group of neural structures collectively known as the basal ganglia, which are involved in the selection and execution of voluntary motor programs. Dopamine has several functions in the central nervous system, including mediating the reward pathway and motor control. The basal ganglia are composed of three dopaminergic pathways: the direct pathway, the indirect pathway, and the nigrostriatal pathway. The direct and indirect pathways have excitatory and inhibitory effects on motor function, respectively, and the nigrostriatal pathway helps maintain the balance between these two pathways. The nigrostriatal pathway is damaged when dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra are destroyed. Therefore, the balance between excitatory and inhibitory motor commands deteriorates. Resulting Parkinson symptoms include various motor abnormalities: resting tremor (usually in the upper extremities), muscle rigidity, slowed movement (bradykinesia), shuffling gait, and lack of coordination. DBS in portions of the basal ganglia has been shown to relieve some of these motor symptoms. (Choice A) The amygdala is a neural structure that is part of the limbic system and is involved in emotion regulation and learning (especially fear-based conditioning). (Choice C) The hippocampus is a neural structure that is part of the limbic system and is involved in memory formation, learning, and recall. (Choice D) The motor cortex sends motor commands from the brain to the muscles of the body. DBS of the motor cortex would likely cause disruptions in movement. Educational objective:Parkinson disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that involves the loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, resulting in motor abnormalities (resting tremor, muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, shuffling gait, lack of coordination) and symptoms of depression.

REM sleep

Physiological changes are also characteristic of REM sleep. Cardiovascular and respiratory activities become very regular and gradually decrease, along with temperature, during NREM sleep. During REM sleep, body temperature drops to its lowest point, while cardiovascular and respiratory activities become irregular and increase.

motivational state measurements

Potential confounding variables, such as motivation, must be controlled for at the outset of a study. Subjective states like hunger can be measured. If the groups do not vary in terms of the potential confounding variable, then any significant differences may be attributed to the independent variable(s).

Which of the following is accurate regarding the design of the study described in the passage? A.The null hypothesis is that speech pattern features and scores on the SPI will predict psychosis with similar accuracy. B.Speech pattern features are the dependent variables and the presence of psychosis is the independent variable. C.The results suggest that if a person exhibits prodromal symptoms, the person will eventually develop psychosis. D.The participants were assessed every three months for three years to monitor the progression and severity of psychotic symptoms.

The null hypothesis is that speech pattern features and scores on the SPI will predict psychosis with similar accuracy. A scientific hypothesis is a testable explanation for a phenomenon. The alternative hypothesis is based on prior evidence and assumes that a significant relationship or difference exists between variables (and often predicts the nature of that relationship or difference). In this study, the alternative hypothesis was that a significant difference would be found between statistical models of speech pattern features and clinical symptom assessments in the accuracy of psychosis prediction. The inverse of the alternative hypothesis, the null hypothesis, states that there is no significant difference or relationship between the variables measured. Here, the null hypothesis was that no significant difference would be found between computer models of speech pattern features and scores on the SPI in the prediction of future psychosis. Therefore, the null hypothesis is that speech pattern features and scores on the SPI will predict psychosis with similar accuracy.

Which hypothetical result from a study on tetrachromatic monozygotic (MZ) twins separated at birth and raised by different parents would provide the strongest evidence contradicting the conclusion in the final paragraph of the passage? Tetrachromatic MZ twins' color discrimination abilities are more similar to each other than to: A.the general population. B.their biological siblings. C.their biological parents. D.their adoptive siblings.

Twin studies and adoption studies are used to estimate the importance of genetic and environmental factors on complex human traits, such as color perception. Although they are rare, twin adoption studies can help clarify the role of genes versus the environment for specific traits. MZ twins raised together share the same genes and an extremely similar environment (eg, same household, same schools, similar experiences), so it is not possible to determine if similar traits are the result of genes, environment, or a combination of the two. However, if MZ twins are each adopted and raised apart, traits that they share are most likely determined by genes whereas traits that are more similar to those of their adoptive families are most likely determined by environmental influences. If tetrachromatic MZ twins (same genes) are raised apart (different environment) and perceive color more similarly to each other than to their adoptive siblings, this would suggest that genes play a major role in color perception, which would strongly contradict the researcher's conclusion that language (an environmental factor) influences this trait. (Choices A, B, and C) Adopted twins do not share a home environment with their biological parents, biological siblings, or the general population. Therefore, the hypothetical finding that includes a comparison to adoptive siblings (with whom they have a shared environment) provides the strongest evidence against the passage's conclusion that language (an environmental factor) influences color perception abilities. Educational objective:For human traits, particularly complex ones, twin studies and adoption studies can help explain the extent to which genes and/or the environment play a role in that trait. Twin adoption studies are a rare but powerful tool for elucidating the role of genes versus the environment for specific traits.

Which of the following most accurately reflects the reinforcement schedules used by Study 1 and the experimental group in Study 2, respectively? A.Variable ratio; variable interval B.Variable ratio; fixed interval C.Fixed ratio; variable interval D.Fixed ratio; fixed interval

Variable ratio; fixed interval Schedules are used in operant conditioning to train and/or maintain learned behaviors through reinforcement or punishment. Continuous schedules provide a reward or punishment after every behavior, which produces the fastest learning using reinforcement and is the most effective way to stop unwanted behavior using punishment. Partial reinforcement schedules are most often used to maintain learned behaviors, and include: Fixed ratio: Behavior rewarded after a consistent number of responses. For example, a customer loyalty program awards a free coffee after ten coffee purchases. Variable ratio: Behavior rewarded after an inconsistent number of responses, usually after some average number of responses, as in Study 1. The AVG3 schedule might provide a reward after four correct responses, then after two, then after three, and so on. Fixed interval: Behavior rewarded after a consistent amount of time, regardless of how many behaviors have occurred. For example, employees who are paid a weekly salary receive the same amount of money each Friday regardless of how hard they have worked during the week. Variable interval: Behavior rewarded after an inconsistent amount of time, regardless of how many behaviors have occurred. For example, when awaiting an email, the frequency with which users refresh their in-boxes does not affect when a new email arrives. The reinforcement schedule used by Study 1 was a variable ratio schedule, because the reward was provided after some average number of correct responses. The reinforcement schedule used for the experimental group in Study 2 was a fixed interval schedule, because rewards occurred on a weekly basis.

Smoking behavior is: A.positively reinforced through the removal of withdrawal symptoms and negatively reinforced through mild feelings of euphoria. B.positively reinforced through mild feelings of euphoria and negatively reinforced through the removal of withdrawal symptoms. C.positively reinforced through mild feelings of euphoria and negatively punished through the onset of withdrawal symptoms. D.positively reinforced through the onset of withdrawal symptoms and positively punished through mild feelings of euphoria.

positively reinforced through mild feelings of euphoria and negatively reinforced through the removal of withdrawal symptoms. In operant conditioning, reinforcement increases the likelihood that a behavior will occur again. When a desirable stimulus or outcome is added following a behavior, this is known as positive reinforcement. For example, if a child earns good grades and receives praise or candy, that behavior is positively reinforced, making the behavior likely to continue. Similarly, mild feelings of euphoria after inhaling cigarette smoke positively reinforce smoking behavior. When an undesirable stimulus or outcome is removed following a behavior, this is known as negative reinforcement. For example, if a rat receives a constant electric shock until it presses a lever that turns off the stimulus, that behavior is negatively reinforced. Smoking to avoid unpleasant withdrawal symptoms (eg, cravings, irritability) is also an example of negative reinforcement. Punishment decreases the likelihood that the behavior will occur again. When an undesirable stimulus or outcome is added following a behavior, this is known as positive punishment (eg, spanking a child after misbehavior). The onset of withdrawal symptoms would be a positive punishment, decreasing the likelihood of quitting (Choices C and D). When a desirable stimulus or outcome is removed following a behavior, this is known as negative punishment (eg, no dessert because of misbehavior). The removal of euphoria would be negative punishment, decreasing the likelihood of quitting (Choice A). Educational objective:Reinforcement increases the likelihood of a behavior such as smoking. Positive reinforcement (eg, feelings of euphoria) occurs when a desirable stimulus increases the likelihood of a behavior, and negative reinforcement (eg, removal of withdrawal symptoms) occurs when the avoidance of a negative stimulus increases the likelihood of a behavior. Punishment decreases the likelihood that a behavior (eg, quitting) will occur again.

Place theory is most appropriate for explaining how infants: A.associated the red light with the auditory stimuli in Study 2. B.processed the pitch of the auditory stimuli in Study 2. C.distinguished the features of a human face in Study 1. D.perceived the distance of a visual stimulus in Study 1.

processed the pitch of the auditory stimuli in Study 2. Auditory processing includes all the activities involved in the brain that recognize and interpret sound stimuli. For example, the brain perceives the amplitude of the sound wave as loudness and the frequency of the sound wave as pitch; the brain perceives the source of the sound by comparing the difference between the arrival time and intensity of the sound hitting the two ears. Place theory explains the perception of sound pitch (how high or low a tone is). Inside the cochlea, specific sound wavelengths generate basilar membrane vibrations at specific loci. Each locus (place) corresponds to a slightly different frequency. Hair cells located at the base of the basilar membrane are activated by high frequency sounds, and hair cells located at the apex of the basilar membrane are activated by low frequency sounds. Place theory is most appropriate for explaining how the infants in Study 2 processed the pitch of the auditory stimuli. (Choice A) Place theory explains how the ear perceives high- and low-pitched frequencies. It does not address how sensory stimuli from different modalities can become linked. (Choices C and D) Place theory is relevant to pitch perception during auditory processing. It does not explain visual phenomena, such as how people perceive the features of a human face or how people perceive distance. Educational objective:Place theory states that specific wavelength frequencies generate vibrations at specific loci on the basilar membrane of the cochlea. Hair cells located at the base of the basilar membrane are activated by high frequency sounds, and hair cells located at the apex of the basilar membrane are activated by low frequency sounds.

Aging is associated with significant memory decline for all of the following types of memory EXCEPT: A.episodic. B.flashbulb. C.semantic. D.source.

semantic. Semantic and procedural types of memory appear to remain relatively stable with age. Semantic memory is the memory for words, facts, and concepts that have been acquired over the lifetime (eg, color names). Procedural memory involves motor skills that one has acquired (eg, riding a bike, driving a car). Educational objective:Aging has been associated with declines in certain types of memory, including episodic, flashbulb, and source memory. Semantic and procedural types of memory appear to remain relatively stable with age.

If you fixate on the black plus sign in the middle of this image without moving your eyes, the grey circle around the plus sign eventually disappears. Known as the Troxler effect, this occurs because of: A.opponent processing. B.interposition. C.sensory adaptation. D.the blind spot.

sensory adaptation. Sensory adaptation is a diminished response by the nervous system when presented with an unchanging stimulus over a period of time. Decreased nervous system responsiveness results in the diminished perception of that stimulus. In the above example, fixation on the plus sign results in an unchanging peripheral visual stimulus, which results in a diminished response by the optic nerve, and the circle seems to disappear. Even slight movement of the eye away from the fixation point will alter the stimulation of these nerves, thereby increasing their responsiveness to the changing stimulus and causing the circle to reappear. Sensory adaptation can occur with any sensory system. For example, when one first walks into a kitchen where cookies are baking, the scent seems strong, but it fades as one continues to be exposed to it. Sensory adaptation also includes dark adaptation and light adaptation, or adaptation of vision with reduced and increased light levels, respectively. (Choice A) Opponent-process theory states that color vision occurs because of the opposing responses of three sensory receptor complexes (red-green, blue-yellow, and black-white). (Choice B) Interposition is a monocular depth cue that refers to one object partially blocking another (the fully visible object is perceived as being closer). (Choice D) The blind spot is a small region between the central and peripheral visual fields where there are no photoreceptors because the optic nerve exits the retina at this location. The gradual disappearance of a visual stimulus, as occurs with the Troxler effect, cannot be explained by the blind spot. Educational objective:Sensory adaptation occurs when the neural response to an unchanging stimulus is dampened and the perception of that stimulus either disappears or is diminished. Sensory adaptation can occur with vision, hearing, smell, taste, and touch.

Which of the following r values for the correlation between depressive symptoms and medication adherence in individuals with schizophrenia best supports the research presented in the first paragraph? A.+0.95 B.+0.30 C.−0.35 D.−0.90

−0.35 Comorbidity refers to the simultaneous presentation of two or more psychological disorders. If an individual with schizophrenia also has depression (a mood disorder), the two disorders are comorbid. Comorbid disorders often interact with each other, worsening the course of either or both. Disorders are thought to co-occur because they have common risk factors, such as genetic predisposition or environmental stressors. A correlation coefficient (r value) describes the linear relationship between two variables; r values range from −1 to 1 and describe the direction (sign) and strength of an association. The sign of the r value indicates a positive or negative association, and the closer r is to −1 or 1, the stronger the relationship. Correlations describe relationships between variables, but it is not possible to determine if one variable caused the change in the other. Fewer depressive symptoms were moderately associated with higher rates of medication compliance (ie, as depressive symptoms decrease, medication compliance increases); therefore, the research presented in the first paragraph is best supported by the negative and moderate r value of −0.35. (Choices A and B) +0.95 and +0.30 reflect positive, not negative, correlations. (Choices A and D) +0.95 and −0.90 reflect very strong, not moderate, correlations.

If Student 1 has progressed to identity achievement status, how would the student most likely respond to the question, "Would you change your career choice if a better option came along?" A."I don't think so; I've made my career decision carefully and I'm committed to my choice." B."My family is in agreement about my career path, so I already know where I am going." C."I haven't really thought about it that much because it makes no difference to me." D."You never know what the future holds, so if something better comes along I would consider it."

"I don't think so; I've made my career decision carefully and I'm committed to my choice." The identity development theory by James Marcia evaluates the psychological progress of individuals based on their level of commitment and degree of exploration, yielding four identity statuses. Identity diffusion (low commitment, low exploration): People at this level lack direction, have not explored options, and have not committed to a particular career path or future. Identity foreclosure (high commitment, low exploration): People at this level have accepted an identity that they have been assigned (typically by a parent or authority figure) without contemplation or exploration. Identity moratorium (low commitment, high exploration): People at this level are still trying new activities and thinking about a career path, but have not yet arrived at a decision. Identity achievement (high commitment, high exploration): People at this level have explored their options and typically feel confident about who they are and what they want to do in the future. If Student 1 has reached identity achievement status, the student is most likely to respond with, "I don't think so; I've made my career decision carefully and I'm committed to my choice." (Choice B) This quotation suggests identity foreclosure because it indicates that parents have already made the decision without describing any effort to explore options. (Choice C) This quotation suggests identity diffusion because it expresses no commitment to a future goal and no willingness to think about options. (Choice D) This quotation suggests no commitment and therefore does not reflect an identity achievement status. Educational objective:Marcia outlines four identity statuses depending on a person's level of commitment and exploration: Identity diffusion (low commitment, low exploration), identity foreclosure (high commitment, low exploration), identity moratorium (low commitment, high exploration), and identity achievement (high commitment, high exploration).

Somatic symptom and related

-Somatic symptom disorder Extreme concern regarding one or more physical symptoms (eg, fatigue, pain) -Conversion disorder "Neurological symptoms" (eg, paralysis, blindness) that are not explainable by a medical condition -Illness anxiety disorder Preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious disease (eg, HIV, cancer) -Factitious disorder Symptoms or illness are intentionally fabricated without obvious external gain (eg, disability benefits)

Which of the following scenarios best represents intragenerational vertical mobility? A.An hourly wage employee has a son who becomes a neurosurgeon. B.A cardiologist loses her medical license and struggles to find a new job. C.A general surgeon in Denver moves his surgical practice to Dallas. D.A dentist inherits his mother's dental practice.

A cardiologist loses her medical license and struggles to find a new job. Social mobility refers to the change or movement of individuals, groups, or families between or within status categories in society (eg, from middle class to upper class). Social mobility can be horizontal (ie, same social status) or vertical (ie, up or down in social status) and is related to a multitude of other factors, such as educational achievement, job loss, career advancement, marriage, and institutionalized discrimination. Intragenerational social mobility occurs within a single generation (ie, within a lifetime). Intergenerational social mobility occurs over multiple generations (ie, across several lifetimes). A cardiologist who loses her medical license and struggles to find a new job is an example of both intragenerational mobility, as this shift occurs within her own lifetime, and vertical (downward) mobility, because her social status decreases. (Choice A) A difference in social status between parent and son reflects intergenerational mobility, as it occurs across more than one lifetime. The shift in status from parent (hourly wage employee) to son (neurosurgeon, a highly paid salaried position) is an example of vertical (upward) social mobility. (Choice C) A surgeon moving his practice between locations does represent intragenerational mobility, as it occurs within his own lifetime, but it would be an example of horizontal (not vertical) social mobility because there is no change in social status. (Choice D) A dentist inheriting his mother's dental practice would be an example of intergenerational (not intragenerational) mobility, as it occurs across more than one lifetime. It is also an example of horizontal (not vertical) social mobility because the status of mother and son are the same. Educational objective:Social mobility refers to the change in social status experienced by a group or individual. It may be vertical (upward or downward) or horizontal (no change in status) and may be intragenerational (occurring over a relatively short time among members of the same generation) or intergenerational (occurring over a relatively long time among members of different generations).

Based on the description of medical jargon in the second paragraph, medical personnel can best be described as which of the following? A.A counterculture B.An aggregate C.A primary group D.A subculture

A subculture A subculture is a group of individuals who are characteristically distinctive from the dominant culture in some way, but whose values and norms still align with the dominant culture. The dominant culture includes the established set of norms, values, rituals, and beliefs that define a society. The use of medical jargon, the standardized language used to communicate within a group, suggests that medical personnel can best be described as a subculture. Members of a subculture tend to identify as a group, have their own jargon and mode of dress (eg, scrubs, white coats, stethoscopes), and engage in characteristically distinctive behaviors (eg, treating patients, being on call). (Choice A) A counterculture is a group of individuals whose norms and values oppose those of the dominant culture (eg, the hippie counterculture was opposed to the Vietnam War, which was largely supported by the dominant culture at the time). The use of medical jargon does not suggest that medical personnel oppose the dominant culture. (Choice B) An aggregate is a collection of individuals who share a common location but do not identify as a group (eg, all the people at a given cafe at 6:00 AM). Medical personnel would be considered a group, not an aggregate. (Choice C) A primary group is composed of members who have frequent contact and are emotionally connected (eg, close friends, family members). Secondary groups are composed of members who interact for a common goal (eg, colleagues). Medical personnel who work together would be considered a secondary (not primary) group. Educational objective:The dominant culture establishes the norms, values, and rituals of a society. A subculture is distinct from the dominant culture in some way but is still aligned with the norms and values of the dominant culture. A counterculture opposes the norms and values of the dominant culture.

Female S. beldingi ground squirrels tend to remain near their birthplace and kin for life. S. beldingi females are also more likely than males to give alarm calls when they spot a predator, even though this behavior draws the predator's attention to the individual who produced the alarm. Which concept is LEAST relevant to this phenomenon? A.Autocommunication B.Altruism C.Indirect fitness D.Evolutionary game theory

A.Autocommunication Autocommunication occurs when a message sender is also the receiver. For example, dolphins echolocate by perceiving how the click sounds they have emitted echo back to them. Predator warning calls, communication that alerts other group members (not the individual making the call), is not relevant to autocommunication. (Choice B) Altruism is behavior that benefits others in a group at a potential cost or risk to oneself. For example, sounding an alarm call in response to a predator sighting benefits the group of S. beldingi squirrels, but places the individual who made the call at risk by drawing the predator's attention. (Choice C) An individual's inclusive fitness is the sum of its direct fitness (own reproduction) and indirect fitness (cooperative behavior that aids kin). Thus, inclusive fitness serves as a metric for an individual's total evolutionary success. Female S. beldingi squirrels, who remain near their birthplace and live by many relatives, engage in altruistic behaviors that maximize the chance that kin will survive (ie, indirect fitness). (Choice D) Game theory mathematically evaluates the relative success of particular strategies (behavioral phenotypes) over time. When the evolutionary benefit of a social behavior outweighs the cost of that behavior (eg, a warning call puts an individual at risk but increases the likelihood that genes will be passed on), game theory predicts that the behavioral phenotype will persist. Educational objective:Altruism is behavior that is carried out for the benefit of others at a cost or risk to the individual. Altruism can be explained by the theory of inclusive fitness, which states that an individual's overall genetic success is partially derived from the success of genetic relatives, and by game theory, which evaluates the relative successes of particular behavioral phenotypes, such as altruistic alarm calls, over time.

Which of the following would increase the dependency ratio in 2030? A.Millennials have more children than expected. B.Unemployment rates are lower than expected. C.Mortality rates for baby boomers are higher than expected. D.The retirement age changes from 65 to 75.

A.Millennials have more children than expected. The dependency ratio is the proportion of unproductive (ie, too old or too young to work) to productive (ie, working-age) members in a society. People under the age of 15 and over the age 64 are considered too young and too old, respectively, to have jobs and contribute to the economy.The dependency ratio is a rough estimate based on age, calculated by adding the number of people below age 15 and above age 64 and dividing that sum by the number of people age 15-64. The resulting fraction is then multiplied by 100 to obtain the number of dependents per 100 people of working age. As the ratio increases, there is more pressure on the productive members of society to support and care for children and the elderly. If millennials have more children than expected, this would increase (not decrease) the dependency ratio because it would result in an increase in the number of children who are too young to work. The dependency ratio is the ratio of the number of dependents (people age 0-14 and 65+) to the number of productive members in a society, given as a rough estimate. The higher the dependency ratio, the more pressure there is on working-age members of society to support dependents.

Which statement about obesity is most consistent with the epidemiologists' argument in the second paragraph? A.Popular culture likely reflects changing attitudes about obesity. B.Obesity is an American fad. C.Mass media is responsible for normalizing obesity. D.Obesity is a new counterculture in America.

A.Popular culture likely reflects changing attitudes about obesity. Popular culture is defined as the ideas, attitudes, and perspectives that are mainstream (ie, relevant to most people in society). Popular culture includes anything the majority of individuals in a society believe in (eg, freedom), do (eg, watch television), wear (eg, blue jeans), or buy/consume (eg, cell phones, McDonald's meals). Popular culture can be contrasted with high culture, which is relevant to a very small fraction of the population, usually those with wealth or education. For example, collecting museum-quality artwork is not considered part of popular culture. The epidemiologists' argument in the second paragraph is that mainstream attitudes and beliefs regarding what is considered a healthy weight are changing as people gradually become heavier. Therefore, changing attitudes and beliefs about obesity are likely reflected in popular culture. In other words, people's beliefs, behaviors, and consumer habits (ie, aspects of popular culture) reflect changing attitudes about obesity. (Choice B) Fads are trends or crazes occurring over a short period within a segment of the population. For example, wearing bell-bottom pants was a fad for hippies in the 1960s. The second paragraph states that resetting of norms regarding weight is widespread with no endpoint suggested, which is inconsistent with a fad. (Choice C) Mass media includes all the routes through which information reaches large numbers of people in society (eg, television, Internet). The argument made by the epidemiologists in the second paragraph is that interaction with friends and family (not mass media) is responsible for normalizing obesity. (Choice D) Countercultures are subsets of society that resist mainstream values and norms. Countercultural movements are the opposition of mainstream culture (eg, anti-consumerism) by a clearly defined group (eg, hippies in the 1960s and 1970s). The second paragraph suggests that the resetting of norms regarding weight is a mainstream, widespread phenomenon not limited to a counterculture. Educational objective:Popular culture refers to ideas, attitudes, and behaviors that are widespread in society. Popular culture reflects the

Symptoms of a myocardial infarction can differ between individuals. Women who experienced a myocardial infarction were later interviewed by a researcher about their decision to seek treatment. Many participants noted that they delayed seeking treatment because their symptoms didn't match the "prototypical" heart attack symptoms they had seen in the media. Which concept best explains this phenomenon? A.Representativeness heuristic B.Availability heuristic C.Actor-observer bias D.Hindsight bias

A.Representativeness heuristic Availability heuristic Representativeness heuristic How easily something comes to memory (eg, assuming shark attacks are common after seeing one reported on the news) How well something matches a mental prototype (eg, assuming a woman dressed in scrubs is a nurse rather than a surgeon) Heuristics are mental shortcuts that allow for fast problem solving and decision making but sometimes lead to inaccurate conclusions. The representativeness heuristic is the tendency to compare things (eg, people, events) to mental prototypes when making judgments. For example, some people (often women) experience "atypical" symptoms during a myocardial infarction (MI), such as nausea or upper back pressure. Media representations of chest and left arm pain as "prototypical" symptoms of an MI may lead such individuals to incorrectly assume they are not experiencing an MI if their symptoms do not match this prototype. Therefore, women delaying treatment because their symptoms don't match "prototypical" symptoms is best explained by the representativeness heuristic. (Choice B) The availability heuristic is the tendency to believe that if something is easily recalled from memory, it must be common or likely (eg, if several relatives have been diagnosed with lung cancer, an individual might inaccurately assume that lung cancer is the most common type of cancer). Participants comparing their symptoms to a prototype is an example of the representativeness, not availability, heuristic.

When asked why he was successful while his classmate Jake was not, Michael replied, "Jake was just a bad person, whereas I took advantage of my opportunities." This reasoning is LEAST consistent with which concept? A.Self-fulfilling prophecy B.Just world phenomenon C.Self-serving bias D.Fundamental attribution error

A.Self-fulfilling prophecy A self-fulfilling prophecy occurs when a belief about oneself (eg, "I'm a terrible test taker") causes behavior that makes the belief come true (eg, belief causes test anxiety, resulting in actual poor performance). In other words, the belief itself, regardless of if the belief is true or justified, directly or indirectly initiates a chain of events that prove the belief true. Michael's comments about Jake are not consistent with a self-fulfilling prophecy. (Choices B, C, and D) Attributional biases are cognitive biases (irrational thought processes) that occur when individuals attempt to understand their own behavior or the behavior of others. Common errors are often made when individuals attribute their own behavior (or the behavior of others) to some cause, including: Just world phenomenon Fundamental attribution error Self-serving bias The just world phenomenon is an attributional bias that occurs when one believes that the world is fair and good things happen to people who are hard-working and good and that bad things happen to people who are bad or lazy. Michael's attributing Jake's failure to being "a bad person" and his own success to having taken advantage of opportunities is an example of the just world phenomenon (Choice B). The self-serving bias is an attributional bias that occurs when people attribute their success to themselves (I earned it because I worked hard) but blame their failure on external circumstances (I failed because the teacher hates me). Michael's attributing his success to his own hard work is an example of the self-serving bias (Choice C). The fundamental attribution error is an attributional bias that occurs when one attributes another's behavior to internal factors, such as personality, instead of external or situational factors. Michael's attributing Jake's outcome to his personality ("He was always just a bad person") exemplifies the fundamental attribution error (Choice D). Educational objective:When attempting to understand behavior, people often make attributional biases. The just world phenomenon occurs when one believes that bad things happen only to bad people. The fundamental attribution error occurs when people attribute the behavio

Which of the following is the most likely reason the researchers limited the age range of the participants included in this study? Compared to younger adults, older adults experience: A.age-related declines in autobiographical memory. B.enhanced recall of autobiographical events occurring during adolescence and early adulthood. C.age-related declines in crystallized intelligence. D.enhanced ability to solve problems and adapt to new situations.

A.age-related declines in autobiographical memory. Age-related cognitive effects in older adults Declines -Memory: episodic (personal autobiographical events) -Intelligence: fluid (ability to creatively solve new problems & see new patterns) Remains stable -Memory: semantic (fact-based) & procedural (skills-based) -Intelligence: crystallized (ability to apply established skills or knowledge) Older adults experience age-related declines in certain cognitive functions. Research has shown there are age-related declines in episodic memory, but semantic (fact-based) and procedural (skill-based) memories appear to remain relatively stable. Research has also demonstrated age-related declines in fluid (adaptable) intelligence, but crystallized (acquired skills/knowledge) intelligence appears to remain relatively unchanged and even increases with age (to a point). Because the ability to recall an episodic (autobiographical) memory was the dependent variable in this study, the researchers most likely limited the age range of the participants to 25-45 years because age-related declines in autobiographical (ie, episodic) memory in older adults could impact the study results. (Choice B) Older adults tend to recall events from their youth and younger adulthood more easily than events that happened later; this is termed the reminiscence bump. The reminiscence bump describes older adults' enhanced recall compared to their own recall of other memories, not compared to younger adults.

In an experiment, researchers find that certain neurons in the visual cortex preferentially fire in response to a bar of light that is oriented at a specific angle, and that different neurons similarly respond to bars of light oriented at different angles. This finding provides the strongest evidence for: A.feature detection. B.parallel processing. C.spreading activation. D.sensory adaptation.

A.feature detection. Feature detection involves the perceptual discrimination of specific aspects of a given stimulus via feature detectors. Feature detectors are specific neurons that preferentially fire in response to very specific stimuli. Feature detection occurs for all the senses but is most often described regarding vision. Feature detectors in the visual system respond to aspects of the visual stimulus, such as horizontal lines or right angles (among others). The visual system is organized such that feature detectors synapse on neurons that respond to more complex stimuli (eg, faces) localized in certain areas of the brain (eg, fusiform face area). An experiment in which researchers find that certain neurons in the visual cortex preferentially fire in response to specific stimuli (eg, a bar of light oriented at a specific angle) provides the strongest evidence for feature detection. (Choice B) Parallel processing describes the brain's ability to simultaneously process various components (eg, color, motion) of a visual stimulus. This experiment did not demonstrate the simultaneous firing of different neurons detecting different components of a stimulus, so it does not provide strong evidence for parallel processing. (Choice C) Spreading activation occurs when a node (ie, concept) within an individual's semantic network (a uniquely organized cognitive web of information) triggers the activation of other, related nodes, a process known as priming. Because the experiment did not test priming, its findings do not provide evidence for spreading activation. (Choice D) Sensory adaptation is a diminished nervous system response over time to stimuli that remain constant, resulting in diminished stimulus perception (eg, a constant odor becomes less noticeable over time). This experiment did not present stimuli until the response diminished, so its findings do not provide evidence for sensory adaptation. Educational objective:Feature detection involves feature detector neurons that preferentially fire in response to specific stimuli (eg, a right angle causes feature detectors in the visual system to respond).

Which prediction is compatible with the sociologists' assertion in the fourth paragraph? The increase of medicalization in society will result in medical professionals having: A.greater power and authority. B.reduced power and authority. C.greater authority, but with no effect on their power. D.greater power, but with no effect on their authority.

A.greater power and authority. In sociology, power refers to the ability to control and influence others. Authority refers to whether others believe that the power is legitimate. There are three types of authority: Traditional authority comes from longstanding patterns in society (eg, a queen is seen as having legitimate power in a monarchy). Charismatic authority stems from the personal appeal and/or extraordinary claims of an individual (eg, Gandhi was seen as having legitimate power due to his ability to inspire people). Rational-legal authority arises from the professional position a person holds (eg, a physician is seen as having legitimate power due to extensive training). Medicalization, the process of defining human behaviors or characteristics as medical conditions, often results from shifting attitudes, new scientific evidence, or new treatments. For example, menopause, a natural condition, is now viewed by some as a deficiency in hormones that can be treated with pharmaceuticals. Medicalization leads individuals to look to medical professionals as the experts in diagnosing, preventing, or treating such conditions. As medicalization increases in a society, individuals will increasingly rely on medical professionals, rather than clergy, as legitimate sources of guidance on lifestyle behaviors. Therefore, medical professionals will have more power (ie, influence on people) and authority, as that power will be seen as legitimate. (Choice B) Increasing medicalization will increase, not reduce, the power and authority of medical professionals. (Choices C and D) As medicalization increases, both the power (the ability to influence people) and authority (power being perceived as legitimate) of medical professionals will increase. Educational objective:In sociology, power refers to the ability to influence and control others. Authority refers to whether others perceive that power as legitimate.

defense mechanisms

According to psychoanalytic theory, defense mechanisms are a largely unconscious means of dealing with anxiety or stress, often through distorting or ignoring aspects of reality. Some defense mechanisms are more adaptive (eg, directing unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable behaviors) and provide an effective means of coping with stress, whereas others are less adaptive (eg, avoiding feelings through drug use) and can result in additional problems (eg, job loss). Reaction formation occurs when individuals outwardly express the opposite of how they actually feel when those thoughts and feelings are distressing. An individual whose attraction causes her distress is exhibiting reaction formation by outwardly expressing the opposite of attraction (eg, acting coldly) toward her supervisor. (Choice A) Displacement involves taking out one's unacceptable thoughts and behaviors on another person or object. If this individual were employing displacement, she might exhibit attraction toward a peer rather than her supervisor (eg, "I feel attracted to my coworker"). (Choice B) Rationalization involves making excuses to oneself and to others for one's unacceptable thoughts and behaviors. If this individual were employing rationalization, she would justify or excuse her attraction to her supervisor (eg, "I'm vulnerable right now because of my recent divorce"). (Choice C) Projection involves attributing one's unacceptable thoughts and behaviors to others. If the individual were employing projection, she would ascribe her feelings to someone else, such as to her supervisor (eg, "My supervisor is obviously attracted to me").

instinctive drift

An instinct is an innate, fixed pattern of behavior that is more complex than a reflex, which is a simple response to a stimulus (eg, jerking hand away from hot stove). Instincts are not based on prior experience or learning. For example, newly hatched sea turtles instinctively know to move toward the ocean and swim. Instinctive (or instinctual) drift describes an animal's innate behaviors overshadowing a learned behavior. Animals can often be trained using operant conditioning, whereby a desired behavior is reinforced with a reward. However, even when reinforcement is provided, trained animals will often revert to innate behaviors. For example, researchers used food rewards to train pigs to pick up wooden coins and deposit them in a piggy bank. Over time, even though the pigs could be successfully trained to complete the behavior, the pigs began dropping the coins before reaching the piggy bank and pushing them along the ground with their snouts, a species-specific behavior known as rooting. (Choice A) Children are biologically predisposed to prefer sweet over bitter tastes, which is believed to confer an evolutionary advantage to babies who preferred more calorie-dense (sweet) foods and rejected foods more likely to be toxic (bitter). However, this describes an innate preference and is not an example of instinctive drift. (Choice B) Most animals have an innate fear of their predators. Although human behavior is more complex than animal behavior, studies suggest that it is easier to condition humans to fear certain stimuli, specifically snakes, spiders, and rats. However, this describes a fear instinct in humans, which is not an example of instinctive drift. (Choice D) Animals and humans will associate whatever they consumed (usually through sight or smell cues) with becoming ill and will avoid it in the future. This is known as a taste aversion, a powerful type of associative learning, and is not an example of instinctive drift.

anomie

Anomie is a state of normlessness that occurs when a society fails to provide individuals with norms and values to guide behavior. In an anomic society, individuals lack guidance and purpose and feel aimless or alienated from society. Anomie is often the result of a shift or transition in society that causes instability, undermining current norms (before new norms arise to replace them). Anomie variously impacts individuals within society based on which norms are undermined and how. For example, during the Industrial Revolution, many individuals who moved to cities (a new way of life) experienced anomie, but those who remained in the countryside were less likely to be affected because the norms governing life prior to the Industrial Revolution were still in effect. Anomie is a state of normlessness in society. When the norms and values of a society are undermined and have yet to be replaced, the social system reaches the condition of anomie. Individuals in an anomic society lack the guidance and purpose that society usually provides; as a result, they may feel less tied to society, aimless, or alienated.

According to the demographic transition model, a newly industrializing society is characterized by which of the following? A.Low birth and death rates combined with slow population growth B.Decreasing death rates and increasing access to food, medicine, and improved sanitation C.Dropping birth rates and a declining population size D.High birth and death rates combined with slow population growth

B.Decreasing death rates and increasing access to food, medicine, and improved sanitation According to the demographic transition model, a society's transition from high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates typically occurs in the following stages: Stage 1: In preindustrial societies, birth and death rates are both high and population growth is slow. Stage 2: As societies begin to industrialize, death rates drop as food/medicine availability and sanitation increase, and population growth is rapid. Stage 3: As societies urbanize, the population continues to grow, but birth rates begin to decline as access to contraception increases. Stage 4: In developed societies, birth and death rates are both low and population growth is slow. Stage 5: For highly developed societies with very low birth rates, the population may decline. A newly industrializing society would be in Stage 2 of demographic transition, in which the death rate declines as a result of increased access to food, medicine, and improved sanitation. (Choice A) Low birth and death rates combined with slow population growth characterize Stage 4 of demographic transition, which is associated with a developed (fully industrialized) society, not a newly industrializing society. (Choice C) A society with a birth rate low enough for the population to begin to decline characterizes Stage 5 of demographic transition, which is indicative of a highly developed (fully industrialized) society, not a newly industrializing society. (Choice D) High birth and death rates with slow population growth define Stage 1 of demographic transition, which is indicative of a preindustrial society, not a newly industrializing society. Educational objective:According to the demographic transition model, societies progress through stages marked by characteristic changes in birth/death rates and population size: high birth/death rates, small population (Stage 1); declining death rate, increasing population (Stage 2); declining birth rate, slower population growth (Stage 3); low birth/death rates, stable population (Stage 4); and very low birth rate, declining population (Stage 5).

The study design described in the passage is most aligned with which theory of motivation? A.Arousal B.Expectancy C.Incentive D.Humanistic

B.Expectancy The expectancy theory of motivation proposes that individuals are motivated to act based on the expected outcomes of their behavior. According to this theory, motivation involves expectancy, instrumentality, and valence: Expectancy is the belief that one will be able to achieve the desired outcome. Asking participants to rate how successful they think they will be at losing weight is a measure of expectancy. Instrumentality is the belief that one has control over the desired outcome. Asking participants to rate how much control they believe they have over their success is a measure of instrumentality. Valence involves the value placed on the desired outcome. If the researchers also asked participants to rate how much they wanted to lose weight, this would be a measure of valence. (Choice A) The arousal theory of motivation suggests that individuals are motivated to maintain an optimum level of arousal. When underaroused, people seek activities to increase stimulation (eg, if bored at home, one will go out dancing). When overaroused, people seek to decrease stimulation (eg, if overwhelmed at a party, one will step outside for quiet). (Choice C) The incentive theory of motivation suggests that individuals are motivated according to external rewards. Therefore, people engage in the behavior that results in the most desirable outcomes. For example, people are motivated to go to work to make money. (Choice D) The humanistic theory of motivation suggests that, assuming more basic needs (like hunger) have been met, individuals are ultimately motivated to seek self-actualization, the ultimate fulfillment of their own potential. The motivation to pursue a medical degree is an example of wanting to fulfill one's potential. Educational objective:The expectancy theory of motivation proposes that motivation results from expectancy (believing one is capable of achieving an outcome), instrumentality (believing one has control over the outcome), and valence (believing the outcome is desirable).

Does the passage provide a threshold for absolute poverty? A.No, there is no standardized definition of absolute poverty B.No, the threshold described in the passage is based on a comparison that is relative to others within a given country C.Yes, the passage describes a threshold below which individuals are unable to meet their basic needs D.Yes, the threshold described in the passage is based on a global standard that can be applied to any given country

B.No, the threshold described in the passage is based on a comparison that is relative to others within a given country Absolute poverty is the inability to secure the basic necessities of life, such as food, clean water, and shelter. Relative poverty, which is defined in comparison to the economic conditions of others, is a more subjective measure encompassing quality-of-life issues, such as relatively longer travel times to reach medical care using public transportation because one cannot afford a car. The first paragraph describes poverty thresholds defined as 50% of the median household income in a given country, which is a measure of relative (not absolute) poverty.

An employee complies with a supervisor's request to engage in behavior that the employee knows is unethical. Does this scenario illustrate obedience? A.Yes, because the employee experiences peer pressure to act in order to be accepted. B.Yes, because the employee occupies a position of lower status than the supervisor. C.No, because complying with requests from a supervisor is part of the employee's social role. D.No, because the employee would be able to deflect blame onto the supervisor.

B.Yes, because the employee occupies a position of lower status than the supervisor. Factors correlated with increased obedience -Personal factors Status: lower status, less power -Situational factors Proximity: authority figure is closer, victim is farther away Legitimacy: authority figure seems more legitimate, prestigious Consensus: everyone else is obeying -Cultural factors Collectivism: societies that value the group over the individual Obedience is a type of conformity in which an individual carries out orders given by an authority figure. Research on obedience suggests that people tend to obey even when doing so results in immoral or unethical behavior. Conducted in the 1960s, Stanley Milgram's landmark obedience study demonstrated that most people will deliver dangerously high electric shocks to a confederate posing as a research participant if commanded to do so by the researcher (an authority figure). An employee complying with a supervisor's request to engage in behavior that the employee knows is unethical would be an example of obedience because the employee (lower status than the supervisor) is carrying out the orders of the supervisor (authority figure). (Choice A) Peer pressure occurs when individuals experience social influences that persuade them to conform to group norms in order to be accepted. Even though it is possible that this employee feels peer pressure, the experience of peer pressure does not make this an example of obedience. (Choice C) Social roles include the behaviors, beliefs, and norms that accompany a socially defined position. Even though complying with requests from a supervisor is part of the employee's social role, engaging in behavior that is unethical based on the command of an authority figure still illustrates obedience. (Choice D) Even though the employee could blame the supervisor for the unethical behavior, this scenario still illustrates obedience to authority. In fact, the ability to defer blame to an authority figure increases the likelihood that an individual will obey. Educational objective:Obedience to authority is a type of conformity in which an individual carries out the orders of an authority figure, even when doing so results in immoral o

A proponent of the universalism perspective would state that the results in Figure 1B support the belief that: A.cognition is influenced by language. B.cognition is required for language. C.language and cognition develop via social interaction. D.language is necessary for cognition

B.cognition is required for language. Cognition refers to thought-related mental processes (eg, thinking, planning, reasoning) and is believed to be linked to language. There are several major theories that deal with the relationship between language and cognition: Cognition shapes language: These theories assert that cognition either completely controls language (universalism perspective) or just influences language (Piagetian perspective). Language shapes cognition (also known as the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis): These theories suggest that language either just influences cognition (linguistic relativity perspective) or completely controls cognition (linguistic determinism perspective). Language and thought develop independently and simultaneously: Vygotsky suggested that social interaction precedes and is necessary for both cognition and language development, which are initially separate but then later merge to generate inner speech (verbal thought). Universalism, the belief that cognition controls language, posits that certain cognitive processes are universal, so all human languages also possess certain universals (eg, nouns). Therefore, a universalist would interpret Figure 1B as support for the belief that cognition is required for language development. (Choice A) Linguistic relativity is the less absolute form of the theory that language shapes cognition. It contends that language development influences cognition but does not entirely determine or control it. (Choice C) Vygotsky asserted that cognition and language develop independently but are both influenced by social interaction: Cognition is the product of socialization, and language arises out of a necessity for social communication. (Choice D) Linguistic determinism, the more absolute form of the theory that language shapes cognition, states that language completely controls cognition (ie, what/how we think is a product of language) and that without language there is no thought. Educational objective:There are several theories regarding the relationship between cognition and language. Some assert that cognition either controls language (universalism) or merely influences it (Piagetism). Others (based on the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis) assert that

The biomedical approach to mental illness is best demonstrated by: A.the systematic underdiagnosis of BD by the medical community. B.pharmaceutical companies attempting to raise awareness about BD. C.BD patients' inability to recognize symptoms of mania as problematic. D.proactive strategies encouraging self-identification of manic symptom

B.pharmaceutical companies attempting to raise awareness about BD. The biomedical approach to mental illness suggests that physiological causes (abnormal brain chemistry) result in psychological symptoms, and therefore medical treatment is advised to fix the underlying problem. This approach is best demonstrated by pharmaceutical companies raising BD symptom awareness while offering new drug therapies. The biomedical approach (also known as the biomedical model) emphasizes diagnosis (ie, disease identification based on symptoms and/or diagnostic testing) and treatment (eg, drugs, surgery). Predominant in American medicine, this approach assumes that medical intervention can fix the problem and the patient will play a passive role in the process. The advantages to this approach include increased life expectancy rates, demonstrated effectiveness for many illnesses, and improved quality of life for some patients, particularly those with chronic conditions who greatly benefit from drug therapy. However, this approach is not effective for many individuals with psychological disorders. Disadvantages of this approach include its narrow focus, which ignores other (eg, social) factors, and its reliance on drugs, many of which can produce harmful side effects. (Choice A) The biomedical model has been correlated with overdiagnosis of disease, partially as the result of drug companies developing and promoting the use of new therapies among the medical community and consumers. (Choices C and D) The biomedical model emphasizes the role of the physician and medical system in diagnosing and treating disease, and assumes that the patient will play a passive role. Therefore, neither the failure of patients to recognize their symptoms nor proactive strategies encouraging symptom recognition align with this model. Educational objective:The biomedical approach to mental illness emphasizes the diagnosis of physiological causes (abnormal brain chemistry) by physicians and the treatment of symptoms using drugs. This approach has helped many, but it has not been effective for everyone: Its narrow focus ignores other factors related to illness, and drug treatment can produce harmful side effects.

A trait theorist would most likely challenge the study findings described in the passage by asserting that researchers failed to assess: A.which interventions were most effective in eliciting changes in personality. B.whether personality changes were maintained following the period of intervention. C.the influence of human interactions in enabling changes in personality. D.each participant's reason for the specific personality trait chosen.

B.whether personality changes were maintained following the period of intervention. Trait theorists attempt to explain personality in terms of observable personality characteristics, or traits, using objective criteria. Traits can be defined as characteristic ways one often perceives situations, feels, or acts. There are several different trait theories, based on a greater or lesser number of traits. The studies in the passage use the "big five" personality factors, also known as the five-factor model (FFM). Trait theories are successful in objectively organizing behaviors into clearly defined groups, such as "introverted," "agreeable," or "conscientious." These theories are also relatively accurate at predicting an individual's average behavior over time. For example, someone who reliably falls into the "introvert" category will also demonstrate predictable behaviors, such as generally avoiding parties (average behavior). However, trait theories are not very successful at predicting specific behaviors because they do not account for the impact of situational factors on behavior. For example, an introvert who generally avoids parties would be more likely to attend his wife's retirement party (specific behavior). Furthermore, trait theories fail to explain why and how traits develop. Trait theorists would argue that personality traits are unlikely to change in a relatively short time frame. Therefore, they would most likely question whether the findings reflected transient alterations in personality during intervention or permanent changes in innate personality traits. (Choices A and C) Trait theories do not consider situational factors on behavior, so a trait theorist is unlikely to be interested in analyzing which interventions are most effective or how human interactions influence personality change. (Choice D) Trait theories do not consider why and how individuals develop the traits that they do, so a trait theorist is unlikely to be interested in analyzing the reasons each participant selected the personality trait chosen. Educational objective:Trait theory suggests that personality is the result of a combination of traits that are relatively stable over time. Trait theory does not account for external influences on personality or for the reasons underlying personality traits. Other: -Allport (Trait theory) *Cardinal traits *Central traits *Secondary traits -Cattel * 16 personality factors -Eyesneck (PEN theory) *Psychosis *Extraversion *Neuroticism -Costa and Mcrae *Big 5

Which of the following symptoms is LEAST characteristic of a dissociative disorder? A.Recurrent gaps in memory and more than one distinct personality B.Inability to remember details of a traumatic experience C.Fabricated memory loss in order to gain sympathy from others D.Difficulty remembering important autobiographical information

C.Fabricated memory loss in order to gain sympathy from others Dissociative disorders are characterized by disruptions to memory and identity. Two specific types of dissociative disorders, dissociative amnesia and dissociative identity disorder (DID), both feature the inability to recall important autobiographical information. This amnesia may be generalized for identity-related information and history (eg, name, marital status) or localized for specific events (eg, a traumatic experience). Factitious disorder is a somatic symptom and related disorder (SSRD) that involves falsifying physical or psychological symptoms without obvious external gain (eg, disability benefits). Fabricated memory loss to gain sympathy from others is characteristic of factitious disorder (an SSRD); therefore, this symptom is least characteristic of a dissociative disorder. (Choice A) In addition to gaps in memory, DID is characterized by the presence of two or more distinct personalities. Individuals with DID experience a discontinuous sense of self. (Choices B and D) The amnesia characteristic of dissociative amnesia and DID may involve an inability to remember the details of a traumatic experience or difficulty remembering important autobiographical information. Educational objective:Dissociative disorders are characterized by disruptions to memory and identity. Dissociative amnesia involves the inability to recall important autobiographical information (eg, personal history, traumatic event). Dissociative identity disorder is characterized by the presence of two or more distinct personalities and amnesia.

During sarcomere contraction, which of the following would shorten in length? A.A band only B.H band only C.I band and H band only D.A band, I band, and H band

C.I band and H band only Skeletal muscle is muscle that is attached to bone and functions in voluntary movement. In this type of muscle, each muscle fiber (ie, muscle cell) contains thousands of sarcomeres, or individual functional units. Sarcomeres are crucial to the process of muscle contraction. Sarcomeres consist of several sections: -The I band consists of only actin (thin) filaments. -The H band consists of only myosin (thick) filaments. -The A band, which consists of both actin and myosin filaments, marks the length of the myosin filaments. -The M line marks the center of each sarcomere. The Z line delineates the boundary between each sarcomere. When muscle contraction occurs, the myosin and actin filaments interact. Specifically, myosin heads bind to the actin filaments and slide them toward the central point of the sarcomere. This interaction shortens the sarcomere's total length; however, the length of each actin and myosin filament remains unchanged. Instead, it is the sliding of the two filament types along one another that causes the sarcomere to shorten. The question diagram shows the position of each of the three different sections in a relaxed sarcomere. During sarcomere contraction, the lengths of both the I band and H band shorten as the actin and myosin filaments slide along one another (Choice B). However, the A band, which corresponds to the length of the myosin filaments in one sarcomere, does not change in length (Choices A and D). Educational objective:In the sliding filament model, actin and myosin filaments slide across one another to shorten sarcomeres, causing contraction of skeletal muscle.

Based on the passage, which statement is most consistent with a symbolic interactionist perspective? A.The definition for what is sacred may differ depending on the religion. B.Dynamic equilibrium is maintained when social control gradually shifts from religion to medicine. C.Individuals create meaning through serving others in faith-based mission work. D.Some religious groups attempt to reduce health care disparities that stem from class inequalities.

C.Individuals create meaning through serving others in faith-based mission work. Symbolic interactionism is a micro-sociological perspective concerned with the interpersonal interactions through which the subjective meanings that shape social reality are developed. Subjective meanings differ by context and culture (eg, avoiding eye contact is a sign of respect in Japan but is considered rude in the US) and can change over time. The statement that individuals create meaning through serving (ie, interacting with) others in faith-based mission work is most consistent with symbolic interactionism. Under the symbolic interactionist perspective, mission work may become a meaningful expression and symbol of a believer's faith.

The description of baby boomers in the second paragraph best aligns with which sociological approach to aging? A.Continuity B.Activity C.Life course D.Disengagement

C.Life course Sociological approaches to aging Activity Remaining physically & socially active improves quality of life for older adults Continuity Older adults attempt to maintain the habits & behaviors from their youth Disengagement Older adults withdraw from social relationships/society as society withdraws from them Life course Aging viewed holistically in terms of social, biological, cultural & psychological contexts Aging involves biological, psychological, and social processes. Biologically, aging is characterized by decreased metabolism, a reduced ability for cells to repair and self-regulate, and impaired tissue and organ function. These biological changes impact individuals psychologically (eg, mood) and socially (eg, social status). There are several sociological theories on aging. The life course approach is holistic and multidisciplinary, conceptualizing aging in terms of psychological, biological, and sociocultural factors across a lifetime. This approach emphasizes the reciprocal link between social context and individuals as they age. In other words, aging individuals influence and are influenced by the broader contexts in which they live (society, history, the economy). The passage describes the aging of baby boomers as having "social and historical significance" and describes the social and economic impacts of this aging cohort on society. Therefore, the description of the baby boomers in the second paragraph most closely aligns with the life course approach to aging. (Choice A) The continuity approach to aging suggests that people attempt to maintain (or continue) the same habits and lifestyle as when they were younger. The second paragraph does not discuss aging at a micro level, as individuals attempting to maintain life continuity. (Choice B) The activity approach to aging suggests that the transition to old age is eased by remaining physically active (eg, exercise) and socially involved (eg, community engagement). The second paragraph does not discuss activity or engagement of baby boomers as they age. (Choice D) Disengagement theory, a negative approach to aging, holds that there is a mutual withdrawal between aging individuals and society. The second paragraph makes no m

religious organizations

Churches are established formal organizations that tend to be well integrated into society. Sects are formed after believers split from an established church, often in pursuit of a more pure or traditional form of faith. Cults are radical groups of believers organized around a charismatic leader.

assosciative learning-classical conditioning

Classical conditioning is a type of associative learning process whereby a neutral stimulus takes on the properties of an unconditioned stimulus after they are paired. Unconditioned stimuli (eg, scary noises) are biologically arousing, eliciting an innate (untrained) behavior (eg, startle response). During classical conditioning acquisition (training), a neutral stimulus is paired with the unconditioned stimulus. After acquisition, the neutral stimulus becomes the conditioned stimulus if it elicits the response, which would then be called the conditioned response. After the red box cue is repeatedly paired with the scary noise, its presentation alone may elicit a startle response, indicating that the red box cue has become a conditioned stimulus.

A researcher conducts a study on visual perception. When viewing a photograph of hospital physicians, participants tend to perceive the physicians as groups based on their attire, such as "blue scrubs" for one group and "white lab coats" for another. This finding is best attributed to which Gestalt principle? A.Common fate B.Proximity C.Similarity D.Continuity

C.Similarity The Gestalt principles of perceptual organization describe how humans holistically perceive sensory stimuli. Although Gestalt principles apply to many types of sensory stimuli (eg, the grouping of musical tones), they are most often described in the perception of visual stimuli. Similarity is the Gestalt principle that refers to our tendency to group together objects that share similar features (eg, shape, color). In this study, participants group physicians in a photograph by shared visual characteristics (clothing color), which is best attributed to the Gestalt principle of similarity. (Choice A) Common fate is the Gestalt principle that describes our perception that things moving together are grouped together (eg, a flock of birds flying in V-formation is perceived as a unit). The finding does not describe grouping the physicians by the direction they appear to be moving. (Choice B) Proximity is the Gestalt principle that describes our tendency to perceive things that are physically closer to one another as a group (eg, letters that are closer together are grouped as a word). The finding does not describe grouping the physicians based on their physical closeness. (Choice D) Continuity is the Gestalt principle that describes our tendency to perceive elements as continuing on a smooth path (eg, "X" is perceived as two crossing lines, rather than two "V" shapes touching). The finding does not describe perceiving the physicians as being on a continuous path (eg, standing in a curving line). Educational objective:The Gestalt principles of perceptual organization describe how humans holistically perceive sensory stimuli. One example is the similarity principle, in which things that share similar characteristics (eg, shape, color) tend to be grouped together.

During muscle contraction, the power stroke is the pivoting motion of the myosin head that pulls the actin filament inward to shorten the sarcomere. Given this, which of the following events most immediately precedes this power stroke motion? A.The binding of ATP to the myosin heads B.The hydrolysis of myosin-bound ATP C.The release of Pi from the myosin head D.The binding of Ca2+ to tropomyosin

C.The release of Pi from the myosin head Muscle contraction is dependent on the interaction between the myosin (thick) and actin (thin) protein filaments in the sarcomere, the basic contractile unit of muscle tissue. To generate muscle contraction, the sarcomere functions as follows: 1. When the muscle fiber is at rest, the myosin head is in its high-energy conformation (upright and bound to ADP and Pi), and the actin filaments are bound by the regulatory proteins tropomyosin and troponin. Tropomyosin is an elongated protein that wraps around the actin filament to block myosin-binding sites on this thin filament. Troponin is a small protein complex associated with tropomyosin. 2. Following a depolarizing stimulus by a motor neuron, Ca2+ ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the cytosol. The abundant cytosolic Ca2+ ions bind troponin, causing a conformational change that ultimately pulls on tropomyosin and exposes the myosin binding sites on the actin filaments (Choice D). 3. When the active sites are exposed, the myosin head is able to bind strongly to the actin filament, forming a cross-bridge. The dissociation of Pi initiates the power stroke, which is the actual pivot of the actin-bound myosin head that drags the actin filament toward the center of the sarcomere. This directly results in shortening of the sarcomere. The release of ADP from the myosin head occurs at the end of the power stroke. The myosin head is now in its low-energy conformation. 4. A new ATP molecule binds the myosin head and the cross-bridge disassembles (Choice A). 5. Hydrolysis of the ATP molecule allows the myosin head to shift back into its upright, high-energy conformation in preparation for a new cycle of contraction (Choice B). 6. The cycle of cross-bridge formation and disassembly continues until motor neuron signaling ceases, and Ca2+ is sequestered back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Educational objective:When ATP bound to a myosin head hydrolyzes, the myosin head shifts back to the high-energy position. Binding of calcium to troponin then allows the myosin head to attach to the actin filament. Dissociation of Pi leads to a power stroke, which shortens the sarcomere. After the release of ADP, a new A

Which statement best identifies the promotion of false consciousness in popular media? A magazine article about heart disease in women that emphasizes the role of: A.genetics in the development of heart disease, while overlooking the role of social influences on disease etiology. B.global inequalities in access to health care, which lead to growing disparities in mortality rates between nations. C.individual choices in the development of heart disease, while overlooking the role of systemic inequality in access to health care. D.social class inequalities in access to health care, which lead to unequal rates of heart disease among the wealthy and poor.

C.individual choices in the development of heart disease, while overlooking the role of systemic inequality in access to health care. Social stratification is a system of inequality in which individuals are hierarchically ranked into social classes, with different access to resources and opportunities. Class consciousness involves the recognition of class structure and an identification with one's own social class such that individuals understand that people from other classes have needs and interests different from their own. Marx asserted that individuals in the upper class, to further their own interests, attempt to sway the thinking of those in the lower classes. False consciousness results when individuals from lower classes adopt the misleading views of the upper class and accept the status quo (ie, injustice, exploitation). Individuals from the lower classes who do not have class consciousness may blame themselves for undesirable health outcomes or be more likely to agree with media that stress individual responsibility above all other factors. Consequently, adopting false consciousness results in leaving systematic health care inequalities (eg, unequal access or quality) unchallenged. An article that emphasizes the role of individual choices in the development of heart disease, while overlooking the role of systemic inequality in health care access, promotes false consciousness.

Besides reducing stereotype threat, the presence of a cultural liaison during a doctor's appointment increases: A.the number of group members, making groupthink more likely. B.the number of group members, making group polarization more likely. C.the number of social ties, making the group more stable. D.the number of social ties, making the group more intimate.

C.the number of social ties, making the group more stable. Social groups are composed of individuals who interact and identify with each other. As group size increases, the number of potential social ties (relationships between individual group members) also increases. Social groups can be large (eg, whole societies) or small. A dyad (relationship between two people) has only one social tie, making dyadic relationships the most intimate (eg, romantic couples, business partners); however, dyads are also less stable than larger groups because if either person leaves, the group ceases to exist. A triad (relationship among three people) can have three potential social ties, making triadic relationships more stable but less intimate than dyads. The presence of a cultural liaison increases the number of social ties, resulting in a more stable group. A tetrad among 4 ppl has up to 6 social ties and is LEAST stable because ppl will pair up 5+ members has many social ties and things like social loafing and groupthink may occur (Choice A) Groupthink, irrational decision making by groups that value reaching a consensus over critical evaluation of information, is more likely to occur when all group members are similar. A group composed of a physician and patient (who have dissimilar backgrounds) and a cultural liaison is unlikely to be prone to groupthink. (Choice B) Group polarization occurs when group members adopt a more extreme attitude or course of action after group discussion. For group polarization to occur, group members must share similar opinions prior to group discussion, which is not necessarily true of a group composed of a patient, physician, and cultural liaison. (Choice D) The added group member would make the group less, not more, intimate. Educational objective:Individuals who interact and identify with each other form social groups. The relationships between individual group members are social ties. Dyads (groups of two) have one social tie and are more intimate but less stable than triads. Triads (groups of three) have three potential social ties and are less intimate but more stable than dyads.

A proponent of social cognitive theory would suggest that the self-positivity bias is unlikely to influence an individual: A.with hepatitis A. B.studying hepatitis C in a liver cell line. C.with several friends who have hepatitis C. D.who has never heard of hepatitis C.

C.with several friends who have hepatitis C. Social cognitive theory suggests that people learn through observing others. Watching a model (someone else, often a friend or family member) engaging in a behavior and the consequences associated with that behavior is a powerful method of learning called vicarious learning. Depending on the outcome for the model, the observer may replicate or avoid that behavior. According to social cognitive theory, people would be least susceptible to the self-positivity bias (the belief that they are immune to negative outcomes such as contracting hepatitis C) if they had friends with the disease. People tend to share similar characteristics with and behave in ways similar to those of their friends. Therefore, individuals who have friends with hepatitis C would have already observed the behaviors associated with contracting it and so would be less inclined to assume they are immune to the disease. (Choices A, B, and D) Social cognitive theory is most concerned with how individuals learn through observing the behaviors of others. Therefore, a proponent of this theory would be concerned with how an individual's behavior and attitudes are shaped by interacting with others, rather than through personal experience with a similar disease, professional experience with the disease, or lack of knowledge about the disease. Educational objective:Social cognitive theory posits that people learn by observing others. Vicarious learning takes place through watching other people behave in a certain way and then get rewarded or punished for it. Depending on the outcome, the observer may or may not choose to behave in the same way as the model.

Which of the following accurately pairs a component of emotion with the study procedure designed to evoke that component? A.Behavioral; rating emotional reactions on a Likert scale B.Cognitive; watching videos of others describing traumatic events C.Affective; performing tasks while in an fMRI machine D.Physiological; pressing a button with each heartbeat

Cognitive; watching videos of others describing traumatic events The three components of emotion are cognitive, behavioral, and physiological. The cognitive component includes all the mental processes that accompany the emotion, such as corresponding thoughts, motivations, beliefs, expectations, and an evaluation of the context/situation. The behavioral component of emotion is described as the immediate outward reaction that occurs in response to an emotion. These responses are typically involuntary and automatic (eg, smiling, gasping). The physiological component of emotion includes all the bodily processes that accompany the emotion (eg, changes in heart rate, respiration rate, sweating). In Task 1 of the study, participants watched videos of individuals describing personal events (both negative and positive) and then rated their reactions on a scale of 1 (no emotional reaction) to 10 (extreme emotional reaction). The videos were designed to evoke the cognitive component of emotion because they required the viewers to think about the events being described and likely also involved their expectations and beliefs. (Choice A) Rating an emotional reaction on a Likert scale is a voluntary and purposeful action. Therefore, this study procedure was not designed to evoke the behavioral component of emotion, which involves largely involuntary and automatic responses, such as gasping in surprise. (Choice C) Performing tasks while in an fMRI machine is a study procedure used to measure brain activity during the tasks, not a method employed to evoke any particular component of emotion. Furthermore, because the fMRI is used as a measurement tool, any emotion it may evoke in participants would be undesirable, as this could compromise or confound the results. (Choice D) Task 2 required participants to press a button with each heartbeat. This task was not designed to involve any emotion whatsoever but to evoke interoception (physiological awareness). Educational objective:The three components of emotion are cognitive, behavioral, and physiological. The cognitive component includes all the mental processes that accompany emotion (eg, motivations, beliefs, expectations). The behavioral component includes immediate outward reactions (eg, gasping), and the physiological component includes bodily reactions (eg, increased heart rate).

What two competing concepts help explain why the Vietnamese community-based approach was effective and external approaches were not? A.Prejudice and discrimination B.Cultural relativism and ethnocentrism C.Impression management and the dramaturgical approach D.Social networks and coercive organizations

Cultural relativism and ethnocentrism Cultural relativism and ethnocentrism are competing sociological concepts. Culture describes the aspects of society that are shared by its members, such as language, norms, beliefs, and practices. Cultural relativism suggests that there are no "right" or "wrong" cultural practices. Cultural relativism advocates for examining a culture based on its own context, rather than comparing it to another culture. Ethnocentrism is the opposite of cultural relativism. Ethnocentrism describes the process of judging another culture based on one's own culture. For example, the traditional veil worn by Muslim women is a cultural practice. Judging this practice as oppressive compared with American culture is ethnocentric, but viewing the practice within the larger context of Muslim culture without judgment is an example of cultural relativism. Community-based approaches to behavior change are usually more effective than change being imposed on people, because community-based approaches tend to be culturally relativistic whereas external organizations tend to be ethnocentric. (Choice A) Prejudice and discrimination are complementary concepts. Prejudice describes negative attitudes about an individual based on group membership (eg, "women aren't good leaders"), whereas discrimination involves actions taken against an individual or group based on prejudice (eg, not giving a leadership position to a woman). (Choice C) Impression management and the dramaturgical approach are also similar (not competing) concepts. Both describe how individuals attempt to shape how they are perceived by others through actions and behaviors. (Choice D) Social networks are informal, nonhierarchical collections of people (eg, friends on Facebook), and organizations are formal and hierarchical. Coercive organizations have forced membership (eg, prisons). The concept of a coercive organization does not apply to those trying to decrease malnutrition in Vietnamese villages. Educational objective:Cultural relativism views social practices within their own cultural context, whereas ethnocentrism judges social practices based on another society's culture.

A researcher is testing a patient's neurological function. When a word is flashed briefly in the patient's right visual field, he can correctly vocalize what he saw. When a word is flashed briefly in the patient's left visual field, he is unable to say what he saw but can correctly draw it. Which of the following is most likely damaged in this patient? A.Left retina B.Wernicke area C.Right occipital cortex D.Corpus callosum

D.Corpus callosum The corpus callosum is a bundle of myelinated axonal projections connecting the right and left hemispheres of the brain, allowing the two hemispheres to communicate. The right and left hemispheres are specialized for certain processes, known as cortical lateralization. Each hemisphere is responsible for contralateral control of the body: The left hemisphere controls touch and movement on the right side of the body, and vice versa. Each hemisphere is also specialized for certain cognitive processes. The left hemisphere is specialized for language functions, including speech production (Broca area) and language comprehension (Wernicke area). Severing the corpus callosum is most frequently used to treat severe epileptic seizures. Individuals with a severed corpus callosum ("split-brain") experience a disconnection between information processed on the right and left sides of the brain. Information presented in a patient's left visual field is processed in the right hemisphere; without interhemispheric communication, the patient is unable to express what is seen using language but would be able to draw it. (Choice A) If the patient's left retina were damaged, he would be unable to receive and transmit information presented to the left visual field. Therefore, he would not be able to process the word or correctly draw it. (Choice B) The patient is correctly able to vocalize what is seen when it is flashed briefly in the right visual field, suggesting that both language centers in the left hemisphere (speech production in Broca area and language comprehension in Wernicke area) are intact. (Choice C) Damage to the right occipital cortex would result in an inability to process visual information presented in the left visual field. This patient is still able to draw the image represented by the word even though he cannot speak it, suggesting that the occipital lobe is intact. Educational objective:The corpus callosum allows communication between the right and left hemispheres of the brain, which are specialized for certain functions (cortical lateralization). Each hemisphere contralaterally controls the opposite side of the body. Language centers are located in the left hemisphere.

A patient who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed a neuroleptic medication. Which of the following symptoms, if present, is this medication most likely to improve? A.Apathy B.Inability to experience pleasure C.Emotional flattening D.Disorganized speech

D.Disorganized speech Psychotic disorders are severe psychological disorders characterized by a loss of contact with reality. Schizophrenia is the most common psychotic disorder, with a prevalence of about 1% in the United States. Schizophrenia typically involves both positive symptoms, which are "pathological excesses" (eg, hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech), and negative symptoms, which are "pathological deficits" (eg, apathy, inability to experience pleasure). Many people with schizophrenia also experience psychomotor symptoms (ie, changes in muscle tone or activity), which can occur either as a symptom of schizophrenia or as a side effect of medication. Schizophrenia is often treated with neuroleptic (conventional, typical, or first-generation) or atypical (second-generation) antipsychotic medication; both are generally effective in reducing positive symptoms. However, neuroleptics may exacerbate (worsen) negative symptoms through sedation or cognitive dulling, and they carry the risk of movement (eg, tremors) and other side effects. Atypical antipsychotics pose less risk of many of these side effects and in some cases may improve negative symptoms. A neuroleptic medication would be most likely to effectively treat (improve) disorganized speech, which is a positive symptom of schizophrenia. (Choices A, B, and C) Apathy, inability to experience pleasure, and emotional flattening are all negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Neuroleptic medications are generally not effective in treating negative symptoms, and the side effects may even exacerbate them. Educational objective:Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder characterized by positive symptoms (ie, hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech) and negative symptoms (eg, apathy, emotional flattening). Schizophrenia is often treated with either neuroleptic or atypical antipsychotics; both are generally effective in reducing positive symptoms, but neuroleptics have a greater risk of side effects (eg, sedation, psychomotor disturbances).

A pharmaceutical company is testing how much sugar should be added to a pediatric oral liquid suspension to make the medication more palatable. Researchers determine that adding 0.2 g of sugar to 20 mL of oral suspension Z results in children detecting a just noticeable difference in taste. Based on Weber's law, should the addition of 0.2 g of sugar to 50 mL of oral suspension Z be detectable 50% of the time? A.Yes, because 0.2 g sugar is the just noticeable difference B.Yes, because Weber's law is based on a constant value C.No, because 0.2 g is below the absolute threshold D.No, because Weber's law is based on a ratio

D.No, because Weber's law is based on a ratio The smallest difference between two stimuli a person can detect 50% of the time is called the just noticeable difference (JND), or difference threshold. As the intensity of the original stimulus increases, the difference threshold also increases. For example, although the difference between weights of 100 and 102 g may be detectable, the difference between weights of 500 and 502 g is not, even though the difference is also 2 g. This relationship is quantified by Weber's law, which states that the ratio of the size of the JND to the original stimulus intensity remains constant. In other words, the change in a stimulus needed to detect a difference is a constant proportion (ie, if one can just detect a difference between weights of 100 and 102 g, the difference between weights of 500 and 510 g would also be just detectable). If the addition of 0.2 g of sugar to 20 mL of suspension Z is just noticeable 50% of the time, then for a volume that is 2.5 times bigger (20 mL × 2.5 = 50 mL), 0.5 g of sugar (0.2 g × 2.5 = 0.5 g) would be the JND. Therefore, the addition of 0.2 g of sugar to 50 mL of oral suspension Z would not be detectable because Weber's law is based on a ratio. (Choice A) The addition of 0.2 g of sugar is the JND for 20 mL of suspension; for 50 mL of suspension the JND is 2.5 times greater, or 0.5 g. Therefore, anything less than 0.5 g should not be detectable 50% of the time. (Choice B) Weber's law is based on a constant proportion, not a constant value, so the addition of 0.2 g of sugar to 50 mL of oral suspension Z should not be detectable 50% of the time. (Choice C) The absolute threshold is the intensity value at which an individual can detect a stimulus 50% of the time; 0.2 g represents the difference threshold, or the smallest difference between two stimuli that can be detected 50% of the time, not the absolute threshold. Educational objective:Weber's law states that the proportion of the just noticeable difference (the smallest difference between two stimuli a person can detect 50% of the time) to the original stimulus intensity is a constant.

Experts recently classified severe premenstrual symptoms with marked mood changes that interfere with daily functioning as an official psychiatric diagnosis. This example reflects which perspective on health and illness? A.Conflict theory B.Functionalism C.Social exchange D.Social constructionism

D.Social constructionism Social constructionism is a sociological theory suggesting that "reality" is created through interactions, resulting in agreed-on, shared meanings. Objects (eg, money), behaviors (eg, hand shaking), and categories (eg, gender) have meaning only because individuals in society have agreed on that meaning. For example, money has value in society only because everyone has agreed that it has value; this makes money a social construct. Redefining severe premenstrual symptoms as an official psychiatric diagnosis reflects experts' consensus that a particular set of symptoms should be treated as a psychiatric disorder, thereby demonstrating an agreed-on, shared meaning (ie, the social constructionism perspective).

"Suicide clusters" are greater-than-average rates of suicide occurring within a short time frame. After a well-publicized initial suicide, suicide rates tend to rise, particularly among teenagers and young adults. This phenomenon can also be described as: A.groupthink. B.the mere exposure effect. C.mass hysteria. D.imitation of a reference group.

D.imitation of a reference group. A reference group is a comparison group. Individuals compare their beliefs and behaviors to those of reference group members and often model the beliefs and behaviors of the reference group. For example, after a well-publicized suicide, others who have already contemplated taking their life may consider modeling the behavior of the individual who committed suicide, notwithstanding that suicide occurs for multiple, complex reasons. Therefore, "suicide clusters" (higher-than-average rates of suicide occurring within a short time frame) may occur as a result of imitation of a reference group (ie, individuals already contemplating suicide modeling the behavior of those who have recently committed suicide). (Choice A) Groupthink occurs when groups of individuals engage in dysfunctional, dangerous, or nonsensical behavior because a desire for group cohesion outweighs critical decision-making. Groupthink explains the conscious decision-making practices that occur within a defined group, so it does not explain why suicide clusters happen. (Choice B) The mere exposure effect (or familiarity effect) argues that just the act of being exposed to something increases an individual's affinity for it. For example, the more someone hears a song, the more they will like the song. The mere exposure effect explains why people like certain things, but it cannot explain complex behavior like suicide. (Choice C) Mass hysteria (or group hysteria) occurs when fear and rumor spur similar behavior among many group members. Examples of mass hysteria generally include physical symptoms (eg, twitching, laughing) that have no apparent cause and spread within an isolated community. No examples are found of suicide caused by mass hysteria. Educational objective:Reference groups are groups to which individuals compare themselves. Individuals are more likely to adjust their attitudes and behaviors to align with those of a reference group.

ociologists often consider suicide a deviant behavior because suicide: A.is relatively uncommon compared to other ways of dying. B.is a folkway in American culture. C.incurs formal, but not informal, sanctions. D.violates a major normative social script.

D.violates a major normative social script. Deviance is any behavior that violates culturally established norms. Deviant behavior can be viewed as simply odd or off-putting (eg, nose-picking in public) or can be viewed as egregious or criminal (eg, shooting someone). Deviant behavior considered morally reprehensible by society is known as a taboo. Suicide violates the major social script of protecting ourselves and trying to avoid pain, and is considered taboo in most societies. Norms that dictate how to behave (also known as normative social scripts) exist in every culture and serve to disseminate information about appropriate conduct in a variety of situations. Folkways are less formal social norms whereas mores are more formal social norms. A violation of folkways (eg, walking outside with all your clothes on backward) is unlikely to draw more than a few raised eyebrows, but violation of mores (eg, walking outside naked) is likely to result in more formal punishment. (Choice A) Deviant behavior is not defined by how uncommon it is. (Choice B) Folkways are informal normative behaviors, practices, and traditions in society. (Choice C) Both formal and informal sanctions exist for attempting suicide. Formal sanctions are those codified by law (eg, involuntary confinement for a suicide attempt), and informal sanctions are behaviors that occur at the individual level (eg, social shunning, disapproval). Educational objective:Deviance is the violation of culturally sanctioned normative behavior. Deviant behavior that is morally reprehensible is considered a taboo.

Deviance theories

Differential association Individuals learn specific deviant behaviors & values/norms through interaction with others with those same behaviors & values/norms Labeling Primary deviance (a small social norm violation) leads to a deviant label & social stigma, causing secondary deviance (more serious violations) Strain Deviant behavior results from the disconnect between goals & the means for achieving those goals Deviance is defined as behavior that violates social norms, the customary ways of doing things in society. Deviant behaviors violate informal norms (eg, cutting in line) or formal norms (eg, breaking a law). There are three major theories of deviance: strain, differential association, and labeling. Strain theory predicts that individuals experience tension (strain) when there is a disconnect between goals and the available means for achieving those goals. For example, a parent who is unable to feed her child (goal) because there is not enough food (lack of means) experiences strain. This strain causes individuals to seek deviant means of achieving the goal. Strain theory suggests that innovation occurs when individuals come up with new strategies for obtaining goals, which is most applicable to the first paragraph's description of the initial acts of PD by the Vietnamese villagers. (Choice A) Differential association theory suggests deviance is learned through interaction with others engaging in deviance. For example, if gang members carry illegal firearms, new recruits quickly learn that this is "normal" and expected. The passage does not suggest that the initial PD individuals learned their behaviors through interaction. (Choice C) Labeling theory suggests that when individuals are labeled as deviant, they will confirm the label by acting deviant. Initial acts (primary deviance) are usually mild but lead to the "deviant" label and social stigma (disapproval by others). Internalization of the deviant label leads to more serious transgressions (secondary deviance). Large-scale deviance (eg, murder) is precipitated by smaller deviant acts (eg, hurting animals). (Choice D) Conflict theory suggests that there is a constant struggle for limited resources between social classes (ie, poor, middle c

types of population pyramids

Expanding pyramids have broad bases (lots of younger people) and narrow tops (few older people) and are characteristic of developing countries with high birth/death rates and an increasing population size. Stationary pyramids have broad bases and broad tops and are characteristic of developed countries with low birth/death rates and a stable population size. Contracting pyramids have narrower bases than middles and are characteristic of developed countries with very low birth rates and a gradually declining population size.

GAD and others

Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is an anxiety disorder characterized by excessive, uncontrollable worry about a range of topics. Individuals with GAD anticipate disastrous outcomes for daily events and activities, and find it difficult to control their worry. Muscle tension, difficulty concentrating or sleeping, and feeling restless, fatigued, or irritable are all common symptoms of GAD. Symptoms of widespread worry (ie, anxiety about health, finances, and family), along with multiple physical symptoms (ie, difficulty sleeping, muscle tension, fatigue), are most consistent with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder. (Choice A) Depression is characterized by feelings of sadness, hopelessness, or emptiness; lack of interest in previously enjoyed activities; changes in appetite; changes in sleep; fatigue; low self-worth or guilt; cognitive difficulties; and/or thoughts about death or suicidal ideation. Difficulty sleeping, fatigue, low appetite, and loss of interest in previously enjoyed activities are most consistent with a diagnosis of depression, not GAD. (Choice B) Panic disorder is an anxiety disorder characterized by repeated, uncontrollable, and unpredictable panic attacks, which are overwhelming surges of anxiety that peak within minutes. Repeated surges of overwhelming anxiety with racing heart, difficulty breathing, sweating, and a fear of losing one's mind are most consistent with a diagnosis of panic disorder, not GAD. (Choice C) Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) can arise after exposure to trauma (ie, an event that resulted or almost resulted in death, sexual violence, or serious injury). Hyperarousal (eg, exaggerated startle response), intrusive symptoms (eg, nightmares), avoidance of reminders of the trauma (eg, certain situations), and negative thoughts and moods are most consistent with a diagnosis of PTSD, not GAD. Educational objective:Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is an anxiety disorder characterized by excessive and uncontrollable worry about a range of events. People with GAD may experience muscle tension; difficulty concentrating or sleeping; and restlessness, fatigue, or irritability.

world systems theory

Globalization is defined in sociology as the process by which tangibles (eg, products) and intangibles (eg, values, ideas) spread across the world, primarily as a result of advances in technology and communication. Globalization has produced a world society with a shared global culture. World systems theory is an economic theory of globalization that views the world as a global economy where some countries benefit at the expense of others: Core nations are wealthy with strong, diversified economies and centralized governments. Core nations (eg, United States, Western European countries) take resources from (exploit) poorer countries and lead the global economic market through the export of goods around the world. Periphery nations are poor and have weak governments and economies. Periphery nations (eg, Latin American, African countries) rely on the export of their resources (eg, oil, coffee, labor) to wealthier countries, making them dependent on (and exploited by) core nations. Semi-periphery nations (eg, India, Brazil) are between core and periphery nations, with economies that are relatively more diversified than those of periphery nations. (Choices B, C, and D) Core nations lead the global economy, producing and exporting goods (represented by a tall black bar) across the globe while periphery nations export resources like raw materials and cheap labor (represented by a tall white bar) to core nations, best represented by the graph in Choice A. Educational objective:Globalization is the process by which tangible products and intangible ideas/values spread across the world as a result of advances in technology and communication. An economic theory of globalization, world systems theory suggests the global economy is led by core nations that benefit at the expense of periphery nations.

Group think

Groupthink occurs when a group arrives at an incorrect or irrational decision because group members value getting along and reaching a consensus more than they value critical evaluation of alternatives. Therefore, if group members get along, fewer (not more) options will be discussed and considered. (Choice B) Groupthink is more likely to occur in groups that have strong, well-liked leaders. Groupthink results in irrational decision making because group members do not want to cause discord or thwart progress, so they do not speak up. Groupthink is more likely to produce inaccurate or ineffective (not effective) group decisions.

Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur when the administration and delivery of health care is organized as a bureaucracy? A.Licensing for health care providers is impersonal and standardized B.Health care providers and administrators have separate and specialized roles C.There is a clear chain of command among health care providers and administrators D.Health care providers treat each patient as unique and administer personalized patient care

Health care providers treat each patient as unique and administer personalized patient care Bureaucracy, a modern form of organization adopted by complex societies, is designed to be rational and maximize efficiency. An ideal bureaucracy is characterized by the following: Division of labor increases efficiency through specialization (individuals focus on their area of expertise) Hierarchical structure provides a clear chain of command enabling everyone to understand their role Standardization of clear rules/procedures ensures continuity and uniformity Impersonal processes for hiring/promoting (based on merit) and handling clients foster equal treatment Actual bureaucracies often have some, but not necessarily all, of the characteristics of an ideal bureaucracy. If the administration and delivery of health care is organized as a bureaucracy, personalized patient care would be least likely to occur because bureaucracies are typically characterized by impersonality and standardization (not personalization and flexibility). (Choice A) Licensing for health care providers that is impersonal (based on merit) and standardized (formal, uniform) is likely to occur in a bureaucracy. (Choice B) Health care providers and administrators who have separate and specialized roles reflect a division of labor, which is likely to occur in a bureaucracy. (Choice C) A clear chain of command among health care providers and administrators reflects a hierarchical organization, which is likely to occur in a bureaucracy. Educational objective:Ideal bureaucracies use division of labor, hierarchical structure, standardization, and impersonality to maximize rationality and efficiency. Actual bureaucracies often have some, but not necessarily all, of the characteristics of an ideal bureaucracy.

representative heuristic

Heuristics are mental shortcuts that help individuals come to conclusions or make decisions more quickly and without having to consider every single option. Although time-saving, heuristics are not always accurate. The representativeness heuristic proposes that individuals tend to compare things to an existing mental prototype when trying to decide the likeliness of something. In other words, when encountering a new situation, individuals tend to rely on mental representations (of people, events) when drawing conclusions. For example, most people have mental representations of "surgeons" and "nurses." When encountering someone in a medical setting, the characteristics normally associated with "surgeon" (male, white) and "nurse" (female) may cause people to make assumptions about those personnel that are not necessarily accurate.

types of organizations

In sociology, organizations are social structures composed of individuals linked by specific purposes, tasks, and/or common goals. The three main types of organizations are normative, utilitarian, and coercive. In normative organizations, people voluntarily unite based on shared values and/or goals (eg, church congregations, sororities). In utilitarian organizations, members are compensated for their involvement, typically through money (eg, paid employment) or certification/diploma (eg, university students). In coercive organizations, membership is not freely chosen (eg, prisoners) and/or maintained (eg, military service members must be discharged). A humanitarian group composed of physician volunteers illustrates an organization in which members are united by shared values and/or goals (ie, a normative organization). (Choices A and C) Medical residents and business consultants are compensated for their efforts in a residency program and the workforce, respectively (ie, through certification, pay). Therefore, both a medical residency program and an insurance company that employs physicians as consultants illustrate utilitarian, not normative, organizations. (Choice B) An inpatient psychiatric ward in which involuntarily committed patients are unable to leave as they choose (ie, they must be evaluated and cleared by staff) illustrates a coercive, not a normative, organization. Educational objective:Organizations are social structures composed of individuals linked by specific purposes, tasks, and/or common goals. In normative organizations, people come together based on shared values/goals, whereas utilitarian organizations compensate members for their involvement. In coercive organizations, membership is not freely chosen and/or maintained.

Thomas theorem

In sociology, the Thomas theorem predicts that an individual's response or reaction to a situation is the result of her interpretation of the situation.

religiosity and religious affiliation

In sociology, there is a distinction between religiosity and religious affiliation. Religiosity refers to the extent to which a given religious doctrine is incorporated into all aspects of an individual's life (eg, beliefs, behaviors, identity). Also referred to as religiousness, religiosity is the degree to which a person internalizes a religion. For example, those who consider themselves Catholic and have a high degree of religiosity also demonstrate beliefs and behaviors that align with Catholicism, and "being Catholic" is an important part of their identity. Religious affiliation describes an individual identifying with a religious group (eg, Catholics, Jews, Muslims). Just because individuals identify with a religious group does not necessarily mean that they live their lives according to the principles or customs of that religion. For example, many people consider themselves Catholic but do not attend church often or at all.

Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs

In the Maslow hierarchy of needs, the desire to lose weight to look and feel healthy and accomplished is an example of an esteem need, a psychological need that can be met after basic needs are satisfied. Maslow proposed that humans are motivated to achieve certain needs, which are arranged in a hierarchy of importance: basic needs must be met before psychological needs can be addressed, and psychological needs must be met before self-fulfillment needs can be addressed. Basic needs include physiological needs and safety needs. Physiological needs are the basic elements necessary for survival, such as sleep, water, food, and air. Safety needs involve protection from danger, a sense of security, law and order, and freedom from fear. Psychological needs include love/belonging needs and esteem needs. Love/belonging needs include the need for connection with friends, family, and romantic partners with regard to affection, trust, and acceptance; they also involve the need to feel integrated into a group, society, or culture. Esteem needs involve the desire to feel accomplished and productive within a society. These involve the need for feelings of achievement, independence, and respect. Self-actualization needs involve a desire to seek personal experiences that allow one to reach full potential. Although Maslow believed that every person was capable of attaining self-actualization, he held tha

A study found that over time, compared to white immigrants, immigrants of color experience poorer health overall. The researchers hypothesized that these immigrants, while living in the United States, are confronted with implicit and explicit negative messages about their outsider status as both a racial "minority" and as "immigrants," which have a cumulative impact on health. This hypothesis is most related to which pair of factors? A.Intersectionality and racialization B.Cultural transmission and racialization C.Intersectionality and stereotype threat D.Cultural transmission and stereotype threat

Intersectionality and racialization Intersectionality describes how individuals hold multiple, interconnected, marginalized social identities (eg, gender, race, age) that impact their lives, perspectives, and treatment in society. In other words, the experience of more than one type of discrimination (eg, sexism, racism, ageism) has a cumulative effect on many individuals. Racialization is the process by which one group designates another group with a racial identity, often based on shared group qualities, such as physical attributes (eg, skin pigmentation) or behaviors (eg, religious practices). The designating group has more social power (dominant group) and exerts social control over the designated group, which has less social power (subordinate group). The hypothesis that implicit and explicit negative messages about outsider status as both a racial "minority" and an "immigrant" have a cumulative impact on health is related to intersectionality (cumulative effects of racial "minority" and "immigrant" statuses) and racialization (implicit and explicit messages about one's racial "minority" status). (Choices B and D) Cultural transmission, which describes the passing of cultural information (eg, behaviors, beliefs, objects) from one generation to the next, is not related to the researchers' hypothesis. (Choices C and D) Stereotype threat occurs when task performance suffers as a result of being made aware before the task of a negative stereotype about a group to which one belongs (eg, awareness of the stereotype "women are bad at math" before a math task hinders women's performance). The researchers' hypothesis is unrelated to negatively impacted task performance. Educational objective:Intersectionality describes how multiple, interconnected, marginalized social identities simultaneously impact individual's lives, perspectives, and treatment in society. Racialization is the process by which one group (the dominant group) designates another (a subordinate group) with a racial identity.

Which of the following symptoms, if present, would help a clinician diagnose bipolar disorder rather than borderline personality disorder? A.Lack of interest in activities previously enjoyed B.Impulsive or reckless behavior C.Fear of abandonment D.Suicidal ideation

Lack of interest in activities previously enjoyed Bipolar disorders (BD) are characterized by mania, defined as an abnormally elevated or irritable mood and increased energy. Manic episodes may also include feelings of grandiosity, reduced need for sleep, flight of ideas (rapid thoughts), and impulsive or reckless behaviors (eg, extreme spending, promiscuous sexual activity). Most people with BD also experience depressive episodes. Depressive episodes share the same symptoms as depressive disorder, such as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, lack of interest in activities, sleep disturbances, and frequent thoughts of death or suicide. Borderline personality disorder is characterized by instability in mood, sense of self, and relationships. Symptoms may include extreme mood reactivity, fear of abandonment, impulsive or reckless behavior (eg, drug use, unsafe sex), and suicidal or self-harming behavior. Lack of interest in activities previously enjoyed is a symptom that may be present in BD and depressive disorder, but is not characteristic of borderline personality disorder; therefore, if present, this symptom would help a clinician diagnose BD rather than borderline personality disorder. (Choice B) Impulsive or reckless behavior is characteristic of manic episodes in BD and borderline personality disorder; therefore, if present, this symptom would not help a clinician diagnose BD rather than borderline personality disorder. (Choice C) Efforts to avoid being abandoned are characteristic of borderline personality disorder but not BD. (Choice D) Suicidal ideation (thoughts about suicide) is characteristic of BD and borderline personality disorder; therefore, if present, this symptom would not help a clinician diagnose BD rather than borderline personality disorder. Educational objective:Bipolar disorder is characterized by mania: An elevated or irritable mood, feelings of grandiosity, reduced need for sleep, flight of ideas (rapid thoughts), and risky behaviors. Most people with bipolar disorder also experience depressive episodes: Feelings of sadness/hopelessness, lack of interest in activities, sleep disturbances, and thoughts of death or suicide.

language acquisition theory

Learning perspective Learned via:Operant conditioningLanguage imitation & practice Nativist perspective Innate & biologically predetermined Occurs during a critical (time-sensitive)period early in life Interactionist perspective Biological (due to normal brain development) AND Social (due to interaction, reinforcement,desire/motivation to communicate) The interactionist theory proposes that language acquisition is the result of both biological (eg, normal brain development) and environmental/social factors, particularly the interaction that occurs between children and their caregivers. The interactionist theory is supported by evidence that certain aspects of language appear to be innate whereas others appear to be social. Children typically learn to communicate with language along a similar timeline (eg, first words around age 1, simple two-word phrases by age 2, etc), which provides evidence that some aspects of language acquisition are innate. However, children who are severely neglected (ie, almost no social contact) do not learn to communicate using language, which provides evidence that language acquisition also requires social interaction.

incentive theory

Motivation describes the factors that prompt action toward a goal. Most motivation theories focus on internally motivating factors (eg, desire to achieve), physiological drives (eg, hunger), or the fear or threat of negative consequences (eg, punishment). Incentive theory of motivation suggests that organisms are motivated to act in order to obtain external rewards. For example, a student might spend many hours studying for an exam not because she is interested in the material (an internal factor), but because she wants to get a good grade (an external reward). Incentive theory explains why a person would continue smoking even in the face of dire health consequences. According to this theory, the pleasure of smoking is so strong and so immediate that it serves as a stronger incentive than the prospect of good health in the future. The promise of good health is a weaker incentive because it is less immediate and less certain to occur. (Choices B and D) Incentive theory suggests that behaviors are motivated by extrinsic (external) rewards, not biological drives. Drive theory would suggest that smokers are motivated to continue smoking due to physical addiction and the desire to reduce or avoid undesirable withdrawal symptoms. (Choice C) Incentive theory suggests that behaviors are motivated by extrinsic rewards, not by internal factors such as preserving one's freedom to smoke. Educational objective:Motivation describes the factors that prompt action toward a goal. Incentive theory suggests that behavior is primarily motivated by extrinsic (external) rewards, rather than internal rewards or biological drives.

normal memory decay

Normal memory decay (or forgetting) follows a characteristic pattern: the initial rate of decay is highest right after the material is first learned, then plateaus over time unless the material is reviewed. Numerous studies have produced the same basic forgetting curve shape for different types of memory, including short-term and several types of long-term memory (eg, episodic, semantic, and procedural). These graphs depict percent retention (amount remembered) on the y-axis, as a function of the time elapsed since learning, on the x-axis. Normal memory decay should be depicted by a steep initial drop in percent retained that plateaus over time, as does the graph in Choice B.

Results from a survey of believers indicated a positive correlation between the incorporation of religion into an individual's life and participation in FBLDs. This illustrates what type of study, and what concept was being assessed? A.Observational, religious affiliation B.Experimental, religious affiliation C.Observational, religiosity D.Experimental, religiosity

Observational, religiosity In sociology, there is a distinction between religiosity and religious affiliation. Religiosity refers to the extent to which a religious doctrine is internalized and incorporated into an individual's life (eg, behaviors, beliefs). For example, Jewish individuals with a high degree of religiosity demonstrate many beliefs and behaviors that align with Judaism, and "being Jewish" is an important part of how they define themselves. Observational studies are conducted when it is unethical or unfeasible to manipulate a variable of interest. For example, it would not be feasible (or ethical) to manipulate the degree to which religion is internalized. Therefore, the survey findings presented are from an observational study (ie, no manipulation of variables) that assessed religiosity, the incorporation of religion into an individual's life. (Choices A and B) Religious affiliation describes the specific religious group to which an individual identifies, which is not synonymous with living one's life according to the principles, behaviors, or customs of that religion. For example, one may consider oneself to be Catholic but not attend church. A study in which believers are surveyed about the incorporation of religion into their lives is assessing religiosity, not religious affiliation.

Optimum Population Theory

Optimum population is a demographic theory regarding the ideal population size, which is the number of people yielding the highest per capita income given the country's level of wealth, knowledge, and technical resources. This is not addressed in the first paragraph.

The finding in Study 2 of an association between BMI and number of neighborhood retail food chains demonstrates which type of correlation, and the study represents which sociological approach, respectively? A.Positive, microsociological B.Negative, microsociological C.Positive, macrosociological D.Negative, macrosociological

Positive, macrosociological Micro- and macrosociology together provide an understanding of human social life. Microsociology focuses on how interpersonal interactions (eg, between a parent and child) build and shape society. For example, a microsociological approach might examine how mealtime interactions between parents and their children impact obesity rates. Macrosociology focuses on the broad, society-wide institutions (eg, education, economic, and health care systems) and large-scale events that impact the lives of individuals. For example, a macrosociological approach might focus on how economic recession impacts obesity rates. Study 2 found a positive correlation between number of neighborhood retail food chains and BMI: a greater number of retail food chains near participants' homes was associated with a higher BMI. Study 2, which focused on larger contextual variables contributing to obesity, used a macrosociological approach. (Choices A, B, and D) Study 2 found that higher BMI was associated with more neighborhood retail food chains, which reflects a positive (not negative) correlation. Study 2 focused on a macrosociological factor, the number of retail food chains in a given neighborhood, rather than microsociological interactions between individuals. Educational objective:Microsociology focuses on how interpersonal interactions between individuals or in small groups build and shape society. Macrosociology focuses on broad, society-wide institutions and events that impact the lives of individuals.

Difference between GAD and PTSD

Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is classified as a trauma- and stressor-related disorder in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM). It arises from exposure to trauma, any event that resulted or almost resulted in death or serious injury (eg, assault, serious accident, combat). A diagnosis of PTSD requires several types of symptoms, including unwanted, intrusive symptoms (eg, recurring nightmares, flashbacks), going to great lengths to avoid reminders of the trauma (eg, avoiding events, objects, people), and negative thoughts and moods. PTSD is also characterized by significant changes in reactivity and arousal (eg, hypervigilance, exaggerated startle response, insomnia, difficulty concentrating). Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is classified as an anxiety disorder in the DSM and is characterized by excessive and uncontrollable worry about a range of events. People with GAD may have muscle tension, difficulty concentrating or sleeping, and feel restless, fatigued, or irritable. The main difference between PTSD and GAD is that PTSD is caused by trauma whereas GAD is not. (Choice A) Hallucinations are false sensory perceptions; these are usually associated with psychotic disorders, such as schizophrenia. People with PTSD may experience flashbacks, a vivid reliving of a traumatic memory, but these are not hallucinations. (Choice B) Both GAD and PTSD are characterized by ongoing functional impairment. (Choice D) GAD (not PTSD) is characterized by widespread, excessive worry. However, people with PTSD may hold broad and excessive negative beliefs, such as believing the world is inherently unsafe. Educational objective:Trauma-related disorders (eg, PTSD) are caused by exposure to traumatic events and are characterized by intrusive symptoms, avoidance behaviors, negative thoughts/mood, and physiological arousal. Anxiety disorders (eg, GAD, phobias) are characterized by excessive, uncontrollable fear (perceived imminent threat) or worry (perceived future threat).

methods of problem solving

Problem-solving describes all of the mental processes involved with trying to reach a goal with an unknown solution, such as trying to find misplaced keys, solve a word problem, or figure out if a parking space is big enough. There are several common problem-solving methods. Trial and error involves attempting possible solutions until the problem is solved, ruling out ineffective solutions along the way. For example, a psychiatrist may try various antidepressants for a patient, monitoring their effects over time, until the best medication is found. Trial and error is most viable when there are a limited number of options. The dialog between the physician and the patient demonstrates the trial and error approach; the physician makes recommendations and suggests reassessing at the next visit. (Choice A) Heuristics are problem-solving shortcuts that are efficient but not always accurate. For example, the psychiatrist might start by prescribing her patient the most common antidepressant. The exchange between the patient and doctor at the end of the passage is a better reflection of trial and error than the use of heuristics. (Choice B) Algorithms are precise, logical, step-by-step procedures that may be time-consuming, but always produce an accurate answer. For example, for certain drugs, exact dosages are calculated using age and weight rather than estimated or figured out through trial and error. The exchange between the patient and doctor at the end of the passage does not exemplify the use of an algorithm. (Choice D) Insight occurs when the solution suddenly becomes apparent all at once, typically after one stops actively thinking about the problem for awhile (incubation period). The exchange between the patient and doctor at the end of the passage does not exemplify insight. Educational objective:Trial and error is a problem-solving method in which a series of possible solutions are attempted and ruled out until the problem is solved. This method is best suited for problems with a limited number of possible solutions.

regression to the mean (threat to internal validity)

Regression to the mean refers to the tendency of extreme data points in a distribution to regress toward the mean value of the distribution upon repeated measurements. For example, an athlete who has an outstanding performance in one game is likely to underperform in the next game. This effect would predict that the Group 5 estimate would be less, not more, extreme.

If the amount of change for the control and experimental groups did not actually differ, which of the following measurement errors would most likely result in a false positive (finding that the experimental group increased more than the control group)? A.Experimental group participants in Study 1 overestimated their pretest scores. B.All participants in Study 1 underestimated their pretest scores by the same amount. C.Researchers in Study 2 underestimated the pretest scores for the experimental group participants. D.Researchers in Study 2 overestimated the posttest scores for both groups by the same amount.

Researchers in Study 2 underestimated the pretest scores for the experimental group participants. The null hypothesis (H0) states that there is no difference between 2 groups. In contrast, the alternative hypothesis (HA) rivals the null by claiming that a difference does exist. Rejecting a true null hypothesis (type I error) leads to the incorrect conclusion that there is a difference between groups (false positive). In the statistical analyses for Study 1 and Study 2, change scores (posttest minus pretest measurements) observed in the control group were compared to change scores in the experimental group. If researchers had underestimated pretest measurements for the experimental group, this error would lead to larger observed changes in scores for this group. Therefore, comparatively larger change scores would be observed in the experimental group relative to the control, suggesting that the experimental group improved more than the control, resulting in a false positive. (Choices B and D) If both the experimental and control groups underestimated pretest measurements or overestimated posttest measurements by the same amount, there would be no effect on net differences observed between the groups. Therefore, this would not increase the likelihood of finding a false difference between the groups. (Choice A) An overestimate of baseline measurements in the experimental group would decrease the observed effect of the intervention. This would not increase the likelihood of stating that the experimental group improved relative to the control. If in reality the experimental group did experience more change than the control group, this type of measurement error could lead researchers to fail to reject a false null hypothesis (type II error) with the erroneous conclusion that there is no difference (false negative). Educational objective: The null hypothesis (H0) states that there is no difference between 2 groups, and the alternative hypothesis (HA) supposes that a difference does exist. Erroneously rejecting a true null hypothesis is a type I error, and failing to reject a false null hypothesis is a type II error. Errors in measurements can lead to study conclusions that do not accurately reflect reality.

To produce an aggregate measure of social stratification (Paragraph 1), a researcher would be most likely to assess which of the following factors? A.Power, charismatic authority, and property B.Social role, social capital, and social networks C.Social class, social status, and power D.Social role, social identity, and social class

Social class, social status, and power Social stratification is the hierarchical organization of individuals in society based on social class, social status, and power: Social class is largely determined by economic resources (eg, income, property). Wealthy individuals are at the top of the social hierarchy, whereas those in the working and lower classes are at the bottom. Social status refers to one's prestige (reputation). Certain careers (eg, physician), personal characteristics (eg, attractiveness), and achievements (eg, winning an Olympic gold medal) confer status that is not necessarily tied to wealth (although it can be). Power is the ability to control others. Certain careers (eg, politician) and accomplishments (eg, a large social media following) increase one's power. Therefore, in order to produce an aggregate measure of social stratification, a researcher would be most likely to assess social class, social status, and power.

frustration aggression theory

Social institutions (eg, family) are enduring, organized systems that outline behavioral norms and fulfill a purpose in society. Family is broadly defined as at least two individuals connected by an intimate relationship (eg, marriage/partnership, birth, adoption) who often live together. Abuse within families can take many forms, including physical violence, emotional harm, neglect, and/or isolation. Family members subject to abuse may include partners (spousal abuse), children (child abuse), or older relatives (elder abuse). Intrafamily violence is most often explained with social learning theory, which posits that individuals who commit violence are modeling behaviors they've seen in the past (eg, one's father hitting one's mother). Another perspective on intrafamily violence, the frustration-aggression theory, contends that individuals exhibit violence as a result of having a goal or effort blocked or defeated (ie, frustration). Therefore, intrafamily violence resulting from an individual experiencing stress from a defeat is best explained by the frustration-aggression theory.

spatial inequality and residential segregation

Spatial inequality results from the uneven distribution of wealth and resources across a geographic area. Some of the best examples of spatial inequality are low-income subsidized housing projects (where Jake and Michael grew up) because these typically concentrate large numbers of lower-income individuals into one area that is geographically separated or isolated from middle- and upper-income areas. The physical separation of groups by social characteristics such as race/ethnicity and socioeconomic status is known as residential segregation. Segregated neighborhoods experience different degrees of environmental benefits (access to safe parks and good schools) and environmental burdens (crime, pollution); this is known as environmental injustice. Spatial inequality results in the worst health outcomes for residents in the poorest neighborhoods because of increased exposure to violence and environmental risks.

strain theory

Strain theory suggests that when individuals are unable to attain socially acceptable goals (eg, having a nice car) through legitimate means (eg, a job), the resulting strain may lead to deviant behavior (eg, stealing). Strain theory does not address how self-concept is shaped by the interpretations of others' perceptions.

Types of stressors

Stress refers to a threatening or demanding stimulus that disturbs equilibrium in some way (mentally, emotionally, physically). Stress can lead to high blood pressure, anxiety, headaches, and many other health problems. There are four major types of stressors: Daily hassles are common, everyday occurrences that affect few people and are irritating but are not major stressors (eg, driving in traffic). A personal life event is a major life transition that affects few people but is very stressful. Personal life events can be positive (eg, baby) or negative (eg, death in the family). Environmental (or ambient) stressors are large-scale (affecting many people), minor but persistent irritations (eg, traffic noise). Catastrophes are large-scale major events that affect many people (eg, natural disasters). (Choice A) Although a minor car accident causing little damage and no injury would qualify as a daily hassle, a major car accident is a personal life event because it is more traumatic and taxing than a daily hassle but affects only a limited number of people. (Choice C) The death of a spouse is a personal life event that is extremely traumatic but affects only a limited number of people. (Choice D) War is best categorized as a catastrophe because of its devastating, widespread impact. Educational objective:Stressors are threatening, demanding stimuli that disturb equilibrium. Daily hassles are minor irritations affecting few people. Personal life events are major milestones affecting few people. Environmental (ambient) stressors are minor irritations affecting large numbers of people, and catastrophes are major events affecting many people.

Which of the following is true, according to the Mead theory of identity development? A.The "me" is the aspect of self that is formed through interactions with others. B.The "I" is the aspect of self that is formed during the game stage. C.The "looking-glass self" results from an individual's cumulative lifetime of interactions with others. D.The "front-stage self" involves behaving in ways that align with social norms and expectations.

The "me" is the aspect of self that is formed through interactions with others. George Herbert Mead, who is most associated with the sociological theory of symbolic interactionism, argued that social (rather than biological) factors influence identity formation. Mead suggested that the experience of "self" emerges through social interaction with others who play important and formative roles in one's life (eg, family). The two aspects of the self are the "I" and "me," which develop in stages: Preparatory (or imitation): Babies/toddlers imitate others (eg, a parent's hand gesture) and begin using symbols and language (eg, repeating a phrase used by a parent) without meaning comprehension. At this stage, children have no sense of "self" as separate from the world around them. Play: Through play (eg, pretending to be a doctor), preschool-age children begin role-taking (ie, understanding the perspectives of others). When children understand themselves as individuals separate from others, the "I" component of the self has developed. Children then begin to imagine how others perceive them, which is the beginning of the development of the "me." Game: School-age children become aware of their position/role in relation to others. They begin to see themselves from the perspective of the more abstract generalized other, further developing the "me" to incorporate the values and rules of the society in which they live. (Choice B) According to the Mead theory, the "me," not the "I," is formed through interactions with others during the game stage. (Choice C) Charles Cooley (not Mead) proposed the concept of the looking-glass self, suggesting that beliefs about oneself are derived through social interactions with others throughout one's lifetime. The Mead theory differs from the Cooley theory by suggesting that interactions early in life result in one's conception of self or identity. (Choice D) The dramaturgical perspective of Erving Goffman (not Mead) explains social behavior using a theater metaphor; the front-stage self involves individuals behaving as "actors" in front of an "audience," whereas the back-stage self includes the behaviors in which an individual engages more privately. Educational objective:George

Cannnon Bard theory with Cats

The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion suggests that physiological arousal and emotion are separate and independent and therefore occur simultaneously. For example, on seeing a wolf, an individual experiences physiological arousal (eg, increased heart rate) at the same time that the brain registers the emotion of fear. Cannon and Bard conducted experiments on cats in which they severed the sympathetic afferent neurons to the brain and then exposed the cats to fear-inducing stimuli. If emotion is caused by physiological arousal (James-Lange theory), then the cats should not demonstrate fear without autonomic feedback from their bodies. Since they did demonstrate fear, Cannon and Bard theorized that the two responses occurred simultaneously and independently. The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion would explain the events described in the second paragraph by arguing that physiological arousal and the experience of emotion all occur simultaneously. (Choice A) Neither the James-Lange nor the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion takes cognitive appraisal into account. The suggestion that emotion requires cognitive appraisal to be experienced is consistent with the Schachter-Singer theory of emotion, which suggests, like the James-Lange theory, that physiological arousal precedes emotion but also suggests that cognitive interpretation of the situation allows the correct labeling of the emotion by the brain. (Choice B) Neither the James-Lange nor the Cannon-Bard theory deals with the innateness of emotion. The idea that emotional expressions are innate and unlearned is consistent with the evolutionary theory of emotion. (Choice C) The idea that cognition must first occur for emotion to be felt is consistent with the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion, not the Cannon-Bard theory. Educational objective:According to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion, physiological arousal and the experience of emotion occur simultaneously and independently.

How would a proponent of Malthusian theory most likely interpret the data in Figure 1? A.Increased suicide rates provide evidence for a Malthusian catastrophe. B.The decline in suicide rates during World War II supports Malthusian theory. C.The Great Depression would be considered a positive check. D.Increased suicide rates during recessions are negative checks.

The Malthusian theory of population growth suggests that the human population increases exponentially while resources increase at a slower linear rate. According to this theory, the population growth rate can be slowed by preventative checks and positive checks. Preventative checks are those that decrease the birth rate (and are typically voluntary, such as waiting to marry and having fewer children). Positive checks increase the death rate, slowing population growth by shortening the average life span. Positive checks can be small-scale (eg, increased death rate due to a flu virus) or large-scale (eg, an epidemic that wipes out half the population). Large-scale positive checks, called Malthusian catastrophes (eg, widespread famine, disease epidemics, large-scale wars), dramatically reduce the population to a level that the available resources can easily sustain, by slowing or stopping population growth entirely. (Choice A) Increases in suicide rates, even up to the highest rates in Figure 1 (15-20 suicides per 100,000 people), will not have a large enough impact on the population to be considered a Malthusian catastrophe. (Choice B) According to Malthusian theory, the increased death rate (not the decreased suicide rate) during World War II would be considered a positive check, supporting the theory. (Choice D) A negative check does not exist in Malthusian theory, only positive checks and preventative checks. Educational objective:The Malthusian theory of population growth asserts that when the population grows faster than the resources necessary to sustain that population, preventative checks (reducing the birthrate) or positive checks (increasing the death rate) can slow down growth. A Malthusian catastrophe is a large-scale positive check that slows or stops population growth.

the illness experience

The illness experience is a symbolic interactionist perspective that examines how individuals understand and cope with serious or chronic illnesses that impact daily life and self-identity. The illness experience includes strategies employed by individuals who are chronically ill: Illness work involves gathering information about one's illness, seeking treatment, taking medications, and other illness-related activities. Everyday work involves other daily activities that do not directly involve managing one's illness but are nevertheless impacted by one's illness, such as maintaining a household, working, and caring for loved ones. Biographical work involves making sense of the illness for oneself and for others, such as explaining the illness to coworkers, friends, and family. Patient 3's quote discusses the emotional and practical impact of BD in terms of acknowledging one's illness and managing it through medication as well as the effect this acknowledgment has on the patient's sense of identity, all of which reflect the illness experience. (Choice A) The illness experience does not address unconscious desires relating to illness, and the quote does not appear to suggest this either. (Choice B) Stigmatization refers to the process of society labeling traits or qualities as undesirable. Mental illness is often stigmatized, but the quote does not address the way others perceive or interact with the patient. (Choice D) The quote suggests that the patient's self-identity adapts to incorporate BD; however, changes to self-identity related to illness are included as part of the illness experience approach. Educational objective:The illness experience discusses how chronically ill individuals make sense of and manage their illness in daily life and what effect illness has on their sense of self-identity. Chronically ill individuals employ strategies that involve illness work (eg, taking medications), everyday work (eg, maintaining a household), and biographical work (eg, explaining the illness to others) to cope with and make sense of their illness.

Which of the following explanations for the results shown in Figure 1A most aligns with the learning theory of language development? A.The children developed their language skills through exposure to the environment, operant conditioning, and imitation and repetition of language. B.The children who scored well on comprehension tests have learned that achievement is rewarded, motivating them to think more actively during the listening exercise. C.Older children's performances on the comprehension task were driven by both biological factors and exposure to social situations. D.Older children were able to learn the reading material more effectively because they had already passed the critical period of language development.

The children developed their language skills through exposure to the environment, operant conditioning, and imitation and repetition of language. The learning theory of language development (also known as the behaviorist theory) is based on the idea that language is an entirely learned behavior. This theory suggests that humans are born as "blank slates" and develop language skills through operant conditioning, imitation, and practice. For example, when infants make vocalizations that sound like "mama," they are rewarded in the form of attention and affection, thereby reinforcing that behavior. When they make other sounds that are not similar to words, they receive no reinforcement. Figure 1(A) shows a trend of increased language comprehension with age. The conclusion that children develop language skills through exposure to the environment, operant conditioning, and imitation and repetition of language is most consistent with the learning theory of language development. (Choice B) The children performed the listening task before taking the comprehension test and were unaware they would be taking another test afterward. Therefore, it is impossible to purposefully perform well on the listening task (which came first) based on an expected reward for scoring well on the comprehension task (which came second). (Choice C) The interactionist theory (not the learning theory) suggests that language develops through both biological and social processes. The learning theory proposes that language development is learned (through social interaction) like any other skill and does not take biological factors into consideration. (Choice D) The nativist theory (not the learning theory) emphasizes the importance of language exposure during a critical (time-sensitive) period in early life, after which language development is more difficult. Educational objective:The learning theory of language development is based on the idea that language is a learned behavior and humans are born as "blank slates." It posits that language develops through environmental exposure, operant conditioning (eg, positive reinforcement for certain vocalizations), imitation, and repeated language production.

feritility rates

The fertility rate is a measure of the number of people being added to a given population through birth (as opposed to immigration). There are multiple ways demographers express fertility (or birth) rates. Total fertility rate (TFR) is the average number of children born per woman during her lifetime. For example, in 1955 (the middle of the "baby boom") the TFR in the U.S. was 3.6 children per woman, whereas in 2012 the TFR was 1.8. For a population to remain constant without immigration, the TFR must be 2 (referred to as the replacement rate), which is the number required to replace the two individuals required to create the two children. A TFR above 2 means the population is growing and below 2, that it is shrinking. The passage provides specific data for TFR only because it mentions the number of births per woman is about two (Paragraph 1). (Choice A) The crude birth rate (CBR) is the number of live births per year for every 1,000 members of a population, regardless of sex or age. An underdeveloped country may have a CBR of 50, whereas a more developed country may have a CBR of 10. CBR is used as a rough estimate of population growth through birth only. The last paragraph mentions birth rates declining, but does not provide any numbers (no specific data for CBR). (Choice B) Demographers more commonly use the general fertility rate (GFR), the total number of live births per year for every 1,000 women of childbearing age in a population, which is a better measure of fertility than the CBR because it accounts for the age distribution and sex ratio of the population. There are no specific data for GFR provided in the passage. (Choice D) The age-specific fertility rate (ASFR) is the number of live births per year for 1,000 women in a certain age group in a population. For example, the ASFR per 1,000 women age 25-29 may be in the hundreds, whereas the ASFR per 1,000 women age 40-44 may be in the single digits. There are no specific data for ASFR provided in the passage. Educational objective:The crude birth rate refers to the number of live births per year for every 1,000 people in a population; the general fertility rate refers to the total number of live births per year for every 1,000 women of childbear

General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)

The general adaptation syndrome (GAS), proposed by Hans Selye, is a model describing how the body reacts to stress. According to this model, there are three stages of the stress response: The alarm stage occurs during the first few minutes of the stress response, in which the sympathetic nervous system prepares the body to act (ie, fight-or-flight response). Decreased resistance to stress. The resistance stage can last for hours (eg, exercise), days (eg, final exams), or months (eg, preparing for the MCAT). During this stage, the body attempts to resist the stressor and establish a new equilibrium. Increased resistance to stress. The exhaustion stage occurs when prolonged stress produces arousal with depleted energy, making the body more vulnerable to negative health effects (eg, depression, hypertension). Decreased resistance to stress.

looking glass self Cooley

The looking-glass self is a symbolic interactionist concept that suggests that our interpretation of how we are perceived by others impacts our self-concept (beliefs about ourselves). In addition, our interpretation of what others think about us is more important than what they actually think. For example, a coach may provide feedback to the most talented player, but that player may interpret (and then internalize) this as an indication that the coach doesn't think she is very good. The concept of the looking-glass self best explains the business owner's shift in self-concept (ie, doubting his ability to run his business) as a result of his interpretation of the perceptions of others after his accident.

Three components of attitude

The term attitude refers to a person's evaluation or disposition toward something (eg, a person, an object, an event). Attitudes can be positive, negative, or neutral and can change over time. Psychologists have identified three components of attitudes: The affective component relates to how a person feels about something, including positive or negative evaluations or emotions (eg, anger, excitement). For example, a person might have strong negative feelings about a political candidate, causing her to favor that candidate's opponent. The cognitive component relates to a person's beliefs and opinions about something. For example, a person might believe that a particular candidate has characteristics or experiences that make that candidate well suited to hold office. The behavioral component relates to how a person acts toward something. In the above examples, voting for or against a candidate reflects the behavioral component of attitude.

Theories of emotion

Theories of emotion attempt to explain why emotions exist and how they are generated and experienced. There are several major theories of emotion, including the James-Lange, Schachter-Singer, and Cannon-Bard theories. (Number I) The James-Lange theory suggests that the physiological response elicited by a stimulus produces emotion. For example, if an individual sees a wolf approaching (stimulus), the corresponding increased heart rate (physiological reaction) triggers the brain to experience fear (emotion). (Number II) The Schachter-Singer theory (ie, two-factor theory) is similar to the James-Lange theory except for an additional component: cognitive interpretation of the physiological response. The Schachter-Singer theory addresses the major limitation of the James-Lange theory, which is the fact that most emotions correspond with nearly identical physiological responses. In other words, anger, fear, and excitement might all produce similar elevations in heart rate, but the experience of each emotion is quite different because emotion is the result of two factors, physiological arousal and cognitive interpretation of the situation. The first paragraph states that prominent theories of emotion have long held that alterations in one's internal physiological state are necessary for the experience of emotion. The James-Lange and Schachter-Singer theories of emotion both suggest that physiological responses cause (or are necessary for) emotional responses. (Number III) The Cannon-Bard theory suggests that physiological and emotional responses occur simultaneously and independently. If the physiological reaction (increased heart rate) and emotion (fear) occur at the same time, physiological responses would not be necessary for the experience of emotion. Educational objective:The James-Lange theory proposes that physiological reactions produce emotion. The Schachter-Singer theory proposes that both a physiological response and cognitive interpretation are required for emotion. The Cannon-Bard theory proposes that physiological and emotional reactions occur independently and simultaneously.

Neuroimaging techniques

This study used functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI), a neuroimaging procedure that relies on the principle that active neurons require increased blood flow for oxygen delivery. Neurons lack internal energy stores (ie, no glucose or oxygen), so as an active brain region depletes the local oxygen supply in the blood, freshly oxygenated blood (oxyhemoglobin) rushes to this area to replace the deoxygenated blood (deoxyhemoglobin). The resulting change in blood flow is analyzed by detecting the differential properties of oxyhemoglobin and deoxyhemoglobin using an fMRI scanner. Researchers use this method to compare blood flow during a resting condition and an active condition. For example, the study researchers would have first assessed subjects at baseline (resting condition) and then while watching videos meant to induce emotion (active condition) and compared the regions of brain activation. (Choice A) An electroencephalogram (EEG) measures the patterns and fluctuations of electrical impulses in the brain through electrodes placed on the scalp. This technique records brain waves, and is most often used to diagnose epilepsy, sleep disorders, and coma. (Choices B and C) Positron emission tomography (PET) uses a radioactive tracer attached to a glucose analog to measure blood flow and glucose uptake induced by brain activity. PET is often combined with other procedures and produces a three-dimensional image of the brain showing hypermetabolic and hypometabolic regions. Educational objective:Functional magnetic resonance imaging is a neuroimaging tool that measures the difference in blood oxygenation between a resting condition and an active condition. It provides an indirect measure of brain activity associated with the experimental conditions.

Types of kinship, and degrees of kinship

Types of kinship Consanguineal Based on genetic relationship (eg, biological parents) Affinal Based on marriage (eg, spouses) Fictive Social ties that are not consanguineal or affinal (eg, adopted children) Degrees of kinship Primary First-degree family members (eg, mother) Secondary Primary kin of first-degree family members (eg, mother's brother) Tertiary Secondary kin of first-degree family members (eg, mother's uncle) In sociology, kinship describes how individuals in society are related to one another, including connections through birth, marriage, adoption, or other socially defined relationships (eg, godparents, fraternity brothers). There are three major types of kinship: consanguineal (genetically related individuals), affinal (individuals related through marriage), and fictive, which describes individuals related through something other than genetics or marriage. Also known as chosen kin or voluntary kin, fictive kin may share bonds through law (eg, adopted children), religion (eg, godparents), close family friendships, and other such means. Kinship is also defined by degree of relatedness. The nuclear family is considered the basic social unit or grouping in society and is defined as two coupled (usually married) adults and their offspring. Primary kin are nuclear family members sharing one of three possible relationships: spouses, parent/child, siblings. Secondary kin are one degree removed from the nuclear family (eg, grandparent, aunt, brother-in-law). Tertiary kin are two degrees removed from the nuclear family (eg, cousin, brother-in-law's mother).

The observed correlations presented in Figure 1 suggest all of the following EXCEPT: A.the age group with the best comprehension also showed the greatest volume of brain activation. B.younger children were not able to comprehend the stories as effectively as older children. C.activating a greater volume of the brain resulted in improved reading comprehension. D.age is positively correlated with volume of brain activation in children listening to stories

activating a greater volume of the brain resulted in improved reading comprehension. remember correlation does not mean causation A correlation coefficient (r) describes the linear relationship between two variables. The value of r ranges from −1 to 1 and describes the direction (sign) and strength of an association. The sign of the r-value indicates a positive or negative association, and the closer r is to its margins (−1 or 1), the stronger the relationship. As age increases, average comprehension test scores increase (Figure 1A) and average brain volume activity also increases (Figure 1B); therefore, the correlation coefficients for both graphs would be positive. Although both brain volume activation and language comprehension are positively correlated with age, their association with each other was not actually reported, so inferences about the relationship between brain volume activity and comprehension cannot be made. Correlation describes relationships; it does not imply causation. An r-value does not give information about the causal nature of changes in a variable. In this study, researchers did not manipulate the levels of brain activity and then measure the resulting reading comprehension. Therefore, it is not possible to conclude that activating a greater volume of the brain resulted in improved reading comprehension. (Choice A) The oldest age group demonstrated the best comprehension scores and also showed the greatest volume of brain activation. (Choice B) Figure 1A depicts a positive correlation between age and comprehension, which suggests that younger children were not able to comprehend the stories as effectively as older children. (Choice D) The data presented in Figure 1B show that as age increases, the volume of brain activation also increases, which is a positive correlation. Educational objective:The correlation coefficient (r) describes a linear relationship between two variables. The r-value ranges from −1 to 1 and reflects the strength and direction (positive or negative) of the linear association between these two variables. Correlation does not imply causation.

To investigate attributions related to exercise, an experimenter interviewed primary care physicians (PCPs) about their own exercise habits and their patients' reported exercise habits. The experimenter found that PCPs were more likely to attribute their own lack of exercise to factors such as being too busy, but were more likely to attribute their patients' lack of exercise to factors such as laziness. These results best illustrate the: A.actor-observer bias. B.experimenter bias. C.fundamental attribution error. D.self-serving bias.

actor-observer bias. Attributional biases are cognitive biases (common errors in thinking) that occur when people attempt to explain their own behavior or the behavior of someone else. Attributions can be dispositional, based on internal characteristics (eg, personality), or situational, based on external factors (eg, environment). The actor-observer bias is an attributional bias that describes the tendency to attribute one's own actions to external factors but the actions of others to internal factors. The physicians' tendency to make external attributions for their own lack of exercise (eg, "I'm too busy") while attributing their patients' lack of exercise to internal factors (eg, "they are lazy") best supports the actor-observer bias. (Choice B) Experimenter bias occurs when researchers deliberately or inadvertently influence their study, often leading to results that confirm what the researcher was expecting. Experimenter bias is not a type of attributional bias, and it is not illustrated by the results. (Choice C) The fundamental attribution error, an attributional bias, is the tendency to blame others' behavior on internal (eg, "they are lazy") instead of external factors. The fundamental attribution error fails to account for the finding regarding physicians' attributions for their own behaviors. (Choice D) Self-serving bias is an attributional bias that occurs when individuals credit their successes to internal factors but blame their failures on external factors. The results do not provide information about attributions related to success. Educational objective:Attributional biases are common errors in thinking that occur when people attempt to explain behavior (their own or someone else's). The actor-observer bias occurs when individuals attribute their own behavior to external factors but attribute the behavior of others to internal factors.

Suppose the researchers in Study 2 conducted a follow-up experiment in which they asked all 120 participants to play the role of a health educator by presenting a 15-minute lecture on the risks of contracting hepatitis C to a group of high school students. This would most likely cause: A.a decrease in concern scores and preventive behaviors for all participants. B.an increase in concern scores and preventive behaviors for all participants. C.a decrease in concern scores for the common behaviors group only. D.an increase in concern scores for the uncommon behaviors group only.

an increase in concern scores and preventive behaviors for all participants. A role refers to the specific behaviors that correspond to a particular position in society. Studies suggest that when individuals are asked to play social roles, the behaviors that align with those roles can impact their attitudes. The Stanford prison experiment is the most famous study on role-playing and attitude. In this experiment, 24 male college students were randomly assigned the role of either prisoner or guard in a simulated prison. The researchers found that the behavior of the participants began to influence their attitudes to such an extent that the study was terminated prematurely out of concern for the participants' safety. A person playing the role of health educator is expected to be knowledgeable about disease risks and to engage in preventive behaviors. Therefore, a follow-up experiment asking participants to play the role of a health educator would be most likely to cause changes in attitude (increase in concern for contracting hepatitis C) and changes in behavior (increase in preventive measures) for all participants. (Choice A) Role-playing effects predict that attitudes and behaviors would align with the role of health educator, causing increases (not decreases) in concern and preventive behaviors. (Choices C and D) Because all 120 participants are asked to play the role of health educator, all should demonstrate the changes in attitude and behavior that are predicted by role-playing effects. Educational objective:People tend to behave in ways that are consistent with the role they are playing. Role-playing effects, most famously demonstrated by the Stanford prison experiment, predict that when individuals are asked to behave in ways that align with an assigned role, they often demonstrate attitude changes.

Which of the following statements about race is most consistent with the social constructionist perspective? In society, race is: A.determined by genes. B.defined and maintained through social interactions. C.an achieved status. D.a social category used to maintain dynamic equilibrium.

defined and maintained through social interactions. Social constructionism is a sociological theory suggesting that "reality" is created through social interactions, resulting in agreed-upon, shared meanings. Objects (eg, money), behaviors (eg, handshaking), and categories (eg, race) have meaning only because individuals in society have agreed on that meaning, making them social constructs. Racial categories are considered social constructs because they have no clear biological basis and are largely defined by certain physical traits (eg, skin color). Racial categories also vary by society: an individual with one black parent may be considered black in the United States but not in another country. A definition of race that is maintained through social interactions is most consistent with the social constructionist perspective. (Choice A) There are no clear genetic markers that characteristically define any racial category. Also, the social constructionist perspective is concerned with the social (not biological) basis of race. (Choice C) Social status (one's rank relative to others in society) can be achieved (attained) or ascribed (assigned based on personal characteristics such as race or class). Race is an ascribed (not an achieved) status. (Choice D) From the functionalist perspective, which asserts that various parts of society work together to maintain dynamic equilibrium (ie, societal balance), race might be considered a social category that helps to maintain dynamic equilibrium, but this is not consistent with the social constructionist perspective. Educational objective:Social constructionism is a theory suggesting that social interactions establish "reality" through the creation of social constructs (eg, race), which have meaning only because individuals in society have agreed on that meaning.

he most appropriate control subjects for the study described in the final paragraph would be: A.males who have never been diagnosed with an eating disorder. B.males who have never been treated for an eating disorder. C.females who have never been diagnosed with an eating disorder. D.females who have never been treated for an eating disorder.

males who have never been diagnosed with an eating disorder. Control subjects provide a comparison group in experiments. The control subjects should be as similar as possible to the subjects of interest, except for the causal (independent) variable being studied. For example, in clinical trials controls are demographically similar to the treatment subjects (or those under evaluation) but do not receive any active medication or treatment. This study sought to determine whether a previous diagnosis of an eating disorder would predict other comorbid psychological disorders. The most appropriate control subjects should be similar to other subjects except with regard to the variable being studied. Therefore, the most appropriate control subjects for the study described in the passage are males who have never been diagnosed with an eating disorder.

Compared to women's social networks, men's social networks tend to be larger, have more weak ties, and provide more information about work-related topics; therefore, men's social networks most likely confer: A.less social capital and less social mobility. B.more social capital and more social mobility. C.less social capital but more social mobility. D.more social capital but less social mobility.

more social capital and more social mobility. Social networks are informal and nonhierarchical webs of interaction between nodes, which are linked by ties. Nodes can either be individuals or organizations. Ties describe the connections between the nodes and are defined as strong or weak. Weak ties are loose/flimsy connections, such as those between acquaintances, whereas strong ties are more solid connections, such as those between family and close friends. Social capital refers to a person's networks of people that can be converted into economic gain. Men's networks are larger and provide information about work-related topics, such as where there are job openings or promotion possibilities. Therefore, men's network connections confer more social capital because these connections can be more easily converted into economic gain. Social mobility refers to the movement of individuals, groups, or families between or within status categories in society (eg, from middle class to upper class). Social mobility can be horizontal or vertical and is related to a multitude of other factors, such as education, job loss, marriage, and institutionalized discrimination. By providing more social capital (potential economic gain), men's networks also provide more social mobility. (Choices A, C, and D) Compared to women's networks, men's social networks provide more (not less) social capital and more (not less) social mobility. Educational objective:Social networks are informal, nonhierarchical webs of nodes (eg, individuals) connected by ties, which can be weak (eg, acquaintances) or strong (eg, family). Social networks confer social capital through connections that can be converted into economic gain (eg, new job), which can improve one's social status, resulting in social mobility.

On the IAT, faster response times when pairing negative traits with less sex categorized faces most plausibly reflect: A.dissonance. B.social stigma. C.discrimination. D.functional fixedness.

social stigma. A stigma is an attribute or behavior that is considered undesirable by most in society. Social stigmatization is the disapproval of those with a deviant characteristic that does not conform to social expectations, such as an intersex appearance (combination of male and female characteristics). Social stigmas can result in prejudice (negative attitudes) or discrimination (unfair treatment) by others in society. The Implicit Association Test (IAT) is a psychometric technique designed to measure attitudes that may be unconscious by requiring the participant to assign a word or concept to one of two opposite categories as quickly as possible. Faster response times suggest that an individual did not need to contemplate how to assign the word, so quickly assigning negative traits to less sex categorized faces suggests that the participant has an implicit belief that intersex appearance is bad. This implicit association could be plausibly interpreted as a social stigma associated with intersex (non-dichotomous) faces. (Choice A) Cognitive dissonance is a state of mental discomfort caused by conflicting attitudes, beliefs, and/or behaviors. Slower (not faster) response times on the IAT are reflective of dissonance because they suggest that an individual is attempting to suppress an implicit bias, taking longer to respond. (Choice C) Discrimination is the unfair treatment of an individual or group based on social characteristics (eg, race, sex category, gender, sexual orientation). The IAT is a measure of implicit attitudes or beliefs, which are reflective of prejudice, not discrimination. (Choice D) Functional fixedness is a cognitive bias restricting the way one thinks of an object's uses to only typical or traditional uses. If someone needs a hammer but doesn't have one, functional fixedness would prevent the person from considering a paperweight or shoe to hammer in the nail. The IAT does not measure functional fixedness. Educational objective:Stigmas are characteristics that are defined as deviant and are therefore considered undesirable by most in society. Social stigmatization is the disapproval by others of individuals with these characteristics.

Psychoanalytic theory would most likely suggest that experimental group participants who are able to alter their personality traits have: A.superegos that overcome defense mechanisms. B.ids that contain an intact reality principle. C.stronger egos than participants who are not able. D.more rational ids than participants who are not able.

stronger egos than participants who are not able. According to psychoanalytic theory (most associated with Sigmund Freud), personality results from the interaction between the id, ego, and superego. The id is selfish, compelling us to seek pleasure and avoid pain. The ego is realistic, compelling us to behave in ways that are socially acceptable, and acts as a mediator between the id and superego. The superego is moralistic and idealistic, compelling us toward perfection. According to psychoanalytic theory, personality change is possible when a person has a strong ego that can successfully mediate between one's impulsive, pleasure-seeking id and the goals of the idealistic superego. (Choice A) Defense mechanisms are unconscious strategies used by the ego when it is overwhelmed or otherwise weaker than the id. Defense mechanisms help alleviate anxiety or other suffering. The superego does not engage in defense mechanisms. (Choice B) During personality change, the ego (not the id) addresses the reality principle. (Choice D) The id is always chaotic and irrational. The ego's responsibility is to negotiate the impulses of the id with rational and goal-directed behavior. Educational objective:Psychoanalytic theory proposes that personality is composed of the id (pleasure principle), the ego (reality principle), and the superego (morality/perfection principle). The rational ego functions to mediate between external reality and the unconscious self, negotiating the desires of the primitive, impulsive id and the moralistic superego.