2, Exam chapter 9, Chapter 8 Microbiology, Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics, chapter 9, Microbiology chapter 12, NAS 161----CH. 12, Chapter 13 microbiology, Chapter 14
Table 12.1 1-Arthroconidium 5-Chlamydoconidium 2-Ascospore 6-Conidiospore 3-Basidiospore 7-Sporangiospore 4-Blastoconidium 8-Zygospore In Table 12.1, which of these spores are asexual spores?
1, 4, 5, 6, 7
Eukaryotic
1. 46 molecules of double-stranded (in humans) 2. DNA strands are linear 3. the DNA strands have a dense histone coat. Non-histone proteins regulate gene expression. These "coated" strands are chromosomes. Human genome has lots of base pairs 4. genes broken into introns and exons
Trichomonas vaginalis (Parabasalids)
-causes sexually transmitted infection of the urogential tract
Prokaryotic
1. Single molecule of double-stranded 2. DNA strand is circular 3. DNA has not histone protein associated with other proteins 4. Genes are interspersed throughout DNA
C) Transduction
1. Transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell by a bacteriophage A) Conjugation B) Transcription C) Transduction D) Transformation E) Translation
A) Binary fission
10. Which is NOT a method of horizontal gene transfer A) Binary fission B) Conjugation C) Integration of a transposon D) Transduction E) Transformation
Which of the following pairs are mismatched? 1. arthroconidium — formed by fragmentation 2. sporangiospore — formed within hyphae 3. conidiospore — formed in a chain 4. blastoconidium — formed from a bud 5. chlamydoconidium — formed in a sac
2 and 5
Table 12.1 1-Arthroconidium 5-Chlamydoconidium 2-Ascospore 6-Conidiospore 3-Basidiospore 7-Sporangiospore 4-Blastoconidium 8-Zygospore In Table 12.1, which of these spores are characteristic of Penicillium?
2 and 6
D) Transformation
2. Transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient as naked DNA in solution A) Conjugation B) Transcription C) Transduction D) Transformation E) Translation
Dimorphic fungus mold-like
25°c
Which of the following places these items in the correct order for DNA-virus replication?
2;3;4;1
1. Transformation 2. Conjugation 3. Transduction
3 Types of transfer and recombination
Dimorphic fungus yeast-like
37°c
Eukaryotic
46 molecules of double-stranded (in humans)
Table 12.1 1-Arthroconidium 5-Chlamydoconidium 2-Ascospore 6-Conidiospore 3-Basidiospore 7-Sporangiospore 4-Blastoconidium 8-Zygospore In Table 12.1, which is a thick-walled spore formed as a segment within a hypha?
5
B) Are self-replicated outside the chromosome
6. Plasmids differ from transposons in that plasmids A) Become inserted into chromosomes B) Are self-replicated outside the chromosome C) Move from chromosome to chromosome D) carry genes for antibiotic resistance E) None of the above
Table 12.1 1-Arthroconidium 5-Chlamydoconidium 2-Ascospore 6-Conidiospore 3-Basidiospore 7-Sporangiospore 4-Blastoconidium 8-Zygospore In Table 12.1, which of these spores are characteristic of Rhizopus?
7 and 8
Transposon "jumping genes"
70,000-40,000pb mobile elements can move from one chromosome (same chromosome or different), or chromosome to plasmid
You have a small gene that you wish replicated by PCR. After 3 replication cycles, how many double-stranded DNA molecules do you have?
8 double-stranded DNA molecules.
Pandemic
A disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time
Sporadic
A disease that affects a population occasionally
Endemic
A disease that is constantly present in a population
Answer: C
A gene is best defined as A) A segment of DNA. B) Three nucleotides that code for an amino acid. C) A sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional product. D) A sequence of nucleotides in RNA that codes for a functional product. E) A transcribed unit of DNA.
Algal bloom
A red tide - toxic
A restriction fragment is
A segment of DNA.
The restriction enzyme EcoRI recognizes the sequence G↓AATTC. Which of the following is TRUE of DNA after it is treated with EcoRI? A) All of the DNA fragments will have single-stranded regions ending in AA. B) Some of the DNA will have single-stranded regions ending in AA and others will end in G. C) All of the DNA will have blunt ends. D) All of the DNA fragments will have single-stranded regions ending in G. E) All of the DNA will be circular.
A) All of the DNA fragments will have single-stranded regions ending in AA.
The random shotgun method is used in A) genome sequencing. B) RFLP analysis. C) amplification of unknown DNA. D) forensic microbiology. E) transforming plant cells with recombinant DNA.
A) genome sequencing.
An advantage of cDNA over genomic DNA is that it A) lacks introns. B) lacks exons. C) can form very large DNA segments. D) contains selectable markers. E) is very easy to isolate.
A) lacks introns.
Gene silencing involves all of the following EXCEPT A) production of double stranded RNAs. B) Dicer. C) small interfering RNAs. D) small interfering RNA binding to a gene promoter. E) RNA-induced silencing complex.
A) production of double stranded RNAs.
Which of the following methods would be used to introduce the plasmid shown in Figure 9.5 into E. coli? A) transformation B) Ti plasmids and Agrobacterium C) gene guns D) microinjection
A) transformation
Which of these statement is false regarding fungi A. Most fungi are pathogenic for humans B. Fungi are eukaryotic heterotrophs C. Fungi reproduce by asexual or sexual spores D. Most fungi grow well in acidic conditions E. Fungi tolerate low moisture conditions
A. Most fungi are pathogenic for humans
You are given an unknown, pure sample of a eukaryotic organism. Which of the following tests would allow you to determine if the sample contains algae? A. Place the sample in a clear container filled with media containing no sugars, and leave it in a sunny window. After a few weeks, look for growth of the organism. B. Determine if the organism is unicellular by microscopy. If it is unicellular, it is an alga. C. Perform a biochemical test for the presence of chitin. D. Inject the organism into a lab animal. If it does not cause disease, it is an alga.
A. Place the sample in a clear container filled with media containing no sugars, and leave it in a sunny window.
Which of the following statements is true A. Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together. B. Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other C. A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host. D. Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from each other. E. At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.
A. Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together.
What do tapeworms eat? A. intestinal contents B. red blood cells C. host tissues D. intestinal bacteria E. plant matter
A. intestinal contents
Answer: C
According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the A) End-product must not be in excess. B) Substrate must bind to the enzyme. C) Substrate must bind to the repressor. D) Repressor must bind to the operator. E) Repressor must not be synthesized.
In the Southern blot technique, which of the following is NOT required? A) transfer of DNA to nitrocellulose B) electrophoresis to separate fragments C) addition of heat-stable DNA polymerase to amplify DNA D) restriction enzyme digestion of DNA E) addition of a labeled probe to identify the gene of interest
Addition of heat-stable DNA polymerase to amplify DNA
A definitive host harbors which stage of a parasite?
Adult
What is the mutualistic combination to form Lichens
Alga and fungus
Which of the following pairs is mismatched A. Malaria - vector B. Salmonellosis - vehicle transmission C. Syphilis - direct contact D. Influenza - droplet infection E. All are correctly matched
All are correctly matched
Which of the following statements about helminths is FALSE?
All are parasites.
Which of the following statements about algae is FALSE?
All are unicellular.
Which of the following is NOT a zoonosis? A. Cat-scratch disease B. Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome C. Rabies D. Tapeworm E. All are zoonosis
All are zoonosis
Which is NOT a resevior of infection? A. Sick person B. Healthy person C. Sick animal D. Hospital E. All can be reseviors of infection
All can be reseviors of infection
Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections? A. Using syringes more that once B. Normal microbiota on the operating room staff C. Errors in aseptic technique D. Antibiotic resistance E. All of the above
All of the above
A nosocomial infection is
Always present but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization.
Answer: A
An enzyme produced in response to the presence of a substrate is called A) An inducible enzyme. B) A repressible enzyme. C) A restriction enzyme. D) An operator. E) A promoter.
Answer: A
An enzyme that copies DNA to make a molecule of RNA is A) RNA polymerase. B) DNA ligase. C) Restriction enzyme. D) Transposase. E) DNA polymerase.
Answer: C
An enzyme that cuts double-stranded DNA at specific nucleotide sequences. A) RNA polymerase B) DNA ligase C) Restriction enzyme D) Transposase E) DNA polymerase
Answer: B
An enzyme that makes covalent bonds between nucleotide sequences in DNA is A) RNA polymerase. B) DNA ligase. C) Restriction enzyme. D) Transposase. E) DNA polymerase.
Figure 14.3 shows incidence of polio in the United States. The period between 1945-1955 indicates
An epidemic level
Helmiths' Kingdom
Animalia
1) Which of the following statements regarding fungi is FALSE? A) Most fungi are pathogenic for humans. B) Fungi are eukaryotic heterotrophs. C) Fungi reproduce by forming asexual or sexual spores. D) Most fungi grow well in acidic culture condition. E) Fungi tolerate low moisture conditions.
Answer: A
10) An enzyme produced in response to the presence of a substrate is called a(n) A) inducible enzyme. B) repressible enzyme. C) restriction enzyme. D) operator. E) promoter.
Answer: A
21) Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms A) are changes felt by the patient. B) are changes observed by the physician. C) are specific for a particular disease. D) always occur as part of a syndrome. E) None of the answers is correct.
Answer: A
26) Bacteriophages derive all of the following from the host cell EXCEPT A) lysozyme. B) tRNA. C) amino acids. D) nucleotides. E) ATP.
Answer: A
30) The CDC is located in A) Atlanta, GA. B) Washington, DC. C) New York City, NY. D) Las Angeles, CA. E) Chicago, IL.
Answer: A
31) The necessary ingredients for DNA synthesis can be mixed together in a test tube. The DNA polymerase is from Thermus aquaticus, and the template is from a human cell. The DNA synthesized would be most similar to A) human DNA. B) T. aquaticus DNA. C) a mixture of human and T. aquaticus DNA. D) human RNA. E) T. aquaticus RNA.
Answer: A
34) A lytic virus has infected a patient. Which of the following would best describe what is happening inside the patient? A) The virus is causing the death of the infected cells in the patient. B) The virus is not killing any cells in the host. C) The virus is incorporating its nucleic acid with that of the patient's cells. D) The virus is slowly killing the patient's cells. E) The virus is infecting cells and then releasing only small amounts of virus.
Answer: A
34) In which of the following diseases can gender be considered a viable predisposing factor? A) urinary tract infections B) pneumonia C) salmonellosis D) tetanus E) anthrax
Answer: A
34) The mechanism by which the presence of glucose inhibits the arabinose operon is A) catabolite repression. B) translation. C) DNA polymerase. D) repression. E) induction.
Answer: A
35) Some viruses, such as human herpesvirus 1, infect a cell without causing symptoms. These are called A) latent viruses. B) lytic viruses. C) phages. D) slow viruses. E) unconventional viruses.
Answer: A
35) Which of the following is a nucleated, unicellular organism that, if you changed the incubation temperature, would form filaments with conidiospores? A) ascomycete B) cellular slime mold C) euglenozoa D) tapeworm E) plasmodial slime mold
Answer: A
36) If you knew the sequence of nucleotides within a gene, which one of the following could you determine with the most accuracy? A) the primary structure of the protein B) the secondary structure of the protein C) the tertiary structure of the protein D) the quaternary structure of the protein E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Answer: A
38) An enzyme that copies DNA to make a molecule of RNA is A) RNA polymerase. B) DNA ligase. C) DNA helicase. D) transposase. E) DNA polymerase.
Answer: A
39) The following steps occur during multiplication of retroviruses. Which is the fourth step? A) synthesis of double-stranded DNA B) synthesis of +RNA C) attachment D) penetration E) uncoating
Answer: A
4) Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion to classify viruses? A) biochemical tests B) morphology C) nucleic acid D) size E) number of capsomeres
Answer: A
42) Ringworm is caused by a(n) A) fungus. B) cestode. C) nematode. D) protozoan. E) trematode.
Answer: A
45) You see acid-fast oocysts in a fecal sample from a patient who has diarrhea. What is the MOST likely cause? A) Cryptosporidium B) diatoms C) Entamoeba D) Giardia E) Taenia
Answer: A
5) Which of the following is NOT a product of transcription? A) a new strand of DNA B) rRNA C) tRNA D) mRNA E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are products of transcription.
Answer: A
5) Which of the following statements regarding lichens is FALSE? A) Lichens are very tolerant to pollution. B) Lichens represent a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and an alga. C) Lichens are often the first life form to colonize rock or soil. D) The algal partner produces carbohydrates that are absorbed by the fungal partner. E) The fungal partner provides a means of attachment and protects the algal partner from desiccation.
Answer: A
6) Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection?A) botulism B) tuberculosis C) measles D) the common cold E) diphtheria
Answer: A
7) The definition of lysogeny is A) phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA. B) lysis of the host cell due to a phage. C) the period during replication when virions are not present. D) when the burst time takes an unusually long time. E) attachment of a phage to a cell.
Answer: A
11) When glucose is high, cAMP is _____ : CAP _____ bind the lac operator, and RNA polymerase _____ bind the lac promoter. A) high; does; does B) low; does not; does not C) high; does not; does D) low; does not; does E) None of the answers is correct.
Answer: B
12) Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell A) by a bacteriophage. B) as naked DNA in solution. C) by cell-to-cell contact. D) by crossing over. E) by sexual reproduction.
Answer: B
12) Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE? A) Protozoa are unicellular eukaryotes. B) Nearly all protozoa cause disease. C) Most protozoa reproduce asexually. D) Protozoa are common in water and soil. E) Some protozoan pathogens are transmitted by arthropod vectors.
Answer: B
13) In mid-December, a woman with insulin-dependent diabetes who had been on prednisone fell and received an abrasion on the dorsal side of her right hand. She was placed on penicillin. By the end of January, the ulcer had not healed, and she was referred to a plastic surgeon. On January 30, a swab of the wound was cultured at 35°C on blood agar. On the same day, a smear was made for Gram staining. The Gram stain showed large (10 µm) cells. Brownish, waxy colonies grew on the blood agar. Slide cultures set up on February 1 and incubated at 25°C showed septate hyphae and single conidia. The most likely cause of the infection is a A) gram-negative bacterium. B) dimorphic fungus. C) parasitic alga. D) yeast. E) protozoan.
Answer: B
17) Which of the following would be the first step in biosynthesis of a virus with a - (minus) strand of RNA? A) synthesis of DNA from an RNA template B) synthesis of double-stranded RNA from an RNA template C) synthesis of double-stranded RNA from a DNA template D) transcription of mRNA from DNA E) synthesis of DNA from a DNA template
Answer: B
18) An infectious protein is a A) bacteriophage. B) prion. C) retrovirus. D) viroid. E) papovavirus.
Answer: B
2) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) DNA polymerase — makes a molecule of DNA from a DNA template B) RNA polymerase — makes a molecule of RNA from an RNA template C) DNA ligase — joins segments of DNA D) transposase — insertion of DNA segments into DNA E) DNA gyrase — coils and twists DNA
Answer: B
21) An example of a latent viral infection is A) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. B) cold sores. C) influenza. D) smallpox. E) mumps.
Answer: B
31) Viruses that utilize reverse transcriptase belong to the virus families A) Retroviridae and Picornaviridae. B) Herpesviridae and Retroviridae. C) Hepadnaviridae and Retroviridae. D) Herpesviridae and Poxviridae. E) Rhabdoviridae and Herpesviridae.
Answer: C
31) Which of the following is the most effective control for malaria? A) vaccination B) treating patients C) eliminate Anopheles D) eliminate the intermediate host E) None of these is an effective control.
Answer: C
32) A needlestick is an example of A) direct contact. B) droplet transmission. C) fomite. D) vector. E) vehicle transmission.
Answer: C
32) DNA made from an RNA template will be incorporated into the virus capsid of A) Retroviridae. B) Herpesviridae. C) Hepadnaviridae. D) bacteriophage families. E) influenzavirus.
Answer: C
36) Which of the following organisms is photoautotrophic protozoan? A) oomycote B) cellular slime mold C) Euglena D) Phytophthora E) plasmodial slime mold
Answer: C
37) The etiologic agent of the disease in Situation 14.1 is A) sheep. B) soil. C) Coxiella burnetii. D) pneumonia. E) wind.
Answer: C
38) Which of the following groups of algae does NOT produce compounds that are toxic to humans? A) diatoms B) dinoflagellates C) green algae D) red algae E) None of the answers is correct; all of these groups of algae produce compounds toxic to humans.
Answer: C
4) DNA is constructed of A) a single strand of nucleotides with internal hydrogen bonding. B) two complementary strands of nucleotides bonded A—C and G—T. C) two strands of nucleotides running antiparallel. D) two strands of identical nucleotides with hydrogen bonds between them. E) None of the answers is correct.
Answer: C
40) Assume you have isolated a multicellular heterotrophic organism that produces coenocytic hyphae, motile zoospores, and cellulose cell walls. It is most likely a(n) A) ascomycete fungus. B) green alga. C) oomycote alga. D) tapeworm. E) zygomycete fungus.
Answer: C
40) Oncogenic viruses A) cause acute infections. B) are genetically unstable. C) cause tumors to develop. D) are lytic viruses that kill the host cell. E) have no effect on the host cell.
Answer: C
41) If a larva of Echinococcus granulosus is found in humans, humans are the A) definitive host. B) infected host. C) intermediate host. D) reservoir. E) None of the answers is correct.
Answer: C
43) Most RNA viruses carry which of the following enzymes? A) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase B) lysozyme C) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase D) reverse transcriptase E) ATP synthase
Answer: C
43) Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery. This is an example of a A) communicable disease. B) latent infection. C) nosocomial infection. D) sporadic disease. E) None of the answers is correct.
Answer: C
44) Assume the two E.coli strains shown below are allowed to conjugate. Hfr: pro+, arg+, his+, lys+, met+, ampicillin-sensitive F: pro-, arg-, his-, lys-, met-, ampicillin-resistant What supplements would you add to glucose minimal salts agar to select for a recombinant cell that is lys+, arg+, amp-resistant? A) ampicillin, lysine, arginine B) lysine, arginine C) ampicillin, proline, histidine, methionine D) proline, histidine, methionine E) ampicillin, prolein, histidine, lysine
Answer: C
44) The following steps occur during biosynthesis of a + strand RNA virus. What is the third step? A) attachment B) penetration and uncoating C) synthesis of - strand RNA D) synthesis of + strand RNA E) synthesis of viral proteins
Answer: C
45) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Antimicrobial therapy for hemodialysis-associated infections increases antibiotic resistance. B) S. aureus is differentiated from other mannitol+ cocci by the coagulase test. C) The M in MRSA stands for mannitol. D) The USA100 strain accounts for most hospital-acquired MRSA. E) The USA300 strain accounts for most community-acquired MRSA.
Answer: C
7) Biological transmission differs from mechanical transmission in that biological transmission A) requires an arthropod. B) involves fomites. C) involves specific diseases. D) requires direct contact. E) works only with noncommunicable diseases.
Answer: C
9) Focal infections initially start out as A) sepsis. B) bacteremia. C) local infections. D) septicemia. E) systemic infections.
Answer: C
1) How do all viruses differ from bacteria? A) Viruses are filterable. B) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. C) Viruses do not have any nucleic acid. D) Viruses are not composed of cells. E) Viruses do not reproduce.
Answer: D
11) A clear area against a confluent "lawn" of bacteria is called a A) phage. B) pock. C) cell lysis. D) plaque. E) rash.
Answer: D
11) Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this condition called? A) bacteremia B) focal infection C) local infection D) septicemia E) systemic infection
Answer: D
12) Continuous cell lines differ from primary cell lines in that A) viruses can be grown in continuous cell lines. B) continuous cell lines always have to be re-isolated from animal tissues. C) continuous cell lines are derived from primary cell lines. D) continuous cell lines can be maintained through an indefinite number of generations. E) continuous cell lines are from human embryos.
Answer: D
13) Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota in that transient microbiota A) cause diseases. B) are found in a certain location on the host. C) are always acquired by direct contact. D) are present for a relatively short time. E) never cause disease.
Answer: D
13) Which of the following is necessary for replication of a prion? A) DNA B) DNA polymerase C) lysozyme D) PrPSc E) RNA
Answer: D
14) Which of the following statements regarding a bacterium that is R+ is FALSE? A) It possesses a plasmid. B) R+ can be transferred to a cell of the same species. C) It is resistant to certain drugs and heavy metals. D) It is F+. E) R+ can be transferred to a different species.
Answer: D
15) The initial effect of ionizing radiation on a cell is that it causes A) DNA to break. B) bonding between adjacent thymines. C) base substitutions. D) the formation of highly reactive ions. E) the cells to get hot.
Answer: D
15) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Fungi produce sexual spores. B) Fungi produce asexual spores. C) Fungal spores are used in identification of fungi. D) Fungal spores are highly resistant to heat and chemical agents. E) Fungal spores are for asexual or sexual reproduction.
Answer: D
17) Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is stopped by the A) allosteric transition. B) substrate binding to the repressor. C) corepressor binding to the operator. D) corepressor-repressor complex binding to the operator. E) end product binding to the promoter.
Answer: D
17) Which of the following is NOT a communicable diseases? A) malaria B) AIDS C) tuberculosis D) tetanus E) typhoid fever
Answer: D
2) Which of the following statements about helminths is FALSE? A) They are heterotrophic. B) They are multicellular animals. C) They have eukaryotic cells. D) All are parasites. E) Some have male and female reproductive organs in one animal.
Answer: D
21) The damage caused by ultraviolet radiation is A) never repaired. B) repaired during transcription. C) repaired during translation. D) cut out and replaced. E) repaired by DNA replication.
Answer: D
23) Assume you have isolated an unknown virus. This virus has a single, positive sense strand of RNA, and possesses an envelope. To which group does it most likely belong? A) herpesvirus B) picornavirus C) retrovirus D) togavirus E) papovavirus
Answer: D
24) Which of the following statements about algae is FALSE? A) They use light as their energy source. B) They use CO2 as their carbon source. C) They produce oxygen from hydrolysis of water. D) All are unicellular. E) Some are capable of sexual reproduction.
Answer: D
25) Below are paired items referring to the heartworm Dirofilaria immitis. Which of the pairs is mismatched? A) dog definitive host B) dog sexual reproduction C) mosquito vector D) mosquito definitive host E) None of the pairs is mismatched.
Answer: D
27) Bacteriophage replication differs from animal virus replication because only bacteriophage replication involves A) adsorption to specific receptors. B) assembly of viral components. C) replication of viral nucleic acid. D) injection of naked nucleic acid into the host cell. E) lysis of the host cell.
Answer: D
28) What do tapeworms eat? A) intestinal bacteria B) host tissues C) red blood cells D) intestinal contents E) plant matter
Answer: D
3) Which of the following statements about the oomycote algae is FALSE? A) They form hyphae. B) They produce zoospores in a sporangium. C) They cause plant diseases. D) They have chlorophyll. E) They reproduce sexually.
Answer: D
3) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) DNA polymerase joins nucleotides in one direction only. B) The leading strand of DNA is made continuously. C) The lagging strand of DNA is started by an RNA primer. D) DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome. E) Multiple replication forks are possible on a bacterial chromosome.
Answer: D
33) Which of the following statements about viruses is FALSE? A) Viruses contain DNA or RNA but never both. B) Viruses contain a protein coat. C) Viruses use the anabolic machinery of the cell. D) Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes. E) Viruses have genes.
Answer: D
37) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) tick Rocky Mountain spotted fever B) tick Lyme disease C) mosquito malaria D) mosquito Pneumocystis E) mosquito encephalitis
Answer: D
39) An enzyme that catalyzes the cutting and resealing of DNA, and is translated from insertion sequences, is A) RNA polymerase. B) DNA ligase. C) DNA helicase. D) transposase. E) DNA polymerase.
Answer: D
39) Which of the following is NOT an example of microbial antagonism? A) acid production by bacteria B) bacteriocin production C) bacteria occupying host receptors D) bacteria causing disease E) bacteria producing vitamin K
Answer: D
4) The major significance of Robert Koch's work is that A) microorganisms are present in a diseased animal. B) diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another. C) microorganisms can be cultured. D) microorganisms cause disease. E) microorganisms are the result of disease.
Answer: D
40) Repair of damaged DNA might be viewed as a race between an endonuclease and A) DNA ligase. B) DNA polymerase. C) helicase. D) methylase. E) primase.
Answer: D
41) The cancer gene ras produces mRNA containing an extra exon that includes a number of UAA codons. Cancer cells produce ras mRNA missing this exon. This mistake most likely is due to a mistake by A) a chemical mutagen. B) DNA polymerase. C) photolyases. D) snRNPs. E) UV radiation.
Answer: D
41) Which one of the following steps does NOT occur during multiplication of a picornavirus? A) synthesis of + strands of RNA B) synthesis of - strands of RNA C) synthesis of viral proteins D) synthesis of DNA E) None of the answers is correct.
Answer: D
43) The miRNAs in a cell A) are found in prokaryotic cells. B) are a part of the prokaryotic ribosome. C) are a part of the eukaryotic ribosome. D) allow different cells to produce different proteins. E) are responsible for inducing operons.
Answer: D
44) All of the following are characteristic of lichens EXCEPT A) they are arranged in foliose, fruticose, or crustose morphologies. B) they are a major food source for tundra herbivores. C) they are used as indicators of air pollution. D) they are a symbiotic relationship of a fungus and a protozoan. E) they serve as primary producers in rocky ecosystems.
Answer: D
6) Bacteriophages and animal viruses do NOT differ significantly in which one of the following steps? A) attachment B) penetration C) uncoating D) biosynthesis E) release
Answer: D
11) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) teleomorph — produces both sexual and asexual spores B) dermatomycosis — fungal infection of the skin C) dimorphic fungus — grows as a yeast or a mold D) systemic mycosis — fungal infection of body organs E) coenocytic hyphae — hyphae with cross-walls
Answer: E
13) Genetic change in bacteria can be brought about by A) mutation. B) conjugation. C) transduction. D) transformation. E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
14) Which of the following statements about nosocomial infections is FALSE? A) They occur in compromised patients. B) They may be caused by opportunists. C) They may be caused by drug-resistant bacteria. D) They may be caused by normal microbiota. E) The patient was infected before hospitalization.
Answer: E
15) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) A prophage is phage DNA inserted into a bacterial chromosome. B) A prophage can "pop" out of the chromosome. C) Prophage genes are repressed by a repressor protein coded for by the prophage. D) A prophage may result in new properties of the host cell. E) The prophage makes the host cell immune to infection by other phages.
Answer: E
16) Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection? A) a sick person B) a healthy person C) a sick animal D) a hospital E) None of the answers is correct; all of these can be reservoirs of infection.
Answer: E
17) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) dinoflagellates & paralytic shellfish poisoning B) brown algae & algin C) red algae & agar D) diatoms & petroleum E) green algae & prokaryotic
Answer: E
18) Which of the following is a fomite? A) water B) droplets from a sneeze C) pus D) insects E) a hypodermic needle
Answer: E
19) An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps? A) penetration B) adsorption C) uncoating D) biosynthesis E) release
Answer: E
2) Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) At least one member must not benefit in a symbiotic relationship. B) Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other. C) A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host. D) Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from each other. E) At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.
Answer: E
20) In the malaria parasite life cycle A) humans are the intermediate host. B) mosquitoes are the definitive host. C) mosquitoes are the vector. D) humans are the intermediate host and mosquitos are the definitive host. E) humans are the intermediate host and mosquitoes are both the definitive host and the vector.
Answer: E
20) Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT? A) acute: a short-lasting primary infection B) inapparent: infection characteristic of a carrier state C) chronic: a disease that develops slowly and lasts for months D) primary infection: an initial illness E) secondary infection: a long-lasting illness
Answer: E
20) Which of the following statments is NOT true of lysogeny? A) It can give infected pathogens the genetic information for toxin production. B) Prophage is inserted into the host genome. C) Lytic cycle may follow lysogeny. D) It is a "silent" infection; the virus does not replicate. E) It causes lysis of host cells.
Answer: E
24) Emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of the following EXCEPT A) antibiotic resistance. B) climatic changes. C) new strains of previously known agents. D) ease of travel. E) None of the answers is correct; the emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of these.
Answer: E
25) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) malaria vector B) salmonellosis vehicle transmission C) syphilis direct contact D) influenza droplet infection E) None of the pairs is mismatched.
Answer: E
26) Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections? A) using syringes more than once B) normal microbiota on the operating room staff C) errors in aseptic technique D) antibiotic resistance E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
28) A cold transmitted by a facial tissue is an example of A) direct contact. B) droplet transmission. C) fomite. D) vector. E) vehicle transmission.
Answer: E
3) Which of the following statements about viral spikes is FALSE? A) They are composed of carbohydrate-protein complexes. B) They are used for attachment. C) They may cause hemagglutination. D) They bind to receptors on the host cell surface. E) They are found only on nonenveloped viruses.
Answer: E
32) In the microscope, you observe multinucleated amoeboid cells with sporangia that form spores. This is a(n) A) ascomycete. B) cellular slime mold. C) Euglenozoa. D) tapeworm. E) plasmodial slime mold.
Answer: E
33) Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor of disease? A) lifestyle B) genetic background C) climate D) occupation E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are predisposing factors of disease.
Answer: E
34) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) nematodes — complete digestive tract B) cestodes — segmented body made of proglottids C) trematodes — flukes D) nematodes — many are free-living E) cestodes — all are free-living
Answer: E
35) In which of the following patterns of disease does the patient experience no signs or symptoms? A) prodromal B) decline C) convalescence D) incubation E) incubation and convalescence
Answer: E
35) The mechanism by which the presence of arabinose controls the arabinose operon is A) catabolite repression. B) translation. C) DNA polymerase. D) repression. E) induction.
Answer: E
38) The following steps occur during multiplication of herpesviruses. Which is the third step? A) attachment B) biosynthesis C) penetration D) release E) uncoating
Answer: E
38) The method of transmission of the disease in Situation 14.1 was A) direct contact. B) droplet. C) indirect contact. D) vector-borne. E) vehicle.
Answer: E
42) Which one of the following is NOT a zoonosis? A) cat-scratch disease B) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome C) rabies D) tapeworm E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are zoonoses.
Answer: E
45) Protein synthesis in eukaryotes is similar to the process in prokaryotes in that both eukaryotes and prokaryotes A) have exons. B) have introns. C) require snRNPS. D) use methionine as the "start" amino acid. E) use codons to determine polypeptide sequences.
Answer: E
5) Which of the following is NOT a verified exception in the use of Koch's postulates? A) Some diseases have poorly defined etiologies. B) Some pathogens can cause several disease conditions. C) Some human diseases have no other known animal host. D) Some diseases are not caused by microbes. E) Some diseases are noncommunicable.
Answer: E
6) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Basidiomycota — basidiospores B) Ascomycota — conidiospores C) Zygomycota — sporangiospores D) microsporidia — lack mitochondria E) anamorphs — lack spores
Answer: E
10) Cell-to-cell contact is required for transduction to occur.
Answer: FALSE
10) Most cases of hookworm infection are acquired by ingestion of eggs in contaminated food or water.
Answer: FALSE
2) A viroid is a completely developed infectious agent composed of nucleic acid and surrounded by a capsid.
Answer: FALSE
3) Bacteria typically contain multiple chromosomes.
Answer: FALSE
3) Binomial nomenclature is used to name viruses.
Answer: FALSE
3) MMWR is a publication by the CDC that reports on only emerging diseases.
Answer: FALSE
4) A researcher only needs to select a cohort group when implementing an analytical epidemiological study.
Answer: FALSE
4) Glycoprotein spikes are found on the capsids of all viruses.
Answer: FALSE
4) The Platyhelminthes group includes roundworms, tapeworms, and flukes.
Answer: FALSE
5) Diseases that are referred to as EIDs have only been discovered in the past fifty years.
Answer: FALSE
5) The miRNAs in a cell inhibit protein synthesis by forming complementary bonds with rRNA.
Answer: FALSE
6) Compromised hosts are always suffering from suppressed immune systems.
Answer: FALSE
6) Some organisms may contain multiple genomes.
Answer: FALSE
7) Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus envelope.
Answer: FALSE
7) In helminth life cycles, the organism that harbors the sexually reproductive phase of the parasite is called the intermediate host.
Answer: FALSE
8) Reservoirs of infections are always animate objects.
Answer: FALSE
8) Viruses are the only known infectious agents that are obligatory intracellular parasites.
Answer: FALSE
9) The insect vectors have six legs and include ticks, mosquitoes, and lice.
Answer: FALSE
9) Transposition results in the formation of base substitution mutations in a cell's DNA.
Answer: FALSE
1) For a particular disease at a specific time period, morbidity rates should always be equal or greater than mortality rates.
Answer: TRUE
1) Plasmogamy, karyogamy, and meiosis are stages of the fungal sexual life cycle.
Answer: TRUE
1) Recombination will always alter a cell's genotype.
Answer: TRUE
1) The basic mechanism of viral multiplication is similar for all viruses.
Answer: TRUE
10) Both normal and transient flora can become opportunistic pathogens.
Answer: TRUE
10) Most drugs that interfere with viral multiplication also interfere with host cell function.
Answer: TRUE
2) Arthropod vectors are blood-sucking animals such as ticks, lice, and fleas that transmit microbial pathogens.
Answer: TRUE
2) Open-reading frames are segments of DNA in which both start and stop codons are found.
Answer: TRUE
2) Testing the effectiveness of a new drug for anthrax would be best performed as an experimental study.
Answer: TRUE
3) Cercariae, metacercaria, redia, and sporocysts are all life cycle stages of trematodes.
Answer: TRUE
4) Mutations that are harmful to cells occur more frequently than those that benefit cells.
Answer: TRUE
5) Positive sense RNA strands of viruses are treated like mRNA inside the host cell.
Answer: TRUE
5) Some species of dinoflagellates produce neurotoxins that cause fish kills and red tides.
Answer: TRUE
6) Both the cellular slime molds and the plasmodial slime molds are members of the phylum Amoebozoa.
Answer: TRUE
6) Dogs do not get measles because their cells lack the correct receptor sites for that virus.
Answer: TRUE
7) A host is not considered diseased until an infection changes one's state of health.
Answer: TRUE
7) Both base substitution and frameshift mutations can result in the formation of premature stop codons.
Answer: TRUE
8) In the Ames test, any colonies that form on the control should be the result of spontaneous mutations.
Answer: TRUE
8) The sporozoite, merozoite, gametocyte, and ring stages are all part of the Plasmodium life cycle.
Answer: TRUE
9) A segmented genome can result in antigenic shift.
Answer: TRUE
9) Urinary tract infections are the most common forms of nosocomial infections.
Answer: TRUE
The yeast Candida albicans does not normally cause disease because of
Antagonistic bacteria
What is the endemic level of rotavirus infections? (according to figure 14.2)
Approximately 20%
Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms
Are changes felt by the patient
Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota because transient microbiota
Are present for a relatively short time
Life Cycle of Malaria
Asexual Infected mosquito bites human and release -sporozoitos Sporozoites migrate to liver and under go schizogony and become merozoites Merozoites are released into the bloodstream and infect RBC Merozoites develope into ring stage in the RBC. Ring stage grow and produce merozoites and continues the cycle Sexual -In mosquito(Definitive Host) Mosquito bites and ingest gametocytes Gametocytes unite and produce sporozoites then migrate to salivary glands of mosquito then mosquito infect human again .
Answer: C
Assume the two E.coli strains shown below are allowed to conjugate. Hfr: pro+, arg+, his+, lys+, met+, ampicillin-sensitive F: pro-, arg-, his-, lys-, met-, ampicillin-resistant What supplements would you add to glucose minimal salts agar to select for a recombinant cell that is lys+, arg+, amp-resistant? A) Ampicillin, lysine, arginine B) Lysine arginine C) Ampicillin, proline, histidine, methionine D) Proline, histidine, methionine E) Ampicillin, prolein, histidine, lysine
Graph of influenza during a typical year indicates the endemic level
B
How many pieces will EcoRI produce from the plasmid shown in Figure 9.1? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
B) 2
You have a small gene that you wish replicated by PCR. After 3 replication cycles, how many double-stranded DNA molecules do you have? A) thousands B) 8 C) 2 D) 4 E) 16
B) 8
Which enzyme would cut this strand of DNA? GCATGGATCCCAATGC A) Enzyme Recognition HaeIII GG↓CC CC↑GG B) Enzyme Recognition BamHI G↓GATCC CCCTAG↑G C) Enzyme Recognition Pst ICTGC↓G G↑ACGTC D) Enzyme Recognition EcoRI G↓AATTC CTTAA↑G E) Enzyme Recognition HindIII A↓AGCTT TTCGA↑A
B) Enzyme Recognition BamHI G↓GATCC CCCTAG↑G
A source of heat-stable DNA polymerase is A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae. B) Thermus aquaticus. C) Bacillus thuringiensis. D) Agrobacterium tumefaciens. E) Pseudomonas.
B) Thermus aquaticus.
In Figure 9.5, the marker genes used for selecting recombinant DNA are A) ori. B) ampR and lacZ. C) lacZ and ori. D) ampR and ori. E) HindIII, BamHI, and EcoRI.
B) ampR and lacZ.
Restriction enzymes are A) bacterial enzymes that destroy phage DNA. B) bacterial enzymes that splice DNA. C) animal enzymes that splice RNA. D) viral enzymes that destroy host DNA
B) bacterial enzymes that splice DNA.
Assume you have discovered a cell that produces a lipase that works in cold water for a laundry additive. You can increase the efficiency of this enzyme by changing one amino acid. This is done by A) selection. B) site-directed mutagenesis. C) enrichment. D) irradiating the cells. E) selective breeding.
B) site-directed mutagenesis.
PCR can be used to identify an unknown bacterium because A) all cells have DNA. B) the RNA primer is specific. C) all cells have RNA. D) DNA polymerase will replicate DNA. E) DNA can be electrophoresed.
B) the RNA primer is specific.
Self-replicating DNA used to transmit a gene from one organism to another is a A) PCR. B) vector. C) Southern blot. D) library. E) clone.
B) vector.
Which of the following new chemicals would NOT be effective against Giardia? A. a chemical that inhibits cell division B. a chemical that inhibits the formation of cell walls C. a chemical that inhibits formation of the membrane around the nucleus D. a chemical that inhibits the Krebs cycle
B. a chemical that inhibits the formation of cell walls
Which is NOT an example of microbial antagonism? A. Acid production by bacteria B. Bacteriocin production C. Bacteria occupying host receptors D. bacteria causing disease E. Bacteria producing vitamin K
Bacteria causing disease
Transduction
Bacterial DNA transferred from one cell to another via bacteriophage
Restriction enzymes are
Bacterial enzymes that destroy phage DNA.
Lichens
Bacterium(alga) and fungus
An advantage of synthetic DNA over genomic or cDNA is the ability to A) make DNA from cellular RNA and the enzyme reverse transcriptase. B) obtain genes that lack introns. C) insert desired restriction sites into the DNA sequence. D) obtain genes that lack exons. E) isolate unknown genes.
C) insert desired restriction sites into the DNA sequence.
Which of the following is NOT an agricultural product made by DNA techniques? A) nitrogenase (nitrogen fixation) B) Bacillus thuringiensis insecticide C) pectinase D) frost retardant E) glyphosate-resistant crops
C) pectinase
In Figure 9.2, the enzyme in step 2 is A) DNA polymerase. B) spliceosome. C) reverse transcriptase. D) DNA ligase. E) RNA polymerase.
C) reverse transcriptase.
Biotechnology involves the A) use of microorganisms to make desired products and the use of animal cells to make vaccines. B) development of disease-resistant crop plants. C) use of microorganisms to make desired products, the use of animal cells to make vaccines, and the development of disease-resistant crop plants. D) use of microorganisms to make desired products. E) use of animal cells to make vaccines.
C) use of microorganisms to make desired products, the use of animal cells to make vaccines, and the development of disease-resistant crop plants.
What is the key difference between yeast and mold? A. Yeast is colonial, while mold is multicellular. B. Yeast have cellulose cell walls, while mold has chitin cell walls. C. Yeast is unicellular, while mold is multicellular. D. Yeast is a fungus, while mold is an alga.
C. Yeast is unicellular, while mold is multicellular.
Helminthic diseases are usually transmitted to humans by A. respiratory route. B.vectors. C.gastrointestinal route. D. aerosols. E.genitourinary route.
C.gastrointestinal route.
Yeast infections are caused by
Candida albicans.
Entamoeba and Acanthamoeba
Causes disease
Cryptococcus neoformans
Causes systemic mycosis
Cell wall of Phaeophyta and what do they store
Cellulose and algin; carbohydrates
Cell wall of Rhodophyta and what do they store
Cellulose, glucose polymer
A population of cells carrying a desired plasmid is called a
Clone.
Basidiom are and produce
Club fungi, Basidiospore and sometimes conidopores
Answer: C
Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation A) Replicates DNA. B) Transfers DNA vertically, to new cells. C) Transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation. D) Transcribes DNA to RNA. E) Copies RNA to make DNA.
The etiologic agent of the disease in Situation 14.1 is
Coxiella burnetti
You see acid-fast oocysts in a fecal sample from a patient who has diarrhea. What is the MOST likely cause?
Cryptosporidium
Mosquito
Definitive host (sexual reproduction)
A colleague has used computer modeling to design an improved enzyme. To produce this enzyme, the next step is to
Determine the nucleotide sequence for the improved enzyme.
The Human Genome Project, which was completed in 2003, was focused on
Determining the nucleotide sequence of the entire human genome.
Vertical is from organism to offspring Horizontal is passing genes not only to offspring but to other microbes of same generation laterally
Differentiate horizontal and vertical gene transfer
Algae's Food Acquisition Method
Diffusion
The following are steps used to make DNA fingerprints. What is the third step?
Digest with a restriction enzyme.
A sexually transmitted disease is an example of
Direct contact
Gastroenteritis acquired from roast beef is an example of
Direct contact
The use of an antibiotic-resistance gene on a plasmid used in genetic engineering makes
Direct selection possible.
Mechanical transmission differs from biological transmission in that mechanical transmission
Doesn't involve specific diseases
Influenza transmitted by an unprotected sneeze is an example of
Droplet transmission
The most likely mode of transmission of pneumonic plague between humans is
Droplet transmission
Economic effects of Lichen
Dyes, Antimicrobial (Usnea) Litmus
In Figure 9.1, after digestion with the appropriate restriction enzyme, what is the smallest piece containing the entire ampicillin-resistance (amp) gene? A) 0.17 kbp B) 0.25 kbp C) 3.00 kbp D) 1.08 kbp E) 1.50 kbp
E) 1.50 kbp
You want to determine whether a person has a certain mutant gene. The process involves using a primer and a heat-stable DNA polymerase. This process is A) transformation. B) translation. C) site-directed mutagenesis. D) restriction mapping. E) PCR.
E) PCR.
Which of the following are used to silence specific genes and hold promise for treating cancer or viral diseases, such as hepatitis B? A) DNA fingerprinting B) complementary DNA (cDNA) C) tumor-inducing plasmids (Ti plasmids) D) reverse transcriptase PCR (rtPCR) E) RNA interference (RNAi)
E) RNA interference (RNAi)
A restriction fragment is A) a segment of tRNA. B) a segment of mRNA. C) cDNA. D) a gene. E) a segment of DNA.
E) a segment of DNA.
The Human Genome Project, which was completed in 2003, was focused on A) identifying all of the genes in the human genome. B) cloning all of the genes of the human genome. C) determining all of the proteins encoded by the human genome. D) finding a cure for all human genetic disorders. E) determining the nucleotide sequence of the entire human genome.
E) determining the nucleotide sequence of the entire human genome.
In Figure 9.4, the bacteria transformed with the recombinant plasmid and plated on media containing ampicillin and X-gal will A) form white, ampicillin-sensitive colonies. B) form blue, ampicillin-resistant colonies. C) form blue, ampicillin-sensitive colonies. D) not grow. E) form white, ampicillin-resistant colonies.
E) form white, ampicillin-resistant colonies.
In Figure 9.5, the gene that allows the plasmid to be self-replicating is A) EcoRI. B) lacZ. C) ampR. D) HindIII. E) ori.
E) ori.
In the malaria parasite life cycle A. humans are the intermediate host. B. mosquitoes are the definitive host. C. mosquitoes are the vector. D. humans are the intermediate host and mosquitos are the definitive host. E. humans are the intermediate host and mosquitoes are both the definitive host and the vector.
E. humans are the intermediate host and mosquitoes are both the definitive host and the vector.
Life cycle of Helminths
Egg►Larva►adult
Answer: B
In transcription, A) DNA is changed to RNA. B) DNA is copied to RNA. C) DNA is replicated. D) RNA is copied to DNA. E) Proteins are made.
Regular washing with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota which can result in
Increased suseptibility to disease
An advantage of synthetic DNA over genomic or cDNA is the ability to
Insert desired restriction sites into the DNA sequence.
If you have inserted a gene in the Ti plasmid, the next step in genetic engineering is
Inserting the Ti plasmid into Agrobacterium.
Humans
Intermediate host (asexual reproduction)
Giardia lamblia (Diplomonads)
Intestinal parasite that is common in wild animals and infects humans via contaminated streams or well water
Which of the following is an advantage of using E. coli to make a human gene product?
Its genes are well known.
Another name for brown algae
Kelp
An advantage of cDNA over genomic DNA is that it
Lacks introns.
Superficial algae to deepest algae
Land-Green algae, cyanobacteria, euglenolds Littoral zone- Multicellular green algae Sublittoral zone- Unicellular green algae, Brown algae, Red algae
Which of the following is NOT a desired characteristic of DNA vectors used in gene cloning procedures? A) circular form of DNA or integrates into the host chromosome B) large size C) self-replication D) may replicate in several species E) has a selectable marker
Large size.
Pieces of DNA stored in yeast cells are called a
Library.
Which of the following statements regarding lichens is FALSE?
Lichens are a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan.
Gene silencing blocks an undesirable product by
Making double-stranded RNA.
Epidemic
Many people in a given area acquire a certain disease in a relatively short period
A commensal bacterium
May be an opportunistic pathogen
The study of genetic material taken directly from the environment is
Metagenomics.
Biological transmission
Microbes multiplies in vector ex. malaria in mosquitos
Emergence of infectious diseases can be due to the following except A. Antibiotic resistance B. Climatic changes C. Digging up soil D. Microbes trying to cause disease E. Travel
Microbes trying to cause disease
Which of the following techniques is NOT used to introduce recombinant DNA into plants? A) Ti plasmids and Agrobacterium B) protoplast fusion C) microinjection D) gene guns E) electroporation
Microinjection.
The major significance of Koch's work was that
Microorganisms cause disease
Which of the following statements regarding fungi is FALSE?
Most fungi are pathogenic for humans.
Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE?
Nearly all protozoa cause disease.
Diplomonads
No mitochondria multiple flagella
Parabasalids
No mitochondria, Multiple flagella, no cyst(seed)
Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery. This is an example of
Nosocomial infection
Koch's postulates don't apply to all diseases because
Not all diseases are caused by microorganisms
Plasmids
Occur naturally in bacteria
Aspergillus
Opportunistic, systemic mycosis
You want to determine whether a person has a certain mutant gene. The process involves using a primer and a heat-stable DNA polymerase. This process is
PCR
Dimorphism
Pathogenic dimorphic fungi
Diatom's cell wall
Pectin(jelly) and silica(sand and clay)
Which of the following is NOT an agricultural product made by DNA techniques? A) Bacillus thuringiensis insecticide B) glyphosate-resistant crops C) pectinase D) nitrogenase (nitrogen fixation) E) Endotoxin may be in the product and it does not secrete most proteins.
Pectinase
Algae's Nutritional type
Photoautotroph
Algae's Characteristic Features
Pigments
Which of the following is necessary for replication of a prion?
PrPSc
The use of "suicide" genes in genetically modified organisms is designed to
Prevent the growth of the modified organisms in the environment.
Bacteria
Prokaryotes are 1000x longer than bacteria cells
Meiosis
Recombination occurs where in eukaryotes
Characteristic of Helminths
Reduced digestive system Reduced nervous system Reduced Locomotion Complex reproduction - Asexual or sexual
Answer: D
Repair of damaged DNA might be viewed as a race between an endonuclease and A) DNA ligase. B) DNA polymerase. C) Helicase. D) Methylase. E) Primase.
Another name for Red algae
Rhodophyta
Which of the following definitions is incorrect? A. Acute - a short-lasting primary infection B. Inapparent - infection characteristic of a carrier state C. Chronic - a disease that develops slowly and lasts for months D. Primary infection - an initial illness E. Secondary infection - a long-lasting illness
Secondary infection - a long-lasting illness
Dioecious
Separate reproductive system
Koch observed Bacillis anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this condition called?
Septicemia
Definitive host
Sexual reproduction in vector
Zygospore
Sexual reproduction- fusion of haploid cells (2)
Assume you have discovered a cell that produces a lipase that works in cold water for a laundry additive. You can increase the efficiency of this enzyme by changing one amino acid. This is done by
Site-directed mutagenesis.
Trypanosoma spp(Euglenozoa) causes
Sleeping sickness (Africa) and Chagas' disease (South America)
Fungi reproduce by:
Spores: Asexual, sexual
Haemophilus bacteria require heme protein produced by Staphylococcus bacteria. This is an example of
Synergism
Answer: D
Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is stopped by A) The allosteric transition. B) The substrate binding to the repressor. C) The corepressor binding to the operator. D) The corepressor-repressor binding to the operator. E) The end-product binding to the promoter.
Which type of infection can be caused by septicemia?
Systemic infection
Answer: A
Table 8.1 Culture 1: F+, leucine+, histidine+ Culture 2: F-, leucine-, histidine- In Table 8.1, what will be the result of conjugation between cultures 1 and 2? A) 1 will remain the same; 2 will become F+, leucine-, histidine- B) 1 will become F-, leu+, his+; 2 will become F+, leu-, his- C) 1 will become F-, leu-, his-; 2 will remain the same D) 1 will remain the same; 2 will become F+, leu+, his+ E) 1 will remain the same; 2 will become F+ and recombination may occur
Answer: E
Table 8.2 Codon on mRNA and corresponding amino acid UUA leucine UAA nonsense GCA alanine AAU sparagine AAG lysine UGC cysteine GUU valine UCG, UCU serine (Use Table 8.2.) If a frameshift mutation occurred in the sequence of bases shown below, what would be the sequence of amino acids coded for? 3' ATTACGCTTTGC A) Leucine-arginine-lysine-alanine B) Asparagine-arginine-lysine-alanine C) Asparagine-cysteine-valine-serine D) Translation would stop at the first codon E) Can't tell
Answer: B
Table 8.2 Codon on mRNA and corresponding amino acid UUA leucine UAA nonsense GCA alanine AAU sparagine AAG lysine UGC cysteine GUU valine UCG, UCU serine (Use Table 8.2.) If the sequence of amino acids encoded by a strand of DNA is serine-alanine-lysine-leucine, the coding for the antisense strand of DNA is A) 5' ACAGTTTCAAT B) 5' TCTGCAAAGTTA C) 3' UGUGCAAAGUUA D) 3' UCUCGAAAGUUA E) 3' TCACGUUUCAAU
Answer: D
Table 8.2 Codon on mRNA and corresponding amino acid UUA leucine UAA nonsense GCA alanine AAU sparagine AAG lysine UGC cysteine GUU valine UCG, UCU serine (Use Table 8.2.) The anticodon for valine is A) GUU B) CUU C) CTT D) CAA E) GTA
Answer: D
Table 8.2 Codon on mRNA and corresponding amino acid UUA leucine UAA nonsense GCA alanine AAU sparagine AAG lysine UGC cysteine GUU valine UCG, UCU serine (Use Table 8.2.) What is the sequence of amino acids encoded by the following sequence of bases in a strand of DNA? 3' ATTACGCTTTGC A) Leucine-arginine-lysine-alanine B) Asparagine-arginine-lysine-alanine C) Asparagine-cysteine-valine-serine D) Transcription would stop at the first codon E) Can't tell
Answer: B
Table 8.2 Codon on mRNA and corresponding amino acid UUA leucine UAA nonsense GCA alanine AAU sparagine AAG lysine UGC cysteine GUU valine UCG, UCU serine 22) (Use Table 8.2.) If the sequence of amino acids encoded by a strand of DNA is serine-alanine-lysine-leucine, what is the order of bases in the sense strand of DNA? A) 3' UGUGCAAAGUUA B) 3' AGACGTTTCAAT C) 3' TCTCGTTTGTTA D) 5' TGTGCTTTCTTA E) 5'AGAGCTTTGAAT
Answer: D
Table 8.3 Amino Acids Encoded by the Human p53 Gene Based on the information in Table 8.3, prostate cancer is probably the result of which kind of mutation? A) Analog B) Frameshift C) Missense D) Nonsense E) None of the above
Which is NOT a communicable disease? A. Malaria B. AIDS C. Tuberculosis D. Tetanus E. Typhoid fever
Tetanus
Which of the following statements is false? A. Antimicrobial therapy for hemodialysis-associated infections increases antibiotic resistance. B. S. aureus is differentiated from other mannitol+ cocci by the coagulase test C. The M in MRSA stands for mannitol D. USA100 accounts for most hospital-acquired MRSA. E. USA300 accounts for most community-acquired MRSA
The M in MRSA stands for mannitol
PCR can be used to identify an unknown bacterium because
The RNA primer is specific.
Answer: D
The cancer gene ras produces mRNA containing an extra exon that includes a number of UAA codons. Cancer cells produce ras mRNA missing this exon. This mistake most likely is due to a mistake by A) A chemical mutagen. B) DNA polymerase. C) Photolyases. D) snRNPs. E) UV radiation.
Answer: D
The damage caused by ultraviolet radiation is A) Never repaired. B) Repaired during transcription. C) Repaired during translation. D) Cut out and replaced. E) Repaired by DNA replication.
Answer: D
The initial effect of ionizing radiation on a cell is that it causes A) DNA to break. B) Bonding between adjacent thymines. C) Base substitutions. D) The formation of highly reactive ions. E) The cells to get hot.
Answer: E
The mechanism by which the presence of arabinose controls the arabinose operon is A) Catabolite repression. B) Translation. C) DNA polymerase. D) Repression. E) Induction.
Answer: A
The mechanism by which the presence of glucose inhibits the arabinose operon is A) Catabolite repression. B) Translation. C) DNA polymerase. D) Repression. E) Induction.
Answer: A
The necessary ingredients for DNA synthesis can be mixed together in a test tube. The DNA polymerase is from Thermus aquaticus, and the template is from a human cell. The DNA synthesized would be most similar to A) Human DNA. B) T. aquaticus DNA. C) A mixture of human and T. aquaticus DNA. D) Human RNA. E) T. aquaticus RNA.
Incidence
The number of new cases of a disease
Which statement about nosocomial infections is false A. They occur in compromised patients B. They are casued by opportunists C. They are caused by drug-resistant bacteria D. They are caused by normal microbiota E. The patient was infected before hospitalization.
The patient was infected before hospitalization
A source of heat-stable DNA polymerase is
Thermus aquaticus.
All of the following are characteristic of algae EXCEPT which ONE of the following?
They are currently classified as plants.
Which of the following statements about the oomycote algae is FALSE?
They have chlorophyll.
Answer: B
Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell A) By a bacteriophage. B) As naked DNA in solution. C) By cell-to-cell contact. D) By crossing over. E) By sexual reproduction.
Biotechnology involves the
Use of microorganisms to make desired products, the use of animal cells to make vaccines, and the development of disease-resistant crop plants.
Answer: C
When glucose is high, cAMP is ________ : CAP ________ bind the lac operator, and RNA polymerase ________ bind the lac promoter. A) low, doesn't, doesn't B) high, does, does C) low, doesn't, doesn't D) high, doesn't, does E) low, does, does
Answer: A
Which of the following is NOT a product of transcription? A) A new strand of DNA B) rRNA C) tRNA D) mRNA E) None of the above
Answer: B
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) DNA polymerase - makes a molecule of DNA from a DNA template B) RNA polymerase - makes a molecule of RNA from an RNA template C) DNA ligase - joins segments of DNA D) Transposase - insertion of DNA segments into DNA E) DNA gyrase - coils and twists DNA
Answer: B
Which of the following statements about bacteriocins is false? A) The genes coding for them are on plasmids. B) They cause food-poisoning symptoms. C) Nisin is a bacteriocin used as a food preservative. D) They can be used to identify certain bacteria. E) Bacteriocins kill baceria.
Answer: D
Which of the following statements is false regarding a bacterium that is R+? A) It possesses a plasmid. B) R+ can be transferred to a cell of the same species. C) It is resistant to certain drugs and heavy metals. D) It is F+. E) R+ can be transferred to a different species.
Answer: D
Which of the following statements is false? A) DNA polymerase joins nucleotides in one direction only. B) The leading strand of DNA is made continuously. C) The lagging strand of DNA is started by an RNA primer. D) DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome. E) Multiple replication forks are possible on a bacterial chromosome.
R factors carry antibiotic-resistant genes
Why are R factors important in the treatment of infectious diseases?
Can fungi grow on jelly
Yes, jellies have a high concentration of sugar and fungi have a high osmotic pressure
Situation 14.1 239 cases of pneumonia in a town of 300 w/i a 6 month period along with a confirmed case of positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetti in sheep which 20 out of 2000 tested, 15 were positive. Weather with wind from the northwest where the sheep were kept and rainfall was factored in This is an example of
Zoonosis
What contributes to antigenic shift in influenza viruses?
a segmented genome
In Figure 9.2, the enzyme in step 1 is A) RNA polymerase. B) DNA ligase. C) spliceosome. D) DNA polymerase. E) reverse transcriptase
a) RNA polymerase
Intracellular parasite
Encephalitozoon intestinalis -causes chronic diarrhea, eye infection in AIDS patients
Which of the following definitions is incorrect? A. Endemic - Disease constantly present in population B. Epidemic - fraction of the population having a disease at a specific time C. Pandemic - affects a large number of people in the world in a short time. D. Sporadic - affects population occasionally. E. Incidence - number of new cases of a disease
Epidemic - fraction of the population having a disease at a specific time
The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called
Epidemiology
Which of the following organisms is photoautotrophic protozoan?
Euglena
Hemoflagellates are a subgroup of
Euglenoids
Euglenozoa
Euglenoids(photoautotrophs)
Which of the following statements regarding fungi is FALSE? A. Fungi tolerate low moisture conditions. B. Fungi reproduce by forming asexual or sexual spores. C. Most fungi grow well in acidic culture condition. D. Fungi are eukaryotic heterotrophs. F. Most fungi are pathogenic for humans.
F. Most fungi are pathogenic for humans.
Nearly all cells, including E. coli and yeast, naturally take up DNA from their surroundings without chemical treatment.
False
T/F The Ti plasmid isolated from Agrobacterium can be used to insert DNA into any type of plant.
False
T/F The practice of breeding plants and animals for desirable traits, such as high crop yield, is called natural selection.
False
T/F The term biotechnology refers exclusively to the use of genetically engineered organisms for the production of desired products.
False
The Ti plasmid isolated from Agrobacterium can be used to insert DNA into any type of plant.
False
The practice of breeding plants and animals for desirable traits, such as high crop yield, is called natural selection.
False
The term biotechnology refers exclusively to the use of genetically engineered organism for the production of desired products.
False
Forms of different vectors
Fleas, mosquitos,tic and lice
Which infection can cause septicemia?
Focal infection
A needlestick is an example of
Fomite
Why do we harvest Rhodophyta
For agar(not digested by microbial) and carrageenaa(food thinker)
Threes types of Lichens
Fruticose- hair- like, Foliose- leaf-like, Crustose
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
Fungal spores are highly resistant to heat and chemical agents.
Prokaryotic
Genes are interspersed throughout DNA
Answer: E
Genetic change in bacteria can be brought about by A) Mutation. B) Conjugation. C) Transduction. D) Transformation. E) All of the above.
The random shotgun method is used in
Genome sequencing.
Microsporidia
Have no hyphae nor mitochondria and are obligated intracellular (asexual) parasite; Opportunist
Monoecious means
Hermaphroditic (male and female reproductive systems in one animal)
Which statement is false about biological tramsmission? A. The pathogen reproduces in the vector B. The pathogen may enter the host in the vector's feces C. Houseflies are an important vector D. The pathogen may be injected by the bite of the vector E. The pathogen may require the vector as a host
Houseflies are an important vector
-conjugation requires direct cell-to-cell contact. - conjugating cells must generally be of opposite mating type.(donor cells carry the plasmid and recipient cells do not)
How does conjugation differ from transformation?
Which of the following is a fomite? A. Water B. Droplets from a sneeze C. Pus D. Insects E. Hypodermic needle
Hypodermic needle
Answer: A
If you knew the sequence of nucleotides within a gene, which one of the following could you determine with the most accuracy? A) The primary structure of the protein B) The secondary structure of the protein C) The tertiary structure of the protein D) The quaternary structure of the protein E) Can't tell
Answer: D
In Figure 8.1, which colonies are streptomycin-resistant and leucine-requiring? A) 1, 2, 3, and 9 B) 3 and 9 C) 4, 6, and 8 D) 4 and 8 E) 5 and 6
Answer: C
In Figure 8.2, base 2 is attached to A) Ribose. B) Phosphate. C) Deoxyribose. D) Thymine. E) Can't tell.
Answer: B
In Figure 8.2, if base 4 is thymine, what is base 11'? A) Adenine B) Thymine C) Cytosine D) Guanine E) Uracil
Answer: A
In Figure 8.2, if base 4 is thymine, what is base 4'? A) Adenine B) Thymine C) Cytosine D) Guanine E) Uracil
Answer: C
In Figure 8.3, if compound C reacts with the allosteric site of enzyme A, this would exemplify A) A mutation. B) Repression. C) Feedback inhibition. D) Competitive inhibition. E) Transcription.
Answer: C
In Figure 8.3, if enzyme A is a repressible enzyme, compound C would A) Always be in excess. B) Bind to the enzyme. C) Bind to the corepressor. D) Bind to RNA polymerase. E) Bind to gene a.
Answer: B
In Figure 8.3, if enzyme A is an inducible enzyme, A) Compound C would bind to the repressor. B) Compound A would bind to the repressor. C) Compound B would bind to enzyme A. D) Compound A would react with enzyme B. E) Compound C would react with gene a.
Answer: D
In Figure 8.4, the antibiotic chloramphenicol binds the 50S ribosome as shown. From this information you can conclude that chloramphenicol A) Prevents transcription in eukaryotes. B) Prevents translation in eukaryotes. C) Prevents transcription in prokaryotes. D) Prevents translation in prokaryotes. E) Prevents mRNA-ribosome binding.
Answer: D
In Figure 8.5, which model of the lac operon correctly shows RNA polymerase, lactose, and repressor protein when the structural genes are being transcribed? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e
Answer: C
In Table 8.1, if culture 1 mutates to Hfr, what will be the result of conjugation between the two cultures? A) They will both remain the same B) 1 will become F+, leu+, his+; 2 will become F+, leu+, his+ C) 1 will remain the same; Recombination will occur in 2 D) 1 will become F-, leu+, his+; 2 will become Hfr, leu+, his+ E) Can't tell
Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion to classify viruses?
biochemical tests
Entomophaga
biocontrol - control gypie months
Bacteriophages and animal viruses do NOT differ significantly in which one of the following steps?
biosynthesis
The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is called
budding
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
anamorphs — lack spores
bacteriocins
antibiotic-like substances that kill closely related bacteria
Which of the following is a nucleated, unicellular organism that, if you changed the incubation temperature, would form filaments with conidiospores?
ascomycete
Budding yeast divide
asymmetrically -from the mother cell
In figure 13.1, which structure is a complex virus?
b
Genetic information
can be transferred between cells of the same generation
RTF
can carry multiple resistance genes on one plasmid
Seventeen patients in ten hospitals had cutaneous infections caused by Rhizopus. In all seventeen patients, Elastoplast bandages were placed over sterile gauze pads to cover wounds. Fourteen of the patients had surgical wounds, two had venous line insertion sites, and one had a bite wound. Lesions present when the bandages were removed ranged from vesiculopustular eruptions to ulcerations and skin necrosis requiring debridement. Fungi are more likely than bacteria to contaminate bandages because they
can tolerate low-moisture conditions.
The most conclusive evidence that viruses cause cancers is provided by
cancer following injection of cell-free filtrates
The structures illustrated in figure 13.1 are composed of
capsomeres
Alga produce and secrete
carbohydrate
Oncogenic viruses
cause tumors to develop
You observe a mass of amoeba-like cells that swarm together, form a stalk, and produce spores. This is a(n)
cellular slime mold.
Trichoderma
cellulase
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
cestodes — all are free-living
Plasmid
circular piece of DNA with genes different than bacterial chromosome, is required
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
coenocytic hyphae — hyphae with cross-walls
An example of a latent viral infection is
cold sores
Zygomycota
common bread mold
Protozoa reproduce sexually by
conjugation
Continuous cell lines differ from primary cell lines in that
continuous cell lines can be maintained through an indefinite number of generations
The life cycle of the fish tapeworm is similar to that of the beef tapeworm. Which of the following is the most effective preventive measure?
cooking fish before eating
Which of the following is NOT utilized to culture viruses?
culture media
Alga are
cyano bacteria - uses photosynthesis
The encysted larva of the beef tapeworm is called a
cysticercus.
Some protozoa produce
cysts
In mid-December, a woman with insulin-dependent diabetes who had been on prednisone fell and received an abrasion on the dorsal side of her right hand. She was placed on penicillin. By the end of January, the ulcer had not healed, and she was referred to a plastic surgeon. On January 30, a swab of the wound was cultured at 35°C on blood agar. On the same day, a smear was made for Gram staining. The Gram stain showed large (10 µm) cells. Brownish, waxy colonies grew on the blood agar. Slide cultures set up on February 1 and incubated at 25°C showed septate hyphae and single conidia. The most likely cause of the infection is a
dimorphic fungus.
Diatoms produce
domoic acid -neuralgic problems
toxins
e. coli strains, and many others
Which of the following is the most effective control for malaria?
eliminate Anopheles mosquitoes
All fungi cause diseases
false
Protozoa reproduce asexually by
fission, budding and schizogony
Phylum: Platyhelminths
flatworms Class: trematodes (flukes) Class: cestodes (tapeworms)
Why do we harvest Phaeophyta and where are they found
for algin, California
Basidiospore
formed externally on a pedestal (mushrooms)
Ascospore
formed in a sac (ascus)
Ringworm is caused by a(n)
fungus
Helminthic diseases are usually transmitted to humans by
gastrointestinal route.
Plasmids
generally replicate independently of bacterial chromosome
Eukaryotic
genes broken into introns and exons
Cell wall of fungi
glucans; mannans; chitin
Which of the following groups of algae does NOT produce compounds that are toxic to humans?
green algae
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
green algae — prokaryotic
Cutaneous mycoses
hair, skin and nail
A viral species is a group of viruses that
has the same genetic information and ecological niche
All of the following are characteristic of the Platyhelminthes EXCEPT that they
have highly developed digestive and nervous systems.
DNA made from RNA template will be incorporated into the virus capsid of
hepadnaviridae
Viruses that utilize reverse transcriptase belong to the virus families
hepadnaviridae and retroviridae
fungus provides
holdfast
Which of the following arthropods does NOT transmit diseases by sucking blood from a human host?
houseflies
Three weeks after a river rafting trip, three family members experienced symptoms of coughing, fever, and chest pain. During the rafting trip, the family had consumed crayfish that they caught along the river banks. An examination of the patients' sputum revealed helminth eggs, and serum samples were positive for antibodies to Paragonimus. All of the family members recovered following treatment with praziquantel. In the Paragonimus life cycle,
humans are the definitive host and crayfish are the intermediate host.
Recombination
incorporation of DNA into new cell
A viroid is a (n)
infectious piece of RNA without a capsid
Bacteriophage replication differs from animal virus replication because only bacteriophage replication involes
injection of naked nucleic acid into the host cell
If a larva of Echinococcus granulosus is found in humans, humans are the
intermediate host.
In the malaria parasite life cycle, humans are the ________ host, while mosquitoes are the ________ host as well as the vector.
intermediate; definitive
What do tapeworms eat?
intestinal contents
Which of the following statements is NOT true of lysogeny?
its causes lysis of host cells
Coniothyrium minitans
kills fungi
Paecilomyces
kills termites
Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they
lack mitochondria.
Algae grows in
lakes, pounds and oceans
Same viruses, such as human herpesvirus 1, infect a cell without causing symptoms, These are called
latent viruses
Superficial mycoses
localized etc. hair shaft
Bacteriophages derive all of the following from the host cell EXCEPT
lysozyme
The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is
mRNA → cDNA.
Plasmodium vivax causes
malaria
Transposon
may incorporate itself right into a gene, causing disfunction in this gene
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
mosquito — Pneumocystis
Below are paired items referring to the heartworm Dirofilaria immitis. Which of the pairs is mismatched
mosquito — definitive host
Transfer
movement of DNA from one cell to another
Basidiom
mushroom; club fungi
Mass of hyphae
mycelium
Apicomplexa
nonmotile, intracellular parasites, have a complex life cycle
Diatoms store
oil (petroleum)
Assume you have isolated a multicellular heterotrophic organism that produces coenocytic hyphae, motile zoospores, and cellulose cell walls. It is most likely a(n)
oomycote alga.
The definition of lysogeny is
phage DNA is incorporated into the host cell DNA
A clear area against a confluent "lawn" of bacteria is called a
plaque
In the microscope, you observe multinucleated amoeboid cells with sporangia that form spores. This is a(n)
plasmodial slime mold.
A virus's ability to infect an animal cell depends primarily upon the
presence of receptor sites on the cell membrance
An infectious protein is a
prion
Sex Pili
protein structures used by bacteria for transferring DNA during bacterial conjugation
Gene transfer
recombination in prokaryotes occurs where
An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps?
release
Which of the following tends to be more complex in a parasitic helminth than in free-living helminths?
reproductive system
Phylum: Nematoda
roundworms
Ascomycota
sac fungi
Prokaryotic
single molecule of double-stranded
Plasmids
small usually circular extrachromosomal pieces of DNA containing unique genes
Algae Multicelluarity
some
Fission yeast divide
symmetrically -two daughter cells
The following steps occur during biosynthesis of a + strand RNA virus. What is the third step?
synthesis of -strand RNA
Which one of the following steps does NOT occur during multiplication of a picornavirus?
synthesis of DNA
The following steps occur during multiplication of retroviruses. Which is the fourth step?
synthesis of double-stranded DNA
Which of the following would be the first step in biosynthesis of a virus with a -(minus) strand of RNA
synthesis of double-stranded RNA from an RNA templete
Taxomyces
taxol - anticancer drug
Eukaryotic
the DNA strands have a dense histone coat. Non-histone proteins regulate gene expression. These "coated" strands are chromosomes. Human genome has lots of base pairs
A persistent infection is one in which
the disease process occurs gradually over a long period
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
the prophage makes the host cell immune to infection by other phages
A lytic virus has infected a patient. Which of the following would best describe what is happening inside the patient?
the virus is causing the death of the infected cells in the patient
Conjugation
there must be actual physical contact between a donor and recipient bacteria
Complex
these transposons carry other genes
All of the following are characteristic of lichens EXCEPT
they are a symbiotic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan.
Which of the following statements about viral spikes is FALSE?
they are found only on noenveloped viruses
Which of the following statements provides the most significant support for the idea that viruses are nonliving chemicals?
they cannot reproduce themselves outside a host
The cells of plasmodial slime molds can grow to several centimeters in diameter because
they distribute nutrients by cytoplasmic streaming.
Algin
thickener used in ice cream, cake decorations and hand lotions
Donor cell
this cell give a gene away
Recipient
this cell receives a gene
Conjugation
this contact is mediated to be specialized protein structured called sex pili
Assume you have isolated an unknown virus. This virus has a single, positive sense strand of RNA, and possesses an envelope. To which group does it most likely belong?
togavirus
Horizontal transfer
transfer from organism of same generation
Vertical gene transfer
transfer from organisms to offspring Ex: plants, animals
insertion sequence
transposase enzyme
Vegetative form of protozoa
trophozoite
Saccharomyces cerevisiae
used to make bread, wine and vaccines
How do all viruses differ from bacteria?
viruses are not composed of cells
Which of the following statements about viruses is FALSE?
viruses use their own catabolic enzymes
Unicellular fungi are
yeast
Transformation
DNA from one organism is take n up by another, thus conferring new genetic capabilities to the recipient
Prokaryotic
DNA has no histone protein associated with other proteins
Answer: C
DNA is constructed of A) A single strand of nucleotides with internal hydrogen bonding. B) Nucleotides bonded A-C and G-T. C) Two strands of nucleotides running antiparallel. D) Two strands of identical nucleotides with hydrogen bonds between them. E) None of the above.
Generally, in an infection caused by a DNA-containing virus, the host animal cell supplies all of the following EXCEPT
DNA polymerase
Which of the following is most likely a product of an early gene?
DNA polymerase
Prokaryotic
DNA strand is circular
Eukaryotic
DNA strands are linear
Most RNA viruses carry which of the following enzymes?
RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
Resistance transfer factors
RTF carry genes for antibiotic drug
21) Three weeks after a river rafting trip, three family members experienced symptoms of coughing, fever, and chest pain. During the rafting trip, the family had consumed crayfish that they caught along the river banks. An examination of the patients' sputum revealed helminth eggs, and serum samples were positive for antibodies to Paragonimus. All of the family members recovered following treatment with praziquantel. In the Paragonimus life cycle, A) the crayfish are the definitive host and humans are the intermediate host. B) humans are the definitive host and crayfish are the intermediate host. C) both humans and crayfish are intermediate hosts. D) both humans and crayfish are definitive hosts. E) the source of the infection was the river water.
Answer: B
22) A virus's ability to infect an animal cell depends primarily upon the A) host cell's ability to phagocytize viral particles. B) presence of receptor sites on the cell membrane. C) type of viral nucleic acid. D) enzymatic activity of a host cell. E) presence of pili on the host cell wall.
Answer: B
22) The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called A) ecology. B) epidemiology. C) communicable disease. D) morbidity and mortality. E) public health.
Answer: B
24) The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is called A) transduction. B) budding. C) abduction. D) lysogeny. E) penetration.
Answer: B
26) All of the following are characteristic of algae EXCEPT A) most are photoautotrophs. B) they are classified as plants. C) they may be unicellular or multicellular. D) some produce harmful toxins. E) they mostly live in aquatic habitats.
Answer: B
29) Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they A) are motile. B) lack mitochondria. C) lack nuclei. D) do not produce cysts. E) do produce cysts.
Answer: B
29) Which of the following places these items in the correct order for DNA-virus replication? 1. Maturation 2. DNA synthesis 3. Transcription 4. Translation A) 1; 2; 3; 4 B) 2; 3; 4; 1 C) 3; 4; 1; 2 D) 4; 1; 2; 3 E) 4; 3; 2; 1
Answer: B
3) A nosocomial infection is A) always present, but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization. B) acquired during the course of hospitalization. C) always caused by medical personnel. D) only a result of surgery. E) always caused by pathogenic bacteria.
Answer: B
30) A viral species is a group of viruses that A) has the same morphology and nucleic acid. B) has the same genetic information and ecological niche. C) infects the same cells and cause the same disease. D) cannot be defined.
Answer: B
33) You observe a mass of amboeba-like cells that swarm together, form a stalk, and produce spores. This is a(n) A) ascomycete. B) cellular slime mold. C) Euglenozoa. D) tapeworm. E) plasmodial slime mold.
Answer: B
37) An enzyme that makes covalent bonds between nucleotide sequences in DNA is A) RNA polymerase. B) DNA ligase C) DNA helicase. D) transposase. E) DNA polymerase.
Answer: B
39) The cells of plasmodial slime molds can grow to several centimeters in diameter because A) they have organelles. B) they distribute nutrients by cytoplasmic streaming. C) the large surface can absorb nutrients. D) they form spores. E) they have a mouth to ingest nutrients.
Answer: B
4) Seventeen patients in ten hospitals had cutaneous infections caused by Rhizopus. In all seventeen patients, Elastoplast bandages were placed over sterile gauze pads to cover wounds. Fourteen of the patients had surgical wounds, two had venous line insertion sites, and one had a bite wound. Lesions present when the bandages were removed ranged from vesiculopustular eruptions to ulcerations and skin necrosis requiring debridement. Fungi are more likely than bacteria to contaminate bandages because they A) are aerobic. B) can tolerate low-moisture conditions. C) prefer a neutral environment (pH 7). D) have a fermentative metabolism. E) cannot tolerate high osmotic pressure.
Answer: B
40) The yeast Candida albicans does not normally cause disease because of A) symbiotic bacteria. B) antagonistic bacteria. C) parasitic bacteria. D) commensal bacteria. E) other fungi.
Answer: B
41) If a prodromal period exists for a certain disease, it should occur prior to A) incubation. B) illness. C) decline. D) convalescence.
Answer: B
42) Which of the following is most likely a product of an early gene? A) capsid proteins B) DNA polymerase C) envelope proteins D) spike proteins E) lysozyme
Answer: B
43) Yeast infections are caused by A) Aspergillus. B) Candida albicans. C) Histoplasma. D) Penicillium. E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
Answer: B
45) What contributes to antigenic shift in influenza viruses? A) worldwide distribution of the virus B) a segmented genome C) attachment spikes D) ease of virus transmission E) different virus subtypes
Answer: B
5) Which of the following is NOT utilized to culture viruses? A) laboratory animals B) culture media C) embryonated eggs D) animal cell cultures E) bacterial cultures
Answer: B
8) A viroid is a(n) A) complete, infectious virus particle. B) infectious piece of RNA without a capsid. C) capsid without nucleic acid. D) provirus. E) infectious protein.
Answer: B
8) Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT? A) endemic: a disease that is constantly present in a population B) epidemic: a disease that is endemic across the world C) pandemic: a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time D) sporadic: a disease that affects a population occasionally E) incidence: number of new cases of a disease
Answer: B
30) The life cycle of the fish tapeworm is similar to that of the beef tapeworm. Which of the following is the most effective preventive measure? A) salting fish before eating B) refrigerating stored fish C) cooking fish before eating D) wearing gloves while handling fish E) not swimming in fish-infested waters
Answer: C
31) A disease in which the causative agent remains inactive for a time before producing symptoms is referred to as A) subacute. B) subclinical. C) latent. D) zoonotic. E) acute.
Answer: C
Situation 14.1 During a six-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever ≥39°C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A laboratory-confirmed case was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetii. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep tested from the flock, 15 were positive for C. burnetii antibodies. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous three years. 36) Situation 14.1 is an example of A) human reservoirs. B) a zoonosis. C) a nonliving reservoir. D) a vector. E) a focal infection.
Answer: B
1) A commensal bacterium A) does not receive any benefit from its host. B) is beneficial to its host. C) may also be an opportunistic pathogen. D) does not infect its host. E) is beneficial to, and does not infect, its host.
Answer: C
1) A gene is best defined as A) a segment of DNA. B) three nucleotides that code for an amino acid. C) a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional product. D) a sequence of nucleotides in RNA that codes for a functional product. E) a transcribed unit of DNA.
Answer: C
10) The rise in herd immunity amongst a population can directly attributed to A) increased use of antibiotics. B) improved handwashing. C) vaccinations. D) antibiotic-resistant microorganisms. E) None of the answers is correct.
Answer: C
12) Which one of the following does NOT contribute to the incidence of nosocomial infections? A) antibiotic resistance B) lapse in aseptic techniques C) gram-negative cell walls D) lack of handwashing E) lack of insect control
Answer: C
14) A persistent infection is one in which A) the virus remains in equilibrium with the host without causing a disease. B) viral replication is unusually slow. C) the disease process occurs gradually over a long period. D) host cells are gradually lysed. E) host cells are transformed.
Answer: C
14) Which of the following tends to be more complex in a parasitic helminth than in free-living helminths? A) digestive system B) nervous system C) reproductive system D) digestive and nervous systems E) digestive, reproductive, and nervous systems
Answer: C
15) One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in A) body odor. B) fewer diseases. C) increased susceptibility to disease. D) normal microbiota returning immediately. E) no bacterial growth because washing removes their food source.
Answer: C
16) According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the A) end-product must not be in excess. B) substrate must bind to the enzyme. C) substrate must bind to the repressor. D) repressor must bind to the operator. E) repressor must not be synthesized.
Answer: C
16) Lysogeny can result in all of the following EXCEPT A) immunity to reinfection by the same phage. B) acquisition of new characteristics by the host cell. C) immunity to reinfection by any phage. D) specialized transduction. E) phage conversion.
Answer: C
16) Which of the following pairs are mismatched? 1. arthroconidium & formed by fragmentation 2. sporangiospore & formed within hyphae 3. conidiospore & formed in a chain 4. blastoconidium & formed from a bud 5. chlamydoconidium & formed in a sac A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3 C) 2 and 5 D) 3 and 4 E) 4 and 5
Answer: C
18) Helminthic diseases are usually transmitted to humans by A) respiratory route. B) genitourinary route. C) gastrointestinal route. D) vectors. E) aerosols.
Answer: C
19) All of the following are characteristic of the Platyhelminthes EXCEPT that they A) are hermaphroditic. B) are dorsoventrally flattened. C) have highly developed digestive and nervous systems. D) can be divided into flukes and tapeworms. E) are multicellular animals.
Answer: C
19) Which of the following statements about biological transmission is FALSE? A) The pathogen reproduces in the vector. B) The pathogen may enter the host in the vector's feces. C) Houseflies are an important vector. D) The pathogen may be injected by the bite of the vector. E) The pathogen may require the vector as a host.
Answer: C
2) Which of the following statements provides the most significant support for the idea that viruses are nonliving chemicals? A) They are not composed of cells. B) They are filterable. C) They cannot reproduce themselves outside a host. D) They cause diseases similar to those caused by chemicals. E) They are chemically simple.
Answer: C
22) The encysted larva of the beef tapeworm is called a A) redia. B) cercaria. C) cysticercus. D) metacercaria. E) proglottid.
Answer: C
23) Which of the following arthropods does NOT transmit diseases by sucking blood from a human host? A) lice B) fleas C) houseflies D) mosquitoes E) kissing bugs
Answer: C
25) The most conclusive evidence that viruses cause cancers is provided by A) finding oncogenes in viruses. B) the presence of antibodies against viruses in cancer patients. C) cancer following injection of cell-free filtrates. D) treating cancer with antibodies. E) some liver cancer patients having had hepatitis.
Answer: C
27) A definitive host harbors which stage of a parasite? A) miracidium B) cyst C) adult D) larva E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: C
28) Generally, in an infection caused by a DNA-containing virus, the host animal cell supplies all of the following EXCEPT A) RNA polymerase. B) nucleotides. C) DNA polymerase. D) tRNA. E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are supplied by the host animal cell.
Answer: C
29) A researcher has performed a prospective study on the disease tetanus. To which specific kind of epidemiological study is this referring? A) analytical B) case control C) descriptive D) experimental E) prodromal
Answer: C
30) Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation A) replicates DNA. B) transfers DNA vertically, to new cells. C) transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation. D) transcribes DNA to RNA. E) copies RNA to make DNA.
Answer: C
Mechanical transmission
Biting
Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection? A. Botulism B. Tuberculosis C. Measles D. Common cold E. Diphtheria
Botulism
Phaeophyta
Brown algae (kelp)
Which of the following places the steps in the PCR procedure in the correct order? 1) Incubate at 94°C to denature DNA strands; 2) Incubate at 72°C for DNA synthesis; 3) Incubate at 60°C for primer hybridization. A) 1, 2, 3 B) 3; 1; 2 C) 1, 3, 2 D) 2; 1; 3 E) 3, 2, 1
C) 1, 3, 2
Which of the following are used by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention to track outbreaks of foodborne disease? A) reverse-transcriptase PCR (rtPCR) B) DNA fingerprints C) DNA fingerprints, restriction fragment length polymorphisms, and reverse-transcriptase PCR(rtPCR) D) DNA fingerprints and restriction fragment length polymorphisms E) restriction fragment length polymorphisms
C) DNA fingerprints, restriction fragment length polymorphisms, and reverse-transcriptase PCR(rtPCR)
In the Southern blot technique, which of the following is NOT required? A) restriction enzyme digestion of DNA B) electrophoresis to separate fragments C) addition of heat-stable DNA polymerase to amplify DNA D) addition of a labeled probe to identify the gene of interest E) transfer of DNA to nitrocellulose
C) addition of heat-stable DNA polymerase to amplify DNA
A colleague has used computer modeling to design an improved enzyme. To produce this enzyme, the next step is to A) synthesize the gene for the improved enzyme. B) look for a bacterium that makes the improved enzyme. C) determine the nucleotide sequence for the improved enzyme. D) mutate bacteria until one makes the improved enzyme. E) use siRNA to produce the enzyme.
C) determine the nucleotide sequence for the improved enzyme.
The following steps must be performed to make a bacterium produce human protein X. 1-Translation 2-Restriction enzyme 3-Prokaryotic transcription 4-DNA ligase 5-Transformation 6-Eukaryotic transcription 7-Reverse transcription Which of the following places the steps in the correct order? A) 5, 2, 3, 4, 7, 6, 1 B) 6, 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 7 C) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4, 7, 6 D) 6, 7, 2, 4, 5, 3, 1 E) 6, 7, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
D) 6, 7, 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
The Pap test for cervical cancer involves microscopic examination of cervical cells for cancerous cells. A new, rapid diagnostic test to detect human papilloma virus (HPV) DNA before cancer develops is done without microscopic exam. The steps involved in this FastHPV test are listed below. What is the second step? A) Add enzyme substrate. B) Lyse human cells. C) The order is unimportant. D) Add an RNA probe for HPV DNA. E) Add enzyme-linked antibodies against DNA-RNA.
D) Add an RNA probe for HPV DNA.
Which of the following is an advantage of using E. coli to make a human gene product? A) It does not secrete most proteins. B) Endotoxin may be in the product and it does not secrete most proteins. C) Endotoxin may be in the product. D) Its genes are well known. E) It cannot process introns.
D) Its genes are well known.
The following are steps used to make DNA fingerprints. What is the third step? A) Digest with a restriction enzyme. B) Add stain. C) Perform electrophoresis. D) Lyse cells. E) Collect DNA.
D) Lyse cells.
A population of cells carrying a desired plasmid is called a B) PCR. C) vector. D) clone. E) library.
D) clone.
The figure at the left in Figure 9.3 shows a gene identified by Southern blotting. What will a Southern blot of the same gene look like after PCR? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e
D) d
The use of an antibiotic-resistance gene on a plasmid used in genetic engineering makes A) the recombinant cell unable to survive. B) the recombinant cell dangerous. C) replica plating possible. D) direct selection possible. E) All of the answers are correct.
D) direct selection possible.
Which of the following is NOT a desired characteristic of DNA vectors used in gene cloning procedures? A) circular form of DNA or integrates into the host chromosome B) has a selectable marker C) may replicate in several species D) large size E) self-replication
D) large size
Pieces of DNA stored in yeast cells are called a B) vector. C) Southern blot. D) library. E) PCR.
D) library.
The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is A) tRNA → mRNA. B) DNA → DNA. C) DNA → mRNA. D) mRNA → cDNA. E) mRNA → protein.
D) mRNA → cDNA.
The study of genetic material taken directly from the environment is A) forensic microbiology. B) proteomics. C) reverse genetics. D) metagenomics. E) bioinformatics.
D) metagenomics.
The use of "suicide" genes in genetically modified organisms is designed to A) delete genes necessary for modified organism's growth. B) provide for resistance of the modified organisms to pesticides. C) provide a means to eliminate non-modified organisms. D) prevent the growth of the modified organisms in the environment. E) kill the modified organisms before they are released in the environment.
D) prevent the growth of the modified organisms in the environment.
Which of the following processes is NOT involved in making cDNA? A) RNA processing to remove introns B) reverse transcription C) transcription D) translation
D) translation
Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Fungal spores are for asexual or sexual reproduction. B. Fungi produce sexual spores. C. Fungal spores are used in identification of fungi. D. Fungal spores are highly resistant to heat and chemical agents. F. Fungi produce asexual spores.
D. Fungal spores are highly resistant to heat and chemical agents.
Which does NOT contribute to the incidence of nosocomial infections?
Gram-negative cell walls
Algae's Kingdom
Prostisa
Answer: E
Protein synthesis in eukaryotes is similar to the process in prokaryotes in that both eukaryotes and prokaryotes A) Have exons. B) Have introns. C) Require snRNPS. D) Use methionine as the "start" amino acid. E) Use codons to arrange amino acids.
Amebae move by
Pseudopods
Which of the following are used to silence specific genes and hold promise for treating cancer or viral diseases, such as hepatitis B? A) RNA interference (RNAi) B) reverse transcriptase PCR (rtPCR) C) DNA fingerprinting D) tumor-inducing plasmids (Ti plasmids) E) complementary DNA (cDNA)
RNA interference (RNAi)
Which of the following processes is NOT involved in making cDNA? A) RNA processing to remove introns B) translation C) reverse transcription D) transcription
Translation.
Low
Transposition rate is very ______
A shuttle vector is a plasmid that is used to move pieces of DNA among organisms, such as bacterial, fungal, and plant cells.
True
Bioinformatics is the use of computer technology to compare and analyze genome sequence.
True
In recombinant DNA technology, a vector is a self replicating segment of DNA, such as a plasmid or viral genome.
True
One of the first commercial successes of recombinant DNA technology was the production of human insulin using genetically engineered E. coli
True
T/F A shuttle vector is a plasmid that is used to move pieces of DNA among organisms, such as bacterial, fungal, and plant cells.
True
T/F Bioinformatics is the use of computer technology to compare and analyze genome sequence.
True
T/F In recombinant DNA technology, a vector is a self-replicating segment of DNA, such as a plasmid or viral genome.
True
T/F Nearly all cells, including E. coli and yeast, naturally take up DNA from their surroundings without chemical treatment.
True
T/F One of the first commercial successes of recombinant DNA technology was the production of human insulin using genetically engineered E. coli.
True
T/F The Bt toxin derived from Bacillus thuringiensis has been introduced into some crop plants to make them resistant to insect destruction.
True
T/F The disadvantage of genomic libraries over cDNA libraries is that genomic libraries contain gene introns. `
True
The Bt toxin derived from Bacillus thuringiensis has been introduced into some crop plants to make them resistant to insect destruction.
True
The disadvantage of genomic libraries over cDNA libraries is that genomic libraries contain gene introns.
True
Algae's Celluar
Unicelluar,colonial, filamentous, tissues
Plague transmitted by a flea is an example of
Vector
Self-replicating DNA used to transmit a gene from one organism to another is a
Vector.
A cold transmitted by a facial tissue is an example of
Vehicle transmission
In Situation 14.1 the method of transmission of this disease was
Vehicle transmission
Legionellosis transmitted by a grocery story mist machine is an example of
Vehicle transmission
1. Prokaryotes don't have membrane bound organelles 2 No nuclear envelope 3 No histones 4 divide by binary fission and have more complex cell walls that are either 5 slimy or capsulated and PG. 6. Also, prokaryotes usually smaller
What are the 4 differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA