2, Exam chapter 9, Chapter 8 Microbiology, Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics, chapter 9, Microbiology chapter 12, NAS 161----CH. 12, Chapter 13 microbiology, Chapter 14

Table 12.1 1-Arthroconidium 5-Chlamydoconidium 2-Ascospore 6-Conidiospore 3-Basidiospore 7-Sporangiospore 4-Blastoconidium 8-Zygospore In Table 12.1, which of these spores are asexual spores?

1, 4, 5, 6, 7

Eukaryotic

1. 46 molecules of double-stranded (in humans) 2. DNA strands are linear 3. the DNA strands have a dense histone coat. Non-histone proteins regulate gene expression. These "coated" strands are chromosomes. Human genome has lots of base pairs 4. genes broken into introns and exons

Trichomonas vaginalis (Parabasalids)

-causes sexually transmitted infection of the urogential tract

Prokaryotic

1. Single molecule of double-stranded 2. DNA strand is circular 3. DNA has not histone protein associated with other proteins 4. Genes are interspersed throughout DNA

C) Transduction

1. Transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell by a bacteriophage A) Conjugation B) Transcription C) Transduction D) Transformation E) Translation

A) Binary fission

10. Which is NOT a method of horizontal gene transfer A) Binary fission B) Conjugation C) Integration of a transposon D) Transduction E) Transformation

Which of the following pairs are mismatched? 1. arthroconidium — formed by fragmentation 2. sporangiospore — formed within hyphae 3. conidiospore — formed in a chain 4. blastoconidium — formed from a bud 5. chlamydoconidium — formed in a sac

2 and 5

Table 12.1 1-Arthroconidium 5-Chlamydoconidium 2-Ascospore 6-Conidiospore 3-Basidiospore 7-Sporangiospore 4-Blastoconidium 8-Zygospore In Table 12.1, which of these spores are characteristic of Penicillium?

2 and 6

D) Transformation

2. Transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient as naked DNA in solution A) Conjugation B) Transcription C) Transduction D) Transformation E) Translation

Dimorphic fungus mold-like

25°c

Which of the following places these items in the correct order for DNA-virus replication?

2;3;4;1

1. Transformation 2. Conjugation 3. Transduction

3 Types of transfer and recombination

Dimorphic fungus yeast-like

37°c

Eukaryotic

46 molecules of double-stranded (in humans)

Table 12.1 1-Arthroconidium 5-Chlamydoconidium 2-Ascospore 6-Conidiospore 3-Basidiospore 7-Sporangiospore 4-Blastoconidium 8-Zygospore In Table 12.1, which is a thick-walled spore formed as a segment within a hypha?

5

B) Are self-replicated outside the chromosome

6. Plasmids differ from transposons in that plasmids A) Become inserted into chromosomes B) Are self-replicated outside the chromosome C) Move from chromosome to chromosome D) carry genes for antibiotic resistance E) None of the above

Table 12.1 1-Arthroconidium 5-Chlamydoconidium 2-Ascospore 6-Conidiospore 3-Basidiospore 7-Sporangiospore 4-Blastoconidium 8-Zygospore In Table 12.1, which of these spores are characteristic of Rhizopus?

7 and 8

Transposon "jumping genes"

70,000-40,000pb mobile elements can move from one chromosome (same chromosome or different), or chromosome to plasmid

You have a small gene that you wish replicated by PCR. After 3 replication cycles, how many double-stranded DNA molecules do you have?

8 double-stranded DNA molecules.

Pandemic

A disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time

Sporadic

A disease that affects a population occasionally

Endemic

A disease that is constantly present in a population

Answer: C

A gene is best defined as A) A segment of DNA. B) Three nucleotides that code for an amino acid. C) A sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional product. D) A sequence of nucleotides in RNA that codes for a functional product. E) A transcribed unit of DNA.

Algal bloom

A red tide - toxic

A restriction fragment is

A segment of DNA.

The restriction enzyme EcoRI recognizes the sequence G↓AATTC. Which of the following is TRUE of DNA after it is treated with EcoRI? A) All of the DNA fragments will have single-stranded regions ending in AA. B) Some of the DNA will have single-stranded regions ending in AA and others will end in G. C) All of the DNA will have blunt ends. D) All of the DNA fragments will have single-stranded regions ending in G. E) All of the DNA will be circular.

A) All of the DNA fragments will have single-stranded regions ending in AA.

The random shotgun method is used in A) genome sequencing. B) RFLP analysis. C) amplification of unknown DNA. D) forensic microbiology. E) transforming plant cells with recombinant DNA.

A) genome sequencing.

An advantage of cDNA over genomic DNA is that it A) lacks introns. B) lacks exons. C) can form very large DNA segments. D) contains selectable markers. E) is very easy to isolate.

A) lacks introns.

Gene silencing involves all of the following EXCEPT A) production of double stranded RNAs. B) Dicer. C) small interfering RNAs. D) small interfering RNA binding to a gene promoter. E) RNA-induced silencing complex.

A) production of double stranded RNAs.

Which of the following methods would be used to introduce the plasmid shown in Figure 9.5 into E. coli? A) transformation B) Ti plasmids and Agrobacterium C) gene guns D) microinjection

A) transformation

Which of these statement is false regarding fungi A. Most fungi are pathogenic for humans B. Fungi are eukaryotic heterotrophs C. Fungi reproduce by asexual or sexual spores D. Most fungi grow well in acidic conditions E. Fungi tolerate low moisture conditions

A. Most fungi are pathogenic for humans

You are given an unknown, pure sample of a eukaryotic organism. Which of the following tests would allow you to determine if the sample contains algae? A. Place the sample in a clear container filled with media containing no sugars, and leave it in a sunny window. After a few weeks, look for growth of the organism. B. Determine if the organism is unicellular by microscopy. If it is unicellular, it is an alga. C. Perform a biochemical test for the presence of chitin. D. Inject the organism into a lab animal. If it does not cause disease, it is an alga.

A. Place the sample in a clear container filled with media containing no sugars, and leave it in a sunny window.

Which of the following statements is true A. Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together. B. Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other C. A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host. D. Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from each other. E. At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.

A. Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together.

What do tapeworms eat? A. intestinal contents B. red blood cells C. host tissues D. intestinal bacteria E. plant matter

A. intestinal contents

Answer: C

According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the A) End-product must not be in excess. B) Substrate must bind to the enzyme. C) Substrate must bind to the repressor. D) Repressor must bind to the operator. E) Repressor must not be synthesized.

In the Southern blot technique, which of the following is NOT required? A) transfer of DNA to nitrocellulose B) electrophoresis to separate fragments C) addition of heat-stable DNA polymerase to amplify DNA D) restriction enzyme digestion of DNA E) addition of a labeled probe to identify the gene of interest

Addition of heat-stable DNA polymerase to amplify DNA

A definitive host harbors which stage of a parasite?

Adult

What is the mutualistic combination to form Lichens

Alga and fungus

Which of the following pairs is mismatched A. Malaria - vector B. Salmonellosis - vehicle transmission C. Syphilis - direct contact D. Influenza - droplet infection E. All are correctly matched

All are correctly matched

Which of the following statements about helminths is FALSE?

All are parasites.

Which of the following statements about algae is FALSE?

All are unicellular.

Which of the following is NOT a zoonosis? A. Cat-scratch disease B. Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome C. Rabies D. Tapeworm E. All are zoonosis

All are zoonosis

Which is NOT a resevior of infection? A. Sick person B. Healthy person C. Sick animal D. Hospital E. All can be reseviors of infection

All can be reseviors of infection

Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections? A. Using syringes more that once B. Normal microbiota on the operating room staff C. Errors in aseptic technique D. Antibiotic resistance E. All of the above

All of the above

A nosocomial infection is

Always present but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization.

Answer: A

An enzyme produced in response to the presence of a substrate is called A) An inducible enzyme. B) A repressible enzyme. C) A restriction enzyme. D) An operator. E) A promoter.

Answer: A

An enzyme that copies DNA to make a molecule of RNA is A) RNA polymerase. B) DNA ligase. C) Restriction enzyme. D) Transposase. E) DNA polymerase.

Answer: C

An enzyme that cuts double-stranded DNA at specific nucleotide sequences. A) RNA polymerase B) DNA ligase C) Restriction enzyme D) Transposase E) DNA polymerase

Answer: B

An enzyme that makes covalent bonds between nucleotide sequences in DNA is A) RNA polymerase. B) DNA ligase. C) Restriction enzyme. D) Transposase. E) DNA polymerase.

Figure 14.3 shows incidence of polio in the United States. The period between 1945-1955 indicates

An epidemic level

Helmiths' Kingdom

Animalia

1) Which of the following statements regarding fungi is FALSE? A) Most fungi are pathogenic for humans. B) Fungi are eukaryotic heterotrophs. C) Fungi reproduce by forming asexual or sexual spores. D) Most fungi grow well in acidic culture condition. E) Fungi tolerate low moisture conditions.

Answer: A

10) An enzyme produced in response to the presence of a substrate is called a(n) A) inducible enzyme. B) repressible enzyme. C) restriction enzyme. D) operator. E) promoter.

Answer: A

21) Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms A) are changes felt by the patient. B) are changes observed by the physician. C) are specific for a particular disease. D) always occur as part of a syndrome. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer: A

26) Bacteriophages derive all of the following from the host cell EXCEPT A) lysozyme. B) tRNA. C) amino acids. D) nucleotides. E) ATP.

Answer: A

30) The CDC is located in A) Atlanta, GA. B) Washington, DC. C) New York City, NY. D) Las Angeles, CA. E) Chicago, IL.

Answer: A

31) The necessary ingredients for DNA synthesis can be mixed together in a test tube. The DNA polymerase is from Thermus aquaticus, and the template is from a human cell. The DNA synthesized would be most similar to A) human DNA. B) T. aquaticus DNA. C) a mixture of human and T. aquaticus DNA. D) human RNA. E) T. aquaticus RNA.

Answer: A

34) A lytic virus has infected a patient. Which of the following would best describe what is happening inside the patient? A) The virus is causing the death of the infected cells in the patient. B) The virus is not killing any cells in the host. C) The virus is incorporating its nucleic acid with that of the patient's cells. D) The virus is slowly killing the patient's cells. E) The virus is infecting cells and then releasing only small amounts of virus.

Answer: A

34) In which of the following diseases can gender be considered a viable predisposing factor? A) urinary tract infections B) pneumonia C) salmonellosis D) tetanus E) anthrax

Answer: A

34) The mechanism by which the presence of glucose inhibits the arabinose operon is A) catabolite repression. B) translation. C) DNA polymerase. D) repression. E) induction.

Answer: A

35) Some viruses, such as human herpesvirus 1, infect a cell without causing symptoms. These are called A) latent viruses. B) lytic viruses. C) phages. D) slow viruses. E) unconventional viruses.

Answer: A

35) Which of the following is a nucleated, unicellular organism that, if you changed the incubation temperature, would form filaments with conidiospores? A) ascomycete B) cellular slime mold C) euglenozoa D) tapeworm E) plasmodial slime mold

Answer: A

36) If you knew the sequence of nucleotides within a gene, which one of the following could you determine with the most accuracy? A) the primary structure of the protein B) the secondary structure of the protein C) the tertiary structure of the protein D) the quaternary structure of the protein E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

Answer: A

38) An enzyme that copies DNA to make a molecule of RNA is A) RNA polymerase. B) DNA ligase. C) DNA helicase. D) transposase. E) DNA polymerase.

Answer: A

39) The following steps occur during multiplication of retroviruses. Which is the fourth step? A) synthesis of double-stranded DNA B) synthesis of +RNA C) attachment D) penetration E) uncoating

Answer: A

4) Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion to classify viruses? A) biochemical tests B) morphology C) nucleic acid D) size E) number of capsomeres

Answer: A

42) Ringworm is caused by a(n) A) fungus. B) cestode. C) nematode. D) protozoan. E) trematode.

Answer: A

45) You see acid-fast oocysts in a fecal sample from a patient who has diarrhea. What is the MOST likely cause? A) Cryptosporidium B) diatoms C) Entamoeba D) Giardia E) Taenia

Answer: A

5) Which of the following is NOT a product of transcription? A) a new strand of DNA B) rRNA C) tRNA D) mRNA E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are products of transcription.

Answer: A

5) Which of the following statements regarding lichens is FALSE? A) Lichens are very tolerant to pollution. B) Lichens represent a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and an alga. C) Lichens are often the first life form to colonize rock or soil. D) The algal partner produces carbohydrates that are absorbed by the fungal partner. E) The fungal partner provides a means of attachment and protects the algal partner from desiccation.

Answer: A

6) Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection?A) botulism B) tuberculosis C) measles D) the common cold E) diphtheria

Answer: A

7) The definition of lysogeny is A) phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA. B) lysis of the host cell due to a phage. C) the period during replication when virions are not present. D) when the burst time takes an unusually long time. E) attachment of a phage to a cell.

Answer: A

11) When glucose is high, cAMP is _____ : CAP _____ bind the lac operator, and RNA polymerase _____ bind the lac promoter. A) high; does; does B) low; does not; does not C) high; does not; does D) low; does not; does E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer: B

12) Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell A) by a bacteriophage. B) as naked DNA in solution. C) by cell-to-cell contact. D) by crossing over. E) by sexual reproduction.

Answer: B

12) Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE? A) Protozoa are unicellular eukaryotes. B) Nearly all protozoa cause disease. C) Most protozoa reproduce asexually. D) Protozoa are common in water and soil. E) Some protozoan pathogens are transmitted by arthropod vectors.

Answer: B

13) In mid-December, a woman with insulin-dependent diabetes who had been on prednisone fell and received an abrasion on the dorsal side of her right hand. She was placed on penicillin. By the end of January, the ulcer had not healed, and she was referred to a plastic surgeon. On January 30, a swab of the wound was cultured at 35°C on blood agar. On the same day, a smear was made for Gram staining. The Gram stain showed large (10 µm) cells. Brownish, waxy colonies grew on the blood agar. Slide cultures set up on February 1 and incubated at 25°C showed septate hyphae and single conidia. The most likely cause of the infection is a A) gram-negative bacterium. B) dimorphic fungus. C) parasitic alga. D) yeast. E) protozoan.

Answer: B

17) Which of the following would be the first step in biosynthesis of a virus with a - (minus) strand of RNA? A) synthesis of DNA from an RNA template B) synthesis of double-stranded RNA from an RNA template C) synthesis of double-stranded RNA from a DNA template D) transcription of mRNA from DNA E) synthesis of DNA from a DNA template

Answer: B

18) An infectious protein is a A) bacteriophage. B) prion. C) retrovirus. D) viroid. E) papovavirus.

Answer: B

2) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) DNA polymerase — makes a molecule of DNA from a DNA template B) RNA polymerase — makes a molecule of RNA from an RNA template C) DNA ligase — joins segments of DNA D) transposase — insertion of DNA segments into DNA E) DNA gyrase — coils and twists DNA

Answer: B

21) An example of a latent viral infection is A) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. B) cold sores. C) influenza. D) smallpox. E) mumps.

Answer: B

31) Viruses that utilize reverse transcriptase belong to the virus families A) Retroviridae and Picornaviridae. B) Herpesviridae and Retroviridae. C) Hepadnaviridae and Retroviridae. D) Herpesviridae and Poxviridae. E) Rhabdoviridae and Herpesviridae.

Answer: C

31) Which of the following is the most effective control for malaria? A) vaccination B) treating patients C) eliminate Anopheles D) eliminate the intermediate host E) None of these is an effective control.

Answer: C

32) A needlestick is an example of A) direct contact. B) droplet transmission. C) fomite. D) vector. E) vehicle transmission.

Answer: C

32) DNA made from an RNA template will be incorporated into the virus capsid of A) Retroviridae. B) Herpesviridae. C) Hepadnaviridae. D) bacteriophage families. E) influenzavirus.

Answer: C

36) Which of the following organisms is photoautotrophic protozoan? A) oomycote B) cellular slime mold C) Euglena D) Phytophthora E) plasmodial slime mold

Answer: C

37) The etiologic agent of the disease in Situation 14.1 is A) sheep. B) soil. C) Coxiella burnetii. D) pneumonia. E) wind.

Answer: C

38) Which of the following groups of algae does NOT produce compounds that are toxic to humans? A) diatoms B) dinoflagellates C) green algae D) red algae E) None of the answers is correct; all of these groups of algae produce compounds toxic to humans.

Answer: C

4) DNA is constructed of A) a single strand of nucleotides with internal hydrogen bonding. B) two complementary strands of nucleotides bonded A—C and G—T. C) two strands of nucleotides running antiparallel. D) two strands of identical nucleotides with hydrogen bonds between them. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer: C

40) Assume you have isolated a multicellular heterotrophic organism that produces coenocytic hyphae, motile zoospores, and cellulose cell walls. It is most likely a(n) A) ascomycete fungus. B) green alga. C) oomycote alga. D) tapeworm. E) zygomycete fungus.

Answer: C

40) Oncogenic viruses A) cause acute infections. B) are genetically unstable. C) cause tumors to develop. D) are lytic viruses that kill the host cell. E) have no effect on the host cell.

Answer: C

41) If a larva of Echinococcus granulosus is found in humans, humans are the A) definitive host. B) infected host. C) intermediate host. D) reservoir. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer: C

43) Most RNA viruses carry which of the following enzymes? A) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase B) lysozyme C) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase D) reverse transcriptase E) ATP synthase

Answer: C

43) Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery. This is an example of a A) communicable disease. B) latent infection. C) nosocomial infection. D) sporadic disease. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer: C

44) Assume the two E.coli strains shown below are allowed to conjugate. Hfr: pro+, arg+, his+, lys+, met+, ampicillin-sensitive F: pro-, arg-, his-, lys-, met-, ampicillin-resistant What supplements would you add to glucose minimal salts agar to select for a recombinant cell that is lys+, arg+, amp-resistant? A) ampicillin, lysine, arginine B) lysine, arginine C) ampicillin, proline, histidine, methionine D) proline, histidine, methionine E) ampicillin, prolein, histidine, lysine

Answer: C

44) The following steps occur during biosynthesis of a + strand RNA virus. What is the third step? A) attachment B) penetration and uncoating C) synthesis of - strand RNA D) synthesis of + strand RNA E) synthesis of viral proteins

Answer: C

45) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Antimicrobial therapy for hemodialysis-associated infections increases antibiotic resistance. B) S. aureus is differentiated from other mannitol+ cocci by the coagulase test. C) The M in MRSA stands for mannitol. D) The USA100 strain accounts for most hospital-acquired MRSA. E) The USA300 strain accounts for most community-acquired MRSA.

Answer: C

7) Biological transmission differs from mechanical transmission in that biological transmission A) requires an arthropod. B) involves fomites. C) involves specific diseases. D) requires direct contact. E) works only with noncommunicable diseases.

Answer: C

9) Focal infections initially start out as A) sepsis. B) bacteremia. C) local infections. D) septicemia. E) systemic infections.

Answer: C

1) How do all viruses differ from bacteria? A) Viruses are filterable. B) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. C) Viruses do not have any nucleic acid. D) Viruses are not composed of cells. E) Viruses do not reproduce.

Answer: D

11) A clear area against a confluent "lawn" of bacteria is called a A) phage. B) pock. C) cell lysis. D) plaque. E) rash.

Answer: D

11) Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this condition called? A) bacteremia B) focal infection C) local infection D) septicemia E) systemic infection

Answer: D

12) Continuous cell lines differ from primary cell lines in that A) viruses can be grown in continuous cell lines. B) continuous cell lines always have to be re-isolated from animal tissues. C) continuous cell lines are derived from primary cell lines. D) continuous cell lines can be maintained through an indefinite number of generations. E) continuous cell lines are from human embryos.

Answer: D

13) Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota in that transient microbiota A) cause diseases. B) are found in a certain location on the host. C) are always acquired by direct contact. D) are present for a relatively short time. E) never cause disease.

Answer: D

13) Which of the following is necessary for replication of a prion? A) DNA B) DNA polymerase C) lysozyme D) PrPSc E) RNA

Answer: D

14) Which of the following statements regarding a bacterium that is R+ is FALSE? A) It possesses a plasmid. B) R+ can be transferred to a cell of the same species. C) It is resistant to certain drugs and heavy metals. D) It is F+. E) R+ can be transferred to a different species.

Answer: D

15) The initial effect of ionizing radiation on a cell is that it causes A) DNA to break. B) bonding between adjacent thymines. C) base substitutions. D) the formation of highly reactive ions. E) the cells to get hot.

Answer: D

15) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Fungi produce sexual spores. B) Fungi produce asexual spores. C) Fungal spores are used in identification of fungi. D) Fungal spores are highly resistant to heat and chemical agents. E) Fungal spores are for asexual or sexual reproduction.

Answer: D

17) Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is stopped by the A) allosteric transition. B) substrate binding to the repressor. C) corepressor binding to the operator. D) corepressor-repressor complex binding to the operator. E) end product binding to the promoter.

Answer: D

17) Which of the following is NOT a communicable diseases? A) malaria B) AIDS C) tuberculosis D) tetanus E) typhoid fever

Answer: D

2) Which of the following statements about helminths is FALSE? A) They are heterotrophic. B) They are multicellular animals. C) They have eukaryotic cells. D) All are parasites. E) Some have male and female reproductive organs in one animal.

Answer: D

21) The damage caused by ultraviolet radiation is A) never repaired. B) repaired during transcription. C) repaired during translation. D) cut out and replaced. E) repaired by DNA replication.

Answer: D

23) Assume you have isolated an unknown virus. This virus has a single, positive sense strand of RNA, and possesses an envelope. To which group does it most likely belong? A) herpesvirus B) picornavirus C) retrovirus D) togavirus E) papovavirus

Answer: D

24) Which of the following statements about algae is FALSE? A) They use light as their energy source. B) They use CO2 as their carbon source. C) They produce oxygen from hydrolysis of water. D) All are unicellular. E) Some are capable of sexual reproduction.

Answer: D

25) Below are paired items referring to the heartworm Dirofilaria immitis. Which of the pairs is mismatched? A) dog definitive host B) dog sexual reproduction C) mosquito vector D) mosquito definitive host E) None of the pairs is mismatched.

Answer: D

27) Bacteriophage replication differs from animal virus replication because only bacteriophage replication involves A) adsorption to specific receptors. B) assembly of viral components. C) replication of viral nucleic acid. D) injection of naked nucleic acid into the host cell. E) lysis of the host cell.

Answer: D

28) What do tapeworms eat? A) intestinal bacteria B) host tissues C) red blood cells D) intestinal contents E) plant matter

Answer: D

3) Which of the following statements about the oomycote algae is FALSE? A) They form hyphae. B) They produce zoospores in a sporangium. C) They cause plant diseases. D) They have chlorophyll. E) They reproduce sexually.

Answer: D

3) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) DNA polymerase joins nucleotides in one direction only. B) The leading strand of DNA is made continuously. C) The lagging strand of DNA is started by an RNA primer. D) DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome. E) Multiple replication forks are possible on a bacterial chromosome.

Answer: D

33) Which of the following statements about viruses is FALSE? A) Viruses contain DNA or RNA but never both. B) Viruses contain a protein coat. C) Viruses use the anabolic machinery of the cell. D) Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes. E) Viruses have genes.

Answer: D

37) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) tick Rocky Mountain spotted fever B) tick Lyme disease C) mosquito malaria D) mosquito Pneumocystis E) mosquito encephalitis

Answer: D

39) An enzyme that catalyzes the cutting and resealing of DNA, and is translated from insertion sequences, is A) RNA polymerase. B) DNA ligase. C) DNA helicase. D) transposase. E) DNA polymerase.

Answer: D

39) Which of the following is NOT an example of microbial antagonism? A) acid production by bacteria B) bacteriocin production C) bacteria occupying host receptors D) bacteria causing disease E) bacteria producing vitamin K

Answer: D

4) The major significance of Robert Koch's work is that A) microorganisms are present in a diseased animal. B) diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another. C) microorganisms can be cultured. D) microorganisms cause disease. E) microorganisms are the result of disease.

Answer: D

40) Repair of damaged DNA might be viewed as a race between an endonuclease and A) DNA ligase. B) DNA polymerase. C) helicase. D) methylase. E) primase.

Answer: D

41) The cancer gene ras produces mRNA containing an extra exon that includes a number of UAA codons. Cancer cells produce ras mRNA missing this exon. This mistake most likely is due to a mistake by A) a chemical mutagen. B) DNA polymerase. C) photolyases. D) snRNPs. E) UV radiation.

Answer: D

41) Which one of the following steps does NOT occur during multiplication of a picornavirus? A) synthesis of + strands of RNA B) synthesis of - strands of RNA C) synthesis of viral proteins D) synthesis of DNA E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer: D

43) The miRNAs in a cell A) are found in prokaryotic cells. B) are a part of the prokaryotic ribosome. C) are a part of the eukaryotic ribosome. D) allow different cells to produce different proteins. E) are responsible for inducing operons.

Answer: D

44) All of the following are characteristic of lichens EXCEPT A) they are arranged in foliose, fruticose, or crustose morphologies. B) they are a major food source for tundra herbivores. C) they are used as indicators of air pollution. D) they are a symbiotic relationship of a fungus and a protozoan. E) they serve as primary producers in rocky ecosystems.

Answer: D

6) Bacteriophages and animal viruses do NOT differ significantly in which one of the following steps? A) attachment B) penetration C) uncoating D) biosynthesis E) release

Answer: D

11) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) teleomorph — produces both sexual and asexual spores B) dermatomycosis — fungal infection of the skin C) dimorphic fungus — grows as a yeast or a mold D) systemic mycosis — fungal infection of body organs E) coenocytic hyphae — hyphae with cross-walls

Answer: E

13) Genetic change in bacteria can be brought about by A) mutation. B) conjugation. C) transduction. D) transformation. E) All of the answers are correct.

Answer: E

14) Which of the following statements about nosocomial infections is FALSE? A) They occur in compromised patients. B) They may be caused by opportunists. C) They may be caused by drug-resistant bacteria. D) They may be caused by normal microbiota. E) The patient was infected before hospitalization.

Answer: E

15) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) A prophage is phage DNA inserted into a bacterial chromosome. B) A prophage can "pop" out of the chromosome. C) Prophage genes are repressed by a repressor protein coded for by the prophage. D) A prophage may result in new properties of the host cell. E) The prophage makes the host cell immune to infection by other phages.

Answer: E

16) Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection? A) a sick person B) a healthy person C) a sick animal D) a hospital E) None of the answers is correct; all of these can be reservoirs of infection.

Answer: E

17) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) dinoflagellates & paralytic shellfish poisoning B) brown algae & algin C) red algae & agar D) diatoms & petroleum E) green algae & prokaryotic

Answer: E

18) Which of the following is a fomite? A) water B) droplets from a sneeze C) pus D) insects E) a hypodermic needle

Answer: E

19) An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps? A) penetration B) adsorption C) uncoating D) biosynthesis E) release

Answer: E

2) Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) At least one member must not benefit in a symbiotic relationship. B) Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other. C) A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host. D) Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from each other. E) At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.

Answer: E

20) In the malaria parasite life cycle A) humans are the intermediate host. B) mosquitoes are the definitive host. C) mosquitoes are the vector. D) humans are the intermediate host and mosquitos are the definitive host. E) humans are the intermediate host and mosquitoes are both the definitive host and the vector.

Answer: E

20) Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT? A) acute: a short-lasting primary infection B) inapparent: infection characteristic of a carrier state C) chronic: a disease that develops slowly and lasts for months D) primary infection: an initial illness E) secondary infection: a long-lasting illness

Answer: E

20) Which of the following statments is NOT true of lysogeny? A) It can give infected pathogens the genetic information for toxin production. B) Prophage is inserted into the host genome. C) Lytic cycle may follow lysogeny. D) It is a "silent" infection; the virus does not replicate. E) It causes lysis of host cells.

Answer: E

24) Emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of the following EXCEPT A) antibiotic resistance. B) climatic changes. C) new strains of previously known agents. D) ease of travel. E) None of the answers is correct; the emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of these.

Answer: E

25) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) malaria vector B) salmonellosis vehicle transmission C) syphilis direct contact D) influenza droplet infection E) None of the pairs is mismatched.

Answer: E

26) Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections? A) using syringes more than once B) normal microbiota on the operating room staff C) errors in aseptic technique D) antibiotic resistance E) All of the answers are correct.

Answer: E

28) A cold transmitted by a facial tissue is an example of A) direct contact. B) droplet transmission. C) fomite. D) vector. E) vehicle transmission.

Answer: E

3) Which of the following statements about viral spikes is FALSE? A) They are composed of carbohydrate-protein complexes. B) They are used for attachment. C) They may cause hemagglutination. D) They bind to receptors on the host cell surface. E) They are found only on nonenveloped viruses.

Answer: E

32) In the microscope, you observe multinucleated amoeboid cells with sporangia that form spores. This is a(n) A) ascomycete. B) cellular slime mold. C) Euglenozoa. D) tapeworm. E) plasmodial slime mold.

Answer: E

33) Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor of disease? A) lifestyle B) genetic background C) climate D) occupation E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are predisposing factors of disease.

Answer: E

34) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) nematodes — complete digestive tract B) cestodes — segmented body made of proglottids C) trematodes — flukes D) nematodes — many are free-living E) cestodes — all are free-living

Answer: E

35) In which of the following patterns of disease does the patient experience no signs or symptoms? A) prodromal B) decline C) convalescence D) incubation E) incubation and convalescence

Answer: E

35) The mechanism by which the presence of arabinose controls the arabinose operon is A) catabolite repression. B) translation. C) DNA polymerase. D) repression. E) induction.

Answer: E

38) The following steps occur during multiplication of herpesviruses. Which is the third step? A) attachment B) biosynthesis C) penetration D) release E) uncoating

Answer: E

38) The method of transmission of the disease in Situation 14.1 was A) direct contact. B) droplet. C) indirect contact. D) vector-borne. E) vehicle.

Answer: E

42) Which one of the following is NOT a zoonosis? A) cat-scratch disease B) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome C) rabies D) tapeworm E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are zoonoses.

Answer: E

45) Protein synthesis in eukaryotes is similar to the process in prokaryotes in that both eukaryotes and prokaryotes A) have exons. B) have introns. C) require snRNPS. D) use methionine as the "start" amino acid. E) use codons to determine polypeptide sequences.

Answer: E

5) Which of the following is NOT a verified exception in the use of Koch's postulates? A) Some diseases have poorly defined etiologies. B) Some pathogens can cause several disease conditions. C) Some human diseases have no other known animal host. D) Some diseases are not caused by microbes. E) Some diseases are noncommunicable.

Answer: E

6) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Basidiomycota — basidiospores B) Ascomycota — conidiospores C) Zygomycota — sporangiospores D) microsporidia — lack mitochondria E) anamorphs — lack spores

Answer: E

10) Cell-to-cell contact is required for transduction to occur.

Answer: FALSE

10) Most cases of hookworm infection are acquired by ingestion of eggs in contaminated food or water.

Answer: FALSE

2) A viroid is a completely developed infectious agent composed of nucleic acid and surrounded by a capsid.

Answer: FALSE

3) Bacteria typically contain multiple chromosomes.

Answer: FALSE

3) Binomial nomenclature is used to name viruses.

Answer: FALSE

3) MMWR is a publication by the CDC that reports on only emerging diseases.

Answer: FALSE

4) A researcher only needs to select a cohort group when implementing an analytical epidemiological study.

Answer: FALSE

4) Glycoprotein spikes are found on the capsids of all viruses.

Answer: FALSE

4) The Platyhelminthes group includes roundworms, tapeworms, and flukes.

Answer: FALSE

5) Diseases that are referred to as EIDs have only been discovered in the past fifty years.

Answer: FALSE

5) The miRNAs in a cell inhibit protein synthesis by forming complementary bonds with rRNA.

Answer: FALSE

6) Compromised hosts are always suffering from suppressed immune systems.

Answer: FALSE

6) Some organisms may contain multiple genomes.

Answer: FALSE

7) Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus envelope.

Answer: FALSE

7) In helminth life cycles, the organism that harbors the sexually reproductive phase of the parasite is called the intermediate host.

Answer: FALSE

8) Reservoirs of infections are always animate objects.

Answer: FALSE

8) Viruses are the only known infectious agents that are obligatory intracellular parasites.

Answer: FALSE

9) The insect vectors have six legs and include ticks, mosquitoes, and lice.

Answer: FALSE

9) Transposition results in the formation of base substitution mutations in a cell's DNA.

Answer: FALSE

1) For a particular disease at a specific time period, morbidity rates should always be equal or greater than mortality rates.

Answer: TRUE

1) Plasmogamy, karyogamy, and meiosis are stages of the fungal sexual life cycle.

Answer: TRUE

1) Recombination will always alter a cell's genotype.

Answer: TRUE

1) The basic mechanism of viral multiplication is similar for all viruses.

Answer: TRUE

10) Both normal and transient flora can become opportunistic pathogens.

Answer: TRUE

10) Most drugs that interfere with viral multiplication also interfere with host cell function.

Answer: TRUE

2) Arthropod vectors are blood-sucking animals such as ticks, lice, and fleas that transmit microbial pathogens.

Answer: TRUE

2) Open-reading frames are segments of DNA in which both start and stop codons are found.

Answer: TRUE

2) Testing the effectiveness of a new drug for anthrax would be best performed as an experimental study.

Answer: TRUE

3) Cercariae, metacercaria, redia, and sporocysts are all life cycle stages of trematodes.

Answer: TRUE

4) Mutations that are harmful to cells occur more frequently than those that benefit cells.

Answer: TRUE

5) Positive sense RNA strands of viruses are treated like mRNA inside the host cell.

Answer: TRUE

5) Some species of dinoflagellates produce neurotoxins that cause fish kills and red tides.

Answer: TRUE

6) Both the cellular slime molds and the plasmodial slime molds are members of the phylum Amoebozoa.

Answer: TRUE

6) Dogs do not get measles because their cells lack the correct receptor sites for that virus.

Answer: TRUE

7) A host is not considered diseased until an infection changes one's state of health.

Answer: TRUE

7) Both base substitution and frameshift mutations can result in the formation of premature stop codons.

Answer: TRUE

8) In the Ames test, any colonies that form on the control should be the result of spontaneous mutations.

Answer: TRUE

8) The sporozoite, merozoite, gametocyte, and ring stages are all part of the Plasmodium life cycle.

Answer: TRUE

9) A segmented genome can result in antigenic shift.

Answer: TRUE

9) Urinary tract infections are the most common forms of nosocomial infections.

Answer: TRUE

The yeast Candida albicans does not normally cause disease because of

Antagonistic bacteria

What is the endemic level of rotavirus infections? (according to figure 14.2)

Approximately 20%

Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms

Are changes felt by the patient

Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota because transient microbiota

Are present for a relatively short time

Life Cycle of Malaria

Asexual Infected mosquito bites human and release -sporozoitos Sporozoites migrate to liver and under go schizogony and become merozoites Merozoites are released into the bloodstream and infect RBC Merozoites develope into ring stage in the RBC. Ring stage grow and produce merozoites and continues the cycle Sexual -In mosquito(Definitive Host) Mosquito bites and ingest gametocytes Gametocytes unite and produce sporozoites then migrate to salivary glands of mosquito then mosquito infect human again .

Answer: C

Assume the two E.coli strains shown below are allowed to conjugate. Hfr: pro+, arg+, his+, lys+, met+, ampicillin-sensitive F: pro-, arg-, his-, lys-, met-, ampicillin-resistant What supplements would you add to glucose minimal salts agar to select for a recombinant cell that is lys+, arg+, amp-resistant? A) Ampicillin, lysine, arginine B) Lysine arginine C) Ampicillin, proline, histidine, methionine D) Proline, histidine, methionine E) Ampicillin, prolein, histidine, lysine

Graph of influenza during a typical year indicates the endemic level

B

How many pieces will EcoRI produce from the plasmid shown in Figure 9.1? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

B) 2

You have a small gene that you wish replicated by PCR. After 3 replication cycles, how many double-stranded DNA molecules do you have? A) thousands B) 8 C) 2 D) 4 E) 16

B) 8

Which enzyme would cut this strand of DNA? GCATGGATCCCAATGC A) Enzyme Recognition HaeIII GG↓CC CC↑GG B) Enzyme Recognition BamHI G↓GATCC CCCTAG↑G C) Enzyme Recognition Pst ICTGC↓G G↑ACGTC D) Enzyme Recognition EcoRI G↓AATTC CTTAA↑G E) Enzyme Recognition HindIII A↓AGCTT TTCGA↑A

B) Enzyme Recognition BamHI G↓GATCC CCCTAG↑G

A source of heat-stable DNA polymerase is A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae. B) Thermus aquaticus. C) Bacillus thuringiensis. D) Agrobacterium tumefaciens. E) Pseudomonas.

B) Thermus aquaticus.

In Figure 9.5, the marker genes used for selecting recombinant DNA are A) ori. B) ampR and lacZ. C) lacZ and ori. D) ampR and ori. E) HindIII, BamHI, and EcoRI.

B) ampR and lacZ.

Restriction enzymes are A) bacterial enzymes that destroy phage DNA. B) bacterial enzymes that splice DNA. C) animal enzymes that splice RNA. D) viral enzymes that destroy host DNA

B) bacterial enzymes that splice DNA.

Assume you have discovered a cell that produces a lipase that works in cold water for a laundry additive. You can increase the efficiency of this enzyme by changing one amino acid. This is done by A) selection. B) site-directed mutagenesis. C) enrichment. D) irradiating the cells. E) selective breeding.

B) site-directed mutagenesis.

PCR can be used to identify an unknown bacterium because A) all cells have DNA. B) the RNA primer is specific. C) all cells have RNA. D) DNA polymerase will replicate DNA. E) DNA can be electrophoresed.

B) the RNA primer is specific.

Self-replicating DNA used to transmit a gene from one organism to another is a A) PCR. B) vector. C) Southern blot. D) library. E) clone.

B) vector.

Which of the following new chemicals would NOT be effective against Giardia? A. a chemical that inhibits cell division B. a chemical that inhibits the formation of cell walls C. a chemical that inhibits formation of the membrane around the nucleus D. a chemical that inhibits the Krebs cycle

B. a chemical that inhibits the formation of cell walls

Which is NOT an example of microbial antagonism? A. Acid production by bacteria B. Bacteriocin production C. Bacteria occupying host receptors D. bacteria causing disease E. Bacteria producing vitamin K

Bacteria causing disease

Transduction

Bacterial DNA transferred from one cell to another via bacteriophage

Restriction enzymes are

Bacterial enzymes that destroy phage DNA.

Lichens

Bacterium(alga) and fungus

An advantage of synthetic DNA over genomic or cDNA is the ability to A) make DNA from cellular RNA and the enzyme reverse transcriptase. B) obtain genes that lack introns. C) insert desired restriction sites into the DNA sequence. D) obtain genes that lack exons. E) isolate unknown genes.

C) insert desired restriction sites into the DNA sequence.

Which of the following is NOT an agricultural product made by DNA techniques? A) nitrogenase (nitrogen fixation) B) Bacillus thuringiensis insecticide C) pectinase D) frost retardant E) glyphosate-resistant crops

C) pectinase

In Figure 9.2, the enzyme in step 2 is A) DNA polymerase. B) spliceosome. C) reverse transcriptase. D) DNA ligase. E) RNA polymerase.

C) reverse transcriptase.

Biotechnology involves the A) use of microorganisms to make desired products and the use of animal cells to make vaccines. B) development of disease-resistant crop plants. C) use of microorganisms to make desired products, the use of animal cells to make vaccines, and the development of disease-resistant crop plants. D) use of microorganisms to make desired products. E) use of animal cells to make vaccines.

C) use of microorganisms to make desired products, the use of animal cells to make vaccines, and the development of disease-resistant crop plants.

What is the key difference between yeast and mold? A. Yeast is colonial, while mold is multicellular. B. Yeast have cellulose cell walls, while mold has chitin cell walls. C. Yeast is unicellular, while mold is multicellular. D. Yeast is a fungus, while mold is an alga.

C. Yeast is unicellular, while mold is multicellular.

Helminthic diseases are usually transmitted to humans by A. respiratory route. B.vectors. C.gastrointestinal route. D. aerosols. E.genitourinary route.

C.gastrointestinal route.

Yeast infections are caused by

Candida albicans.

Entamoeba and Acanthamoeba

Causes disease

Cryptococcus neoformans

Causes systemic mycosis

Cell wall of Phaeophyta and what do they store

Cellulose and algin; carbohydrates

Cell wall of Rhodophyta and what do they store

Cellulose, glucose polymer

A population of cells carrying a desired plasmid is called a

Clone.

Basidiom are and produce

Club fungi, Basidiospore and sometimes conidopores

Answer: C

Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation A) Replicates DNA. B) Transfers DNA vertically, to new cells. C) Transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation. D) Transcribes DNA to RNA. E) Copies RNA to make DNA.

The etiologic agent of the disease in Situation 14.1 is

Coxiella burnetti

You see acid-fast oocysts in a fecal sample from a patient who has diarrhea. What is the MOST likely cause?

Cryptosporidium

Mosquito

Definitive host (sexual reproduction)

A colleague has used computer modeling to design an improved enzyme. To produce this enzyme, the next step is to

Determine the nucleotide sequence for the improved enzyme.

The Human Genome Project, which was completed in 2003, was focused on

Determining the nucleotide sequence of the entire human genome.

Vertical is from organism to offspring Horizontal is passing genes not only to offspring but to other microbes of same generation laterally

Differentiate horizontal and vertical gene transfer

Algae's Food Acquisition Method

Diffusion

The following are steps used to make DNA fingerprints. What is the third step?

Digest with a restriction enzyme.

A sexually transmitted disease is an example of

Direct contact

Gastroenteritis acquired from roast beef is an example of

Direct contact

The use of an antibiotic-resistance gene on a plasmid used in genetic engineering makes

Direct selection possible.

Mechanical transmission differs from biological transmission in that mechanical transmission

Doesn't involve specific diseases

Influenza transmitted by an unprotected sneeze is an example of

Droplet transmission

The most likely mode of transmission of pneumonic plague between humans is

Droplet transmission

Economic effects of Lichen

Dyes, Antimicrobial (Usnea) Litmus

In Figure 9.1, after digestion with the appropriate restriction enzyme, what is the smallest piece containing the entire ampicillin-resistance (amp) gene? A) 0.17 kbp B) 0.25 kbp C) 3.00 kbp D) 1.08 kbp E) 1.50 kbp

E) 1.50 kbp

You want to determine whether a person has a certain mutant gene. The process involves using a primer and a heat-stable DNA polymerase. This process is A) transformation. B) translation. C) site-directed mutagenesis. D) restriction mapping. E) PCR.

E) PCR.

Which of the following are used to silence specific genes and hold promise for treating cancer or viral diseases, such as hepatitis B? A) DNA fingerprinting B) complementary DNA (cDNA) C) tumor-inducing plasmids (Ti plasmids) D) reverse transcriptase PCR (rtPCR) E) RNA interference (RNAi)

E) RNA interference (RNAi)

A restriction fragment is A) a segment of tRNA. B) a segment of mRNA. C) cDNA. D) a gene. E) a segment of DNA.

E) a segment of DNA.

The Human Genome Project, which was completed in 2003, was focused on A) identifying all of the genes in the human genome. B) cloning all of the genes of the human genome. C) determining all of the proteins encoded by the human genome. D) finding a cure for all human genetic disorders. E) determining the nucleotide sequence of the entire human genome.

E) determining the nucleotide sequence of the entire human genome.

In Figure 9.4, the bacteria transformed with the recombinant plasmid and plated on media containing ampicillin and X-gal will A) form white, ampicillin-sensitive colonies. B) form blue, ampicillin-resistant colonies. C) form blue, ampicillin-sensitive colonies. D) not grow. E) form white, ampicillin-resistant colonies.

E) form white, ampicillin-resistant colonies.

In Figure 9.5, the gene that allows the plasmid to be self-replicating is A) EcoRI. B) lacZ. C) ampR. D) HindIII. E) ori.

E) ori.

In the malaria parasite life cycle A. humans are the intermediate host. B. mosquitoes are the definitive host. C. mosquitoes are the vector. D. humans are the intermediate host and mosquitos are the definitive host. E. humans are the intermediate host and mosquitoes are both the definitive host and the vector.

E. humans are the intermediate host and mosquitoes are both the definitive host and the vector.

Life cycle of Helminths

Egg►Larva►adult

Answer: B

In transcription, A) DNA is changed to RNA. B) DNA is copied to RNA. C) DNA is replicated. D) RNA is copied to DNA. E) Proteins are made.

Regular washing with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota which can result in

Increased suseptibility to disease

An advantage of synthetic DNA over genomic or cDNA is the ability to

Insert desired restriction sites into the DNA sequence.

If you have inserted a gene in the Ti plasmid, the next step in genetic engineering is

Inserting the Ti plasmid into Agrobacterium.

Humans

Intermediate host (asexual reproduction)

Giardia lamblia (Diplomonads)

Intestinal parasite that is common in wild animals and infects humans via contaminated streams or well water

Which of the following is an advantage of using E. coli to make a human gene product?

Its genes are well known.

Another name for brown algae

Kelp

An advantage of cDNA over genomic DNA is that it

Lacks introns.

Superficial algae to deepest algae

Land-Green algae, cyanobacteria, euglenolds Littoral zone- Multicellular green algae Sublittoral zone- Unicellular green algae, Brown algae, Red algae

Which of the following is NOT a desired characteristic of DNA vectors used in gene cloning procedures? A) circular form of DNA or integrates into the host chromosome B) large size C) self-replication D) may replicate in several species E) has a selectable marker

Large size.

Pieces of DNA stored in yeast cells are called a

Library.

Which of the following statements regarding lichens is FALSE?

Lichens are a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan.

Gene silencing blocks an undesirable product by

Making double-stranded RNA.

Epidemic

Many people in a given area acquire a certain disease in a relatively short period

A commensal bacterium

May be an opportunistic pathogen

The study of genetic material taken directly from the environment is

Metagenomics.

Biological transmission

Microbes multiplies in vector ex. malaria in mosquitos

Emergence of infectious diseases can be due to the following except A. Antibiotic resistance B. Climatic changes C. Digging up soil D. Microbes trying to cause disease E. Travel

Microbes trying to cause disease

Which of the following techniques is NOT used to introduce recombinant DNA into plants? A) Ti plasmids and Agrobacterium B) protoplast fusion C) microinjection D) gene guns E) electroporation

Microinjection.

The major significance of Koch's work was that

Microorganisms cause disease

Which of the following statements regarding fungi is FALSE?

Most fungi are pathogenic for humans.

Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE?

Nearly all protozoa cause disease.

Diplomonads

No mitochondria multiple flagella

Parabasalids

No mitochondria, Multiple flagella, no cyst(seed)

Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery. This is an example of

Nosocomial infection

Koch's postulates don't apply to all diseases because

Not all diseases are caused by microorganisms

Plasmids

Occur naturally in bacteria

Aspergillus

Opportunistic, systemic mycosis

You want to determine whether a person has a certain mutant gene. The process involves using a primer and a heat-stable DNA polymerase. This process is

PCR

Dimorphism

Pathogenic dimorphic fungi

Diatom's cell wall

Pectin(jelly) and silica(sand and clay)

Which of the following is NOT an agricultural product made by DNA techniques? A) Bacillus thuringiensis insecticide B) glyphosate-resistant crops C) pectinase D) nitrogenase (nitrogen fixation) E) Endotoxin may be in the product and it does not secrete most proteins.

Pectinase

Algae's Nutritional type

Photoautotroph

Algae's Characteristic Features

Pigments

Which of the following is necessary for replication of a prion?

PrPSc

The use of "suicide" genes in genetically modified organisms is designed to

Prevent the growth of the modified organisms in the environment.

Bacteria

Prokaryotes are 1000x longer than bacteria cells

Meiosis

Recombination occurs where in eukaryotes

Characteristic of Helminths

Reduced digestive system Reduced nervous system Reduced Locomotion Complex reproduction - Asexual or sexual

Answer: D

Repair of damaged DNA might be viewed as a race between an endonuclease and A) DNA ligase. B) DNA polymerase. C) Helicase. D) Methylase. E) Primase.

Another name for Red algae

Rhodophyta

Which of the following definitions is incorrect? A. Acute - a short-lasting primary infection B. Inapparent - infection characteristic of a carrier state C. Chronic - a disease that develops slowly and lasts for months D. Primary infection - an initial illness E. Secondary infection - a long-lasting illness

Secondary infection - a long-lasting illness

Dioecious

Separate reproductive system

Koch observed Bacillis anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this condition called?

Septicemia

Definitive host

Sexual reproduction in vector

Zygospore

Sexual reproduction- fusion of haploid cells (2)

Assume you have discovered a cell that produces a lipase that works in cold water for a laundry additive. You can increase the efficiency of this enzyme by changing one amino acid. This is done by

Site-directed mutagenesis.

Trypanosoma spp(Euglenozoa) causes

Sleeping sickness (Africa) and Chagas' disease (South America)

Fungi reproduce by:

Spores: Asexual, sexual

Haemophilus bacteria require heme protein produced by Staphylococcus bacteria. This is an example of

Synergism

Answer: D

Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is stopped by A) The allosteric transition. B) The substrate binding to the repressor. C) The corepressor binding to the operator. D) The corepressor-repressor binding to the operator. E) The end-product binding to the promoter.

Which type of infection can be caused by septicemia?

Systemic infection

Answer: A

Table 8.1 Culture 1: F+, leucine+, histidine+ Culture 2: F-, leucine-, histidine- In Table 8.1, what will be the result of conjugation between cultures 1 and 2? A) 1 will remain the same; 2 will become F+, leucine-, histidine- B) 1 will become F-, leu+, his+; 2 will become F+, leu-, his- C) 1 will become F-, leu-, his-; 2 will remain the same D) 1 will remain the same; 2 will become F+, leu+, his+ E) 1 will remain the same; 2 will become F+ and recombination may occur

Answer: E

Table 8.2 Codon on mRNA and corresponding amino acid UUA leucine UAA nonsense GCA alanine AAU sparagine AAG lysine UGC cysteine GUU valine UCG, UCU serine (Use Table 8.2.) If a frameshift mutation occurred in the sequence of bases shown below, what would be the sequence of amino acids coded for? 3' ATTACGCTTTGC A) Leucine-arginine-lysine-alanine B) Asparagine-arginine-lysine-alanine C) Asparagine-cysteine-valine-serine D) Translation would stop at the first codon E) Can't tell

Answer: B

Table 8.2 Codon on mRNA and corresponding amino acid UUA leucine UAA nonsense GCA alanine AAU sparagine AAG lysine UGC cysteine GUU valine UCG, UCU serine (Use Table 8.2.) If the sequence of amino acids encoded by a strand of DNA is serine-alanine-lysine-leucine, the coding for the antisense strand of DNA is A) 5' ACAGTTTCAAT B) 5' TCTGCAAAGTTA C) 3' UGUGCAAAGUUA D) 3' UCUCGAAAGUUA E) 3' TCACGUUUCAAU

Answer: D

Table 8.2 Codon on mRNA and corresponding amino acid UUA leucine UAA nonsense GCA alanine AAU sparagine AAG lysine UGC cysteine GUU valine UCG, UCU serine (Use Table 8.2.) The anticodon for valine is A) GUU B) CUU C) CTT D) CAA E) GTA

Answer: D

Table 8.2 Codon on mRNA and corresponding amino acid UUA leucine UAA nonsense GCA alanine AAU sparagine AAG lysine UGC cysteine GUU valine UCG, UCU serine (Use Table 8.2.) What is the sequence of amino acids encoded by the following sequence of bases in a strand of DNA? 3' ATTACGCTTTGC A) Leucine-arginine-lysine-alanine B) Asparagine-arginine-lysine-alanine C) Asparagine-cysteine-valine-serine D) Transcription would stop at the first codon E) Can't tell

Answer: B

Table 8.2 Codon on mRNA and corresponding amino acid UUA leucine UAA nonsense GCA alanine AAU sparagine AAG lysine UGC cysteine GUU valine UCG, UCU serine 22) (Use Table 8.2.) If the sequence of amino acids encoded by a strand of DNA is serine-alanine-lysine-leucine, what is the order of bases in the sense strand of DNA? A) 3' UGUGCAAAGUUA B) 3' AGACGTTTCAAT C) 3' TCTCGTTTGTTA D) 5' TGTGCTTTCTTA E) 5'AGAGCTTTGAAT

Answer: D

Table 8.3 Amino Acids Encoded by the Human p53 Gene Based on the information in Table 8.3, prostate cancer is probably the result of which kind of mutation? A) Analog B) Frameshift C) Missense D) Nonsense E) None of the above

Which is NOT a communicable disease? A. Malaria B. AIDS C. Tuberculosis D. Tetanus E. Typhoid fever

Tetanus

Which of the following statements is false? A. Antimicrobial therapy for hemodialysis-associated infections increases antibiotic resistance. B. S. aureus is differentiated from other mannitol+ cocci by the coagulase test C. The M in MRSA stands for mannitol D. USA100 accounts for most hospital-acquired MRSA. E. USA300 accounts for most community-acquired MRSA

The M in MRSA stands for mannitol

PCR can be used to identify an unknown bacterium because

The RNA primer is specific.

Answer: D

The cancer gene ras produces mRNA containing an extra exon that includes a number of UAA codons. Cancer cells produce ras mRNA missing this exon. This mistake most likely is due to a mistake by A) A chemical mutagen. B) DNA polymerase. C) Photolyases. D) snRNPs. E) UV radiation.

Answer: D

The damage caused by ultraviolet radiation is A) Never repaired. B) Repaired during transcription. C) Repaired during translation. D) Cut out and replaced. E) Repaired by DNA replication.

Answer: D

The initial effect of ionizing radiation on a cell is that it causes A) DNA to break. B) Bonding between adjacent thymines. C) Base substitutions. D) The formation of highly reactive ions. E) The cells to get hot.

Answer: E

The mechanism by which the presence of arabinose controls the arabinose operon is A) Catabolite repression. B) Translation. C) DNA polymerase. D) Repression. E) Induction.

Answer: A

The mechanism by which the presence of glucose inhibits the arabinose operon is A) Catabolite repression. B) Translation. C) DNA polymerase. D) Repression. E) Induction.

Answer: A

The necessary ingredients for DNA synthesis can be mixed together in a test tube. The DNA polymerase is from Thermus aquaticus, and the template is from a human cell. The DNA synthesized would be most similar to A) Human DNA. B) T. aquaticus DNA. C) A mixture of human and T. aquaticus DNA. D) Human RNA. E) T. aquaticus RNA.

Incidence

The number of new cases of a disease

Which statement about nosocomial infections is false A. They occur in compromised patients B. They are casued by opportunists C. They are caused by drug-resistant bacteria D. They are caused by normal microbiota E. The patient was infected before hospitalization.

The patient was infected before hospitalization

A source of heat-stable DNA polymerase is

Thermus aquaticus.

All of the following are characteristic of algae EXCEPT which ONE of the following?

They are currently classified as plants.

Which of the following statements about the oomycote algae is FALSE?

They have chlorophyll.

Answer: B

Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell A) By a bacteriophage. B) As naked DNA in solution. C) By cell-to-cell contact. D) By crossing over. E) By sexual reproduction.

Biotechnology involves the

Use of microorganisms to make desired products, the use of animal cells to make vaccines, and the development of disease-resistant crop plants.

Answer: C

When glucose is high, cAMP is ________ : CAP ________ bind the lac operator, and RNA polymerase ________ bind the lac promoter. A) low, doesn't, doesn't B) high, does, does C) low, doesn't, doesn't D) high, doesn't, does E) low, does, does

Answer: A

Which of the following is NOT a product of transcription? A) A new strand of DNA B) rRNA C) tRNA D) mRNA E) None of the above

Answer: B

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) DNA polymerase - makes a molecule of DNA from a DNA template B) RNA polymerase - makes a molecule of RNA from an RNA template C) DNA ligase - joins segments of DNA D) Transposase - insertion of DNA segments into DNA E) DNA gyrase - coils and twists DNA

Answer: B

Which of the following statements about bacteriocins is false? A) The genes coding for them are on plasmids. B) They cause food-poisoning symptoms. C) Nisin is a bacteriocin used as a food preservative. D) They can be used to identify certain bacteria. E) Bacteriocins kill baceria.

Answer: D

Which of the following statements is false regarding a bacterium that is R+? A) It possesses a plasmid. B) R+ can be transferred to a cell of the same species. C) It is resistant to certain drugs and heavy metals. D) It is F+. E) R+ can be transferred to a different species.

Answer: D

Which of the following statements is false? A) DNA polymerase joins nucleotides in one direction only. B) The leading strand of DNA is made continuously. C) The lagging strand of DNA is started by an RNA primer. D) DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome. E) Multiple replication forks are possible on a bacterial chromosome.

R factors carry antibiotic-resistant genes

Why are R factors important in the treatment of infectious diseases?

Can fungi grow on jelly

Yes, jellies have a high concentration of sugar and fungi have a high osmotic pressure

Situation 14.1 239 cases of pneumonia in a town of 300 w/i a 6 month period along with a confirmed case of positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetti in sheep which 20 out of 2000 tested, 15 were positive. Weather with wind from the northwest where the sheep were kept and rainfall was factored in This is an example of

Zoonosis

What contributes to antigenic shift in influenza viruses?

a segmented genome

In Figure 9.2, the enzyme in step 1 is A) RNA polymerase. B) DNA ligase. C) spliceosome. D) DNA polymerase. E) reverse transcriptase

a) RNA polymerase

Intracellular parasite

Encephalitozoon intestinalis -causes chronic diarrhea, eye infection in AIDS patients

Which of the following definitions is incorrect? A. Endemic - Disease constantly present in population B. Epidemic - fraction of the population having a disease at a specific time C. Pandemic - affects a large number of people in the world in a short time. D. Sporadic - affects population occasionally. E. Incidence - number of new cases of a disease

Epidemic - fraction of the population having a disease at a specific time

The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called

Epidemiology

Which of the following organisms is photoautotrophic protozoan?

Euglena

Hemoflagellates are a subgroup of

Euglenoids

Euglenozoa

Euglenoids(photoautotrophs)

Which of the following statements regarding fungi is FALSE? A. Fungi tolerate low moisture conditions. B. Fungi reproduce by forming asexual or sexual spores. C. Most fungi grow well in acidic culture condition. D. Fungi are eukaryotic heterotrophs. F. Most fungi are pathogenic for humans.

F. Most fungi are pathogenic for humans.

Nearly all cells, including E. coli and yeast, naturally take up DNA from their surroundings without chemical treatment.

False

T/F The Ti plasmid isolated from Agrobacterium can be used to insert DNA into any type of plant.

False

T/F The practice of breeding plants and animals for desirable traits, such as high crop yield, is called natural selection.

False

T/F The term biotechnology refers exclusively to the use of genetically engineered organisms for the production of desired products.

False

The Ti plasmid isolated from Agrobacterium can be used to insert DNA into any type of plant.

False

The practice of breeding plants and animals for desirable traits, such as high crop yield, is called natural selection.

False

The term biotechnology refers exclusively to the use of genetically engineered organism for the production of desired products.

False

Forms of different vectors

Fleas, mosquitos,tic and lice

Which infection can cause septicemia?

Focal infection

A needlestick is an example of

Fomite

Why do we harvest Rhodophyta

For agar(not digested by microbial) and carrageenaa(food thinker)

Threes types of Lichens

Fruticose- hair- like, Foliose- leaf-like, Crustose

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

Fungal spores are highly resistant to heat and chemical agents.

Prokaryotic

Genes are interspersed throughout DNA

Answer: E

Genetic change in bacteria can be brought about by A) Mutation. B) Conjugation. C) Transduction. D) Transformation. E) All of the above.

The random shotgun method is used in

Genome sequencing.

Microsporidia

Have no hyphae nor mitochondria and are obligated intracellular (asexual) parasite; Opportunist

Monoecious means

Hermaphroditic (male and female reproductive systems in one animal)

Which statement is false about biological tramsmission? A. The pathogen reproduces in the vector B. The pathogen may enter the host in the vector's feces C. Houseflies are an important vector D. The pathogen may be injected by the bite of the vector E. The pathogen may require the vector as a host

Houseflies are an important vector

-conjugation requires direct cell-to-cell contact. - conjugating cells must generally be of opposite mating type.(donor cells carry the plasmid and recipient cells do not)

How does conjugation differ from transformation?

Which of the following is a fomite? A. Water B. Droplets from a sneeze C. Pus D. Insects E. Hypodermic needle

Hypodermic needle

Answer: A

If you knew the sequence of nucleotides within a gene, which one of the following could you determine with the most accuracy? A) The primary structure of the protein B) The secondary structure of the protein C) The tertiary structure of the protein D) The quaternary structure of the protein E) Can't tell

Answer: D

In Figure 8.1, which colonies are streptomycin-resistant and leucine-requiring? A) 1, 2, 3, and 9 B) 3 and 9 C) 4, 6, and 8 D) 4 and 8 E) 5 and 6

Answer: C

In Figure 8.2, base 2 is attached to A) Ribose. B) Phosphate. C) Deoxyribose. D) Thymine. E) Can't tell.

Answer: B

In Figure 8.2, if base 4 is thymine, what is base 11'? A) Adenine B) Thymine C) Cytosine D) Guanine E) Uracil

Answer: A

In Figure 8.2, if base 4 is thymine, what is base 4'? A) Adenine B) Thymine C) Cytosine D) Guanine E) Uracil

Answer: C

In Figure 8.3, if compound C reacts with the allosteric site of enzyme A, this would exemplify A) A mutation. B) Repression. C) Feedback inhibition. D) Competitive inhibition. E) Transcription.

Answer: C

In Figure 8.3, if enzyme A is a repressible enzyme, compound C would A) Always be in excess. B) Bind to the enzyme. C) Bind to the corepressor. D) Bind to RNA polymerase. E) Bind to gene a.

Answer: B

In Figure 8.3, if enzyme A is an inducible enzyme, A) Compound C would bind to the repressor. B) Compound A would bind to the repressor. C) Compound B would bind to enzyme A. D) Compound A would react with enzyme B. E) Compound C would react with gene a.

Answer: D

In Figure 8.4, the antibiotic chloramphenicol binds the 50S ribosome as shown. From this information you can conclude that chloramphenicol A) Prevents transcription in eukaryotes. B) Prevents translation in eukaryotes. C) Prevents transcription in prokaryotes. D) Prevents translation in prokaryotes. E) Prevents mRNA-ribosome binding.

Answer: D

In Figure 8.5, which model of the lac operon correctly shows RNA polymerase, lactose, and repressor protein when the structural genes are being transcribed? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

Answer: C

In Table 8.1, if culture 1 mutates to Hfr, what will be the result of conjugation between the two cultures? A) They will both remain the same B) 1 will become F+, leu+, his+; 2 will become F+, leu+, his+ C) 1 will remain the same; Recombination will occur in 2 D) 1 will become F-, leu+, his+; 2 will become Hfr, leu+, his+ E) Can't tell

Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion to classify viruses?

biochemical tests

Entomophaga

biocontrol - control gypie months

Bacteriophages and animal viruses do NOT differ significantly in which one of the following steps?

biosynthesis

The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is called

budding

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

anamorphs — lack spores

bacteriocins

antibiotic-like substances that kill closely related bacteria

Which of the following is a nucleated, unicellular organism that, if you changed the incubation temperature, would form filaments with conidiospores?

ascomycete

Budding yeast divide

asymmetrically -from the mother cell

In figure 13.1, which structure is a complex virus?

b

Genetic information

can be transferred between cells of the same generation

RTF

can carry multiple resistance genes on one plasmid

Seventeen patients in ten hospitals had cutaneous infections caused by Rhizopus. In all seventeen patients, Elastoplast bandages were placed over sterile gauze pads to cover wounds. Fourteen of the patients had surgical wounds, two had venous line insertion sites, and one had a bite wound. Lesions present when the bandages were removed ranged from vesiculopustular eruptions to ulcerations and skin necrosis requiring debridement. Fungi are more likely than bacteria to contaminate bandages because they

can tolerate low-moisture conditions.

The most conclusive evidence that viruses cause cancers is provided by

cancer following injection of cell-free filtrates

The structures illustrated in figure 13.1 are composed of

capsomeres

Alga produce and secrete

carbohydrate

Oncogenic viruses

cause tumors to develop

You observe a mass of amoeba-like cells that swarm together, form a stalk, and produce spores. This is a(n)

cellular slime mold.

Trichoderma

cellulase

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

cestodes — all are free-living

Plasmid

circular piece of DNA with genes different than bacterial chromosome, is required

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

coenocytic hyphae — hyphae with cross-walls

An example of a latent viral infection is

cold sores

Zygomycota

common bread mold

Protozoa reproduce sexually by

conjugation

Continuous cell lines differ from primary cell lines in that

continuous cell lines can be maintained through an indefinite number of generations

The life cycle of the fish tapeworm is similar to that of the beef tapeworm. Which of the following is the most effective preventive measure?

cooking fish before eating

Which of the following is NOT utilized to culture viruses?

culture media

Alga are

cyano bacteria - uses photosynthesis

The encysted larva of the beef tapeworm is called a

cysticercus.

Some protozoa produce

cysts

In mid-December, a woman with insulin-dependent diabetes who had been on prednisone fell and received an abrasion on the dorsal side of her right hand. She was placed on penicillin. By the end of January, the ulcer had not healed, and she was referred to a plastic surgeon. On January 30, a swab of the wound was cultured at 35°C on blood agar. On the same day, a smear was made for Gram staining. The Gram stain showed large (10 µm) cells. Brownish, waxy colonies grew on the blood agar. Slide cultures set up on February 1 and incubated at 25°C showed septate hyphae and single conidia. The most likely cause of the infection is a

dimorphic fungus.

Diatoms produce

domoic acid -neuralgic problems

toxins

e. coli strains, and many others

Which of the following is the most effective control for malaria?

eliminate Anopheles mosquitoes

All fungi cause diseases

false

Protozoa reproduce asexually by

fission, budding and schizogony

Phylum: Platyhelminths

flatworms Class: trematodes (flukes) Class: cestodes (tapeworms)

Why do we harvest Phaeophyta and where are they found

for algin, California

Basidiospore

formed externally on a pedestal (mushrooms)

Ascospore

formed in a sac (ascus)

Ringworm is caused by a(n)

fungus

Helminthic diseases are usually transmitted to humans by

gastrointestinal route.

Plasmids

generally replicate independently of bacterial chromosome

Eukaryotic

genes broken into introns and exons

Cell wall of fungi

glucans; mannans; chitin

Which of the following groups of algae does NOT produce compounds that are toxic to humans?

green algae

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

green algae — prokaryotic

Cutaneous mycoses

hair, skin and nail

A viral species is a group of viruses that

has the same genetic information and ecological niche

All of the following are characteristic of the Platyhelminthes EXCEPT that they

have highly developed digestive and nervous systems.

DNA made from RNA template will be incorporated into the virus capsid of

hepadnaviridae

Viruses that utilize reverse transcriptase belong to the virus families

hepadnaviridae and retroviridae

fungus provides

holdfast

Which of the following arthropods does NOT transmit diseases by sucking blood from a human host?

houseflies

Three weeks after a river rafting trip, three family members experienced symptoms of coughing, fever, and chest pain. During the rafting trip, the family had consumed crayfish that they caught along the river banks. An examination of the patients' sputum revealed helminth eggs, and serum samples were positive for antibodies to Paragonimus. All of the family members recovered following treatment with praziquantel. In the Paragonimus life cycle,

humans are the definitive host and crayfish are the intermediate host.

Recombination

incorporation of DNA into new cell

A viroid is a (n)

infectious piece of RNA without a capsid

Bacteriophage replication differs from animal virus replication because only bacteriophage replication involes

injection of naked nucleic acid into the host cell

If a larva of Echinococcus granulosus is found in humans, humans are the

intermediate host.

In the malaria parasite life cycle, humans are the ________ host, while mosquitoes are the ________ host as well as the vector.

intermediate; definitive

What do tapeworms eat?

intestinal contents

Which of the following statements is NOT true of lysogeny?

its causes lysis of host cells

Coniothyrium minitans

kills fungi

Paecilomyces

kills termites

Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they

lack mitochondria.

Algae grows in

lakes, pounds and oceans

Same viruses, such as human herpesvirus 1, infect a cell without causing symptoms, These are called

latent viruses

Superficial mycoses

localized etc. hair shaft

Bacteriophages derive all of the following from the host cell EXCEPT

lysozyme

The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is

mRNA → cDNA.

Plasmodium vivax causes

malaria

Transposon

may incorporate itself right into a gene, causing disfunction in this gene

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

mosquito — Pneumocystis

Below are paired items referring to the heartworm Dirofilaria immitis. Which of the pairs is mismatched

mosquito — definitive host

Transfer

movement of DNA from one cell to another

Basidiom

mushroom; club fungi

Mass of hyphae

mycelium

Apicomplexa

nonmotile, intracellular parasites, have a complex life cycle

Diatoms store

oil (petroleum)

Assume you have isolated a multicellular heterotrophic organism that produces coenocytic hyphae, motile zoospores, and cellulose cell walls. It is most likely a(n)

oomycote alga.

The definition of lysogeny is

phage DNA is incorporated into the host cell DNA

A clear area against a confluent "lawn" of bacteria is called a

plaque

In the microscope, you observe multinucleated amoeboid cells with sporangia that form spores. This is a(n)

plasmodial slime mold.

A virus's ability to infect an animal cell depends primarily upon the

presence of receptor sites on the cell membrance

An infectious protein is a

prion

Sex Pili

protein structures used by bacteria for transferring DNA during bacterial conjugation

Gene transfer

recombination in prokaryotes occurs where

An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps?

release

Which of the following tends to be more complex in a parasitic helminth than in free-living helminths?

reproductive system

Phylum: Nematoda

roundworms

Ascomycota

sac fungi

Prokaryotic

single molecule of double-stranded

Plasmids

small usually circular extrachromosomal pieces of DNA containing unique genes

Algae Multicelluarity

some

Fission yeast divide

symmetrically -two daughter cells

The following steps occur during biosynthesis of a + strand RNA virus. What is the third step?

synthesis of -strand RNA

Which one of the following steps does NOT occur during multiplication of a picornavirus?

synthesis of DNA

The following steps occur during multiplication of retroviruses. Which is the fourth step?

synthesis of double-stranded DNA

Which of the following would be the first step in biosynthesis of a virus with a -(minus) strand of RNA

synthesis of double-stranded RNA from an RNA templete

Taxomyces

taxol - anticancer drug

Eukaryotic

the DNA strands have a dense histone coat. Non-histone proteins regulate gene expression. These "coated" strands are chromosomes. Human genome has lots of base pairs

A persistent infection is one in which

the disease process occurs gradually over a long period

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

the prophage makes the host cell immune to infection by other phages

A lytic virus has infected a patient. Which of the following would best describe what is happening inside the patient?

the virus is causing the death of the infected cells in the patient

Conjugation

there must be actual physical contact between a donor and recipient bacteria

Complex

these transposons carry other genes

All of the following are characteristic of lichens EXCEPT

they are a symbiotic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan.

Which of the following statements about viral spikes is FALSE?

they are found only on noenveloped viruses

Which of the following statements provides the most significant support for the idea that viruses are nonliving chemicals?

they cannot reproduce themselves outside a host

The cells of plasmodial slime molds can grow to several centimeters in diameter because

they distribute nutrients by cytoplasmic streaming.

Algin

thickener used in ice cream, cake decorations and hand lotions

Donor cell

this cell give a gene away

Recipient

this cell receives a gene

Conjugation

this contact is mediated to be specialized protein structured called sex pili

Assume you have isolated an unknown virus. This virus has a single, positive sense strand of RNA, and possesses an envelope. To which group does it most likely belong?

togavirus

Horizontal transfer

transfer from organism of same generation

Vertical gene transfer

transfer from organisms to offspring Ex: plants, animals

insertion sequence

transposase enzyme

Vegetative form of protozoa

trophozoite

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

used to make bread, wine and vaccines

How do all viruses differ from bacteria?

viruses are not composed of cells

Which of the following statements about viruses is FALSE?

viruses use their own catabolic enzymes

Unicellular fungi are

yeast

Transformation

DNA from one organism is take n up by another, thus conferring new genetic capabilities to the recipient

Prokaryotic

DNA has no histone protein associated with other proteins

Answer: C

DNA is constructed of A) A single strand of nucleotides with internal hydrogen bonding. B) Nucleotides bonded A-C and G-T. C) Two strands of nucleotides running antiparallel. D) Two strands of identical nucleotides with hydrogen bonds between them. E) None of the above.

Generally, in an infection caused by a DNA-containing virus, the host animal cell supplies all of the following EXCEPT

DNA polymerase

Which of the following is most likely a product of an early gene?

DNA polymerase

Prokaryotic

DNA strand is circular

Eukaryotic

DNA strands are linear

Most RNA viruses carry which of the following enzymes?

RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Resistance transfer factors

RTF carry genes for antibiotic drug

21) Three weeks after a river rafting trip, three family members experienced symptoms of coughing, fever, and chest pain. During the rafting trip, the family had consumed crayfish that they caught along the river banks. An examination of the patients' sputum revealed helminth eggs, and serum samples were positive for antibodies to Paragonimus. All of the family members recovered following treatment with praziquantel. In the Paragonimus life cycle, A) the crayfish are the definitive host and humans are the intermediate host. B) humans are the definitive host and crayfish are the intermediate host. C) both humans and crayfish are intermediate hosts. D) both humans and crayfish are definitive hosts. E) the source of the infection was the river water.

Answer: B

22) A virus's ability to infect an animal cell depends primarily upon the A) host cell's ability to phagocytize viral particles. B) presence of receptor sites on the cell membrane. C) type of viral nucleic acid. D) enzymatic activity of a host cell. E) presence of pili on the host cell wall.

Answer: B

22) The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called A) ecology. B) epidemiology. C) communicable disease. D) morbidity and mortality. E) public health.

Answer: B

24) The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is called A) transduction. B) budding. C) abduction. D) lysogeny. E) penetration.

Answer: B

26) All of the following are characteristic of algae EXCEPT A) most are photoautotrophs. B) they are classified as plants. C) they may be unicellular or multicellular. D) some produce harmful toxins. E) they mostly live in aquatic habitats.

Answer: B

29) Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they A) are motile. B) lack mitochondria. C) lack nuclei. D) do not produce cysts. E) do produce cysts.

Answer: B

29) Which of the following places these items in the correct order for DNA-virus replication? 1. Maturation 2. DNA synthesis 3. Transcription 4. Translation A) 1; 2; 3; 4 B) 2; 3; 4; 1 C) 3; 4; 1; 2 D) 4; 1; 2; 3 E) 4; 3; 2; 1

Answer: B

3) A nosocomial infection is A) always present, but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization. B) acquired during the course of hospitalization. C) always caused by medical personnel. D) only a result of surgery. E) always caused by pathogenic bacteria.

Answer: B

30) A viral species is a group of viruses that A) has the same morphology and nucleic acid. B) has the same genetic information and ecological niche. C) infects the same cells and cause the same disease. D) cannot be defined.

Answer: B

33) You observe a mass of amboeba-like cells that swarm together, form a stalk, and produce spores. This is a(n) A) ascomycete. B) cellular slime mold. C) Euglenozoa. D) tapeworm. E) plasmodial slime mold.

Answer: B

37) An enzyme that makes covalent bonds between nucleotide sequences in DNA is A) RNA polymerase. B) DNA ligase C) DNA helicase. D) transposase. E) DNA polymerase.

Answer: B

39) The cells of plasmodial slime molds can grow to several centimeters in diameter because A) they have organelles. B) they distribute nutrients by cytoplasmic streaming. C) the large surface can absorb nutrients. D) they form spores. E) they have a mouth to ingest nutrients.

Answer: B

4) Seventeen patients in ten hospitals had cutaneous infections caused by Rhizopus. In all seventeen patients, Elastoplast bandages were placed over sterile gauze pads to cover wounds. Fourteen of the patients had surgical wounds, two had venous line insertion sites, and one had a bite wound. Lesions present when the bandages were removed ranged from vesiculopustular eruptions to ulcerations and skin necrosis requiring debridement. Fungi are more likely than bacteria to contaminate bandages because they A) are aerobic. B) can tolerate low-moisture conditions. C) prefer a neutral environment (pH 7). D) have a fermentative metabolism. E) cannot tolerate high osmotic pressure.

Answer: B

40) The yeast Candida albicans does not normally cause disease because of A) symbiotic bacteria. B) antagonistic bacteria. C) parasitic bacteria. D) commensal bacteria. E) other fungi.

Answer: B

41) If a prodromal period exists for a certain disease, it should occur prior to A) incubation. B) illness. C) decline. D) convalescence.

Answer: B

42) Which of the following is most likely a product of an early gene? A) capsid proteins B) DNA polymerase C) envelope proteins D) spike proteins E) lysozyme

Answer: B

43) Yeast infections are caused by A) Aspergillus. B) Candida albicans. C) Histoplasma. D) Penicillium. E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

Answer: B

45) What contributes to antigenic shift in influenza viruses? A) worldwide distribution of the virus B) a segmented genome C) attachment spikes D) ease of virus transmission E) different virus subtypes

Answer: B

5) Which of the following is NOT utilized to culture viruses? A) laboratory animals B) culture media C) embryonated eggs D) animal cell cultures E) bacterial cultures

Answer: B

8) A viroid is a(n) A) complete, infectious virus particle. B) infectious piece of RNA without a capsid. C) capsid without nucleic acid. D) provirus. E) infectious protein.

Answer: B

8) Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT? A) endemic: a disease that is constantly present in a population B) epidemic: a disease that is endemic across the world C) pandemic: a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time D) sporadic: a disease that affects a population occasionally E) incidence: number of new cases of a disease

Answer: B

30) The life cycle of the fish tapeworm is similar to that of the beef tapeworm. Which of the following is the most effective preventive measure? A) salting fish before eating B) refrigerating stored fish C) cooking fish before eating D) wearing gloves while handling fish E) not swimming in fish-infested waters

Answer: C

31) A disease in which the causative agent remains inactive for a time before producing symptoms is referred to as A) subacute. B) subclinical. C) latent. D) zoonotic. E) acute.

Answer: C

Situation 14.1 During a six-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever ≥39°C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A laboratory-confirmed case was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetii. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep tested from the flock, 15 were positive for C. burnetii antibodies. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous three years. 36) Situation 14.1 is an example of A) human reservoirs. B) a zoonosis. C) a nonliving reservoir. D) a vector. E) a focal infection.

Answer: B

1) A commensal bacterium A) does not receive any benefit from its host. B) is beneficial to its host. C) may also be an opportunistic pathogen. D) does not infect its host. E) is beneficial to, and does not infect, its host.

Answer: C

1) A gene is best defined as A) a segment of DNA. B) three nucleotides that code for an amino acid. C) a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional product. D) a sequence of nucleotides in RNA that codes for a functional product. E) a transcribed unit of DNA.

Answer: C

10) The rise in herd immunity amongst a population can directly attributed to A) increased use of antibiotics. B) improved handwashing. C) vaccinations. D) antibiotic-resistant microorganisms. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer: C

12) Which one of the following does NOT contribute to the incidence of nosocomial infections? A) antibiotic resistance B) lapse in aseptic techniques C) gram-negative cell walls D) lack of handwashing E) lack of insect control

Answer: C

14) A persistent infection is one in which A) the virus remains in equilibrium with the host without causing a disease. B) viral replication is unusually slow. C) the disease process occurs gradually over a long period. D) host cells are gradually lysed. E) host cells are transformed.

Answer: C

14) Which of the following tends to be more complex in a parasitic helminth than in free-living helminths? A) digestive system B) nervous system C) reproductive system D) digestive and nervous systems E) digestive, reproductive, and nervous systems

Answer: C

15) One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in A) body odor. B) fewer diseases. C) increased susceptibility to disease. D) normal microbiota returning immediately. E) no bacterial growth because washing removes their food source.

Answer: C

16) According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the A) end-product must not be in excess. B) substrate must bind to the enzyme. C) substrate must bind to the repressor. D) repressor must bind to the operator. E) repressor must not be synthesized.

Answer: C

16) Lysogeny can result in all of the following EXCEPT A) immunity to reinfection by the same phage. B) acquisition of new characteristics by the host cell. C) immunity to reinfection by any phage. D) specialized transduction. E) phage conversion.

Answer: C

16) Which of the following pairs are mismatched? 1. arthroconidium & formed by fragmentation 2. sporangiospore & formed within hyphae 3. conidiospore & formed in a chain 4. blastoconidium & formed from a bud 5. chlamydoconidium & formed in a sac A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3 C) 2 and 5 D) 3 and 4 E) 4 and 5

Answer: C

18) Helminthic diseases are usually transmitted to humans by A) respiratory route. B) genitourinary route. C) gastrointestinal route. D) vectors. E) aerosols.

Answer: C

19) All of the following are characteristic of the Platyhelminthes EXCEPT that they A) are hermaphroditic. B) are dorsoventrally flattened. C) have highly developed digestive and nervous systems. D) can be divided into flukes and tapeworms. E) are multicellular animals.

Answer: C

19) Which of the following statements about biological transmission is FALSE? A) The pathogen reproduces in the vector. B) The pathogen may enter the host in the vector's feces. C) Houseflies are an important vector. D) The pathogen may be injected by the bite of the vector. E) The pathogen may require the vector as a host.

Answer: C

2) Which of the following statements provides the most significant support for the idea that viruses are nonliving chemicals? A) They are not composed of cells. B) They are filterable. C) They cannot reproduce themselves outside a host. D) They cause diseases similar to those caused by chemicals. E) They are chemically simple.

Answer: C

22) The encysted larva of the beef tapeworm is called a A) redia. B) cercaria. C) cysticercus. D) metacercaria. E) proglottid.

Answer: C

23) Which of the following arthropods does NOT transmit diseases by sucking blood from a human host? A) lice B) fleas C) houseflies D) mosquitoes E) kissing bugs

Answer: C

25) The most conclusive evidence that viruses cause cancers is provided by A) finding oncogenes in viruses. B) the presence of antibodies against viruses in cancer patients. C) cancer following injection of cell-free filtrates. D) treating cancer with antibodies. E) some liver cancer patients having had hepatitis.

Answer: C

27) A definitive host harbors which stage of a parasite? A) miracidium B) cyst C) adult D) larva E) All of the answers are correct.

Answer: C

28) Generally, in an infection caused by a DNA-containing virus, the host animal cell supplies all of the following EXCEPT A) RNA polymerase. B) nucleotides. C) DNA polymerase. D) tRNA. E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are supplied by the host animal cell.

Answer: C

29) A researcher has performed a prospective study on the disease tetanus. To which specific kind of epidemiological study is this referring? A) analytical B) case control C) descriptive D) experimental E) prodromal

Answer: C

30) Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation A) replicates DNA. B) transfers DNA vertically, to new cells. C) transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation. D) transcribes DNA to RNA. E) copies RNA to make DNA.

Answer: C

Mechanical transmission

Biting

Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection? A. Botulism B. Tuberculosis C. Measles D. Common cold E. Diphtheria

Botulism

Phaeophyta

Brown algae (kelp)

Which of the following places the steps in the PCR procedure in the correct order? 1) Incubate at 94°C to denature DNA strands; 2) Incubate at 72°C for DNA synthesis; 3) Incubate at 60°C for primer hybridization. A) 1, 2, 3 B) 3; 1; 2 C) 1, 3, 2 D) 2; 1; 3 E) 3, 2, 1

C) 1, 3, 2

Which of the following are used by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention to track outbreaks of foodborne disease? A) reverse-transcriptase PCR (rtPCR) B) DNA fingerprints C) DNA fingerprints, restriction fragment length polymorphisms, and reverse-transcriptase PCR(rtPCR) D) DNA fingerprints and restriction fragment length polymorphisms E) restriction fragment length polymorphisms

C) DNA fingerprints, restriction fragment length polymorphisms, and reverse-transcriptase PCR(rtPCR)

In the Southern blot technique, which of the following is NOT required? A) restriction enzyme digestion of DNA B) electrophoresis to separate fragments C) addition of heat-stable DNA polymerase to amplify DNA D) addition of a labeled probe to identify the gene of interest E) transfer of DNA to nitrocellulose

C) addition of heat-stable DNA polymerase to amplify DNA

A colleague has used computer modeling to design an improved enzyme. To produce this enzyme, the next step is to A) synthesize the gene for the improved enzyme. B) look for a bacterium that makes the improved enzyme. C) determine the nucleotide sequence for the improved enzyme. D) mutate bacteria until one makes the improved enzyme. E) use siRNA to produce the enzyme.

C) determine the nucleotide sequence for the improved enzyme.

The following steps must be performed to make a bacterium produce human protein X. 1-Translation 2-Restriction enzyme 3-Prokaryotic transcription 4-DNA ligase 5-Transformation 6-Eukaryotic transcription 7-Reverse transcription Which of the following places the steps in the correct order? A) 5, 2, 3, 4, 7, 6, 1 B) 6, 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 7 C) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4, 7, 6 D) 6, 7, 2, 4, 5, 3, 1 E) 6, 7, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1

D) 6, 7, 2, 4, 5, 3, 1

The Pap test for cervical cancer involves microscopic examination of cervical cells for cancerous cells. A new, rapid diagnostic test to detect human papilloma virus (HPV) DNA before cancer develops is done without microscopic exam. The steps involved in this FastHPV test are listed below. What is the second step? A) Add enzyme substrate. B) Lyse human cells. C) The order is unimportant. D) Add an RNA probe for HPV DNA. E) Add enzyme-linked antibodies against DNA-RNA.

D) Add an RNA probe for HPV DNA.

Which of the following is an advantage of using E. coli to make a human gene product? A) It does not secrete most proteins. B) Endotoxin may be in the product and it does not secrete most proteins. C) Endotoxin may be in the product. D) Its genes are well known. E) It cannot process introns.

D) Its genes are well known.

The following are steps used to make DNA fingerprints. What is the third step? A) Digest with a restriction enzyme. B) Add stain. C) Perform electrophoresis. D) Lyse cells. E) Collect DNA.

D) Lyse cells.

A population of cells carrying a desired plasmid is called a B) PCR. C) vector. D) clone. E) library.

D) clone.

The figure at the left in Figure 9.3 shows a gene identified by Southern blotting. What will a Southern blot of the same gene look like after PCR? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

D) d

The use of an antibiotic-resistance gene on a plasmid used in genetic engineering makes A) the recombinant cell unable to survive. B) the recombinant cell dangerous. C) replica plating possible. D) direct selection possible. E) All of the answers are correct.

D) direct selection possible.

Which of the following is NOT a desired characteristic of DNA vectors used in gene cloning procedures? A) circular form of DNA or integrates into the host chromosome B) has a selectable marker C) may replicate in several species D) large size E) self-replication

D) large size

Pieces of DNA stored in yeast cells are called a B) vector. C) Southern blot. D) library. E) PCR.

D) library.

The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is A) tRNA → mRNA. B) DNA → DNA. C) DNA → mRNA. D) mRNA → cDNA. E) mRNA → protein.

D) mRNA → cDNA.

The study of genetic material taken directly from the environment is A) forensic microbiology. B) proteomics. C) reverse genetics. D) metagenomics. E) bioinformatics.

D) metagenomics.

The use of "suicide" genes in genetically modified organisms is designed to A) delete genes necessary for modified organism's growth. B) provide for resistance of the modified organisms to pesticides. C) provide a means to eliminate non-modified organisms. D) prevent the growth of the modified organisms in the environment. E) kill the modified organisms before they are released in the environment.

D) prevent the growth of the modified organisms in the environment.

Which of the following processes is NOT involved in making cDNA? A) RNA processing to remove introns B) reverse transcription C) transcription D) translation

D) translation

Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Fungal spores are for asexual or sexual reproduction. B. Fungi produce sexual spores. C. Fungal spores are used in identification of fungi. D. Fungal spores are highly resistant to heat and chemical agents. F. Fungi produce asexual spores.

D. Fungal spores are highly resistant to heat and chemical agents.

Which does NOT contribute to the incidence of nosocomial infections?

Gram-negative cell walls

Algae's Kingdom

Prostisa

Answer: E

Protein synthesis in eukaryotes is similar to the process in prokaryotes in that both eukaryotes and prokaryotes A) Have exons. B) Have introns. C) Require snRNPS. D) Use methionine as the "start" amino acid. E) Use codons to arrange amino acids.

Amebae move by

Pseudopods

Which of the following are used to silence specific genes and hold promise for treating cancer or viral diseases, such as hepatitis B? A) RNA interference (RNAi) B) reverse transcriptase PCR (rtPCR) C) DNA fingerprinting D) tumor-inducing plasmids (Ti plasmids) E) complementary DNA (cDNA)

RNA interference (RNAi)

Which of the following processes is NOT involved in making cDNA? A) RNA processing to remove introns B) translation C) reverse transcription D) transcription

Translation.

Low

Transposition rate is very ______

A shuttle vector is a plasmid that is used to move pieces of DNA among organisms, such as bacterial, fungal, and plant cells.

True

Bioinformatics is the use of computer technology to compare and analyze genome sequence.

True

In recombinant DNA technology, a vector is a self replicating segment of DNA, such as a plasmid or viral genome.

True

One of the first commercial successes of recombinant DNA technology was the production of human insulin using genetically engineered E. coli

True

T/F A shuttle vector is a plasmid that is used to move pieces of DNA among organisms, such as bacterial, fungal, and plant cells.

True

T/F Bioinformatics is the use of computer technology to compare and analyze genome sequence.

True

T/F In recombinant DNA technology, a vector is a self-replicating segment of DNA, such as a plasmid or viral genome.

True

T/F Nearly all cells, including E. coli and yeast, naturally take up DNA from their surroundings without chemical treatment.

True

T/F One of the first commercial successes of recombinant DNA technology was the production of human insulin using genetically engineered E. coli.

True

T/F The Bt toxin derived from Bacillus thuringiensis has been introduced into some crop plants to make them resistant to insect destruction.

True

T/F The disadvantage of genomic libraries over cDNA libraries is that genomic libraries contain gene introns. `

True

The Bt toxin derived from Bacillus thuringiensis has been introduced into some crop plants to make them resistant to insect destruction.

True

The disadvantage of genomic libraries over cDNA libraries is that genomic libraries contain gene introns.

True

Algae's Celluar

Unicelluar,colonial, filamentous, tissues

Plague transmitted by a flea is an example of

Vector

Self-replicating DNA used to transmit a gene from one organism to another is a

Vector.

A cold transmitted by a facial tissue is an example of

Vehicle transmission

In Situation 14.1 the method of transmission of this disease was

Vehicle transmission

Legionellosis transmitted by a grocery story mist machine is an example of

Vehicle transmission

1. Prokaryotes don't have membrane bound organelles 2 No nuclear envelope 3 No histones 4 divide by binary fission and have more complex cell walls that are either 5 slimy or capsulated and PG. 6. Also, prokaryotes usually smaller

What are the 4 differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA