Uworld Respiratory #2

The nurse is assisting a client with asthma perform a peak flow meter measurement. Place the instructions for measuring peak expiratory flow using a peak flow meter in the correct order. All options must be used. a. Exhale as quickly and completely as possible and note the reading on the scale b. Position the indicator on the flow meter scale to the lowest value and assume an upright position c. Record the highest of the three measured values in the peak flow log d. Repeat the procedure 2 more times with a 5-10 second rest period between exhalations. e. Inhale deeply, place mouthpiece in mouth, and use the lips to create the seal 1. __________ 2. __________ 3. __________ 4. __________ 5. __________

A peak flow meter is a handheld device that measures the client's ability to push air out of the lungs. Measurements from a peak flow meter often guide the client's use of respiratory medications and the need to schedule an appointment with a health care provider. To obtain the most accurate readings to help guide, maintain, and evaluate treatment in clients with asthma, the procedure is performed in the following order: Before each use, slide the indicator on the numbered scale on the flow meter to 0 (or the lowest value), and stand or sit as upright as possible (Option 3). Inhale deeply, place the mouthpiece in the mouth, and close the lips tightly around the mouthpiece to form a seal (Option 2). Exhale as quickly and completely as possible and note the reading on the numbered scale (Option 1). Repeat the procedure 2 more times, with a 5- to 10-second rest period between exhalations (Option 5). Record the highest reading (ie, personal best) in the peak flow log (Option 4). Educational objective:When performing peak flow measurements, set the indicator to the lowest value; assume an upright position; inhale deeply; place the mouthpiece in the mouth and form a seal with the lips; exhale quickly and completely; note the value; repeat 2 more times; and then record the highest value in the peak flow log.

The nurse cares for a child newly diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. What should be included in the client's multidisciplinary plan of care to be discussed with the parents? Select all that apply. a. Aerobic exercise b. Chest physiotherapy c. Financial needs d. Low-calorie diet e. Oral fluid restriction

Aerobic exercise b. Chest physiotherapy c. Financial needs Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder involving the cells lining the respiratory, gastrointestinal (GI), and reproductive tracts. A defective protein responsible for transporting sodium and chloride causes secretions in these areas to be thicker and stickier than normal. These abnormal secretions plug smaller airway passages and ducts in the GI tract, which can impair digestive enzymes and result in ineffective absorption of essential nutrients. These sticky respiratory secretions lead to a chronic cough and inability to clear the airway, eventually causing chronic lung disease (bronchiectasis). As a result of these changes, the client's life span is shortened; most affected individuals live only into their 30s. Chest physiotherapy helps remove sticky secretions that cause ineffective airway clearance (Option 2). Aerobic exercise is beneficial to promote removal of airway secretions, improve muscle strength, and increase lung capacity (Option 1). Financial needs must be discussed, as clients with CF have a large financial burden due to health care costs, medications, and special equipment (Option 3). (Option 4) A diet high in fat and calories is recommended due to defective digestive enzymes and impaired nutrient absorption. (Option 5) Fluids are not restricted; liberal intake is recommended to assist in thinning respiratory secretions. Educational objective:Clients with cystic fibrosis should have a diet high in fat and calories to combat nutrient malabsorption. Liberal fluid intake is encouraged to loosen thick secretions. Chest physiotherapy and aerobic exercise are performed to remove airway secretions. Financial needs are addressed as clients have a large financial burden.

The nurse is caring for a client with asthma exacerbation. Blood pressure is 146/86 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 32/min. The respiratory therapist administers nebulized albuterol as prescribed. One hour after the treatment, the nurse assesses which finding that indicates the drug is producing the therapeutic effect? a. Constricted pupils b. Heart rate of 120/min c. Respirations of 24/min d. Tremor

Albuterol (Proventil) is a short-acting inhaled beta-2 agonist used to control airway obstruction caused by chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma, or bronchitis. It also is used to prevent exercise-induced asthma. The therapeutic effect is relaxation of the smooth muscles of the airways, which results in immediate bronchodilation. Bronchodilation decreases airway resistance, facilitates mucus drainage (expectorates mucus plugs), decreases the work of breathing, and increases oxygenation. As a result of these actions, the respiratory rate will decrease and peak flow will be increased (if tested). However, short-acting beta-2 agonists are associated with the following side effects (not therapeutic effects): tremor (most frequent), tachycardia and palpitations, restlessness, and hypokalemia. These side effects are due to the oral deposition of medication (subsequent systemic absorption) and can be reduced with the use of a spacer or chamber device. (Option 1) The presence of constricted pupils is neither a side effect nor therapeutic effect of the drug. Constricted pupils are often seen with opioid medications (eg, morphine, oxycodone). Educational objective:Albuterol (Proventil) is a short-acting beta-2 agonist that produces immediate bronchodilation by relaxing smooth muscles. Bronchodilation decreases airway resistance, facilitates mucus drainage, decreases the work of breathing, and increases oxygenation. Peak flow will improve. The most frequent side effects are tremor, tachycardia, restlessness, and hypokalemia.

The nurse reviews and reinforces an asthma action plan with a client who has moderate persistent asthma. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of how to follow a plan appropriately when peak expiratory flow (PEF) readings are in the green, yellow, or red zones? a. If I am in the green zone (PEF 80%-100% of personal best) but I am coughing, wheezing, and having more trouble breathing, I will not make any changes in my medications b. If I am in the yellow zone (50%-80%) and I return to the green zone after taking my rescue medication, I will not make any changes in my daily medications c. If I am in the yellow zone (50%-80%), I will take my rescue medication every 4 hours for 1-2 days and call my health care provider for follow up care d. If I remain in the red zone, my lips are blue, and my PEF is still <50% of my personal best reading after taking my rescue medication, I will wait 15 minutes befor

An asthma action plan is an individualized management plan developed collaboratively between the client and the HCP to facilitate self-management of asthma. It includes information on daily and long-term treatment, prescribed medicines and when to take them according to a zone system, how to manage worsening symptoms or attacks, and when to call the HCP or go to the emergency department. The action plan uses traffic signal colors to categorize into zones degrees of asthma symptom severity and airway obstruction (peak flow meter readings): Green zone indicates asthma is under control and PEF is 80%-100% of personal best. When in this zone, there is no worsening of cough, wheezing, or trouble breathing (Option 1). Yellow zone means caution; even on a return to the green zone after use of rescue medication, further medication or a change in treatment is needed (Option 2). Red zone indicates a medical alert and signals the need for immediate medical treatment if the level does not return to yellow immediately after taking rescue medications (Option 4). Educational objective:A peak flow meter uses traffic signal colors to categorize degrees of asthma symptoms. Green zone indicates asthma is under control. Yellow zone indicates caution, symptoms are getting worse, PEF is 50%-80% of personal best, and there is a need for further medication. Red zone indicates the need for emergency treatment if the level does not immediately return to yellow after taking rescue medications.

The nurse in a clinic is caring for an 8-month-old with a new diagnosis of bronchiolitis due to respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which instructions can the nurse anticipate reviewing with the parent? a. Administering a cough suppressant and antihistamine b. Prophylactic treatment of family members c. Temporary cessation of breastfeeding d. Use of saline drops and a bulb syringe to suction nares

Bronchiolitis is a common viral illness of childhood that is usually caused by RSV. It typically begins with viral upper respiratory symptoms (eg, rhinorrhea, congestion) that progress to lower respiratory tract symptoms such as tachypnea, cough, and wheezing. Bronchiolitis is a self-limited illness and supportive care is the mainstay of treatment. Most children can be managed in the home environment. Breastfeeding should be continued and additional fluids offered if there is a risk of dehydration due to frequent coughing and vomiting (Option 3). Parents should be instructed to use saline nose drops and then suction the nares with a bulb syringe to remove secretions prior to feedings and at bedtime (Option 4). (Option 1) Medications such as cough suppressants, antihistamines, bronchodilators (eg, albuterol), and corticosteroids have not been found to be effective and are not recommended. (Option 2) Prophylactic treatment of family members is recommended for pertussis infection but not for RSV bronchiolitis. Educational objective:Bronchiolitis is a common viral illness of childhood that is usually caused by RSV. The focus of home care is on monitoring respiratory status and periodic nasal suctioning using saline nose drops to ease breathing. Additional fluids should be offered.

The nurse is assisting the health care provider (HCP) with a client's chest tube removal. Just as the HCP prepares to pull the chest tube, what instructions should the nurse give the client? a. Breathe as you normally would b. Inhale and exhale slowly c. Take a breath in, hold it, and bear down d. Take a rapid shallow breaths, similar to panting

Chest tubes are indicated to drain air or fluid from the pleural space and reestablish negative pressure, which allows for proper lung expansion. When the lung has reexpanded or fluid drainage is no longer needed, the chest tube can be discontinued. The client should be given an analgesic 30-60 minutes prior to the procedure. A suture removal kit, petroleum gauze, and occlusive dressing supplies will be needed. The client should be instructed to take a deep breath, hold it, and bear down (Valsalva maneuver) while the tube is being removed. This will prevent air from being pulled back into the pleural space and possibly causing a pneumothorax. A post-procedure chest x-ray must be performed to ensure there is no reaccumulation of air or fluid in the pleural space. (Options 1 and 2) Breathing slowly or normally during the procedure may cause the client to inhale during the removal, pulling air back into the pleural space. (Option 4) Rapid shallow breaths increase the chance of inhaling during removal and pulling air into the pleural space, causing recollapse of the lung. Educational objective:During chest tube removal, the client should be instructed to take a deep breath, hold it, and bear down (Valsalva maneuver) to prevent air from reentering the pleural space and possibly causing a pneumothorax. The site is covered with a sterile airtight petroleum jelly gauze dressing. A post-procedure chest x-ray is needed.

Several children are brought to the emergency room after a boating accident in which they were thrown into the water. The children are now 6 hours post admission to the clinical observation unit. Which client should the nurse evaluate first? a. Client who did not require CPR but now has a new oxygen requirement of 2L via nasal cannula to maintain a saturation of 95% b. Client who did not require CPR but was coughing on arrival to the hospital and is now crying inconsolably and asking for the mother c. Client who received CPR for 2 minutes on the scene and whose respiratory rate has now dropped from 61/mn to 18/min d. Client who was briefly submerged in water and received rescue breaths on the scene and is now irritable and refusing food and drink

Clients with morbidity related to immersion in water are described as having submersion injury. Even if an individual was submerged for a very brief time, it is possible that water may have been aspirated, which can lead to respiratory compromise. Observation for at least 6 hours is recommended as the majority of significant respiratory problems will manifest in this time period. A marked decrease in respiratory rate or increased work of breathing may indicate respiratory fatigue, and immediate intervention is needed (Option 3). Impending respiratory failure is the immediate priority. (Option 1) A new oxygen requirement is an important symptom; however, this child has good oxygen saturation with the nasal cannula and is therefore not the immediate priority. (Option 2) This child who is coughing and emotionally distressed should be seen and comforted by the nurse but is not the priority. (Option 4) Irritability can be an early sign of hypoxia in a toddler. This child should be assessed promptly but is not the immediate priority. Educational objective:Clients who have sustained submersion injury should be evaluated immediately and observed for at least 6 hours for new or worsening respiratory failure. Changes in respiratory pattern or rate, oxygen saturation, and level of consciousness can signal impending respiratory failure, which can be life threatening.

The nurse auscultates the lung sounds of a client with shortness of breath. Based on the sounds heard, which action would the nurse anticipate? Listen to the audio clip. (Headphones are required for best audio quality.) Review sound of Coarse crackles on you tube a. Administer albuterol via nebulizer b. Administer furosemide IV push c. Instruct to use pursed lip breathing d. Prepare for chest tube insertion

Coarse crackles (loud, low-pitched bubbling) are heard primarily during inspiration and are not cleared by coughing. The sound is similar to that of Velcro being pulled apart. Coarse crackles may be confused with fine crackles (eg, atelectasis), which have a high-pitched popping sound. Coarse crackles are present when fluid or mucus collects in the lower respiratory tract (eg, pulmonary edema, pulmonary fibrosis). In heart failure, the left ventricle fails to eject enough blood, causing increased pressure in the pulmonary vasculature. As a result, fluid leaks into the alveoli (pulmonary edema). Diuretics (eg, furosemide) treat pulmonary edema by increasing fluid excretion by the kidneys (Option 2). (Option 1) Clients with asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (eg, emphysema) develop wheezing due to bronchospasm. Bronchodilators (eg, albuterol, ipratropium) are indicated for these clients. (Option 3) Emphysema is a chronic hyperinflation of the alveoli. Clients with emphysema are taught the pursed-lip breathing technique to prevent alveolar collapse during exhalation. Emphysema causes diminished lung sounds, prolonged expiration, and wheezing. (Option 4) Chest tubes are inserted into the pleural space to remove trapped air (eg, pneumothorax) or fluids (eg, hemothorax, pleural effusion). Lung sounds are diminished or absent when lung tissue is compressed by air or fluids in the pleural space. Educational objective:Auscultation of coarse crackles indicates the presence of fluid or mucus in the lower respiratory tract. This may indicate pulmonary edema or pulmonary fibrosis. Diuretic administration (eg, furosemide) is used to treat pulmonary edema.

The client with malignant left pleural effusion undergoes a thoracentesis and 900 mL of excess pleural fluid is removed. Which of these manifestations, if noted on the post-procedure assessment, should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately? a. Asymmetrical chest expansion and decresed breath sounds on the left b. BP 100/65 c. Client complains of 6/10 pain at the needle insertion site d. Respiratory rate 24/min, pulse ox 94% on O2 2L/min

Complications from insertion of the needle and removal of large amounts of fluid include iatrogenic pneumothorax, hemothorax, pulmonary edema, and infection. After the procedure, the nurse assesses for pain and difficulty breathing; monitors vital signs and oxygen saturation; and observes for changes in respiratory rate and depth, symmetry of chest expansion, and breath sounds. If any abnormalities are noted, a post-procedure chest x-ray is obtained. Decreased chest expansion with inspiration and breath sounds on the affected side, tachypnea, tracheal deviation to the opposite side, and hyperresonance (air) on the affected side are manifestations of a pneumothorax. These should be reported immediately. (Option 2) Hypotension, pulmonary edema, and tachycardia can occur as the result of removal of large amounts of pleural fluid (>1.5 L). This client's blood pressure is adequate (mean arterial pressure 77 mm Hg), and the nurse should continue to monitor. However, this blood pressure does not need to be reported immediately. (Option 3) Mild to moderate pain is common after the procedure. It does not need to be reported immediately. (Option 4) Difficulty breathing, tachypnea, and hypoxemia are pulmonary complications that can occur after thoracentesis. Saturation (94%) and respiratory rate (24/min) are adequate and do not need to be reported immediately. Educational objective:Complications of thoracentesis include iatrogenic pneumothorax, hemothorax, and infection. Post-procedure, the nurse assesses for pain and difficulty breathing; monitors vital signs and oxygen saturation; and observes for changes in respiratory rate and depth, symmetry of chest expansion, and breath sounds.

The nurse is caring for a 72-year-old client 1 day postoperative colectomy. The nurse assesses an increased work of breathing, diminished breath sounds at the bases with fine inspiratory crackles, respirations 12/min and shallow, and pulse oximetry 96% on 2 L oxygen. There is no jugular venous distension or peripheral edema. Pain is regulated with client-controlled morphine. Which prescription does the nurse anticipate? a. Bolus dose of IV morphine b. Incentive spirometer c. IV furosemide d. Non rebreather mask

During the initial postoperative period, a client needs respiratory interventions to keep the lungs expanded and prevent atelectasis and postoperative pneumonia. Atelectasis is maximal during the second postoperative night. Clients can be asymptomatic or have increased work of breathing, hypoxia, and basal crackles. Postoperative pain, opioid respiratory depression, limited mobility, and reluctance to take a deep breath due to anticipated pain contribute to postoperative atelectasis. The elderly and postoperative abdominal and thoracic surgery clients are at increased risk for atelectasis. The incentive spirometer encourages the client to breathe deeply with maximum inspiration. This action improves ventilation and oxygenation by expanding the lungs, encourages coughing, and prevents or improves atelectasis. It is the most appropriate prescription for this client. (Option 1) In a client whose pain is regulated with client-controlled analgesia (eg, morphine), administration of a bolus dose is not indicated and may increase the risk for respiratory depression. (Option 3) Fine crackles in the lungs usually indicate atelectasis. The presence of coarse crackles, elevated jugular venous distension, and peripheral edema usually indicates volume overload (fluid in the alveoli). In addition, clients with fluid overload breathe at a rapid rate (tachypnea) rather than take slow, shallow breaths. IV furosemide (Lasix) is an appropriate intervention for volume overload but not for atelectasis. (Option 4) As-needed oxygen may be prescribed postoperatively, especially with blood loss. A non-rebreather mask, which has 100% oxygen, is not indicated in this client as the pulse oximeter shows 96% saturation, indicating adequate oxygenation. Educational objective:The incentive spirometer is a handheld, inexpensive breathing device. It enc

A client with asthma was recently prescribed fluticasone/salmeterol. After the client has received instructions about this medication, which statement would require further teaching by the nurse? a. After taking this medication, I will rinse my mouth with water b. At the first sign of an asthma attack, I will take his medication c. I have been smoking for 12 years, but I just quit a month ago d. I received the pneumococcal vaccine about a month ago.

Fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair) is a combination drug containing a corticosteroid (fluticasone) and a bronchodilator (salmeterol). Salmeterol is a long-acting inhaled β2-adrenergic agonist that promotes relaxation of the bronchial smooth muscles over 12 hours. Fluticasone decreases inflammation. This medication is used as part of the treatment plan for prevention and long-term control of asthma. Client instructions include: After inhalation, rinse the mouth with water without swallowing to reduce the risk of oral/esophageal candidiasis Avoid smoking and using tobacco products Receive the pneumococcal and influenza vaccines if there is a risk for infection (Option 2) Fluticasone/salmeterol is not a rescue inhaler and does not treat acute exacerbations of asthma. The client should always have a rescue inhaler (eg, albuterol [short-acting β2-adrenergic agonist] or ipratropium [Atrovent]) for sudden changes in breathing and call 911 if the rescue inhaler does not relieve the breathing problem. Educational objective:Fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair) is a long-acting inhaled β2-adrenergic agonist combination drug containing a corticosteroid (fluticasone) and a bronchodilator (salmeterol). It is used for long-term control of asthma but not for acute attacks.

A client with type 2 diabetes, coronary artery disease, and peripheral arterial disease developed hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) and has been receiving intravenous (IV) antibiotics for 4 days. Which parameter monitored by the nurse best indicates the effectiveness of treatment? a. Color of sputum b. Lung sounds c. Saturation level d. WBC

HAP is a bacterial infection acquired in a health care facility that was not present on admission. Almost all clients with bacterial pneumonia develop leukocytosis (WBC >11,000/mm3). Antibiotic therapy is the first-line treatment, but antibiotic resistance frequently occurs in HAP. If antibiotic therapy is effective, clinical improvement usually occurs within 3-4 days of initiation of IV antibiotics. The nurse monitors WBC as the best indicator of treatment effectiveness as antibiotics cause bacterial lysis or hinder bacterial DNA reproduction. The reduced number of bacteria and the resulting decrease in inflammation cause a decrease in the number of white blood cells needed to fight the infection. Other indicators of treatment effectiveness include improvement of infiltrates on chest x-ray, oxygenation, and signs and symptoms (cough, fever, sputum production). (Option 1) The color of sputum (eg, clear, yellow, green, grey, rusty, blood-tinged) can vary with different types of pneumonia; it is not the best indicator of treatment effectiveness. (Option 2) Adventitious/abnormal lung sounds (crackles, low-pitched wheeze, bronchial breath sounds) can be present as the pneumonia resolves or can be a sign of further complication (pleural effusion). However, these are not the best indicators of treatment effectiveness. (Option 3) Saturation is an indicator of oxygenation but can be affected by many other factors, such as coexisting disease, peripheral circulation, and drugs. It is not the best indicator of treatment effectiveness. Educational objective:Indicators of treatment effectiveness for HAP include decreased WBC on complete blood count with differential and improvement of infiltrates on chest-x-ray, oxygenation, and signs and symptoms (cough, fever, sputum production).

The nurse receives an obese client in the postanesthesia care unit who underwent a procedure under general anesthesia. The nurse notes an oxygen saturation of 88%. Which is the most appropriate initial intervention? a. Assess pupillary response b. Auscultate lung sounds c. Inform anesthesia professional d. Perform head tilt and chin lift

Head tilt and chin lift is a maneuver used to open the airway. The tongue may fall back and occlude the airway due to muscular flaccidity after general anesthesia. Manifestations associated with airway obstruction include snoring, use of accessory muscles, decreased oxygen saturations, and cyanosis. (Option 1) Constricted pupils can help identify opioid overdose. However, this should not be assessed before opening the airway. (Option 2) Auscultation of lung sounds should be done for every client as part of the postoperative assessment. However, the initial goal is to return the oxygen saturation level to normal (95%-100%). Hypoxia in an obese postoperative client who received general anesthesia is most likely due to airway obstruction. (Option 3) The anesthesia professional may need to be informed, but methods to restore the oxygen saturation level should be tried first. The anesthesia professional may then want to assess the sedation level of the client and prescribe a reversal agent. Educational objective:Postoperative client care after general anesthesia requires careful monitoring for hypoxia. One of the first nursing interventions is the head tilt and chin lift to open an occluded airway.

The nurse has provided teaching about home care to the parent of a 10-year-old with cystic fibrosis. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates that teaching has been effective? Select all that apply. a. Chest physiotherapy is administered only if respiratory symptoms worsen b. I will give my child pancreatic enzymes with all meals and snacks c. I will increase my child's salt intake during hot weather d. Our child will need a high-carbohydrate, high protein diet e. We will limit out child's participation in sports activities

I will give my child pancreatic enzymes with all meals and snacks c. I will increase my child's salt intake during hot weather d. Our child will need a high-carbohydrate, high protein diet In clients with cystic fibrosis (CF), a defective protein responsible for transporting sodium and chloride causes exocrine gland secretions to be thicker and stickier than normal. Viscous respiratory secretions accumulate, resulting in impaired airway clearance and a chronic cough. Clients eventually develop chronic lung disease, which predisposes them to recurrent respiratory infections. Pancreatic enzyme secretion, needed for digestion and absorption of nutrients, is also impaired because thick secretions block pancreatic ducts. Therefore, the client needs supplemental enzymes with all meals and snacks (Option 2). The client also requires multiple vitamins and a diet high in carbohydrates, protein, and fat to help meet nutritional requirements for growth (Option 4). Sweat gland abnormalities prevent sodium and chloride reabsorption, causing increased salt loss, dehydration, and hyponatremia during times of significant perspiration. Therefore, parents should increase the child's salt intake and fluids during hot weather, exercise, or fever (Option 3). (Option 1) Regardless of symptoms, clients should incorporate chest physiotherapy (eg, percussion, vibration, postural drainage) into their daily routine to improve mucus clearance and lung function. (Option 5) The parents should encourage physical activity as tolerated, which helps to thin secretions and remove them from airways and improves muscle strength and lung capacity. Educational objective:Cystic fibrosis causes increased viscosity of exocrine gland secretions. Clients require pancreatic enzyme supplements with meals and snacks; a diet high in carbohydrates, protein, and fat

The client has a chest tube for a pneumothorax. While repositioning the client for an x-ray, the technician steps on the tubing and accidently pulls the chest tube out. The client's oxygen saturation drops and the pulse is 132/min; the nurse hears air leaking from the insertion site. What is the nurse's immediate action? a. Apply an occlusive sterile dressing secured on 3 sides b. Apply an occlusive sterile dressing secured on 4 sides c. Assess lung sounds d. Notify the HCP

If the chest tube is dislodged from the client and the nurse hears air leaking from the site, the nurse's immediate action should be to apply a sterile occlusive dressing (eg, petroleum jelly dressing) taped on 3 sides. This action permits air to escape on exhalation and inhibits air intake on inspiration. The nurse would then notify the HCP and arrange for the reinsertion of another chest tube (Option 1). (Option 2) A tension pneumothorax develops when air enters the pleural space but cannot escape. Increased intrapleural pressure and excessive accumulation of air can apply pressure to the heart and great vessels and drastically decrease cardiac output. An occlusive dressing taped on 4 sides would prevent the air in the pleural space from escaping on exhalation and would increase the risk for a tension pneumothorax. (Option 3) The nurse would stay with the client, assess lung sounds, and monitor vital signs frequently; however, this is not the immediate action. (Option 4) The nurse would notify the HCP and prepare for reinsertion of a chest tube, but it is not the immediate action. Educational objective:If a chest tube is dislodged from the client and the nurse hears air leaking from the site, the immediate action should be to apply an occlusive sterile dressing taped on 3 sides. This action decreases the risk for a tension pneumothorax by inhibiting air intake on inspiration and allowing air to escape on expiration.

The nurse is teaching an overweight 54-year-old client about ways to decrease symptoms of obstructive sleep apnea. Which interventions would be most effective? Select all that apply. a. Eating a high-protein snack at bedtime b. Limiting alcohol intake c. Losing weight d. Taking a mild sedative at bedtime e. Taking a modafinil at bedtime f. Taking a nap during the day

Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is characterized by partial or complete airway obstruction during sleep that occurs from relaxation of the pharyngeal muscles. The result is repeated episodes of apnea (≥10 seconds) and hypopnea (≤50% normal ventilation), which cause hypoxemia and hypercarbia. Common symptoms include frequent periods of sleep disturbance, snoring, morning headache, daytime sleepiness, difficulty concentrating, forgetfulness, mood changes, and depression. Interventions include: Continuous positive airway pressuredevice at night to keep the structures of the pharynx and tongue from collapsing backward Limiting alcohol intake at bedtime as it can cause muscles of the oral airway to relax and lead to airway obstruction (Option 2) Weight loss and exercise can reduce snoring and sleep apnea-associated airway obstruction. Obesity contributes to the development of OSA (Option 3). Avoiding sedating medications (eg, benzodiazepines, sedating antidepressants, antihistamines, opiates) as they may exacerbate OSA and worsen daytime sleepiness (Option 1) Eating before bedtime can interfere with sleep and contribute to excess weight. (Option 4) Sedatives at bedtime can relax the muscles of the oral airway and lead to airway obstruction. (Option 5) Stimulants such as modafinil may be prescribed for daytime sleepiness but should be avoided at bedtime as they can cause insomnia. (Option 6) Napping during the day can make it more difficult to sleep through the night. Educational objective:Obstructive sleep apnea is characterized by partial or complete airway obstruction during sleep. Interventions to relieve symptoms include a continuous positive airway pressure device during sleep and lifestyle changes (eg, weight loss; exercise; avoiding food, alcohol, and sedatives at bedtime).

The nurse cares for a client who returns from the operating room after a tracheostomy tube placement procedure. Which of the following is the nurse's priority when caring for a client with a new tracheostomy? a. Changing the inner cannula within the first 8 hours to help prevent mucus plugs b. Checking the tightness of ties and adjusting if necessary, allowing 1 finger to fit under these ties c. Deflating and reinflating the cuff every 4 hours to prevent mucosal damage d. Performing frequent mouth care every 2 hours to prevent infection

The immediate postoperative priority goal for a client with a new tracheostomy is to prevent accidental dislodgement of the tube and loss of the airway. If dislodgement occurs during the first postoperative week, reinsertion of the tube is difficult as it takes the tract about 1 week to heal. For this reason, dislodgement is a medical emergency. The priority nursing action is to ensure the tube is placed securely by checking the tightness of ties and allowing for 1 finger to fit under these ties. (Option 1) Changing of the inner cannula and tracheostomy ties is not usually performed until 24 hours after insertion; this is due to the risk of dislodgement with an immature tract. However, the dressing can be changed if it becomes wet or soiled. Suctioning can be performed to remove mucus and maintain the airway. (Option 3) The cuff is kept inflated to prevent aspiration from secretions and postoperative bleeding. Cuffs are not regularly deflated and re-inflated. The respiratory therapist should monitor the amount of air in the cuff several times a day to prevent excessive pressure and mucosal tissue damage. (Option 4) Frequent mouth care to help prevent stomal and pulmonary infection is important in a client with an artificial airway, but it is not the priority action immediately following tracheostomy. Educational objective:The immediate postoperative priority goal for a client with a newly placed tracheostomy is to prevent accidental dislodgement of the tube and loss of the airway.

The nurse assesses a client with fever and productive cough for the last 10 days. Which findings support the presence of pneumonia? Select all that apply. a. Coarse crackles b. Hyperresonance c. Pleuritic chest pain d. Shortness of breath e. Trachea deviating from midline

a. Coarse crackles c. Pleuritic chest pain d. Shortness of breath Pneumonia is an acute infection of the lungs. Findings in a client with pneumonia include: Crackles - Fine or coarse crackling sounds caused by air passing through alveoli and small airways obstructed with mucus (Option 1) Fever, chills, productive cough, dyspnea, and pleuritic chest pain (Options 3 and 4) Increased vocal/tactile fremitus - Transmission of palpable vibrations (fremitus) is increased when transmitted through consolidated versus normal lung tissue. Bronchial breath sounds in peripheral lung fields - High-pitched, harsh sounds conducted through consolidated lung tissue, which are abnormal when heard in an area distant from where normally heard (ie, trachea); this finding can be an early sign of pneumonia. Unequal chest expansion - Decreased expansion of affected lung on palpation Dullness - Percussion of medium-pitched sounds over consolidated lung tissue (pneumonia) or fluid-filled space (eg, pleural effusion, a complication of pneumonia) (Option 2) Hyperresonance is percussed over a hyperinflated lung (eg, asthma, emphysema) or air in the pleural space (eg, pneumothorax). (Option 5) A trachea deviating from midline is not a symptom of pneumonia but instead indicates a tension pneumothorax where the trachea deviates away from the tension. Educational objective:Physical examination of a client with pneumonia can reveal crackles, increased vocal/tactile fremitus, unequal chest expansion, and bronchial breath sounds in peripheral areas. Clients often report fever, chills, productive cough, dyspnea, and pleuritic chest pain.

A client with bronchial asthma and sinusitis has increased wheezing and decreased peak flow readings. During the admission interview, the nurse reconciles the medications and notes that which of the following over-the-counter medications taken by the client could be contributing to increased asthma symptoms? a. Guaifenesin 600 mg orally twice a day as needed b. Ibuprofen 400 mg PO every 6 hours for pain as needed c. Loratidine 1 tab PO every day as needed d. Vitamin D 2,000 units PO every day

b. Ibuprofen 400 mg PO every 6 hours for pain as needed Two groups of commonly used drugs, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and beta-adrenergic antagonists (beta blockers), have the potential to cause problems for clients with asthma. Ibuprofen (Motrin) and aspirin are common over-the-counter anti-inflammatory drugs that are effective in relieving pain, discomfort, and fever. About 10%-20% of asthmatics are sensitive to these medications and can experience severe bronchospasm after ingestion. This is prevalent in clients with nasal polyposis. (Option 1) Guaifenesin (Mucinex) is an expectorant used to facilitate mobilization of mucus and should not have the potential to exacerbate asthma or cause an attack. (Option 3) Loratadine (Claritin) is an antihistamine and should not have the potential to exacerbate asthma or cause an attack. (Option 4) Vitamin D is used to help maintain bone density and should not have the potential to exacerbate asthma or cause an attack. Educational objective:Ibuprofen and aspirin are common over-the-counter anti-inflammatory drugs that can cause bronchospasm in some clients with asthma.

A nurse in an urgent care center triages multiple clients. Which client should the nurse assess first? a. Client who reports nosebleed that has not resolved after holding pressure for 1 hour b. Client who reports sinus congestion with thick nasal drainage and severe facial pain c. Client with a sore throat who reports difficulty in opening mouth and swallowing d. Client with seasonal allergies who reports new onset of unilateral ear pain and pressure

c. Client with a sore throat who reports difficulty in opening mouth and swallowing Peritonsillar, or retropharyngeal, abscess is a serious complication that can result from tonsillitis or pharyngitis. The presenting features of peritonsillar abscess, in addition to fever, include a "hot potato" (muffled) voice, trismus (inability to open the mouth), pooling of saliva (drooling), and deviation of the uvula to one side. The abscess can progress to life-threatening airway obstruction (eg, dysphagia, stridor, restlessness). The nurse should immediately assess the client with symptoms of peritonsillar abscess and monitor for signs of airway obstruction (Option 3). (Option 1) A client with epistaxis (ie, nosebleed) that does not resolve with external pressure will require further hemostatic interventions, such as cauterization or nasal packing (eg, gauze, nasal tampon, balloon catheter). This client should be assessed after the client with signs of impending airway obstruction. (Option 2) Symptoms of acute sinusitis include severe facial pain, nasal congestion with purulent nasal drainage, and fever. In most cases, the etiology is viral but can be complicated by secondary bacterial infection. This client likely requires antibiotics and supportive care but is not the priority. (Option 4) Acute otitis media (ie, infection of the middle ear) may develop secondary to rhinitis (eg, common cold, seasonal allergies) due to inflammation of the Eustachian tube. This client with otitis media will likely require antibiotics and pain management but is not the priority. Educational objective:Peritonsillar abscess is an emergent complication of tonsillitis that can lead to life-threatening airway obstruction. Symptoms of peritonsillar abscess include fever, trismus (inability to open the mouth), drooling, muffled voice, and deviation of