2205 Exam 3: Eyes, Ears, Skin, Burns

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Lymphangitis

___ is streaking frequently seen in cellulitis. If it is present, hospitalization is usually required for parenteral antibiotics.

incisional

An ___ biopsy would remove the entire mole and the tissue borders.

Amblyopia

___, or lazy eye, is reduced visual acuity in one eye.

blue

A ___-tinged tympanum can occur with acute otitis media, which requires immediate care to prevent perforation of the tympanum.

om w/effusion

A feeling of fullness, "popping" of the ear, decreased hearing, and fluid in the middle ear are indications of ___ ___ ____.

shingles

Herpes zoster is the virus associated with varicella and ___.

What causes tinea capitis (ringworm)? a. Virus b. Fungus c. Allergic reaction d. Bacterial infection

The nurse should expect to assess which causative agent in a child with warts? a. Bacteria b. Fungus c. Parasite d. Virus

dacryocystitis

inflammation of the lacrimal sac causing obstruction of the tube draining tears into the nose

viral conjunctivitis

many different causes, symptoms of: tearing, foreign body sensation, redness, and mild photophobia; one common type is easily spread through contaminated swimming pools and direct contact

mydriasis

pupil dilation

xanthelasma

soft, raised yellow plaques occurring on the skin at the inner corners of the eyes

hordeolum

sty; an acute infection of a sebaceous gland of the eyelid

diplopia

the perception of two images of a single object; also known as double vision

aniscoria

unequal diameter of pupils

pinguecula

yellowish mass on the conjunctiva that may be related to exposure to ultraviolet light, dry climates, and dust

miosis

contraction of the pupil

plaque

A ___ is an elevated, flat-topped, firm, rough, superficial papule greater than 1 cm in diameter. It may be coalesced papules.

ptosis

drooping of the upper eyelid

A 35-yr-old female patient states that she is using topical fluorouracil to treat actinic keratoses on her face. Which additional assessment information will be most important for the nurse to obtain? a. History of sun exposure by the patient b. Method of contraception used by the patient c. Length of time the patient has used fluorouracil d. Appearance of the treated areas on the patient's face

A 55-year-old obese patient was diagnosed with candidiasis in the skin folds under her breasts. When the nurse sees her at a follow-up visit 2 months later, she complains that it has returned. She said she applied the medicine for 1 week and stopped because the itching stopped and the cream was messy. Which statement is true regarding fungal infections of the skin? a. Fungal infections often require prolonged therapy. b. The patient has a new infection now. c. The patient needs to apply a dressing if the cream is too messy. d. This infection will probably never be cured.

A 65-yr-old patient is being evaluated for glaucoma. Which information given by the patient has implications for the patient's treatment plan? a. "I take metoprolol (Lopressor) for angina." b. "I take aspirin when I have a sinus headache." c. "I have had frequent episodes of conjunctivitis." d. "I have not had an eye examination for 10 years."

A 72-yr-old patient with age-related macular degeneration (AMD) has just had photodynamic therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates that the discharge teaching has been effective? a. "I will use drops to keep my pupils dilated until my appointment." b. "I will need to use brighter lights to read for at least the next week." c. "I will not use facial lotions near my eyes during the recovery period." d. "I will cover up with long-sleeved shirts and pants for the next 5 days."

A 75-yr-old patient who lives alone at home tells the nurse, "I am afraid of losing my independence because my eyes don't work as well they used to." Which action should the nurse take first? a. Discuss the increased risk for falls that is associated with impaired vision. b. Ask the patient about what type of vision problems are being experienced. c. Explain that there are many ways to compensate for decreases in visual acuity. d. Suggest ways of improving the patient's safety, such as using brighter lighting.

patch

A ___ is a flat, nonpalpable, and irregularly shaped macule that is greater than 1 cm in diameter.

cataract

Classic signs of a ___ include blurred vision and light sensitivity.

petechiae

___ are caused by pinpoint hemorrhages and are associated with a variety of serious disorders such as meningitis and coagulopathies.

astigmatism

defective curvature of the cornea or lens of the eye

glaucoma

It is important to note whether the patient takes any beta-adrenergic blockers because this classification of medications is also used to treat ___, and there may be an increase in adverse effects.

nodule

A ___ is elevated, 1 to 2 cm in diameter, firm, circumscribed, palpable, and deeper in the dermis than a papule.

cyst

A ___ is elevated, circumscribed, palpable, encapsulated, and filled with liquid or semisolid material.

vesicle

A ___ is elevated, circumscribed, superficial, less than 1 cm in diameter, and filled with serous fluid.

pustule

A ___ is elevated, superficial, and similar to a vesicle but filled with purulent fluid.

papule

A ___ is elevated; palpable; firm; circumscribed; less than 1 cm in diameter; and brown, red, pink, tan, or bluish red.

macule

A ___ is flat; nonpalpable; circumscribed; less than 1 cm in diameter; and brown, red, purple, white, or tan.

A child has been diagnosed with bacterial otitis externa and will be receiving eardrops. Which of these eardrops are appropriate for this infection? (Select all that apply.) a. Floxin Otic b. Cortic c. Debrox d. Acetasol HC e. Cipro HC Otic

A child has been diagnosed with impetigo, a skin infection. The nurse anticipates that which drug will be used to treat this condition? a. Spinosad (Natroba) b. Nystatin (Mycostatin) c. Acyclovir (Zovirax) d. Bacitracin

A dark-skinned patient has been admitted to the hospital with chronic heart failure. How would the nurse assess this patient for cyanosis? a. Assess the skin color of the earlobes. b. Apply pressure to the palms of the hands. c. Check the lips and oral mucous membranes. d. Examine capillary refill time of the nail beds.

A father calls the emergency department nurse saying that his daughter's eyes burn after getting some dishwasher detergent in them. The nurse recommends that the child be seen in the emergency department or by an ophthalmologist. The nurse also should recommend which action before the child is transported? a. Keep eyes closed. b. Apply cold compresses. c. Irrigate eyes copiously with tap water for 20 minutes. d. Prepare a normal saline solution (salt and water) and irrigate eyes for 20 minutes.

A female patient has been taking isotretinoin (Amnesteem) for 3 months. During a follow-up appointment, which statement by the patient would be of highest concern to the nurse? a. "I am using two forms of contraception while on this drug." b. "I have been feeling rather down and lonely lately." c. "I wish I didn't have to be on this medication." d. "It's scary to know that this drug can cause birth defects."

A female patient will be starting therapy with oral isotretinoin (Amnesteem) as part of treatment for severe acne, and the nurse is providing teaching. Which teaching point will the nurse include in her teaching plan about isotretinoin? a. "You will have to use two contraceptive methods while on this drug." b. "You must avoid sexual activity while on this drug." c. "You will have to avoid pregnancy for 2 weeks after taking this drug." d. "If you are taking an oral contraceptive, you may take this drug."

A nurse is caring for a hearing-impaired child who lip reads. The nurse should plan which intervention to facilitate lipreading? a. Speak at an even rate. b. Exaggerate pronunciation of words. c. Avoid using facial expressions. d. Repeat in exactly the same way if the child does not understand.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has burns of the ears, head, neck, and right arm and hand. The nurse should place the patient in which position? a. Place the right arm and hand flexed in a position of comfort. b. Elevate the right arm and hand on pillows and extend the fingers. c. Assist the patient to a supine position with a small pillow under the head. d. Position the patient in a side-lying position with rolled towel under the neck.

ade

A nurse is instructing a nursing assistant on techniques to facilitate lipreading with a hearing-impaired child who lip reads. Which techniques should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Speak at eye level. b. Stand at a distance from the child. c. Speak words in a loud tone. d. Use facial expressions while speaking. e. Keep sentences short.

A nurse is preparing a teaching session for parents on prevention of childhood hearing loss. What is the most common cause of hearing impairment in children? a. Auditory nerve damage b. Congenital ear defects c. Congenital rubella d. Chronic otitis media

A nurse is preparing to perform a dressing change on a 6-year-old child with mild cognitive impairment (CI) who sustained a minor burn. Which strategy should the nurse use to prepare the child for this procedure? a. Verbally explain what will be done. b. Have the child watch a video on dressing changes. c. Demonstrate a dressing change on a doll. d. Explain the importance of keeping the burn area clean.

A nurse is preparing to test a school-age child's vision. Which eye chart should the nurse use? a. Denver Eye Screening Test b. Allen picture card test c. Ishihara vision test d. Snellen letter chart

abe

A nurse is teaching a patient with contact dermatitis of the arms and legs about ways to decrease pruritus. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching plan (select all that apply)? a. Cool, wet cloths or compresses can be used to reduce itching. b. Take cool or tepid baths several times daily to decrease itching. c. Add oil to your bath water to aid in moisturizing the affected skin. d. Rub yourself dry with a towel after bathing to prevent skin maceration. e. Use of an over-the-counter (OTC) antihistamine can reduce scratching.

A nurse should include which instructions when teaching a patient with repeated hordeolum how to prevent further infection? a. Apply cold compresses. b. Discard used eye cosmetics. c. Wash the scalp and eyebrows with an antiseborrheic shampoo. d. Be examined for recurrent sexually transmitted infections (STIs).

A nurse should instruct a patient with recurrent staphylococcal and seborrheic blepharitis to a. irrigate the eyes with saline solution. b. schedule an appointment for eye surgery. c. use a gentle baby shampoo to clean the eyelids. d. apply cool compresses to the eyes three times daily.

A nurse should suspect possible visual impairment in a child who displays which characteristic? a. Excessive rubbing of the eyes b. Rapid lateral movement of the eyes c. Delay in speech development d. Lack of interest in casual conversation with peers

A parent reports to the nurse that her child has inflamed conjunctivae of both eyes with purulent drainage and crusting of the eyelids, especially on awakening. These manifestations suggest: a. viral conjunctivitis. b. allergic conjunctivitis. c. bacterial conjunctivitis. d. conjunctivitis caused by foreign body.

A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of eye itching and pain after sleeping with contact lenses in place. To facilitate further examination of the eye, fluorescein angiography is ordered. The nurse will teach the patient to a. hold a card and fixate on the center dot. b. report any burning or pain at the IV site. c. remain still while the cornea is anesthetized. d. let the examiner know when images shown appear clear.

A patient arrives in the emergency department with facial and chest burns caused by a house fire. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Auscultate the patient's lung sounds. b. Determine the extent and depth of the burns. c. Give the prescribed hydromorphone (Dilaudid). d. Infuse the prescribed lactated Ringer's solution.

A patient complains of dizziness when bending over and of nausea and dizziness associated with physical activities. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about a. tympanometry. b. rotary chair testing. c. pure-tone audiometry. d. bone-conduction testing.

A patient diagnosed with external otitis is being discharged from the emergency department with an ear wick in place. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will apply the eardrops to the cotton wick in the ear canal." b. "I can use aspirin or acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain relief." c. "I will clean the ear canal daily with a cotton-tipped applicator." d. "I can use warm compresses to the outside of the ear for comfort."

A patient has a new prescription for an antiglaucoma eyedrop. The next day, she calls the clinic and states, "The package insert says this medication might make my blue eyes turn brown! Is this true?" The nurse realizes that the patient has a prescription for which eye medication? a. Latanoprost (Xalatan), a prostaglandin agonist b. Dorzolamide (Trusopt), an ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor c. Betaxolol (Betoptic), a direct-acting beta blocker d. Pilocarpine (Pilocar), a direct-acting cholinergic

A patient has been taking the corticosteroid dexamethasone (Decadron) but has developed bacterial conjunctivitis and has a prescription for gentamicin (Garamycin) ointment. The nurse notes that which interaction is possible if the two drugs are used together? a. The infection may become systemic. b. The gentamicin effects may become more potent. c. The corticosteroid may cause overgrowth of nonsusceptible organisms. d. Immunosuppression may make it more difficult to eliminate the eye infection.

A patient has just arrived in the emergency department after an electrical burn from exposure to a high-voltage current. What is the priority nursing assessment? a. Oral temperature b. Peripheral pulses c. Extremity movement d. Pupil reaction to light

A patient has just been admitted with a 40% total body surface area (TBSA) burn injury. To maintain adequate nutrition, the nurse should plan to take which action? a. Administer vitamins and minerals intravenously. b. Insert a feeding tube and initiate enteral feedings. c. Infuse total parenteral nutrition via a central catheter. d. Encourage an oral intake of at least 5000 kcal per day.

A patient has the following risk factors for melanoma. Which risk factor should the nurse assign as the priority focus of patient teaching? a. The patient has multiple dysplastic nevi. b. The patient uses a tanning booth weekly. c. The patient is fair-skinned and has blue eyes. d. The patient's mother died of a malignant melanoma.

A patient in the dermatology clinic has a small, slow-growing papule with ulceration and a depression in the center of the lesion on the right cheek. The nurse will anticipate the need to a. prepare the patient for a biopsy. b. discuss the need for topical application of antibiotics. c. teach about the use of corticosteroid creams. d. educate the patient about use of tretinoin (Retin-A).

A patient in the dermatology clinic has a thin, scaly erythematous plaque on the right cheek. Which action should the nurse take? a. Prepare the patient for a skin biopsy. b. Teach the use of corticosteroid cream. c. Explain how to apply tretinoin (Retin-A) to the face. d. Discuss the need for topical application of antibiotics.

A patient in the dermatology clinic is scheduled for removal of a 15-mm multicolored and irregular mole from the upper back. The nurse should prepare the patient for which type of biopsy? a. Shave biopsy b. Punch biopsy c. Incisional biopsy d. Excisional biopsy

A patient is about to undergo ocular surgery. The preoperative nurse anticipates that which drug will be used for local anesthesia? a. Oral glycerin b. Proparacaine (Alcaine) c. Timolol (Timoptic) d. Dipivefrin (Propine)

A patient is admitted to the burn unit with burns to the head, face, and hands. Initially, wheezes are heard, but an hour later, the lung sounds are decreased and no wheezes are audible. What is the best action for the nurse to take? a. Encourage the patient to cough and auscultate the lungs again. b. Notify the health care provider and prepare for endotracheal intubation. c. Document the results and continue to monitor the patient's respiratory rate. d. Reposition the patient in high-Fowler's position and reassess breath sounds.

A patient is receiving ocular cyclosporine (Restasis) and also has an order for an artificial tears product. The nurse includes which instructions in the teaching plan for these medications? a. "These two eye drugs cannot be given together. Let's check with your prescriber." b. "You may take these two drugs together at the same time." c. "First take the artificial tears, and then take the Restasis after 5 minutes." d. "Take the Restasis first, and then wait 15 minutes before taking the artificial tears."

A patient is undergoing psoralen plus ultraviolet A light (PUVA) therapy for treatment of psoriasis. What action should the nurse take to prevent adverse effects from this procedure? a. Shield any unaffected areas with lead-lined drapes. b. Apply petroleum jelly to the areas around the lesions. c. Cleanse the skin carefully with antiseptic soap prior to PUVA. d. Have the patient use protective eyewear while receiving PUVA.

A patient reports chronic itching of the ankles and continuously scratches the area. Which assessment finding will the nurse expect? a. Hypertrophied scars on both ankles b. Thickening of the skin around the ankles c. Yellowish-brown skin around both ankles d. Complete absence of melanin in both ankles

A patient who has bacterial endophthalmitis in the left eye is restless, frequently asking whether the eye is healing and whether removal of the eye will be necessary. Based on the assessment data, which nursing diagnosis is appropriate at this time? a. Grieving related to current loss of functional vision b. Ineffective health management related to inability to see c. Anxiety related to the possibility of permanent vision loss d. Situational low self-esteem related to loss of visual function

A patient who has burns on the arms, legs, and chest from a house fire has become agitated and restless 8 hours after being admitted to the hospital. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Stay at the bedside and reassure the patient. b. Administer the ordered morphine sulfate IV. c. Assess orientation and level of consciousness. d. Use pulse oximetry to check oxygen saturation.

A patient who has severe refractory psoriasis on the face, neck, and extremities is socially withdrawn because of the appearance of the lesions. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Discuss the possibility of participating in an online support group. b. Encourage the patient to volunteer to work on community projects. c. Suggest that the patient use cosmetics to cover the psoriatic lesions. d. Ask the patient to describe the impact of psoriasis on quality of life.

A patient who received a corneal transplant 2 weeks ago calls the ophthalmology clinic to report that his vision has not improved with the transplant. Which action should the nurse take? a. Suggest the patient arrange a ride to the clinic immediately. b. Ask about the presence of "floaters" in the patient's visual field. c. Remind the patient it may take months to restore vision after transplant. d. Teach the patient to continue using prescribed pupil-dilating medications.

A patient who underwent eye surgery is required to wear an eye patch until the scheduled postoperative clinic visit. Which nursing diagnosis will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Disturbed body image related to eye trauma and eye patch b. Risk for falls related to temporary decrease in stereoscopic vision c. Ineffective health maintenance related to inability to see surroundings d. Ineffective coping related to inability to admit the impact of the eye injury

excisional

___ biopsies are done for smaller lesions and where a good cosmetic effect is desired, such as on the face.

A patient who was found unconscious in a burning house is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. The nurse notes that the patient's skin color is bright red. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Insert two large-bore IV lines. b. Check the patient's orientation. c. Assess for singed nasal hair and dark oral mucous membranes. d. Place the patient on 100% O2using a nonrebreather mask.

A patient with Ménière's disease is admitted with vertigo, nausea, and vomiting. Which nursing intervention will be included in the care plan? a. Dim the lights in the patient's room. b. Encourage increased oral fluid intake. c. Change the patient's position every 2 hours. d. Keep the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees.

A patient with a head injury after a motorcycle crash arrives in the emergency department (ED) complaining of shortness of breath and severe eye pain. Which action will the nurse take first? a. Assess cranial nerve functions. b. Administer the prescribed analgesic. c. Check the patient's oxygen saturation. d. Examine the eye for evidence of trauma.

A patient with a right retinal detachment had a pneumatic retinopexy procedure. Which information will be included in the discharge teaching plan? a. The use of eye patches to reduce movement of the operative eye b. The need to wear dark glasses to protect the eyes from bright light c. The purpose of maintaining the head resting in a prescribed position d. The procedure for dressing changes when the eye dressing is saturated

A patient with an enlarging, irregular mole that is 7 mm in diameter is scheduled for outpatient treatment. The nurse should plan to prepare the patient for which procedure? a. Curettage b. Punch biopsy c. Cryosurgery d. Surgical excision

A patient with an eye injury requires an ocular examination to detect the presence of a foreign body. The nurse anticipates that which drug will be used for this examination? a. Phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) b. Fluorescein sodium (AK-Fluor) c. Atropine sulfate (Isopto Atropine) d. Olopatadine (Patanol)

A patient with atopic dermatitis has a new prescription for pimecrolimus (Elidel). After teaching the patient about the medication, which statement by the patient indicates that further teaching is needed? a. "After I apply the medication, I can get dressed as usual." b. "If the medication burns when I apply it, I will wipe it off." c. "I need to minimize time in the sun while using the Elidel." d. "I will rub the medication in gently every morning and night."

A patient with atopic dermatitis has been using a high-potency topical corticosteroid ointment for several weeks. The nurse should assess for which adverse effect? a. Thinning of the affected skin b. Dryness and scaling in the area c. Alopecia of the affected areas d. Reddish-brown skin discoloration

A patient with burns covering 40% total body surface area (TBSA) is in the acute phase of burn treatment. Which snack would be best for the nurse to offer to this patient? a. Bananas b. Orange gelatin c. Vanilla milkshake d. Whole grain bagel

A patient with circumferential burns of both legs develops a decrease in dorsalis pedis pulse strength and numbness in the toes. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Monitor the pulses every hour. b. Notify the health care provider. c. Elevate both legs above heart level with pillows. d. Encourage the patient to flex and extend the toes.

A patient with extensive electrical burn injuries is admitted to the emergency department. Which prescribed intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Assess pain level. b. Place on heart monitor. c. Check potassium level. d. Assess oral temperature.

A patient with presbycusis is fitted with binaural hearing aids. Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient how to use the hearing aids? a. Keep the volume low on the hearing aids for the first week. b. Experiment with volume and hearing in a quiet environment. c. Add the second hearing aid after making adjustments to the first hearing aid. d. Begin wearing the hearing aids for an hour a day, gradually increasing the use.

A patient with severe burns has crystalloid fluid replacement ordered using the Parkland formula. The initial volume of fluid to be administered in the first 24 hours is 30,000 mL. The initial rate of administration is 1875 mL/hr. After the first 8 hours, what rate should the nurse infuse the IV fluids? a. 219 mL/hr b. 625 mL/hr c. 938 mL/hr d. 1875 mL/hr

A school nurse is performing hearing screening on school children. The nurse recognizes that distortion of sound and problems in discrimination are characteristic of which type of hearing loss? a. Conductive b. Sensorineural c. Mixed conductive-sensorineural d. Central auditory imperceptive

A school nurse is performing hearing screening on school children. The nurse recognizes that distortion of sound and problems in discrimination are characteristic of which type of hearing loss? a. Sensorineural b. Mixed conductive-sensorineural c. Central auditory imperceptive d. Conductive

A school nurse is performing hearing screening on school children. The nurse recognizes that the most common type of hearing loss resulting from interference of transmission of sound to the middle ear is characteristic of which type of hearing loss? a. Conductive b. Central auditory imperceptive c. Sensorineural d. Mixed conductive-sensorineural

A school nurse is performing hearing screening on school children. The nurse recognizes that the most common type of hearing loss resulting from interference of transmission of sound to the middle ear is characteristic of which type of hearing loss? a. Conductive b. Sensorineural c. Mixed conductive-sensorineural d. Central auditory imperceptive

A teenaged male patient who is on a wrestling team is examined by the nurse in the clinic. Which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to teach the patient about the importance of not sharing headgear to prevent the spread of pediculosis? a. Ringlike rashes with red, scaly borders over the entire scalp b. Papular, wheal-like lesions with white deposits on the hair shaft c. Patchy areas of alopecia with small vesicles and excoriated areas d. Red, hivelike papules and plaques with sharply circumscribed borders

A woman suffered a second-degree burn of the skin on her arm and hand while cooking breakfast. After examination in the urgent care center, silver sulfadiazine cream (Silvadene) is ordered for the burned area. The nurse will apply the medication using which procedure? a. Gently patting a moderate amount over the burned area b. Massaging the cream completely into the wound c. Applying a thick layer over the burned area, and then leaving the area open d. Applying a thin layer with a sterile, gloved hand to clean and débrided areas

A young adult patient who is in the rehabilitation phase 6 months after a severe face and neck burn tells the nurse, "I'm sorry that I'm still alive. My life will never be normal again." Which response by the nurse is best? a. "Most people recover after a burn and feel satisfied with their lives." b. "It's true that your life may be different. What concerns you the most?" c. "Why do you feel that way? It will get better as your recovery progresses." d. "It is really too early to know how much your life will be changed by the burn."

A young adult patient who is in the rehabilitation phase after having deep partial-thickness face and neck burns has a nursing diagnosis of disturbed body image. Which statement by the patient best indicates that the problem is resolving? a. "I'm glad the scars are only temporary." b. "I will avoid using a pillow, so my neck will be OK." c. "Do you think dark beige makeup will cover this scar?" d. "I don't think my boyfriend will want to look at me now."

cervical spine

All patients with electrical burns should be considered at risk for ___ ___ injury, and assessment of extremity movement will provide baseline data.

An adolescent gets hit in the eye during a fight. The school nurse, using a flashlight, notes the presence of gross hyphema (hemorrhage into anterior chamber). The nurse should: a. apply a Fox shield. b. notify parents that adolescent needs to see an ophthalmologist. c. have adolescent rest with eye closed and ice applied. d. instruct the adolescent to apply ice for 24 hours.

An adolescent gets hit in the eye during a fight. The school nurse, using a flashlight, notes the presence of gross hyphema (hemorrhage into anterior chamber). What is the priority nursing action? a. Apply a Fox shield b. Instruct the adolescent to apply ice for 24 hours c. Have the adolescent rest with eye closed and ice applied d. Notify parents that the adolescent needs to see an ophthalmologist

An appropriate screening test for hearing that can be administered by the nurse to a 5-year-old child is: a. the Weber test. b. eliciting the startle reflex. c. the Rinne test. d. conventional audiometry.

Acyclovir (Zovirax) is given to children with chickenpox to: a. minimize scarring. b. decrease the number of lesions. c. prevent aplastic anemia. d. prevent spread of the disease.

dysrhythmias

After an electrical burn, the patient is at risk for life-threatening ___ and should be placed on a heart monitor.

After the nurse determines that a patient has the following risk factors for melanoma, which risk factor should be the focus of patient teaching related to prevention? a. The patient's mother died of a malignant melanoma. b. The patient is fair-skinned and has blue eyes. c. The patient uses a tanning booth throughout the winter. d. The patient has multiple dysplastic nevi.

Airborne isolation is required for a child who is hospitalized with: a. mumps. b. chickenpox. c. exanthema subitum (roseola). d. erythema infectiosum (fifth disease).

An employee spills industrial acids on both arms and legs at work. What action should the occupational health nurse take first? a. Remove nonadherent clothing and wristwatch. b. Apply an alkaline solution to the affected area. c. Place a cool compress on the area of exposure. d. Cover the affected area with dry, sterile dressings.

An older adult patient with a squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) on the lower arm has a Mohs procedure in the dermatology clinic. Which nursing action will be included in the postoperative plan of care? a. Schedule daily appointments for dressing changes. b. Describe the use of topical fluorouracil on the incision. c. Teach how to use sterile technique to clean the suture line. d. Teach the use of cold packs to reduce bruising and swelling.

An older patient who is being admitted to the hospital repeatedly asks the nurse to "speak up so that I can hear you." Which action should the nurse take? a. Increase the speaking volume. b. Overenunciate while speaking. c. Speak normally but more slowly. d. Use more facial expressions when talking.

Assessment of a patient's visual acuity reveals that the left eye can see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 50 feet and the right eye can see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 40 feet. The nurse records which finding? a. OS 20/50; OD 20/40 b. OU 20/40; OS 50/20 c. OD 20/40; OS 20/50 d. OU 40/20; OD 50/20

vertigo

Intermittent ___ occurs with acoustic neuroma, so the nurse should include information about how to prevent falls.

sensorineural

Childhood immunizations can eliminate the possibility of acquired ___ hearing loss from rubella, mumps, or measles encephalitis.

sensorineural

Cochlear implants are used for ___ hearing loss.

ear

Corticosteroids, such as hydrocortisone, are commonly used in combination with otic antibiotics to reduce the inflammation and itching associated with ___ infections.

During a funduscopic examination of a school-age child, the nurse notes a brilliant, uniform red reflex in both eyes. The nurse should recognize that this is a(n): a. abnormal finding, so child needs referral to ophthalmologist. b. sign of small hemorrhages, which will usually resolve spontaneously. c. sign of possible visual defect, so child needs vision screening. d. normal finding.

During assessment of the patient's skin, the nurse observes a similar pattern of discrete, small, raised lesions on the left and right upper back areas. Which term should the nurse use to document the distribution of these lesions? a. Confluent b. Symmetric c. Zosteriform d. Generalized

During the emergent phase of burn care, which assessment will be most useful in determining whether the patient is receiving adequate fluid infusion? a. Check skin turgor. b. Monitor daily weight. c. Assess mucous membranes. d. Measure hourly urine output.

During the preoperative assessment of a patient scheduled for a right cataract extraction and intraocular lens implantation, it is important for the nurse to assess a. the visual acuity of the patient's left eye. b. how long the patient has had the cataract. c. for presence of a white pupil in the right eye. d. for a history of reactions to general anesthetics.

emulsifiers

Earwax ___ are indicated for excessive earwax in the outer ear canal and are not to be used without prescription when ear drainage, tympanic membrane rupture, or significant pain or other irritation is present.

Eight hours after a thermal burn covering 50% of a patient's total body surface area (TBSA), the nurse assesses the patient. The patient weighs 92 kg (202.4 lb). Which information would be a priority to communicate to the health care provider? a. Blood pressure is 95/48 per arterial line. b. Urine output of 41 mL over past 2 hours. c. Serous exudate is leaking from the burns. d. Heart monitor shows sinus tachycardia of 108.

Esomeprazole (Nexium) is prescribed for a patient who incurred extensive burn injuries 5 days ago. Which nursing assessment would best evaluate the effectiveness of the drug? a. Bowel sounds b. Stool frequency c. Stool occult blood d. Abdominal distention

retinopexy

Following pneumatic ___, the patient will need to position the head so the air bubble remains in contact with the retinal tear.

ulcer

H2 blockers and proton pump inhibitors are given to prevent Curling's ___ in the patient who has sustained burn injuries.

Hearing is expressed in decibels (dB), or units of loudness. Which is the softest sound a normal ear can hear? a. 0 dB b. 10 dB c. 40 to 50 dB d. 100 dB

Herpes zoster is caused by the varicella virus and has an affinity for: a. sympathetic nerve fibers. b. parasympathetic nerve fibers. c. posterior root ganglia and posterior horn of the spinal cord. d. lateral and dorsal columns of the spinal cord.

styes

Hordeolum (___) are commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus, which may be present in cosmetics that the patient is using.

warts

Human papillomavirus is associated with various types of human ___.

In reviewing a patient's medical record, the nurse notes that the last eye examination revealed an intraocular pressure of 28 mm Hg. The nurse will plan to assess a. visual acuity. b. pupil reaction. c. color perception. d. peripheral vision.

decab

In which order will the nurse take these actions when doing a dressing change for a partial-thickness burn wound on a patient's chest? a. Apply sterile gauze dressing. b. Document wound appearance. c. Apply silver sulfadiazine cream. d. Give IV fentanyl (Sublimaze). e. Clean wound with saline-soaked gauze.

glaucoma

Loss of peripheral vision is a sign of ___.

retinoblastoma

Most common congenital malignant intraocular tumor of childhood

ototoxic

Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are potentially ___.

right

OD is the abbreviation for ___ eye.

left

OS is the abbreviation for ___ eye.

On admission to the burn unit, a patient with an approximate 25% total body surface area (TBSA) burn has the following initial laboratory results: Hct 58%, Hgb 18.2 mg/dL (172 g/L), serum K+ 4.9 mEq/L (4.8 mmol/L), and serum Na+ 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L). Which of the following prescribed actions should be the nurse's priority? a. Monitoring urine output every 4 hours. b. Continuing to monitor the laboratory results. c. Increasing the rate of the ordered IV solution. d. Typing and crossmatching for a blood transfusion.

Parents of a newborn are concerned because the infant's eyes often "look crossed" when the infant is looking at an object. The nurse's response is that this is normal based on the knowledge that binocularity is normally present by what age? a. 6 to 8 months b. 12 months c. 1 month d. 3 to 4 months

Parents tell the nurse that their child keeps scratching the areas where he has poison ivy. The nurse's response should be based on which knowledge? a. Poison ivy does not itch and needs further investigation. b. Scratching the lesions will not cause a problem. c. Scratching the lesions will cause the poison ivy to spread. d. Scratching the lesions may cause them to become secondarily infected.

floater

Particle of cellular debris that floats in the vitreous fluid and casts shadows on the retina

scopolamine

___ is a parasympathetic blocker and will relax the iris, causing blockage of aqueous humor outflow and an increase in intraocular pressure.

tinnitus

Patients with ___ may use masking techniques, such as playing a radio, to block out the ringing in the ears.

chlamydia

Patients with adult inclusion conjunctivitis, which is caused by ___, should be referred for STI testing.

cataract

Postoperative ___ surgery patients usually experience little or no pain, so pain at a level 5 on a 10-point pain scale may indicate complications such as hemorrhage, infection, or increased intraocular pressure.

Prevention of hearing impairment in children is a major goal for the nurse. This can be achieved through which intervention? a. Being involved in immunization clinics for children b. Assessing a newborn for hearing loss c. Answering parents' questions about hearing aids d. Participating in hearing screening in the community

balance

Problems with ___ related to vestibular function may present as nystagmus or vertigo and indicate an increased risk for falls.

vestibular

Rotary chair testing is used to test ___ function.

glaucoma

___ is caused by an increase in intraocular pressure, which would be measured using the Tono-Pen.

cellulitis

Streptococci, staphylococci, and Haemophilus influenzae are the organisms usually responsible for ___.

presbyopia

The Jaeger card is used to assess near vision problems and ___ in persons older than 40 years of age. The card should be held 14 inches away from eyes while the patient reads words in various print sizes.

The charge nurse must intervene immediately if observing a nurse who is caring for a patient with vestibular disease a. facing the patient directly when speaking. b. speaking slowly and distinctly to the patient. c. administering both the Rinne and Weber tests. d. encouraging the patient to ambulate independently.

The charge nurse observes a newly hired nurse performing all the following interventions for a patient who has just undergone right cataract removal and an intraocular lens implant. Which one requires that the charge nurse intervene? a. The nurse leaves the eye shield in place. b. The nurse encourages the patient to cough. c. The nurse elevates the patient's head to 45 degrees. d. The nurse applies corticosteroid drops to the right eye.

The charge nurse observes the following actions being taken by a new nurse on the burn unit. Which action by the new nurse would require immediate intervention by the charge nurse? a. The new nurse uses clean gloves when applying antibacterial cream to a burn wound. b. The new nurse obtains burn cultures when the patient has a temperature of 95.2° F (35.1° C). c. The new nurse gives PRN fentanyl (Sublimaze) IV to a patient 5 minutes before a dressing change. d. The new nurse calls the health care provider when a nondiabetic patient's serum glucose is elevated.

ade

The community health nurse is teaching parents about prevention of the spread and reoccurrence of pediculosis (head lice). Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Dryclean nonwashable items. b. Spray the environment with an insecticide. c. Seal nonwashable items in a plastic bag for 5 days. d. Boil combs and brushes for 10 minutes. e. Discourage sharing of personal items.

escharotomy

The decrease in pulse and numbness in a patient with circumferential burns indicates decreased circulation to the legs and the need for an ___.

The health care provider diagnoses impetigo for a patient who has crusty vesicopustular lesions on the lower face. Which topic will be included in the teaching plan for this patient? a. Appropriate use of alcohol-based cleansers on the lesions b. How to clean the infected areas with soap and water c. Avoidance of antibiotic ointments on the lesions d. Use of petroleum jelly (Vaseline) to soften crusty areas

The health care provider diagnoses impetigo in a patient who has crusty vesicopustular lesions on the lower face. Which instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan? a. Clean the infected areas with soap and water. b. Apply alcohol-based cleansers on the lesions. c. Avoid use of antibiotic ointments on the lesions. d. Use petroleum jelly (Vaseline) to soften crusty areas.

The health care provider prescribes topical 5-FU for a patient with actinic keratosis on the left cheek. The nurse should include which statement in the patient's instructions? a. "5-FU will shrink the lesion to prepare for surgical excision." b. "Your cheek area will be eroded and it will take several weeks to heal." c. "You may develop nausea and anorexia, but good nutrition is important during treatment." d. "You will need to avoid crowds because of the risk for infection caused by chemotherapy."

falls

The loss of stereoscopic vision created a patient's eye patch impairs their ability to see in three dimensions and to judge distances, and also increases the risk for ___.

hyperopia

farsightedness

The most fatal type of burn in the toddler age group is: a. hot object burn from cigarettes or irons. b. electric burn from electric outlets. c. flame burn from playing with matches. d. scald burn from high-temperature tap water.

The nurse assesses a circular, flat, reddened lesion about 5 cm in diameter on a middle-aged patient's ankle. How should the nurse determine if the lesion is related to intradermal bleeding? a. Elevate the patient's leg. b. Press firmly on the lesion. c. Check the temperature of the skin around the lesion. d. Palpate the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses.

The nurse assesses a patient who has just arrived in the postanesthesia recovery area (PACU) after a blepharoplasty. Which assessment data should be reported to the surgeon immediately? a. The patient complains of incisional pain. b. The patient's heart rate is 110 beats/min. c. The patient is unable to detect when the eyelids are touched. d. The skin around the incision is pale and cold when palpated.

The nurse at the eye clinic made a follow-up telephone call to a patient who underwent cataract extraction and intraocular lens implantation the previous day. Which information is the priority to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient requests a prescription refill for next week. b. The patient feels uncomfortable wearing an eye patch. c. The patient complains that the vision has not improved. d. The patient reports eye pain rated 5 (on a 0 to 10 scale).

The nurse at the outpatient surgery unit obtains the following information about a patient who is scheduled for cataract extraction and implantation of an intraocular lens. Which information is important to report to the health care provider at this time? a. The patient has had blurred vision for 3 years. b. The patient has not eaten anything for 8 hours. c. The patient takes 2 antihypertensive medications. d. The patient gets nauseated with general anesthesia.

The nurse caring for a patient admitted with burns over 30% of the body surface assesses that urine output has dramatically increased. Which action by the nurse would best support maintaining kidney function? a. Monitor white blood cells (WBCs). b. Continue to measure the urine output. c. Assess that blisters and edema have subsided. d. Encourage the patient to eat an adequate number of calories.

The nurse developing a teaching plan for a patient with herpes simplex keratitis should include which instruction? a. Wash hands frequently and avoid touching the eyes. b. Apply antibiotic drops to the eye several times daily. c. Apply a new occlusive dressing to the affected eye at bedtime. d. Use corticosteroid ophthalmic ointment to decrease inflammation.

The nurse evaluates that wearing bifocals improved the patient's myopia and presbyopia by assessing for a. strength of the eye muscles. b. both near and distant vision. c. cloudiness in the eye lenses. d. intraocular pressure changes.

The nurse in the eye clinic is examining a 67-yr-old patient who says, "I see small spots that move around in front of my eyes." Which action will the nurse take first? a. Immediately have the ophthalmologist evaluate the patient. b. Explain that spots and "floaters" are a normal part of aging. c. Warn the patient that these spots may indicate retinal damage. d. Use an ophthalmoscope to examine the posterior eye chambers.

The nurse instructs a patient about application of corticosteroid cream to an area of contact dermatitis on the right leg. Which patient action indicates that further teaching is needed? a. The patient takes a tepid bath before applying the cream. b. The patient spreads the cream using a downward motion. c. The patient applies a thick layer of the cream to the affected skin. d. The patient covers the area with a dressing after applying the cream.

The nurse is administering antibiotic eyedrops to a patient for the first time. After the first drop is given, the patient states, "That eyedrop is making my eye sting! Is that normal?" Which is the best response by the nurse? a. "That's unusual. Let me rinse the medication from your eye." b. "Sometimes these eyedrops may cause burning and stinging, but it should go away soon." c. "These may be serious side effects, so I will notify your doctor before the next dose is due." d. "Let's wait and see if these effects happen the next time you receive these drops."

The nurse is administering eardrops that contain a combination of an antibiotic and a corticosteroid. What is the rationale for combining these two drugs in eardrops? a. The combination works to help soften and eliminate cerumen. b. The corticosteroid reduces pain associated with ear infections. c. The drops help to eliminate fungal infections. d. The corticosteroid reduces the inflammation and itching associated with ear infections.

The nurse is administrating eardrops that have been refrigerated. Which action by the nurse is correct before administering the drops? a. Leave the drops in the refrigerator until use. b. Heat the chilled solution for 10 seconds in the microwave. c. Soak the bottle for 60 seconds in a container of very hot water. d. Take the drops out of the refrigerator 1 hour before the dose is due.

The nurse is assessing a 65-yr-old patient for presbyopia. Which instruction will the nurse give the patient before the test? a. "Hold this card and read the print out loud." b. "Cover one eye while reading the wall chart." c. "You'll feel a short burst of air directed at your eyeball." d. "A light will be used to look for a change in your pupils."

The nurse is assessing a child with otitis media. Which statement about otitis media is correct? a. It is treated with over-the-counter medications. b. In children, it commonly follows a lower respiratory tract infection. c. Common symptoms include pain, fever, malaise, and a sensation of fullness in the ears. d. Hearing deficits are associated only with inner ear infections, not with otitis media.

The nurse is assessing a patient who was recently treated with amoxicillin for acute otitis media of the right ear. Which finding is a priority to report to the health care provider? a. The patient has a temperature of 100.6° F. b. The patient complains of "popping" in the ear. c. Clear fluid is visible through the tympanic membrane. d. The patient frequently asks the nurse to repeat information.

The nurse is caring for a 5-year-old child with impetigo contagiosa. The parents ask the nurse what will happen to their child's skin after the infection has subsided and healed. Which answer should the nurse give? a. There will be no scarring. b. There may be some pigmented spots. c. It is likely there will be some slightly depressed scars. d. There will be some atrophic white scars.

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with furunculosis. Which nursing action could the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Applying antibiotic cream to the groin b. Obtaining cultures from ruptured lesions c. Evaluating the patient's personal hygiene d. Cleaning the skin with antimicrobial soap

The nurse is completing the admission database for a patient admitted with abdominal pain and notes a history of hypertension and glaucoma. Which prescribed medication should the nurse question? a. Morphine sulfate 4 mg IV b. Diazepam (Valium) 5 mg IV c. Betaxolol (Betoptic) 0.25% eyedrops d. Scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop) 1.5 mg

The nurse is conducting a staff in-service on appearance of childhood skin conditions. Lymphangitis ("streaking") is frequently seen in which condition? a. Cellulitis b. Folliculitis c. Impetigo contagiosa d. Staphylococcal scalded skin

The nurse is developing a health promotion plan for an older adult who worked in the landscaping business for 40 years. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about how to self-assess for which clinical manifestations (select all that apply)? a. Vitiligo b. Alopecia c. Intertrigo d. Erythema e. Actinic keratosis

The nurse is developing a plan of care for an adult patient diagnosed with adult inclusion conjunctivitis (AIC) caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Which action should be included in the plan of care? a. Applying topical corticosteroids to decrease inflammation b. Discussing the need for sexually transmitted infection testing c. Educating about the use of antiviral eyedrops to treat the infection d. Assisting with applying for community visual rehabilitation services

The nurse is examining 12-month-old Amy, who was brought to the clinic for persistent diaper rash. The nurse finds perianal inflammation with satellite lesions that cross the inguinal folds. What is most likely the cause of the diaper rash? a. Impetigo b. Candida albicans c. Urine and feces d. Infrequent diapering

The nurse will instruct a patient who has undergone a left tympanoplasty to a. remain on bed rest. b. keep the head elevated. c. avoid blowing the nose. d. irrigate the left ear canal.

The nurse is interviewing a patient with contact dermatitis. Which finding indicates a need for patient teaching? a. The patient applies corticosteroid cream to pruritic areas. b. The patient adds oilated oatmeal to the bath water every day. c. The patient uses bacitracin-neomycin-polymyxin on minor abrasions. d. The patient takes diphenhydramine at night if persistent itching occurs.

The nurse is observing a student who is preparing to perform an ear examination for a 30-yr-old patient. The nurse will need to intervene if the student a. pulls the auricle of the ear up and posterior. b. chooses a speculum larger than the ear canal. c. stabilizes the hand holding the otoscope on the patient's head. d. stops inserting the otoscope after observing impacted cerumen.

The nurse is performing an eye examination on a 76-yr-old patient. The nurse should refer the patient for a more extensive assessment based on which finding? a. The patient's sclerae are light yellow. b. The patient reports persistent photophobia. c. The pupil recovers slowly after responding to a bright light. d. There is a whitish gray ring encircling the periphery of the iris.

The nurse is preparing to administer a new order for eardrops. Which is a potential contraindication to the use of many otic preparations? a. Ear canal itching b. Perforated eardrum c. Staphylococcus aureus otitis externa infection d. Escherichia coli ear infection

The nurse is preparing to give an earwax emulsifier to a patient and will assess the patient for which contraindication before administering the drops? a. Allergy to penicillin b. Drainage from the ear canal c. Partial deafness in the affected ear d. Excessive earwax in the outer ear canal

The nurse is providing health promotion teaching to a group of older adults. Which information will the nurse include when teaching about routine glaucoma testing? a. A Tono-Pen will be applied to the surface of the eye. b. The test involves reading a Snellen chart from 20 feet. c. Medications will be used to dilate the pupils for the test. d. The examination involves checking the pupil's reaction to light.

The nurse is reviewing laboratory results on a patient who had a large burn 48 hours ago. Which result requires priority action by the nurse? a. Hematocrit of 53% b. Serum sodium of 147 mEq/L c. Serum potassium of 6.1 mEq/L d. Blood urea nitrogen of 37 mg/dL

abcf

The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a patient and notes an order for ophthalmic dexamethasone (Decadron) solution. The nurse knows that indications for ophthalmic dexamethasone include which conditions? (Select all that apply.) a. Uveitis b. Allergic conditions c. Removal of foreign bodies d. Ocular infections e. Glaucoma f. Conjunctival inflammation

The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a patient who is to receive wound care with topical silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene). Which finding, if noted, would be a potential contraindication? a. The patient has an open wound from a burn on her arm. b. The patient is allergic to sulfonamide drugs. c. The patient is allergic to shellfish. d. The patient's burn wound has been débrided.

The nurse is reviewing the use of ophthalmic preparations. Indications for the direct- and indirect-acting miotics include which condition? a. Cataracts b. Removal of foreign bodies c. Open-angle glaucoma d. Ocular infections

The nurse is taking care of a 2-year-old child with a macule skin lesion. Which clinical finding should the nurse expect to assess with this type of lesion? a. Flat, nonpalpable, and irregularly shaped lesion that is greater than 1 cm in diameter b. Heaped-up keratinized cells, flaky exfoliation, irregular, thick or thin, dry or oily, varied in size c. Flat, brown mole less than 1 cm in diameter d. Elevated, flat-topped, firm, rough, superficial papule greater than 1 cm in diameter

The nurse is taking care of a 7-year-old child with a skin rash called a papule. Which clinical finding should the nurse expect to assess with this type of skin rash? a. A lesion that is elevated, palpable, firm, and circumscribed; less than 1 cm in diameter b. A lesion that is elevated, flat-topped, firm, rough, and superficial; greater than 1 cm in diameter c. An elevated lesion, firm, circumscribed, palpable; 1 to 2 cm in diameter d. An elevated lesion, circumscribed, filled with serous fluid; less than 1 cm in diameter

The nurse is taking care of a 7-year-old child with herpes simplex virus (type 1 or 2). Which prescribed medication should the nurse expect to be included in the treatment plan? a. Corticosteroids b. Oral griseofulvin c. Oral antiviral agent d. Topical and/or systemic antibiotic

The nurse is taking care of a child with scabies. Which primary clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to assess with this disease? a. Edema b. Redness c. Pruritus d. Maceration

The nurse is talking to the parent of a 13-month-old child. The mother states, "My child does not make noises like 'da' or 'na' like my sister's baby, who is only 9 months old." Which statement by the nurse would be most appropriate to make? a. "I am going to request a referral to a hearing specialist." b. "You should not compare your child to your sister's child." c. "I think your child is fine, but we will check again in 3 months." d. "You should ask other parents what noises their children made at this age."

The nurse is talking to the parents of a child with pediculosis capitis. Which should the nurse include when explaining how to manage pediculosis capitis? a. "You will need to cut the hair shorter if infestation and nits are severe." b. "You can distinguish viable from nonviable nits, and remove all viable ones." c. "You can wash all nits out of hair with a regular shampoo." d. "You will need to remove nits with an extra-fine-tooth comb or tweezers."

The nurse is talking with a 10-year-old boy who wears bilateral hearing aids. The left hearing aid is making an annoying whistling sound that the child cannot hear. Which is the most appropriate nursing action? a. Ignore the sound. b. Ask him to reverse the hearing aids in his ears. c. Suggest he reinsert the hearing aid. d. Suggest he raise the volume of the hearing aid.

Unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) perform all the following actions when caring for a patient with Ménière's disease who is experiencing an acute attack. Which action by UAP indicates that the nurse should intervene? a. UAP raise the side rails on the bed. b. UAP turn on the patient's television. c. UAP place an emesis basin at the bedside. d. UAP helps the patient turn to the right side.

cde

The nurse is teaching a patient about proper administration of eardrops. Which statements are correct? (Select all that apply.) a. Remove cerumen with a cotton-tipped swab before instilling the drops. b. Instill the drops while still cool from refrigeration. c. Warm the eardrops to room temperature before instillation. d. The adult patient should pull the pinna of the ear up and back. e. Insert a dry cotton ball firmly into the ear canal after instillation. f. Massage the earlobe after instillation.

The nurse is teaching a patient's wife about administering eardrops to her husband. The nurse will use which technique when demonstrating the skill? a. Pull the pinna of the ear down and back. b. Pull the pinna of the ear up and back. c. Pull the pinna of the ear down and forward. d. Pull the pinna of the ear up and forward.

The nurse is teaching nursing students about childhood skin lesions. Which is an elevated, circumscribed skin lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter and filled with serous fluid? a. Cyst b. Papule c. Pustule d. Vesicle

The nurse is testing the visual acuity of a patient in the outpatient clinic. The nurse's instructions for this test include asking the patient to a. stand 20 feet away from the wall chart. b. follow the examiner's finger with the eyes only. c. look at an object far away and then near to the eyes. d. look straight ahead while a light is shone into the eyes.

The nurse learns that a newly admitted patient has functional blindness and that the spouse has cared for the patient for many years. During the initial assessment of the patient, it is most important for the nurse to a. obtain more information about the cause of the patient's vision loss. b. obtain information from the spouse about the patient's special needs. c. make eye contact with the patient and ask about any need for assistance. d. perform an evaluation of the patient's visual acuity using a Snellen chart.

The nurse notes darker skin pigmentation in the skinfolds of a middle-aged patient who has a body mass index of 40 kg/m2. What is the nurse's appropriate action? a. Discuss the use of drying agents to minimize infection risk. b. Instruct the patient about the use of mild soap to clean skinfolds. c. Teach the patient about treating fungal infections in the skinfolds. d. Ask the patient about a personal or family history of type 2 diabetes.

The nurse notes the presence of white lesions that resemble milk curds in the back of a patient's throat. Which question by the nurse is appropriate at this time? a. "Are you taking any medications?" b. "Do you have a productive cough?" c. "How often do you brush your teeth?" d. "Have you had an oral herpes infection?"

The nurse performing an eye examination will document normal findings for accommodation when a. shining a light into the patient's eye causes pupil constriction in the opposite eye. b. a blink reaction follows touching the patient's pupil with a piece of sterile cotton. c. covering one eye for 1 minute and noting pupil constriction as the cover is removed. d. the pupils constrict while fixating on an object being moved toward the patient's eyes.

The nurse prepares to obtain a culture from a patient who has a possible fungal infection on the foot. Which items should the nurse gather for this procedure? a. Sterile gloves b. Patch test instruments c. Cotton-tipped applicators d. Syringe and intradermal needle

The nurse recording health histories in the outpatient clinic would plan a focused hearing assessment for adult patients taking which medication? a. Atenolol taken to prevent angina b. Acetaminophen taken frequently for headaches c. Ibuprofen taken for 20 years to treat osteoarthritis d. Albuterol taken since early childhood to treat asthma

The nurse should implement which prescribed treatment for a child with warts? a. Vaccination b. Local destruction c. Corticosteroids d. Specific antibiotic therapy

The nurse should report which assessment finding immediately to the health care provider? a. Cone of light is visible. b. Tympanum is blue-tinged. c. Skin in the ear canal is dry and scaly. d. Cerumen is present in the auditory canal.

The nurse should suspect a hearing impairment in an infant who demonstrates which behavior? a. Absence of the Moro reflex b. Absence of babbling by age 7 months c. Lack of eye contact when being spoken to d. Lack of gesturing to indicate wants after age 15 months

The nurse should suspect a hearing impairment in an infant who demonstrates which behavior? a. Lack of eye contact when being spoken to b. Absence of the Moro reflex c. Absence of babbling by age 7 months d. Lack of gesturing to indicate wants after age 15 months

The nurse will be giving ophthalmic drugs to a patient with glaucoma. Which drug is given intravenously to reduce intraocular pressure when other medications are not successful? a. Tobramycin (Tobrex) b. Bacitracin (AK-Tracin) c. Mannitol (Osmitrol) d. Ketorolac (Acular)

The nurse working in the dermatology clinic assesses a young adult female patient who has. severe cystic acne. Which assessment finding is of concern related to the patient's prescribed isotretinoin ? a. The patient recently had an intrauterine device removed. b. The patient already has some acne scarring on her forehead. c. The patient has also used topical antibiotics to treat the acne. d. The patient has a strong family history of rheumatoid arthritis.

The nurse working in the vision and hearing clinic receives telephone calls from several patients who want appointments in the clinic as soon as possible. Which patient should be seen first? a. 71-yr-old who has noticed increasing loss of peripheral vision b. 74-yr-old who has difficulty seeing well enough to drive at night c. 60-yr-old who has difficulty hearing clearly in a noisy environment d. 64-yr-old who has decreased hearing and ear "stuffiness" without pain

The occupational health nurse is caring for an employee who is complaining of bilateral eye pain after a cleaning solution splashed into the employee's eyes. Which action will the nurse take? a. Apply cool compresses. b. Flush the eyes with saline. c. Apply antiseptic ophthalmic ointment to the eyes. d. Cover the eyes with dry sterile patches and shields.

labyrinth

The patient's clinical manifestations of dizziness and nausea suggest a disorder of the ___, which controls balance and contains three semicircular canals and the vestibule.

diabetes

The presence of acanthosis nigricans in skinfolds suggests either having ___ or being at an increased risk for it.

The priority nursing diagnosis for a patient experiencing an acute attack with Meniere's disease is a. risk for falls related to episodic dizziness. b. impaired verbal communication related to tinnitus. c. self-care deficit (bathing and dressing) related to vertigo. d. imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to nausea.

The safest technique for the nurse to use when assisting a blind patient in ambulating to the bathroom is to a. have the patient place a hand on the nurse's shoulder and guide the patient. b. lead the patient slowly to the bathroom, holding on to the patient by the arm. c. stay beside the patient and describe any obstacles on the path to the bathroom. d. walk slightly ahead of the patient, allowing the patient to hold the nurse's elbow.

The school nurse is caring for a child with a penetrating eye injury. Emergency treatment includes which intervention? a. Apply a regular eye patch. b. Apply a Fox shield to affected eye and any type of patch to the other eye. c. Apply ice until the physician is seen. d. Irrigate eye copiously with a sterile saline solution.

The school nurse is conducting a class for school-age children on Lyme disease. Which is characteristic of Lyme disease? a. Difficult to prevent b. Treated with oral antibiotics in stages 1, 2, and 3 c. Caused by a spirochete that enters the skin through a tick bite d. Common in geographic areas where the soil contains the mycotic spores that cause the disease

The single parent of a 3-year-old child who has just been diagnosed with chickenpox tells the nurse that she cannot afford to stay home with the child and miss work. The parent asks the nurse if some medication will shorten the course of the illness. Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention? a. Reassure the parent that it is not necessary to stay home with the child. b. Explain that no medication will shorten the course of the illness. c. Explain the advantages of the medication acyclovir (Zovirax) to treat chickenpox. d. Explain the advantages of the medication VCZ immune globulin (VariZIG) to treat chickenpox.

There is one opening in the schedule at the dermatology clinic, and four patients are seeking appointments today. Which patient will the nurse schedule for the available opening? a. 50-yr-old with skin redness after having a chemical peel 3 days ago b. 38-year old with a 7-mm nevus on the face that has recently become darker c. 62-yr-old with multiple small, soft, pedunculated papules in both axillary areas d. 42-yr-old with complaints of itching after using topical fluorouracil on the nose

Lichenification

Thickening of the skin with accentuated normal skin markings, called ___, is likely to occur in areas where the patient scratches the skin frequently.

corticosteroids

Thinning of the skin indicates that atrophy, a possible adverse effect of topical ___, is occurring.

To decrease the risk for future hearing loss, which action should the nurse implement with college students at the on-campus health clinic? a. Perform tympanometry. b. Schedule otoscopic examinations. c. Administer influenza immunizations. d. Discuss exposure to amplified music.

To decrease the risk for sun damage to the skin, which information should the nurse include when teaching patients? a. Waterproof sunscreens will provide good protection when swimming. b. Use a sunscreen with an SPF of at least 8 to 10 for adequate protection. c. Try to stay out of the sun between the hours of 10 AM and 2 PM (regular time). d. Increase sun exposure by no more than 10 minutes a day to avoid skin damage.

To determine whether treatment is effective for a patient with primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG), the nurse can evaluate the patient for improvement by a. questioning the patient about blurred vision. b. noting any changes in the patient's visual field. c. asking the patient to rate the pain using a 0 to 10 scale. d. assessing the patient's depth perception when climbing stairs.

ringworm

Treatment with the antifungal agent griseofulvin is part of the treatment for the fungal disease ___.

What is cellulitis often caused by? a. Herpes zoster b. Candida albicans c. Human papillomavirus d. Streptococcus or Staphylococcus organisms

What is the best method to prevent the spread of infection to others when the nurse is changing the dressing over a wound infected with Staphylococcus aureus? a. Change the dressing using sterile gloves. b. Apply antibiotic ointment over the wound. c. Wash hands and properly dispose of soiled dressings. d. Soak the dressing in sterile normal saline before removal.

What is the single most important factor to consider when communicating with children? a. The child's nonverbal behaviors b. Presence or absence of the child's parent c. The child's physical condition d. The child's developmental level

When assessing a new patient at the outpatient clinic, the nurse notes dry, scaly skin; thin hair; and thick, brittle nails. What is the nurse's most important action? a. Instruct the patient about the importance of nutrition for skin health. b. Make a referral to a podiatrist so that the nails can be safely trimmed. c. Consult with the health care provider about the need for further diagnostic testing. d. Teach the patient about using moisturizing creams and lotions to decrease dry skin.

When assessing a patient who spilled hot oil on the right leg and foot, the nurse notes dry, pale, and hard skin. The patient states that the burn is not painful. What term would the nurse use to document the burn depth? a. First-degree skin destruction b. Full-thickness skin destruction c. Deep partial-thickness skin destruction d. Superficial partial-thickness skin destruction

When assessing a patient's consensual pupil response, the nurse should a. have the patient cover one eye while facing the nurse. b. observe for a light reflection in the center of both pupils. c. shine a light into one eye and observe responses of both pupils. d. instruct the patient to follow a moving object using only the eyes.

When assessing the eyes of a neonate, the nurse observes opacity of the lens. This represents which impairment? a. Glaucoma b. Blindness c. Cataracts d. Retinoblastoma

When examining a patient's oral cavity, the nurse notes the presence of white lesions that resemble milk curds at the back of the throat. Which question by the nurse is appropriate at this time? a. Do you have a productive cough? b. Have you ever had an oral herpes infection? c. How often do you brush your teeth? d. Are you taking any medications at present?

When examining an older patient in the home, the home health nurse notices irregular patterns of bruising at different stages of healing on the patient's body. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Ensure the patient wears shoes with nonslip soles. b. Discourage using throw rugs throughout the house. c. Talk with the patient alone and ask about the bruising. d. Notify the health care provider so that radiographs can be ordered.

When obtaining a health history from a 49-yr-old patient, which patient statement is most important to communicate to the primary health care provider? a. "My eyes are dry now." b. "It is hard for me to see at night." c. "My vision is blurry when I read." d. "I can't see as far over to the side."

When performing a skin assessment, the nurse notes angiomas on the chest of an older patient. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Suggest an appointment with a dermatologist. b. Assess the patient for evidence of liver disease. c. Teach the patient about skin changes with aging. d. Discuss the use of sunscreen to prevent skin cancers.

When reviewing a patient's medical record, the nurse notes an order for carbamide peroxide eardrops. Based on this information, the nurse interprets that these eardrops are being used for which purpose? a. To reduce inflammation b. To reduce production of cerumen c. To loosen the cerumen for easier removal d. To inhibit growth of microorganisms in the external canal

When teaching a patient about the proper application of timolol (Timoptic) eyedrops, the nurse will include which instruction? a. "Apply the drops into the conjunctival sac instead of directly onto the eye." b. "Apply the drops directly to the eyeball (cornea) for the best effect." c. "Blot your eye with a tissue immediately after applying the drops." d. "Tilt your head forward before applying the eyedrops."

When teaching a patient about the treatment of acoustic neuroma, the nurse will include information about a. applying sunscreen. b. preventing fall injuries. c. decreasing dietary sodium. d. chemotherapy side effects.

When the nurse is administering a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent intravenously, an important consideration is to a. infuse the medication over a short period of time. b. administer the chemotherapy through small-bore catheter. c. stop the infusion if swelling is observed at the site. d. hold the medication unless a central venous line is available.

When the nurse is taking a health history of a new patient at the ear clinic, the patient states, "I have to sleep with the television on." Which follow-up question is appropriate to obtain more information about possible hearing problems? a. "Do you grind your teeth at night?" b. "What time do you usually fall asleep?" c. "Have you noticed ringing in your ears?" d. "Are you ever dizzy when you are lying down?"

When the patient turns his head quickly during the admission assessment, the nurse observes nystagmus. What is the indicated nursing action? a. Assess the patient with a Rinne test. b. Place a fall-risk bracelet on the patient. c. Ask the patient to watch the mouths of staff when they are speaking. d. Remind unlicensed assistive personnel to speak loudly to the patient.

Which abnormality on the skin of an older patient is the priority to discuss immediately with the health care provider? a. Dry, scaly patches on the face b. Numerous varicosities on both legs c. Petechiae on the chest and abdomen d. Small dilated blood vessels on the face

Which action can the nurse working in the emergency department delegate to experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Ask a patient with decreased visual acuity about medications taken at home. b. Perform Snellen testing of visual acuity for a patient with a history of cataracts. c. Obtain information from a patient about any history of childhood ear infections. d. Inspect a patient's external ear for redness, swelling, or presence of skin lesions.

Which action could the registered nurse (RN) who is working in the eye and ear clinic delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Evaluate a patient's ability to administer eye drops. b. Check a patient's visual acuity using a Snellen chart. c. Inspect a patient's external ear for signs of irritation caused by a hearing aid. d. Teach a patient with otosclerosis about use of sodium fluoride and vitamin D.

Which action should the nurse take when providing patient teaching to a 76-yr-old patient with mild presbycusis? a. Use patient education handouts rather than discussion. b. Use a higher-pitched tone of voice to provide instructions. c. Ask for permission to turn off the television before teaching. d. Wait until family members have left before initiating teaching.

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient in the rehabilitation phase after a burn injury to the right arm and chest? a. Keep the right arm in a position of comfort. b. Avoid the use of sustained-release narcotics. c. Teach about the purpose of tetanus immunization. d. Apply water-based cream to burned areas frequently.

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)? a. Teach the patient about use of medications to reduce symptoms. b. Place the patient in a dark, quiet room to avoid stimulating BPPV attacks. c. Teach the patient that canalith repositioning may be used to reduce dizziness. d. Speak with a low-pitched voice so that the patient is able to hear instructions.

Which action will the nurse take when performing ear irrigation for a patient with cerumen impaction? a. Assist the patient to a supine position for the irrigation. b. Fill the irrigation syringe with body-temperature solution. c. Use a sterile applicator to clean the ear canal before irrigating. d. Occlude the ear canal completely with the syringe while irrigating.

Which activities can the nurse working in the outpatient clinic delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) (select all that apply)? a. Administer patch testing to a patient with allergic dermatitis. b. Interview a new patient about chronic health problems and allergies. c. Apply a sterile dressing after the health care provider excises a mole. d. Explain potassium hydroxide testing to a patient with a skin infection. e. Teach a patient about site care after a punch biopsy of an upper arm lesion.

ace

Which adverse effects will the nurse expect in a teenage patient who is using topical tretinoin (Retin-A)? (Select all that apply.) a. Crusted skin b. Itching c. Altered skin pigmentation d. Rosacea e. Red and edematous blisters

Which assessment finding alerts the nurse to provide patient teaching about cataract development? a. History of hyperthyroidism b. Unequal pupil size and shape c. Blurred vision and light sensitivity d. Loss of peripheral vision in both eyes

Which chart should the nurse use to assess the visual acuity of an 8-year-old child? a. Lea chart b. HOTV chart c. Tumbling E chart d. Snellen chart

Which equipment will the nurse obtain to perform a Rinne test? a. Otoscope b. Tuning fork c. Audiometer d. Ticking watch

Which finding in an emergency department patient who reports being struck in the right eye with a fist is a priority for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient complains of a right-sided headache. b. The sclera on the right eye has broken blood vessels. c. The area around the right eye is bruised and tender to the touch. d. The patient complains of "a curtain" over part of the visual field.

Which information about a patient who had a stapedotomy yesterday is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Oral temperature is 100.8° F (38.1° C). b. The patient complains of ear "fullness." c. Small amount of dried drainage on dressing. d. The patient reports that hearing has gotten worse.

Which information should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a patient diagnosed with basal cell carcinoma (BCC)? a. Treatment plans include watchful waiting. b. Screening for metastasis will be important. c. Minimizing sun exposure reduces risk for future BCC. d. Low dose systemic chemotherapy is used to treat BCC.

Which information should the nurse include when teaching a patient who has just received a prescription for ciprofloxacin (Cipro) to treat a urinary tract infection? a. Use a sunscreen with a high SPF when exposed to the sun. b. Sun exposure may decrease the effectiveness of the medication. c. Photosensitivity may result in an artificial-looking tan appearance. d. Wear sunglasses to avoid eye damage while taking this medication.

Which information should the nurse include when teaching a patient who has just received a prescription for sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim (Septra, Bactrim) to treat a urinary tract infection? a. Use a sunscreen with a high SPF when exposed to the sun. b. Photosensitivity may result in an artificial-looking tan appearance. c. Sun exposure may decrease the effectiveness of the medication. d. Wear sunglasses to avoid eye damage while taking sulfamethoxazole.

Which information should the nurse include when teaching patients about decreasing the risk for sun damage to the skin? a. Use a sunscreen with an SPF of at least 10 for adequate protection. b. Try to stay out of the direct sun between the hours of 10 AM and 2 PM. c. Water resistant sunscreens will provide good protection when swimming. d. Increase sun exposure by no more than 10 minutes a day to avoid skin damage.

Which information will the nurse include for a patient contemplating a cochlear implant? a. Cochlear implants are not useful for patients with congenital deafness. b. Cochlear implants are most helpful as an early intervention for presbycusis. c. Cochlear implants improve hearing in patients with conductive hearing loss. d. Cochlear implants require extensive training in order to reach the full benefit.

Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient with herpes simplex type 1 keratitis? a. Use of natamycin (Natacyn) antifungal eyedrops b. Application of corticosteroid ophthalmic ointment c. Avoidance of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) d. Completion of the prescribed series of oral acyclovir (Zovirax)

Which information will the nurse include when teaching an older patient about skin care? a. Dry the skin thoroughly before applying lotions. b. Bathe and wash hair daily with soap and shampoo. c. Use warm water and a moisturizing soap when bathing. d. Use antibacterial soaps when bathing to avoid infection.

Which information will the nurse provide to the patient scheduled for refractometry? a. "You should not take any of your eye medicines before the examination." b. "You will need to wear sunglasses for a few hours after the examination." c. "The doctor will shine a bright light into your eye during the examination." d. "The surface of your eye will be numb while the doctor does the examination."

tick

Which insect's bite causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever?

Which integumentary assessment data from an older patient admitted with bacterial pneumonia is of concern to the nurse? a. Brown macules on extremities b. Reports a history of allergic rashes c. Skin wrinkled with tenting on both hands d. Longitudinal nail ridges and sparse scalp hair

Which is an effective strategy to reduce the stress of burn dressing procedures? a. Give the child as many choices as possible. b. Reassure the child that dressing changes are not painful. c. Explain to the child why analgesics cannot be used. d. Encourage the child to master stress with controlled passivity.

Which is an important consideration for the nurse when changing dressings and applying topical medication to a child's abdomen and leg burns? a. Apply topical medication with clean hands. b. Wash hands and forearms before and after dressing change. c. If dressings adhere to the wound, soak in hot water before removal. d. Apply dressing so that movement is limited during the healing process.

Which is the most appropriate vision acuity test for a child who is in preschool? a. Snellen letter chart b. Cover test c. HOTV chart d. Ishihara test

Which is usually the only symptom of pediculosis capitis (head lice)? a. Itching b. Vesicles c. Scalp rash d. Localized inflammatory response

Which nursing action is a priority for a patient who has suffered a burn injury while working on an electrical power line? a. Inspect the contact burns. b. Check the blood pressure. c. Stabilize the cervical spine. d. Assess alertness and orientation.

angiomas

___ are a common occurrence as patients get older, but they may occur with systemic problems such as liver disease.

Which nursing activity is appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) working in the eye clinic to delegate to experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Instilling antiviral drops for a patient with a corneal ulcer b. Application of a warm compress to a patient's hordeolum c. Instruction about hand washing for a patient with herpes keratitis d. Looking for eye irritation in a patient with possible conjunctivitis

Which nursing consideration is important when caring for a child with impetigo contagiosa? a. Apply topical corticosteroids to decrease inflammation. b. Carefully remove dressings so as not to dislodge undermined skin, crusts, and debris. c. Carefully wash hands and maintain cleanliness when caring for an infected child. d. Examine child under a Wood lamp for possible spread of lesions.

Which of the following is the most common clinical manifestation of retinoblastoma? a. Cat's eye reflex b. Sunken eye socket c. Glaucoma d. Amblyopia

Which of the following is the most common clinical manifestation of retinoblastoma? a. Glaucoma b. Amblyopia c. Cat's eye reflex d. Sunken eye socket

Which patient arriving at the urgent care center will the nurse assess first? a. Patient with purulent left eye discharge and conjunctival inflammation b. Patient with acute right eye pain that began while using home power tools c. Patient who is complaining of intense discomfort after an insect crawled into the right ear d. Patient who has Ménière's disease and is complaining of nausea, vomiting, and dizziness

Which patient is most appropriate for the burn unit charge nurse to assign to a registered nurse (RN) who has floated from the hospital medical unit? a. A patient who has twice-daily burn debridements to partial-thickness facial burns b. A patient who has just returned from having a cultured epithelial autograft to the chest c. A patient who has a weight loss of 15% from admission and will have enteral feedings started d. A patient who has blebs under an autograft on the thigh and has an order for bleb aspiration

Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A patient with burns who is complaining of level 8 (0 to 10 scale) pain b. A patient with smoke inhalation who has wheezes and altered mental status c. A patient with full-thickness leg burns who is scheduled for a dressing change d. A patient with partial thickness burns who is receiving IV fluids at 500 mL/hr

Which prescribed drug is best for the nurse to give before scheduled wound debridement on a patient with partial-thickness burns? a. ketorolac b. gabapentin (Neurontin) c. lorazepam (Ativan) d. hydromorphone (Dilaudid)

Which prescribed medication should the nurse give first to a patient who has just been admitted to a hospital with acute angle-closure glaucoma? a. Morphine sulfate 4 mg IV b. Mannitol (Osmitrol) 100 mg IV c. Betaxolol (Betoptic) 1 drop in each eye d. Acetazolamide (Diamox) 250 mg orally

Which should be the major consideration when selecting toys for a child who is cognitively impaired? a. Ability to provide exercise b. Ability to teach useful skills c. Age appropriateness d. Safety

Which statement by a patient with bacterial conjunctivitis indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will wash my hands often during the day." b. "I will remove my contact lenses at bedtime." c. "I will not share towels with my friends or family." d. "I will monitor my family for eye redness or drainage."

Which statement by the patient to the home health nurse indicates a need for more teaching about self-administering eardrops? a. "I will leave the ear wick in place while administering the drops." b. "I will hold the tip of the dropper above the ear to administer the drops." c. "I will refrigerate the medication until I am ready to administer the drops." d. "I should lie down before and for 5 minutes after administering the drops."

Which teaching point should the nurse plan to include when caring for a patient whose vision is corrected to 20/200? a. How to access audio books b. How to use a white cane safely c. Where Braille instruction is available d. Where to obtain hand-held magnifiers

Which term refers to the ability to see objects clearly at close range but not at a distance? a. Cataract b. Glaucoma c. Amblyopia d. Myopia

Which topic will the nurse teach after a patient has had outpatient cataract surgery and lens implantation? a. Use of oral opioids for pain control b. Administration of corticosteroid drops c. Importance of coughing and deep breathing exercises d. Need for bed rest for the first 1 to 2 days after the surgery

While being prepared for a biopsy of a lump in the right breast, the patient asks the nurse about the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor. Which answer by the nurse is correct? a. "Malignant cells reproduce more rapidly than normal cells." b. "Benign tumors do not cause damage to other tissues." c. "Benign tumors are likely to recur in the same location." d. "Malignant tumors may spread to other tissues or organs."

While the patient's full-thickness burn wounds to the face are exposed, what nursing action prevents cross contamination? a. Use sterile gloves when removing dressings. b. Wear gown, cap, mask, and gloves during care. c. Keep the room temperature at 70° F (20° C) at all times. d. Give IV antibiotics to prevent bacterial colonization of wounds.

accommodation

___ is defined as the ability of the lens to adjust to various distances. The pupils constrict while fixating on an object that is being moved from far away to near the eyes.

scale

___ is heaped-up keratinized cells, flaky exfoliation, irregular, thick or thin, dry or oily, varied in size, and silver white or tan.

Tympanometry

___ measures the ability of the eardrum to vibrate.

opioid

___ pain medications are the best choice for pain control during wound debridement.

myopia

___, or nearsightedness, refers to the ability to see objects clearly at close range but not at distance.

chalazion

a nodule or cyst, usually on the upper eyelid, caused by obstruction in a sebaceous gland

amblyopia

a reduction in or loss of vision that usually occurs in children who strongly favor one eye

strabismus

abnormal deviation of the eye

dyscoria

abnormally shaped pupil

aphakia

absence of the lens of the eye

leukokoria

aka cat's eye reflex; yellowish white reflex seen in the pupil because of a Retinoblastoma tumor behind the lens

photophobia

aversion to light

scotoma

blind spot in vision

presbyopia

farsightedness caused by loss of elasticity of the lens of the eye, occurring typically in middle and old age

arcus senilis

gray-white arc or circle around the limbus of the iris that is common with aging

external otitis

inflammation of the external ear

blepharitis

inflammation of the glands and eyelash follicles along the lashline of the eyelids

adult inclusion conjunctivitis

caused by C. trachomatis D-K, becoming more common due to rise in STI rates

allergic conjunctivitis

caused by exposure, can be mild and transitory or severe enough to cause significant swelling, sometimes ballooning the conjunctiva beyond the eyelids

trachoma

chronic conjunctivitis caused by chlamydia trachomatis; a major cause of blindness worldwide

bacterical conjunctivitis

common infection, especially in children, with symptoms of: discomfort, pruritus, redness, and mucopurulent drainage

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2205 Exam 3: Eyes, Ears, Skin, Burns

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