21
Which instrument is used frequently in arthroscopies to examine and manipulate internal structures? A. blunt probe B. powered shaver C. spinal needle D. trocar cannula
Blunt Probe
All of the following are examples of equipment used postoperatively on the patient for pain reduction or stimulation of healing factors EXCEPT: A. body exhaust suit B. CPM machine C. electric stimulator D. TNS unit
Body exhaust suit
What is polymethyl methycrylate used for in orthopedic procedures? A. antibiotic irrigation B. bone cement C. cast immobilization D. external fixation
Bone cement
What is the name of a nonpathological small sac that contains synovial fluid? A. bursa B. canaliculi C. ganglion D. osteocytes
Bursa
Chondroma, giant cell, and osteoma are: A. benign neoplasms B. congenital deformities C. malignant neoplasms D. structural osteocyte components
Benign neoplasms
Which bone is the largest found in the foot and is commonly called the heel? A. acetabulum B. calcaneus C. patella D. talus
Calcaneus
Which mineral is stored in the bones and constantly being removed to maintain necessary blood levels? A. calcium B. iron C. magnesium D. zinc
Calcium
In which stage of normal bone healing is there bridging of the fracture site, and cartilage and immature bone provide support? A. inflammation B. cellular proliferation C. callus formation D. remodeling
Callus Formation
What is the medical term for spongy bone? A. cancellous B. cortical C. cranial D. cuboid
Cancellous
What tissue does the acetabular reamer remove? A. cartilage B. fascia C. marrow D. periosteum
Cartilage
Which of the following is a commonly used self-retaining retractor used in total hip arthroplasty procedures? A. Adson-Beckman B. Charnley C. Gelpi D. Weitlaner
Charnley
Which bone is commonly referred to as the collarbone? A. clavicle B. humerus C. scapula D. sternum
Clavicle
Surgeons may call both Bennett and Hohmann retractors by which other name because of their shapes? A. alligator B. cobra C. duck bill D. rat tooth
Cobra
Surgical repair for recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Bankart B. Bristow C. Colles' D. Putti-Platt
Colles'
Which of the following is an acute, emergent condition of compression of neural and vascular structures, usually occurring in the upper and lower extremities following traumatic fractures? A. avascular necrosis B. compartmental syndrome C. delayed union D. malunion
Compartment Syndrome
Which of the following is the hard, dense bone that surrounds the marrow cavity? A. cancellous B. cortical C. cranial D. cuboid
Cortical
What is the purpose of the medial and lateral menisci of the knee? A. cushioning B. lubrication C. nutrition D. stability
Cushioning
The elbow is categorized as which type of joint? A. amphiarthrosis B. coxarthrosis C. diarthrosis D. synarthrosis
Diarthrosis
Which positioning device is frequently used for femoral nailing with leg traction and allows for placement of the C-arm? A. Andrews table B. fracture table C. vacuum beanbag D. Wilson frame
Fracture Table
Which positioning device will be used for ORIF of intertrochanteric femoral fracture? A. Andrews table B. fracture table C. vacuum beanbag D. Wilson frame
Fracture Table
Which condition is commonly known as "bowlegged"? A. coxa valga B. genu varum C. hallus valgus D. tallipes varus
Genu Varum
Which of the following joints has the greatest range of motion? A. acromioclavicular B. coracoclavicular C. glenohumeral D. sternoclavicular
Glenohumeral
Hallus valgus is a condition in which there is a turning outward from the midline found in the: A. great toe B. wrist C. foot D. hip
Great toe
Which type of fracture is characterized as partial and may result from activities such as jumping or jogging? A. avulsion B. comminuted C. greenstick D. oblique
Greenstick
Cannulated screws and nails are designed to follow the path created by a: A. depth gauge B. guide pin C. pilot drill D. reamer
Guide pin
Which portion of the femur articulates with the acetabulum? A. head B. neck C. greater trochanter D. lesser trochanter
Head
Which of the following factors related to bone growth and maintenance is responsible for mineral storage and utilization? A. exercise B. heredity C. hormonal D. nutrition
Hormonal
Which of the following is the longest bone in the upper extremity? A. femur B. humerus C. radius D. ulna
Humerus
What is the term for small, loose bodies in the knee that are constant irritants and may cause excess synovial production, pain, and locking up? A. ganglion cysts B. genu valgum C. joint mice D. bunions
Joint mice
In which joint would a bucket handle tear be found? A. ankle B. hip C. knee D. wrist
Knee
Which medium is frequently used in arthroscopies where the ESU may be used for hemostasis? A. carbon dioxide B. lactated ringers C. nitrous oxide D. normal saline
Lactated Ringer's
What should the surgical technologist have ready to clean bone or tissue from a rongeur? A. antibiotic irrigation B. Freer elevator C. lap sponges D. pulse lavage
Lap sponges
Which orthopedic instrument has the appearance of a turkey foot or eagle's talon? A. beaver knife handle B. Bennett retractor C. Lowman bone holder D. Lambotte osteotome
Lowman bone holder
Which of the following diagnostic procedures does NOT use ionizing radiation? A. arthrography B. bone scan C. CT scan D. MRI scan
MRI Scan
Whose instructions for cleaning, lubricating, and sterilizing powered orthopedic instrumentation must be followed? A. AAMI B. facility policies C. manufacturer
Manufacturer
Amputated limbs may be placed in which of the following for transport to pathology? A. C-arm cover B. cassette cover C. impervious stockinette D. Mayo stand cover
Mayo stand cover
Which bone of the lower extremity is commonly known as the shin bone? A. femur B. fibula C. patella D. tibia
Tibia
What is the MOST common cause of bone fractures? A. poor nutrition B. osteoporosis C. osteosarcoma D. trauma
Trauma
Care must be taken during skin prepping for gangrenous lower extremities prior to amputation to prevent inadvertent dislodging of toes.
True
Double gloving should be done as a routine in orthopedic cases due to exposure to various sharp instruments and potentially jagged bones.
True
Implantable devices made of different alloys can cause breakdown of the device and may cause wound infection.
True
What is the name of a small protuberance of a bone that is an attachment point for muscles or tendons? A. condyle B. groove C. fossa D. tubercle
Tubercle
Which device is sometimes used for achieving and maintaining the lateral position? A. Andrews table B. beach chair positioner C. vacuum beanbag D. Wilson frame
Vacuum beanbag
What is the medical term for a bony prominence projecting from a bone, as in a bunion? A. arthrosis B. exostosis C. osteoclast D. varum
exostosis
What is achieved by wrapping an extremity with an Esmarch bandage prior to inflation of pneumatic tourniquet? A. anesthesia B. antisepsis C. extension D. exsanguinations
exsanguinations
What is a common surgical approach for Colles' fracture? A. arthroscopy B. carpal tunnel release C. external fixation D. open reduction internal fixation
external fixation
Which instrument is used to remove marrow from the canal of long bones for placement of prostheses? A. Brun curette B. Gigli saw C. intramedullary reamer D. suction brush attachment
intramedullary reamer
A Bankart avulsion lesion involves which anatomical structure(s)? A. labrum (cartilage) B. rotator cuff (muscles) C. bicipital groove (tendon) D. acromioclavicular (bone spur)
labrum (cartilage)
Which joint is an example of a condyloid joint? A. acromioclavicular B. femoroacetabular C. patellofemoral D. temporomandibular
temporomandibular
Liston knife, Gigli saw, and Satterlee saw are examples of instruments used for which type of procedure? A. ACL repair B. amputation C. arthroplasty D. arthroscopy
Amputation
Which medical term means moving a body part away from the midline? A. flexion B. abduction C. adduction D. supination
Abduction
Which tendon is the thickest and strongest in the body? A. Achilles B. tibialis anterior C. extensor hallucis longus D. extensor digitorum longus
Achilles
Which ligament of the knee keeps the femur from sliding posteriorly on the tibia and prevents hyperextension of the knee? A. anterior cruciate B. posterior cruciate C. medial collateral D. lateral collateral
Anterior Cruciate
Which of the following describes the appearance of a stellate bone fracture? A. asterisk ( * ) B. back slash ( / ) C. spiral ( S ) D. transverse ( ˜ )
Asterisk (*)
What should the surgical technologist do while the surgeon is using the oscillating saw during open acromioplasty? A. Blot any bleeding bone surfaces carefully with sponge stick. B. Collect bone chips in wound carefully with cupped tissue forceps. C. Drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating. D. Suction smoke from operative site created by heated tissues.
Drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating.
Where is the area of active bone growth? A. cortex B. diaphysis C. epiphyseal plate D. medullary canal
Epiphyseal plate
Which agency requires the documentation and tracking of implantable orthopedic devices? A. AAMI B. CDC C. EPA D. FDA
FDA
Arthroscopic procedures require only one small incision through which all the instruments are passed.
False
There are limited choices of total joint systems available, making standardization routine and uncomplicated.
False
Which joint is an example of a ball-and-socket joint? A. atlantoaxial B. femoroacetabular C. patellofemoral D. temporomandibular
Femoroacetabular
Which of the following is NOT a bone of the pelvis? A. ilium B. pubis C. femur D. ischium
Femur
Which of the following is a long bone that is the largest in the human body? A. cranium B. femur C. ilium D. scapula
Femur
How many stages are involved in normal osteogenesis? A. two B. three C. five D. eight
Five
In adults, red bone marrow that produces red blood cells is mainly found in which type(s) of bone? A. flat and irregular B. long and short C. sesamoid only D. irregular only
Flat and irregular
The term C-arm refers to a(n): A. casting techniques B. extremity deformity C. fluoroscopic machine D. OR table positioning device
Fluoroscopic Machine
Rush, Ender, Russell-Taylor, Trigen, and Kuntscher are examples of flexible, standard, or titanium femoral: A. rods B. nails C. plates D. screws
Nails
What is a serious bone infection that may result from a compound fracture and become chronic later? A. osteoarthritis B. osteoclasts C. osteomyelitis D. osteophytes
Osteomyelitis
Patients in which age group are MOST commonly candidates for total hip arthroplasty? A. neonates B. school-aged C. ages 30 to 50 D. over 65 years
Over 65 years
Which hormone stimulates osteoclasts to break down bone and increase reabsorption of calcium when serum levels are low? A. estrogen B. follicle stimulating C. human growth D. parathyroid
Parathyroid
What is the outside covering of bones that provides some nourishment and protection from infection? A. articular cartilage B. enosteum C. periosteum D. synovial membrane
Periosteum
The proximal end of the radius and C1 on C2 vertebrae are examples of which type of diarthrosis? A. gliding B. hinge C. pivot D. saddle
Pivot
The action of pointing and putting a toe in the water to check the temperature would be an example of which movement? A. circumduction B. eversion C. plantar flexion D. supination
Plantar Flexion
Which piece of equipment is NOT attached to the arthroscope? A. camera head B. inflow and outflow tubing C. light cord D. powered shaver
Powered Shaver
The infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis, and supraspinatus muscles collectively comprise the: A. pelvic girdle B. rotator cuff C. sternal notch D. thoracic cage
Rotator cuff
The acromion process involved in the acromioclavicular joint is part of which of the following bones? A. clavicle B. humerus C. scapula D. sternum
Scapula
Carpal and tarsal bones are classified as which type of bone? A. flat B. irregular C. long D. short
Short
Which type of cast is applied often to children and immobilizes unilateral or bilateral hips and femurs? A. spica B. cylinder C. long leg D. short leg
Spica
All of the following are examples of devices used to anchor both ends of the ACL graft EXCEPT: A. bone screws with spiked washers B. bioabsorbable screws C. Steinman pins D. staples
Steinman pins
Which of the following means a partial separation or dislocation of a joint without any break in the skin? A. complex B. greenstick C. luxation D. subluxation
Subluxation
The connections between the large bones of the skull are categorized as which type of joint? A. amphiarthrosis B. coxarthrosis C. diarthrosis D. synarthrosis
Synarthrosis
What is the name of the deep, round fossa of the hip joint? A. acromium B. acetabulum C. tuberosity D. trochanter
acetabulum
Patients diagnosed with shoulder impingement syndrome would likely undergo: A. acromioplasty B. external fixation C. open reduction, internal fixation D. total shoulder arthroplasty
acromioplasty
Patellar tendon, iliotibial band, and semitendinosus tendon are examples of: A. autografts for ACL repair B. connections for hip movement C. insertion sites for arthroscopic instrumentation D. radiographic landmarks for knee x-ray studies
autografts for ACL repair
Aken, Chevron, McKeever, Keller, and McBride are techniques for which lower extremity procedure? A. above knee amputation (AKA) B. below knee amputation (BKA) C. bunionectomy D. triple arthrodesis
bunionectomy
Which bone is involved in a Colles' fracture? A. ulna B. radius C. scapula D. humerus
radius
A common system of instrumentation for open reduction of hip fractures is DHS, which stands for: A. dislocated hip surgery B. definitive hip support C. dynamic hip screw D. derotational hip stabilizer
dynamic hip screw
Which of the following statements regarding generally safe continuous tourniquet inflation time is CORRECT? A. both upper and lower extremity = 1 hour B. both upper and lower extremity = 1 1/2 hours C. lower extremity = 1 hour; upper extremity = 1 1/2 hours D. lower extremity = 1 1/2 hours; upper extremity = 1 hour
lower extremity = 1 1/2 hours; upper extremity = 1 hour
All of the following are indications for total shoulder arthroplasty EXCEPT: A. chronic arthritis pain B. humeral shaft fracture C. osteonecrosis of humeral head D. moderate impingement syndrome
moderate impingement syndrome
Which method of reducing a fracture carries the highest potential for surgical site infection? A. percutaneous pinning of simple fracture B. external fixator application for Colles' fracture C. closed with cast application for greenstick fracture D. open reduction, internal fixation for compound comminuted fracture
open reduction, internal fixation for compound comminuted fracture
What is the term for the softening of bone in children that is commonly called rickets? A. osteoarthritis B. osteochondrosis C. osteomalacia D. osteomyelitis
osteomalacia
Which of the following would be increased on a serum analysis and indicative of a malignant neoplasm of bone marrow? A. overproduction of immunoglobulins B. human leukocyte antigen C. serum phosphorus D. serum urate
overproduction of immunoglobulins
Which type of suture would be contraindicated for attaching tendon to bone? A. nylon (Nurolon) B. polyglactin 910 (Vicryl) C. polyester (Ethibond) D. stainless steel
polyglactin 910 (Vicryl)
Which component of an arthroscopy system is specific to orthopedics and differs from most laparoscopy/MIS systems? A. camera unit B. video monitor/screen C. fiber-optic light source D. powered shaving system
powered shaving system
In which anatomical structure is the patella contained? A. anterior cruciate ligament B. patellar tendon C. posterior cruciate ligament D. quadriceps tendon
quadriceps tendon
Total knee arthroplasty implant are categorized in all of the following EXCEPT: A. unicompartmental B. bicompartmental C. tricompartmental D. quadricompartmental
quadricompartmental
Which of the following demonstrates the correct order of steps for femoral canal preparation during total hip arthroplasty? A. reamer, rasp, pulse lavage, implant trial B. rasp, implant trial, pulse lavage, reamer C. pulse lavage, reamer, implant trial, rasp D. implant trial, rasp, reamer, pulse lavage
reamer, rasp, pulse lavage, implant trial
Which of the following pathologies is related to a specific autoimmune process that attacks the joints in the body? A. arthralgia B. derangement C. osteoarthritis D. rheumatoid arthritis
rheumatoid arthritis
Axillary nerve injury or detachment of the deltoid from the acromion are: A. indications for Bankart repair B. normal outcomes of total shoulder repair C. serious post-op complications of open acromioplasty D. treated conservatively with steroids and physical therapy
serious post-op complications of open acromioplasty
What type of bone is the patella? A. flat B. irregular C. long D. sesamoid
sesamoid
Which additional PPE is frequently worn by sterile team members during total joint procedures to prevent possible SSI? A. impervious apron under gown B. additional sterile sleeves C. space suit or body exhaust suits D. high-efficiency particulate air masks
space suit or body exhaust suits
