3S071 CDC Volumes 1-3

What group in the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct is the basic warfighting organization of the Air Force and is the building block of the air and space expeditionary task force (AETF)? a. Air and space expeditionary squadron b. Air and space expeditionary element c. Air and space expeditionary group d. Air and space expeditionary wing

a. Air and space expeditionary squadron

The Air Force Reserve Command's (AFRC) vision is to have citizen a. Airmen fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power b. officers fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power c. enlisted fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power d. Airmen partially engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power

a. Airmen fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power

Which directorate assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with facilitating the professional development of all enlisted members and officers below the grade of colonel? a. Assignments b. Personnel Data Systems c. Civilian Force Integration d. Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations

a. Assignments

When there is a need to initiate routine duty status change requests into the Case Management System (CMS), what system will your commander utilize? a. Base-Level Service Delivery Model (BLSDM) b. Assignment Management System (AMS) c. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) d. Case Management System (CMS)

a. Base-Level Service Delivery Model (BLSDM)

As a supervisor, what do you require to develop a Master Training Plan (MTP) used to manage work center and individual training? a. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) b. Career Development Course (CDC) c. Specialty Training Standard (STS) d. Job Qualification Standard (JQS)

a. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

What module in the Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward is the process in which we collect data for the initial and subsequent supplement death messages? a. Casualty Report b. Casualty Repeat c. Casualty Release d. Casualty Identify

a. Casualty Report

Who has overall responsibility for the program objectives and for the management and operation of the Air Force Casualty Program? a. Chief, Casualty Matters Division b. Casualty assistance representative c. Force Support squadron commander d. Air Force Casualty Service Branch chief

a. Chief, Casualty Matters Division

A plan to develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary describes which type of plan? a. Concept b. Operation c. Functional d. Supporting

a. Concept

How often are transaction registers (TR) programmatically controlled and produced? a. Daily b. Weekly c. Monthly d. Quarterly

a. Daily

Which joint and service planning system's objective is to enable Air Force-unique operation planning process which includes associated joint policy procedures? a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES) b. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES) c. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) d. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)

a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES)

This office defines the Culture of Airmen, including core standards, values and expectations. a. Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D) b. Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P) c. Directorate of Plans and Integration (AF/A1X) d. Issues Team (AF/A1I)

a. Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D)

What document is used to monitor force build-up, identify unfilled positions, and initiate replacement actions? a. Employment requirements manning document b. Deployment requirements manning document c. Deployment schedule of events document d. Unit personnel manning document

a. Employment requirements manning document

What should rarely be the deciding factor in making a recommendation on a tendered resignation as a result of a pending court-martial? a. Expense b. Timeliness c. Availability d. Embarrassment

a. Expense

Who develops procedures for administrative support of active, reserve components, and retirees? a. Functional directorates b. Functional dignitaries c. Functional managers d. Functional leaders

a. Functional directorates

An individual cannot change a Military Personnel Data System (MILPDS) standard product. Who designs and controls those products? a. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) b. Military Personnel Section (MPS) c. Personnel System Manager (PSM) d. Major Command (MAJCOM)

a. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC)

Which organization implements the approved promotion program through a fair and impartial process to ensure the officer corps has confidence in the integrity of the selection process? a. Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) b. Military Personnel Section (MPS) c. Major command (MAJCOM) d. Wing command

a. Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC)

The concept of mobilization is associated with "calling up" Reserve Component forces. What does "calling up" do, if anything, to the active duty's military capability? a. Increases military capability b. Decreases military capability c. Military capability stays the same d. Enhances the number of Reserve Component forces

a. Increases military capability

Which application is used for providing capabilities such as access indoctrination, debriefing history, incident and issue file reporting, history, and management of unit personnel security functions? a. Joint Clearance and Access Verification System (JCAVS) b. Joint Adjudication Management System (JAMS) c. Personnel Occupying Information System (POIS) d. Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS)

a. Joint Clearance and Access Verification System (JCAVS)

What provides authoritative guidance based upon existing capabilities of our Armed Forces? a. Joint doctrine b. Basic doctrine c. Execution planning d. Operations planning

a. Joint doctrine

Why is it important to maintain a communications-out recall roster? a. Local communications may be inoperative or overloaded b. It is easier to go and find people rather than call them on the phone c. The communications squadron requires a communications-out recall roster d. The wing commander requires all squadrons to maintain a communications-out roster

a. Local communications may be inoperative or overloaded

Commanders have the ability to access the AFPC secure/link on the AF Portal Website to query enlisted promotions results by name a. MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code, and state/country b. MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, and PAS code only c. unit, AFSC, PAS code, and PFE/SKT test scores d. AFSC and PAS code only

a. MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code, and state/country

What management assessment product (MAP) can the career development section use to ensure database integrity if a member is projected for a permanent change of station (PCS) and is demoted before departing? a. MAP 6, ENHANCEMENT-QUALITY-CHECK b. MAP 8, EMPLOYMENTS-EXPIRED DS-LOST TIME c. MAP 10, RELOC-AAC d. MAP 13A, RELOCATION-NOTIFICATION NOT ON FILE

a. MAP 6, ENHANCEMENT-QUALITY-CHECK

Which unit type code (UTC) is considered or called the personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) accountability team and is the only stand alone PERSCO team? a. RFPF1 b. RFPF2 c. RFPF3 d. RFPF4

a. RFPF1

Without retaining for six months, who may directly discharge an officer that is considered a threat to good order and discipline? a. Secretary of the Air Force b. Air Force Chief of Staff c. Secretary of Defense d. Joint Chief of Staff

a. Secretary of the Air Force

Who is responsible for making sure an authorized person is available to receive a secure package on a holiday and to verify the correct mailing address? a. Sender b. Shipper c. Receiver d. Supplier

a. Sender

Reserve friendships and team work that develop over time provide esprit-de-corps to the unit along with what other strength? a. Stability b. Liability c. Reliability d. Responsibility

a. Stability

If there is reportable information available on the casualty report that would be of interest to family members or of value to the addresses of the report, do not label any item a. TO BE SUPPLEMENTED b. UNDETERMINED c. UNCONFIRMED d. UNKNOWN

a. TO BE SUPPLEMENTED

Why is it important to consider your environment when hand carrying sensitive material? a. The material may get confiscated by unauthorized personnel b. The material may not be important enough to hand carry c. The foreign government may want to take it from you d. To avoid bringing unwanted attention to yourself

a. The material may get confiscated by unauthorized personnel

Once the military personnel section receives the hardship package, reviews the package, and requests a report individual person (RIP), how many days do they have to forward the package to the appropriate agency? a. Three duty days b. Three calendar days c. Five duty days d. Five calendar days

a. Three duty days

During the reception process, the personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) team is required to collect what documents? a. Two copies of the contingency/exercise/deployment orders and a completed AF Form 245 b. Three copies of the contingency/exercise/deployment orders and a blank AF Form 245 c. Two copies of the member's immunization letter and a completed AF Form 245 d. Three copies of the member's immunization letter and a blank AF Form 245

a. Two copies of the contingency/exercise/deployment orders and a completed AF Form 245

When personal conduct falls significantly below acceptable military standards, the characterization for discharge is a. Under Other Than Honorable Conditions b. Under Honorable Conditions c. Honorable d. Favorable

a. Under Other Than Honorable Conditions

Duty status reporting is event oriented and serves as a personnel function of a. accounting b. operations c. acquisition d. navigating

a. accounting

Challenges and threats of those who are opposed to United States values and interests may arise from a. adversaries b. dignitaries c. diplomats d. allies

a. adversaries

The duties and responsibilities of the personnel craftsman include all of the following except a. advise civilians on civilian personnel issues and programs b. create, maintain, and audit personnel records c. provide casualty assistance d. perform personnel actions

a. advise civilians on civilian personnel issues and programs

Traits or conduct that may be grounds for disqualification or decertification of individuals from the personnel reliability program (PRP) do not include a. advising supervisors of factors that may have an adverse impact on your performance b. being arrested at the installation gate for an illegal substance in your vehicle c. using expired prescription medications after the intended use d. hitting a parked car after consuming too much alcohol

a. advising supervisors of factors that may have an adverse impact on your performance

The type of doctrine that states the most fundamental and enduring beliefs that describe and guide the proper use of Air Forces in military action is known as a. basic b. joint c. tactical d. operational

a. basic

The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC) is responsible for executing the Air Force battle rhythm by centrally managing the scheduling and sourcing of forces to meet the requirements of a. combatant commanders b. squadron commanders c. group commanders d. wing commanders

a. combatant commanders

The installation personnel readiness element (IPR) serves as the military personnel sections (MPS) war planner for personnel a. deployments, exercises, contingencies, and rotational matters b. deployments, contingencies, and assignment limitation codes c. exercises, assignment limitation codes, and deployments d. assignment limitation codes, deployments, and rotational matters

a. deployments, exercises, contingencies, and rotational matters

A member's date of enlistment (DOE), or day entering an extension, requires an E63 update be input into the military personnel data system (MILPDS) no earlier than a. 30 days prior b. 60 days prior c. 90 days prior d. 120 days prior

d. 120 days prior

The air and space expeditionary force (AEF) operates on a how many month life cycle? a. 14-month b. 18-month c. 20-month d. 24-month

d. 24-month

Which code do you use in the military personnel data system (MilPDS) to reflect that a member has an Article 15 with suspended punishment? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3

d. 3

When performing military personnel appropriation man-days, Airmen and their families are entitled to the same medical care as active duty personnel as long as their orders specify a period of a. 28 days or greater b. 29 days or greater c. 30 days or greater d. 31 days or greater

d. 31 days or greater

Approximately how many aircraft are assigned to the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC)? a. 380 b. 400 c. 420 d. 440

d. 440

What skill level indentifies enlisted personnel who, through experience, training, and performance, have shown a high degree of managerial and supervisory ability? a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 9

d. 9

Which publication does not apply to releasing information on Air Force casualties? a. AFI 35-101, Public Affairs Policies and Procedures b. AFSUPDODR 5400.7, Freedom of Information Act Program c. AFI 33-332, Air Force Privacy Act Program d. AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services

d. AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services

Changes to the control Air Force specialty code (CAFSC) other than initial, retraining, normal skill-level upgrade, and special duty identifier (SDI) actions are reviewed for propriety by both the gaining and losing a. Career field managers b. Base training managers c. Major command (MAJCOM) assignment managers d. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) assignment managers

d. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) assignment managers

Which objective is not a Casualty Services Program objective? a. Provide casualty representative reports of casualties to ensure timely notification b. Eliminate delays in providing benefits to the next of kin (NOK) c. Closely track all casualty reports and notifications d. Assist the family with funeral arrangements

d. Assist the family with funeral arrangements

What does the combination of the first, second, and third positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identify? a. Skill level b. Career field c. Career group d. Career field subdivision

d. Career field subdivision

These are experienced operational leaders, skilled at merging subordinates' talents, skills, and resources with other teams' functions to most effectively accomplish the mission. a. Technical sergeants b. Master sergeants c. Senior master sergeants d. Chief master sergeants

d. Chief master sergeants

What enlisted rank must epitomize the finest qualities of a military leader and develop future enlisted leaders? a. Technical sergeants b. Master sergeants c. Senior master sergeants d. Chief master sergeants

d. Chief master sergeants

Whose responsibility is it to make sure an up-to-date unit recall roster is maintained and forwarded to the installation command post? a. Installation deployment function b. Personnel readiness function c. Unit deployment manager d. Commander

d. Commander

Within the Air Force personnel accountability assessment system (AFPAAS), who has the ability and access to complete a needs assessment on behalf of Airmen or family members? a. Supervisor b. First Sergeant c. Unit deployment manager d. Commanding officer representative

d. Commanding officer representative

The requirements in specific contingency situations must be continuously monitored and reviewed by the a. Combatant commander b. Joint forces commander c. Support command personnel planner d. Component command personnel planner

d. Component command personnel planner

Planning that encompasses the movement of forces and their sustainment resources from their original locations to a specific destination to conduct joint operations describes which joint operation planning activity? a. Redeployment b. Employment c. Mobilization d. Deployment

d. Deployment

Which office serves as the program manager for planning, programming, and developing information technology (IT) for the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1)? a. Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D) b. Directorate of Manpower and Organization (AF/A1M) c. Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P) d. Directorate of Plans and Integration (AF/A1X)

d. Directorate of Plans and Integration (AF/A1X)

What presents the fundamental principle that guides the armed forces in support of national objectives and shapes the way the armed forces think about the use of the military instrument of national power? a. Joint force concepts b. Operations planning c. Security strategy d. Doctrine

d. Doctrine

Who has the authority to authorize the use of personnel outside their control Air Force specialty code (CAFSC) up to 130 days in a 12-month period? a. The unit commander b. Total force service center c. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) d. Force Management Operations element

d. Force Management Operations element

Which activity serves as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for deployment availability codes and duty status reporting programs? a. HQ AFPC/DPC b. HQ AFPC/DPW c. HQ USAF/A1PR d. HQ AFPC/DPWR

d. HQ AFPC/DPWR

The Air and Space Expeditionary Center (AEFC) is a direct reporting unit (DRU) assigned under a. major command (MAJCOM) b. a numbered Air Force (NAF) c. Headquarters Air Force (HAF) d. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC)

d. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC)

Why is it important to document interruptions to upgrade training, such as leave or temporary duty, on the AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet? a. So the unit training manager (UTM) can reference the dates b. So the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) can reference the dates c. In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training and the course material d. In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training, documentation can be referenced

d. In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training, documentation can be referenced

This type of training is defined as specialized, systematic and/or thorough technical training provided to enhance specific knowledge needs of each person involved in the training. a. Initial skills b. On-the job c. Upgrade d. In-house

d. In-house

During an exercise, inspection, or a disaster control exercise, who serves as the personnel control center (PCC) or personnel readiness center (PRC) reporting directly to the battle staff? a. Command post b. Group control center c. Military personnel section d. Installation personnel readiness element

d. Installation personnel readiness element

Which organization ensures squadron commanders are provided casualty services information and training during the Commander's Orientation Program? a. Force Support Squadron b. Casualty assistance office c. Wing commander's office d. Major command

d. Major command

What document identifies all day-to day mission requirements, core tasks, in-garrison and contingency tasks, and additional duties performed in the work center? a. Specialty Training Standard b. Job Qualification Standard c. Master Training Plan d. Master Task List

d. Master Task List

Designating the primary Air Force specialty code (PAFSC) for each officer and enlisted Airman is the responsibility of the a. Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) b. Unit training manager (UTM) c. Base training manager (BTM) d. Military Personnel Section (MPS)

d. Military Personnel Section (MPS)

Who has jurisdiction over the personnel control center (PCC)? a. Wing/Installation commander b. Mission support group commander c. Force support squadron commander d. Military personnel section commander

d. Military personnel section commander

What are the joint operation planning activities that support the development of operations plans, concept plans, functional plans, and operation orders? a. Sustainment, reconstitution, mobilization, and employment b. Mobilization, deployment, reconstitution, and sustainment c. Employment, sustainment, redeployment, and reconstitution d. Mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment

d. Mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment

Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept provides trained and ready air and space forces for what type of defense? a. Aerial b. Global c. Regional d. National

d. National

Regarding contingency, exercise, or deployment duty status reporting, which is not a deployment availability code (DAV) category? a. Time b. Legal c. Physical d. Personal

d. Personal

Which directorate assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with information technology and lifecycle management? a. Staff b. Force Operations c. Personnel Services d. Personnel Data Systems

d. Personnel Data Systems

Who has the responsibility to ensure the equipment custodian (EC) completes an annual inventory of supplies and equipment? a. Chief, Military personnel section b. NCOIC, Installation personnel readiness element c. Force support squadron unit deployment manager d. Personnel support for contingency operations team chief

d. Personnel support for contingency operations team chief

Which is not a reason that warrants an administrative separation? a. Parenthood b. Erroneous enlistment c. Entry-level performance and conduct d. Progressively downward trend in performance ratings

d. Progressively downward trend in performance ratings

If a member's assignment requires a higher or more current security clearance than the current security clearance on file, what does the Career Development element staff forward to the member's commander? a. Statement of service b. Memorandum of agreement c. Security verification checklist d. Security requirement memorandum

d. Security requirement memorandum

The Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward utilizes Microsoft Access for storing casualty information, and is designed to work on all computers as what type of application? a. Independently sourced b. Minimally operated c. Well equipped d. Stand alone

d. Stand alone

What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to cancel an extension prior to the effective date and is automatically output when the extension is cancelled? a. E6F b. TU4 c. TU5 d. TU6

d. TU6

The Reserves bring what three things to the military environment from their civilian employment? a. Citizen Airmen, community connections, and personnel stability b. Family, personnel stability, and community connections c. Manpower, people, and camaraderie d. Talent, depth, and experience

d. Talent, depth, and experience

Why is it important to develop and implement control measures when dealing with classified material? a. So you know where the classified information is kept b. To keep track of the people dealing with the classified material c. So security forces knows where the classified information is kept d. To decrease the possibility of classified information falling into the wrong hands

d. To decrease the possibility of classified information falling into the wrong hands

Why did the Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC) move from Langley AFB, Virginia to Randolph AFB, Texas? a. There were no longer facilities available to support the AEFC at Langley AFB b. The Air Combat Command Commander (COMACC) requested the move c. The Air Force Personnel Center Commander (AFPC/CC) requested the move d. To merge two centers together with a focus on operationalizing personnel under one commander

d. To merge two centers together with a focus on operationalizing personnel under one commander

What is the basic building block used in force planning and the deployment of air and space expeditionary task forces? a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning Execution Segment (DCAPES) b. Air and space expeditionary force mapping documents c. Time phased force deployment data d. Unit type code

d. Unit type code

What is key to the total training program? a. Career development courses (CDCs) b. Specialty knowledge test (SKT) c. On-the job training (OJT) d. Upgrade training (UGT)

d. Upgrade training (UGT)

Which joint and service planning system provides the Air Staff, Air Force planners, and Air Force commanders with current policies, apportioned forces, and planning factors for conducting and supporting operations? a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES) b. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES) c. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) d. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)

d. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)

When the air and space expeditionary task force is responsible for sustaining all base operating and support functions, it normally organizes as a/an a. air and space expeditionary squadron b. air and space expeditionary group c. numbered expeditionary air force d. air and expeditionary wing

d. air and expeditionary wing

Use all of the following approaches when researching your topic to uncover information that supports your communication goals except a. assign a deadline b. determine what is known c. review the purpose and scope of the overall project d. avoid asking your supervisor until you have all information to present

d. avoid asking your supervisor until you have all information to present

The mobilization tenet necessary to develop an appropriate response in a crisis, overcome unforeseen problems, and provide protection of the force and equipment while adapting to uncertainties and adjusting to the idea of war describes a. having an objective b. ensuring timeliness c. being subjective d. being flexible

d. being flexible

If the reviewing official (RO) needs to review the medical records of candidates and members of the personnel reliability program (PRP) to determine disqualifying conditions, he or she works with the a. primary care manager b. medical group commander c. medical records technician d. competent medical authority

d. competent medical authority

The promotion cycle begins with Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Weighted Airmen Promotion System (WAPS) database where the eligibility file is a. monitored b. confirmed c. accepted d. created

d. created

The Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) utilizes the Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P) to Communicate all of the following except. a. developing objectives b. performing analysis c. developing force management policies d. developing doctrine and legislative guidance

d. developing doctrine and legislative guidance

Why is it imperative to complete the four-step authorization process when confirming a person's level of access to classified information? a. Because each step is an intricate part of the "go, no-go" process b. Because each step is an intricate piece of the "checks and balance" process c. You will be unable to process the request, and therefore, the person will not get access d. You will be unable to process the request, no access is granted, and the process is repeated

b. Because each step is an intricate piece of the "checks and balance" process

Ensuring all casualty services personnel at serviced geographically separated units (GSU), and casualty augmentation support team (CAST) members are trained to handle supplemental instructions, messages for reporting casualties, and notification is the responsibility of the a. Wing commander b. Casualty assistance representative c. Force Support squadron commander d. Military Personnel Section commander

b. Casualty assistance representative

Deviations to the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct may be implemented on a case-by-case basis with whose approval? a. President b. Chief of staff c. Secretary of defense d. Secretary of the Air Force

b. Chief of staff

Which type of Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is initially based on how the member is classified at the time of enlistment or during basic training? a. Duty b. Control c. Primary d. Secondary

b. Control

For promotions to SSgt, TSgt, and MSgt, Airmen compete and test under the Weighted Airmen Promotion System (WAPS) in their a. Duty Air Force Specialty Code (DAFSC) b. Control Air Force Specialty Code (CAFSC) c. Primary Air Force Specialty Code (PAFSC) d. Secondary Air Force Specialty Code (2AFSC)

b. Control Air Force Specialty Code (CAFSC)

This office plans and executes the Base Realignment and Closure (BRAC) program. a. Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D) b. Directorate of Manpower and Organization (AF/A1M) c. Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P) d. Directorate of Plans and Integration (AF/A1X)

b. Directorate of Manpower and Organization (AF/A1M)

Which office does AF/A1 communicate with to ensure corporate Air Force requirements link mission capabilities to programmed resources? a. Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D) b. Directorate of Manpower and Organization (AF/A1M) c. Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P) d. Directorate of Plans and Integration (AF/A1X)

b. Directorate of Manpower and Organization (AF/A1M)

What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change an initial E63 projection prior to the effective date of a reenlistment action? a. E63 b. E64 c. E6D d. E6F

b. E64

Which system advertises requirements for special duty assignments, joint and departmental assignments, short-notice overseas (OS) assignments, and all CMSgt assignments? a. EQUAL b. EQUAL-Plus c. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) d. Base-level Service Delivery Model (BLSDM)

b. EQUAL-Plus

Which mobilization tenet is achieved through rapid needs assessment, efficient mobilization procedures, and frequent exercises to test and improve procedures? a. Having an objective b. Ensuring timeliness c. Being subjective d. Being flexible

b. Ensuring timeliness

Which phase begins once a real-world situation develops requiring Air Force personnel and resources to respond? a. Planning b. Execution c. Sustainment d. Initial arrival

b. Execution

Which office is responsible for providing administrative support to the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) by managing workflow, tracking correspondence, administering and monitoring security and safety programs, and overseeing supplies and equipment purchases? a. Issues Team (AF/A1I) b. Executive Services (AF/A1Z) c. HQ United States Air Force (USAF) d. HQ. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)

b. Executive Services (AF/A1Z)

How many flights were each organization realigned and consolidated into during phase I of the Mission Support Squadron's (MSS) transformative structure testing? a. Four b. Five c. Six d. Seven

b. Five

Which directorate assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with developing guidance, procedures and training for active duty, Guard, Reserve and civilian personnel accountability? a. Assignments b. Force Operations c. Personnel Services d. Personnel Data Systems

b. Force Operations

Personnel from what organization are eligible for assignment to the personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team? a. Services squadron b. Force support squadron c. Mission support group d. Deployed logistics section

b. Force support squadron

Equipment custodian (EC) for personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO), logistics force packaging system (LOGFOR) equipment and Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment is appointed by the a. Military personnel section commander b. Force support squadron commander c. Military personnel section chief d. Installation deployment officer

b. Force support squadron commander

Which activity is considered the reach back enabler that plans and delivers versatile Air and Space power to the right place at the right time to support commander Air Force forces' (COMAFFOR) mission needs? a. HQ AFPC/DPC b. HQ AFPC/DPW c. HQ USAF/A1PR d. HQ AFPC/DPWR

b. HQ AFPC/DPW

Which discharge is considered an admirable reflection that the member has satisfactorily completed a commitment to military service? a. Favorable b. Honorable c. Under Honorable (General) Conditions d. Under Other Than Honorable Conditions

b. Honorable

Once the member receives an approval of separation e-mail, they will access Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) secure website and complete the online a. Request for Terminal Leave b. Initial Separation Briefing c. Separation Incentive Briefing d. Release from Duty Counseling

b. Initial Separation Briefing

Which document is used to outline the Military Personnel Section (MPS) requirements to ensure personnel are assigned a valid position number, and to facilitate timely and accurate input of current data after a member's arrival? a. Unit personnel management roster (UPMR) b. Initial duty assignment (IDA) worksheet c. Unit manpower document (UMD) d. Alpha roster

b. Initial duty assignment (IDA) worksheet

Which application is used only by adjudicative personnel and provides capabilities such as case management and adjudicative history and summary? a. Joint Clearance and Access Verification System (JCAVS) b. Joint Adjudication Management System (JAMS) c. Personnel Occupying Information System (POIS) d. Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS)

b. Joint Adjudication Management System (JAMS)

Which joint and service planning system is the Department of Defense (DOD)-directed single, integrated joint command and control (C2) for conventional operation planning and execution? a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES) b. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES) c. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) d. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP

b. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES)

What agency publishes a planning order outlining various milestones necessary to staff and publish the associated Global Force Management allocation plan (GFMAP)? a. Air Staff b. Joint Staff c. Headquarters Air Force (HAF) d. Department of Defense (DOD)

b. Joint Staff

Which process is considered a sequential process performed simultaneously at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of war? a. Joint contingency planning b. Joint operations planning c. Mobilization planning d. Deployment planning

b. Joint operations planning

What training title is awarded after personnel complete a mandatory career development course (CDC), all core tasks identified in the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and other duty position tasks? a. Apprentice b. Journeyman c. Craftsman d. Superintendent

b. Journeyman

Which is not considered one of the five principles of good communication? a. Focus b. Justification c. Organization d. Understanding

b. Justification

Authority to grant security clearance access to persons outside the Executive Branch without a previous clearance may not be delegated below the a. Mission support group (MSG) commander b. Major command (MAJCOM) commander c. Numbered Air Force (NAF) commander d. Wing (WG) commander

b. Major command (MAJCOM) commander

What authorizations were reduced to save money during Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720 ? a. Programs b. Manpower c. Equipment d. Additional duties

b. Manpower

Which military department was not established by The National Security Act of 1947? a. Air Force b. Marines c. Army d. Navy

b. Marines

When a commander determines that a person's absence is involuntary and there is insufficient evidence to declare the person deceased, the casualty status is known as a. Duty Status Whereabouts Unknown (DUSTWUN) b. Missing (Non-hostile) c. Missing (hostile) d. Very Seriously Ill

b. Missing (Non-hostile)

The planning process by which the armed forces or part of them are brought to a state of readiness for war or other national emergency describes which joint operation planning activity? a. Sustainment b. Mobilization c. Employment d. Reconstitution

b. Mobilization

What type of plan includes all required annexes, appendices, and a supporting time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD)? a. Concept b. Operational c. Functional d. Supporting

b. Operational

If you are looking for the source of record for all Air Force professional military education (PME) and formal training, what system would you use? a. Personnel data training system (PDTS) b. Oracle training administration (OTA) c. Military personnel data system (MilPDS) d. Automated records management system (ARMS)

b. Oracle training administration (OTA)

The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) doctrine is vital to understanding how best to employ air and space power along with understanding the proper way to do what with air and space forces? a. Organize, present, deploy, and sustain b. Organize, present, and deploy c. Deploy, present, and sustain d. Organize and sustain

b. Organize, present, and deploy

How do major commands (MAJCOM) monitor the effectiveness of military personnel sections (MPS) and commander support staff (CSS) programs? a. Test analysis b. Periodic staff assistance visits c. Nuclear Surety Inspections (NSI) d. Unit Compliance Inspections (UCI)

b. Periodic staff assistance visits

What action begins with the announcement by AFPC/DPSOE via a Personnel Delivery Memorandum (PSDM) with processing instructions for that upcoming cycle? a. Promotion cycle b. Promotion file build c. Supplemental file build d. Supplemental release notification

b. Promotion file build

At what level does joint operation planning involve developing military objectives and tasks to support National Security Strategy (NSS) and developing requirements necessary to accomplish these tasks? a. Tactical b. Strategic c. Functional d. Operational

b. Strategic

Which type(s) of court-martial only tries enlisted service members? a. General court-martial (GCM) only b. Summary court-martial (SCM) only c. Special court-martial (SPCM) only d. SCM and GCM

b. Summary court-martial (SCM) only

In order for the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) to maintain a sustainable rotational rhythm, how many AEFs are tasked at any time? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four

b. Two

Which document contains personnel assigned, position numbers, duty Air Force specialty codes (DAFSC), authorized grades, functional account codes, personnel accounting symbols, and required security clearance levels? a. Commander's enlisted management roster b. Unit personnel management roster (UPMR) c. Unit manpower document (UMD) d. Alpha roster

b. Unit personnel management roster (UPMR)

Who is responsible for initiating personnel action on trainees entering, completing, or withdrawing from training? a. Supervisors b. Unit training managers c. Career Assistance Advisors d. Air Force Career Field Managers

b. Unit training managers

After a catastrophic event, accountability of personnel occur within the Air Force Personnel Accountability Assessment System (AFPAAS) when a. affected personnel report to their place of duty b. affected personnel report their whereabouts in AFPAAS c. all members are notified that a natural disaster is imminent d. all members update, review, or change their information in AFPAAS

b. affected personnel report their whereabouts in AFPAAS

In order to be successful when communicating with your audience, use all of the following tips except a. being inclusive b. being original c. extending courtesy d. making it personal

b. being original

A combination of the first and the second positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the a. skill level b. career field c. career group d. career field subdivision

b. career field

Making judgment on the reliability factors of each individual identified for personnel reliability program (PRP) duties is the responsibility of the a. reviewing official b. certifying official c. unit PRP monitor d. installation PRP monitor

b. certifying official

Casualty reporting is an important responsibility function of a. supervision b. command c. personnel d. control

b. command

The depth of experience the Reserve forces bring to the mission and the Air Force is an invaluable a. responsibility b. commodity c. opportunity d. job

b. commodity

The process of terminating orders, notifying individuals or units, and transferring individuals or units from federal active duty status to their previous reserve status describes a. demobilization b. deactivation c. separation d. discharge

b. deactivation

During an increased readiness posture, personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team members must be able to arrive at their assigned military personnel section within the timelines outlined in the a. time phased force deployment data b. designed operation capability response time c. deployments manning requirements document d. Air Force Instruction 10-215, PERSCO Operations

b. designed operation capability response time

The joint operation planning activity that describes how to apply military force to attain specified military objectives within an operational area is a. redeployment b. employment c. mobilization d. deployment

b. employment

When transporting laptops and disks, couriers must do all of the following except a. password protect laptops b. erase laptops and disks completely before transporting c. wrap or secure classified media within a container if outer markings are visible d. mark laptops and disks according to DOD 5200.1R, Information Security Program

b. erase laptops and disks completely before transporting

The fundamental purpose of an officer promotion is to select officers through a process that is a. fair and equitable b. fair and competitive c. eligible and qualified d. eligible and deserving

b. fair and competitive

When it becomes necessary to consider an individual for a critical position under the personnel reliability program (PRP) and the required investigation has not yet been completed, the member may receive certification as a. initial b. interim c. controlled d. disqualified

b. interim

The Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward provides a userfriendly application designed to assist casualty personnel in preparing casualty reports without excessive a. manual guidance b. manual typing c. documents d. usage

b. manual typing

Once an Airman arrives at a base, he or she is required to report to the a. financial services office (FSO) b. military personnel section (MPS) c. medical treatment facility (MTF) d. unit deployment manager (UDM)

b. military personnel section (MPS)

The Career Development element staff issues written notice to each promotion eligible officer to the local base media containing all of this information except a. the board convening date b. name and rank of the board president c. name and rank of the most junior officer d. name and rank of the most senior officer

b. name and rank of the board president

The United States Armed Forces shape and employ the military instrument to defend interest and objectives guided by a. demobilization planning b. national security policy c. mobilization planning d. joint tactical policy

b. national security policy

A guideline used to determine when a unit type code (UTC) must be developed is when a. new equipment needs to be replaced b. new equipment types enter the inventory c. no program changes occur in manpower or equipment d. deployable units experience no change in either operational concept or mission

b. new equipment types enter the inventory

The major command (MAJCOM) is the highest level of command below Headquarters Air Force (HAF) and directly above the a. wing b. numbered air force (NAF) c. commander's support staff (CSS) d. military personnel section (MPS)

b. numbered air force (NAF)

During natural disasters or national emergencies, the ability to quickly assess the status of Air Force Airmen, Department of the Air Force, nonappropriated funds civilians, and families is critical to resuming normal a. response time b. operations c. procedures d. functions

b. operations

When determining the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) that an individual is most qualified to perform in; one that reflects their skill level, experience, complexity, education and training, equipment, and interests is called their a. secondary b. primary c. control d. duty

b. primary

It is important for the commander or staff agency chief to complete a three-step process against an individual who refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) because the a. refusal may initiate removal from the squadron b. refusal may be indicative of suspicious or negative behavior c. commander may be required to interview the member a second time d. commander may be required to refer the individual to another commander

b. refusal may be indicative of suspicious or negative behavior

Which is not a Title 10 United States Code (Title 10 U.S.C) most often used term for mobilization? a. partial b. spatial c. total d. full

b. spatial

An initial Air Force specialty code (AFSC) classification is given to a military member upon their completion of a. basic training b. technical training c. skill level upgrade d. in-processing actions

b. technical training

For assistance with recruiting and training interns to provide future Air Force leaders, Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) contacts the Directorate of a. Assignments b. Personnel Data Systems c. Civilian Force Integration d. Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations

c. Civilian Force Integration

It is imperative the personnel support for contingency operation team maintain a hard copy of the accountability file because a. the electronic information may not be correct b. the files management clerk requires a hard copy c. the TDY commander may request some accountability information d. electronic information can be lost at any time due to equipment malfunction

d. electronic information can be lost at any time due to equipment malfunction

In regards to special orders and travel vouchers, deactivation or demobilization is documented by using which date? a. Date on the mobilization orders b. Demobilization date authorized from tour completion by the applicable commander c. Demobilization date authorized by the applicable MAJCOM on the DD Form 214 d. Deactivation date authorized by the secretary of the Air Force and the DD Form 214

c. Demobilization date authorized by the applicable MAJCOM on the DD Form 214

All of the following are the trainee's responsibilities in the upgrade training process except a. documenting training progress on AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet b. budgeting on- and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks c. comprehending the applicable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) requirements and career path d. acknowledging and documenting task qualification upon completion of training

a. documenting training progress on AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet

Oracle Training Administration (OTA) is used for all of these formal training requirements except a. establishing b. controlling c. planning d. funding

a. establishing

The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution with both a. federal and state missions b. federal and overseas missions c. state and community missions d. overseas and community missions

a. federal and state missions

The Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) integrates and executes personnel operations to develop Air Force people and a. meet field commander requirements b. ensure strategic goals are effectively aligned c. design, develop, and test personnel processes d. execute wartime and home station capabilities

a. meet field commander requirements

Days that are allocated, or put aside, for use by Air Force Reserve and Air National Guard officers, noncommissioned officers, and Airmen are commonly referred to as a. military personnel appropriation man-days b. noncommissioned officers man-days c. Reserve man-days d. Guard man-days

a. military personnel appropriation man-days

Making sure that military personnel section (MPS) provides prompt support to deployed commanders and base personnel during contingency, wartime, exercise, and emergency operations is the responsibility of the a. military personnel section commander b. force support squadron commander c. chief, military personnel section d. installation deployment officer

a. military personnel section commander

At any given time, how many air and space expeditionary force (AEF) block(s) and or pair(s) from each tempo band is in the AEF vulnerability period? a. one b. two c. four d. six

a. one

Military personnel appropriations (MPA) man-day tours usually include a maximum of how many travel days? a. one-day b. two-day c. three-day d. four-day

a. one-day

Personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) team will coordinate with all deployed support agencies and become involved in the process on how, when, and where to most efficiently process personnel when the a. reception control center is not established b. accountability actions are under control c. need for replacement forces is low d. projected aircraft is landing

a. reception control center is not established

The Air Force on-the job (OJT) program consists of all of the following components except job a. satisfaction b. proficiency c. knowledge d. experience

a. satisfaction

The fourth position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies a a. skill level b. career field c. career group d. career field subdivision

a. skill level

The Air National Guard (ANG) has both a federal and a. state mission b. overseas mission c. local government mission d. District of Columbia mission

a. state mission

The focal point of the Air Force training program is the a. trainee b. trainer c. supervisor d. unit training manager

a. trainee

Regarding training, a superintendent must emphasize to an Airman that a. training is key to the success of the Air Force b. advanced specialty training occurs as the trainee gains experience c. completing a career development course is the most important form of training d. on-the-job training teaches the trainee everything they need to know about the job

a. training is key to the success of the Air Force

The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) primary purpose is to provide a. war-fighter support b. stability to Airmen c. predictability to Airmen d. fair share tempo band support

a. war-fighter support

The current operations plan or concept plan should be reviewed, if available, to prepare for personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team deployment requirements upon receipt of a (n) a. warning order b. execution order c. evacuation order d. deployment order

a. warning order

What are the four basic instruments of national power the US relies on for its security? a. Informational, strategic, diplomatic, and economic b. Diplomatic, strategic, informational, and doctrinal c. Diplomatic, economic, informational, and military d. Economic, diplomatic, strategic, and military

c. Diplomatic, economic, informational, and military

Which capability library contains a fixed capability that at any given time identifies forces that constitute the total force that has been made available or allocated for scheduling? a. Unit type code (UTC) b. Air expeditionary force (AEF) c. Global Force Management (GFM) d. Unit manpower document (UMD)

b. Air expeditionary force (AEF)

For deceased casualties, what personal information may not be released? a. Pay date, military base pay, and allowances b. Any information on the member's family c. Age and date of birth d. Home of record

b. Any information on the member's family

What e-mail communication rule is violated if you discuss controversial, sensitive, official use only, classified, personal, or privacy act information? a. Be selective about who received your message b. Be selective about the message you send c. Keep your e-mail under control d. Be clear and concise

b. Be selective about the message you send

Which office implements programs, such as "Stop Loss," to effectively shape and balance the Air Force's Total Force? a. Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D) b. Directorate of Manpower and Organization (AF/A1M) c. Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P) d. Directorate of Plans and Integration (AF/A1X)

c. Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P)

In addition to Headquarters Air Force (HAF), which agencies usually initiate the development of a unit type code (UTC)? a. Functional area manager (FAM), Direct Reporting Unit (DRU), and Numbered Air Force (NAF) b. Major command (MAJCOM), Field Operating Agency (FOA), and NAF c. FAM, MAJCOM, Air National Guard (ANG), FOA, and DRU d. ANG, FAM, MAJCOM, FOA, and NAF

c. FAM, MAJCOM, Air National Guard (ANG), FOA, and DRU

Which directorate is primarily responsible for reporting casualties worldwide, notifying family members, and providing assistance to families and field commanders on benefits and entitlements? a. Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations b. Personnel Services c. Force Operations d. Assignments

c. Force Operations

Which commander is responsible for representing the reviewing official (RO) on personnel reliability program (PRP) matters and appointing an installation monitor to assist in PRP duties? a. Group b. Vice wing c. Force support squadron d. Military personnel section

c. Force support squadron

The total force development program will produce a total force and guide development through levels of leadership. Which is not considered a level of leadership? a. Tactical b. Strategic c. Functional d. Operational

c. Functional

What promotion eligibility status code is associated with adverse actions? a. E b. F c. G d. H

c. G

The Reserves defend the United States through control and exploitation of air and space by supporting what type of engagement? a. Regional b. National c. Global d. Local

c. Global

When Air National Guard (ANG) units are not mobilized or under federal control, they report to the a. Vice president b. President c. Governor d. Mayor

c. Governor

For ill or injured casualties, what personal information may not be released without permission? a. Name and gender b. Date and location of the incident c. Gross pay and basic allowance for housing d. Pay date, military base pay and allowances

c. Gross pay and basic allowance for housing

In regards to the Air Force personnel accountability assessment system (AFPAAS), which agency serves as the primary distribution and collection point for information regarding impacted threatened personnel? a. HQ AFPC/DPSOA b. HQ AFPC/DPSIA c. HQ AFPC/PRC d. HQ A&FRC

c. HQ AFPC/PRC

In regards to the Air Force personnel accountability assessment system, which agency has the responsibility for scheduling case management training through the Defense Connect Online (DCO) with Space and Naval Warfare System Center (SPAWAR)? a. HQ AFPC/DPSOA b. HQ AFPC/DPSIA c. HQ AFPC/PRC d. HQ A&FRC

c. HQ AFPC/PRC

Who has overall responsibility for Air Force personnel readiness and accountability programs and directives? a. HQ AFPC/DPC b. HQ AFPC/DPW c. HQ USAF/A1PR d. HQ AFPC/DPWR

c. HQ USAF/A1PR

Which field operating agency (FOA) primarily accomplishes their mission by ensuring the right numbers of people in the right grades and skills are available to perform the missions of unit commanders worldwide? a. Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA) b. Air Force Personnel Operations Agency (AFPOA) c. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center ( HQ AFPC) d. Headquarters Air Force Resource Management Process (HAFRMP)

c. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center ( HQ AFPC)

To provide the most accurate accountability, what procedures must the personnel deployment function (PDF) establish for augmenting personnel? a. Replacement b. Transitioning c. In-processing d. Out-processing

c. In-processing

Maintaining accountability over all personnel on the ground and at their deployed and designated geographically separated locations, regardless of status, according to component command policies describes what type of accountability? a. Tasked wing b. Transient c. Strength d. Unit

c. Strength

Which phase is a transition phase from a build-up or surge phase, where the majority of the main operating force has arrived and completed in-processing actions? a. Planning b. Execution c. Sustainment d. Redeployment

c. Sustainment

Which Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change a date of separation only in the Master Military Pay Account (MMPA)? a. E6C b. E6F c. TU4 d. TU5

c. TU4

The policy on training line numbers (TLN) is focused on the formal training office being located in the Force Support squadron under the Force Development flight (FSS/FSDE). If the formal training office is located outside of the FSS/FSDE, who is responsible for the requirements outlined in this process? a. Customer support element b. Force Management Operations element c. The responsibility remains with the FSS/FSDE d. HQ Air Force Personnel Center Education and Training Branch

c. The responsibility remains with the FSS/FSDE

For Duty Status Whereabouts Unknown (DUSTWUN) and Missing casualties in peacetime, do not share personal information that pertains to a. name and rank b. casualty status c. age and date of birth d. date and location of incident

c. age and date of birth

The base monitor is responsible to conduct unit unfavorable information file (UIF) training a. monthly b. quarterly c. annually d. every two years

c. annually

The strategy of the Air Force on-the job training (OJT) program provides realistic and flexible training by using all of the following capabilities except a. managing b. executing c. enhancing d. developing

c. enhancing

The goal of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is to a. win the war b. place capable personnel in the area of responsibility c. equitably align available Air Force unit type codes (UTC) across 10 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities d. equitably align available Air Force UTCs across 15 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities

c. equitably align available Air Force unit type codes (UTC) across 10 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities

Administrative discharge for cause applies to officers who fail to meet the prescribed standards of performance and conduct, for misconduct, moral or professional dereliction, and when they a. pose a threat to themselves b. pose a threat to national security c. fail to meet the commander's suspense d. fail to meet the minimum fitness standards

c. fail to meet the commander's suspense

For personnel assigned to a controlled personnel reliability program (PRP) position, they must possess all of these attributes except. a. has access, but no technical knowledge b. controls access into areas containing nuclear weapons c. has a master key to all outside entry ways and inside doors d. has been designated as a certifying official at operational unit

c. has a master key to all outside entry ways and inside doors

When the Secretary of the Air Force authorizes deactivation of an Air Reserve Component (Guard and Reserve), the authority may be delegated to the a. wing commanders b. squadron commanders c. major command commanders d. numbered Air Force commanders

c. major command commanders

Overseeing air and space expeditionary force unit type code reporting tool (ART) to ensure postured personnel unit type codes (UTC) meet all deployment capabilities is the responsibility of the a. combatant command J-1 Directorate b. force support squadron commander c. mission support group commander d. wing commander

c. mission support group commander

Once the casualty assistance representative (CAR) notifies the family members of casualties, he or she provides the mortuary services officers and the public affairs (PA) office the member's a. religion, age, home address, date of birth, and gender b. name, age, home of record, and marital status c. name, age, home of record, race, and awards d. age, home of record, race, and gender

c. name, age, home of record, race, and awards

To meet the national security challenges of the 21st century the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept was designed to do what for air and space forces? a. train, manage, and equip b. equip, train, deploy, and sustain c. organize, train, equip, and sustain d. organize, manage, train, and equip

c. organize, train, equip, and sustain

American military power plays a vital role in all of the following except a. crisis b. peace c. politics d. conflict

c. politics

Interchanging and recording of information between the individual, other agencies, and the personnel function necessary to ensure timely, accurate, and reception of personnel resources describes a. personnel support b. personnel reporting c. preparation of movement d. preparation for deployment

c. preparation of movement

Personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team must arrive at the military personnel section (MPS) within six hours of the original alert order or deployment notification as a. ready-to-perform personnel deployment function b. ready-to-conduct inventory of supply kits c. ready-to-deploy d. ready-to-train

c. ready-to-deploy

What type of evacuation plan must individuals maintain in anticipation of national crisis or natural disasters? a. ready and actionable b. realistic and predictable c. realistic and actionable d. ready and executable

c. realistic and actionable

If activated personnel experience personal, financial, or medical hardship caused by mobilization, early deactivation, or demobilization, they can request to a. remain on active duty until they reach 20 years of service b. remain on active duty until they reach 15 years of service c. remain on active duty up to the original activation period d. return to civilian status immediately

c. remain on active duty up to the original activation period

Joint operations planning is conducted within the chain of command that runs from the president through the a. vice president b. chief of staff c. secretary of defense d. chief master sergeant of the Air Force

c. secretary of defense

The percentage between the numbers assigned with the numbers authorized on the unit manpower document (UMD) will give you the manning a. capability b. required c. strength d. allowed

c. strength

Personnel who need to transport classified material will use the Department of State courier system to transport a. through secret internet protocol router networks b. from one storage unit to an available storage unit c. through or within countries hostile to the United States d. through or within a military installation in the United States

c. through or within countries hostile to the United States

Coordinating with the security manager to ensure personnel reliability program (PRP) personnel security investigation (PSI) requests are submitted in a timely and accurate manner, and followed up for adjudication is the responsibility of the a. reviewing official (RO) b. certifying official (CO) c. unit PRP monitor d. installation PRP monitor

c. unit PRP monitor

A product that provides the authorized positions that a unit is allowed to recruit, train, and promote to in the execution of its wartime and peacetime mission describes the a. initial duty assignment (IDA) worksheet b. unit personnel management roster (UPMR) c. unit manpower document (UMD) d. alpha roster

c. unit manpower document (UMD)

The concept of mobilization can be associated with all activities necessary for the orderly transition of both active and Reserve Component forces from peacetime to a. partial mobilization b. full mobilization c. wartime posture d. reconstitution

c. wartime posture

When a individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) for access to classified information, the commander or staff agency chief does all of the following except a. initiates a security incident report b. denies the individual access to classified information c. initiates action to establish a Security Information File (SIF) d. grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed

d. grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed

In order for a military member to obtain a critical personnel reliability program (PRP) position, that member must possess all of these attributes except a. has access and technical knowledge b. has been designated as a certifying official at operational unit c. can directly or indirectly cause the launch or use of a nuclear weapon d. is armed and assigned duties to protect and/or guard nuclear weapons

d. is armed and assigned duties to protect and/or guard nuclear weapons

When selecting personnel for the personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team, the PERSCO team chief, military personnel section, and commander must select the a. least qualified personnel so they can be trained while deployed b. most junior trained personnel c. most senior trained personnel d. most qualified personnel

d. most qualified personnel

Doctrine that guides the proper organization and employment of forces in the context of distinct objectives, force capabilities, functional areas, and environments is referred to as a. basic b. joint c. tactical d. operational

d. operational

Classified communications security (COMSEC) information may not be transmitted a. during duty hours b. over the weekend c. after hours d. overnight

d. overnight

If the president or Congress expanded the active Armed Forces up to 1,000,000 members, not to exceed 24 consecutive months, they elected what type of mobilization? a. full b. total c. spatial d. partial

d. partial

It is important to use the SF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement, when granting an individual access to classified information to ensure a. all necessary access steps have been completed b. the security manager sends the proper form to be filed in archives c. you include this form as part of the Field Record Group d. you have a source document signed and dated by the individual

d. you have a source document signed and dated by the individual

Which agency functions to assist the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) in carrying out the responsibilities of the office? a. Air Staff b. Air National Guard Bureau c. Air Force Personnel Center d. Air Force Reserve Command

a. Air Staff

If a member has a permanent change of station (PCS) to a stateside assignment, he or she can out-process no earlier than how many duty days prior to departure date? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

a. 1

The Air Force organized its total force into how many air and space expeditionary forces? a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25

a. 10

Up to how many months after finalization of an adoption, can Service members submit a request for reimbursement of adoption expenses? a. 12 b. 15 c. 18 d. 24

a. 12

For short-notice assignments of 90 calendar days or less until the report no later than date (RNLTD), the Career Development element and unit notification periods are reduced to how many calendar days? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7

a. 3

How many duty days does an active duty member (enlisted or officer) have to acknowledge the intended actions of a unfavorable information file (UIF) and provide pertinent information before the commander makes his or her final decision on placing optional documents in the UIF? a. 3 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7

a. 3

Which AF IMT form is used to contract an active duty service commitment? a. 63 b. 93 c. 899 d. 965

a. 63

When the Career Development element receives an assignment notification report on individual personnel (RIP) from HQ AFPC, how many calendar days does the outbound assignment technician have to verify the member's eligibility? a. 7 b. 14 c. 15 d. 30

a. 7

What management assessment product (MAP) reflects an inbound member's name if the member contacts customer service stating a sponsor has not been assigned? a. 7A, CUSTSVC-NO SPONSOR b. 7B, EMPLOYMENTS-EXPIRED DS-LOST TIME c. 13A, RELOC-NOTIFICATION NOT ON FILE d. 13B, RELOC-PPC-PRP

a. 7A, CUSTSVC-NO SPONSOR

Within how many days of assignment to the unit must supervisors ensure their cleared personnel receive an initial security education orientation before they access classified information? a. 90 b. 120 c. 150 d. 180

a. 90

Before the Weighted Airmen Promotion System (WAPS) testing cycle begins, HQ AFPC flows a request for career development course (CDC) reference material for each promotion eligible Airman to the a. Air Force Career Development Academy (AFCDA) b. Air Force Occupational Measurement Squadron (AFOMS) c. Senior enlisted advisor (SEA) d. Career field manager (CFM)

a. Air Force Career Development Academy (AFCDA)

Which field operating agency (FOA) is responsible for determining requirements needed to execute wartime and home-station capabilities supporting Air Force Concepts of Operations (CONOPS)? a. Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA) b. Air Force Personnel Operations Agency (AFPOA) c. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center ( HQ AFPC) d. Headquarters Air Force Military Personnel Center ( HQ AFMPC)

a. Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA)

Hurricane Katrina, that hit the Louisiana/Mississippi Gulf Coast in August 2005, was one of the most devastating hurricanes of all time. Which agency was activated to help with this natural disaster? a. Air National Guard (ANG) Bureau b. Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA) c. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) d. Headquarters Air Force Reserve Command (HQ AFRC)

a. Air National Guard (ANG) Bureau

Which code do you use in the military personnel data system (MilPDS) to reflect that a member has an unfavorable information file (UIF) only? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3

b. 1

When an officer is retirement eligible and desires to retire in an officer status, how many years of Total Active Federal Commissioned Service (TAFCS) must he or she have? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20

b. 10

What assignment availability codes (AAC) are associated with adverse actions? a. 12 and 14 b. 12 and 16 c. 16 and 18 d. 16 and 20

b. 12 and 16

Once the unit commander receives the assignment report on individual personnel (RIP) on a member, how many calendar days does he or she have before the RIP is required back to the Military Personnel Section (MPS)? a. 7 b. 14 c. 15 d. 30

b. 14

Within how many work days following the review of a permanent decertification, does the reviewing official (RO) notify the individual and certifying official (CO) of the findings and conclusion? a. 7 b. 15 c. 21 d. 30

b. 15

Most Air National Guard flying units can trace their lineage back to the a. 1910s and 20s b. 1920s and 30s c. 1930s and 40s d. 1940s and 50s

b. 1920s and 30s

After learning of a casualty, the casualty assistance representative (CAR) must ensure the casualty message is transmitted or delivered to the base telecommunications center as determined by AFPC/DPWCS, within how many hours? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 12

b. 4

What percentage of the Air Force's tactical airlift support does the Air National Guard (ANG) provide for combat communications functions, aero medical evacuations, and aerial refueling operations? a. 25 b. 50 c. 75 d. 100

b. 50

Under normal circumstances, the Career Development element publishes permanent change of station (PCS) orders not later than how many days prior to departure? a. 30 b. 60 c. 90 d. 120

b. 60

When announced by the Joint Staff or Air Force leadership, which crisis action team (CAT) has the responsibility to direct personnel accountability and assessment in support of real-world or exercise events? a. Group CAT b. Air Force CAT c. Wing CAT/A1 d. MAJCOM CAT/A1

b. Air Force CAT

In unusual circumstances, it may be appropriate to honor deceased military members other than Air Force personnel (Army, Navy, or Marine Corps). In such instances, the approval authority is the a. Secretary of the Air Force b. Air Force Chief of Staff c. Secretary of Defense d. Joint Chief of Staff

b. Air Force Chief of Staff

What field operating agency (FOA) does the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) look to for measuring and managing the outcome of improved service delivery and efficient investment in human capital? a. Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA) b. Air Force Personnel Operations Agency (AFPOA) c. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) d. Headquarters Air Force Military Personnel Center (HQ AFMPC)

b. Air Force Personnel Operations Agency (AFPOA)

Who does the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) support by providing transition assistance and support? a. Active duty b. Air Force retirees c. Active duty, reservists, and guardsmen d. Active duty, reservists, guardsmen, and civilians

b. Air Force retirees

In the case of a mass casualty, and by the order of the Force Support Squadron commander, who will the casualty assistance representative (CAR) contact? a. Mortuary affairs representatives b. Security forces commander c. Casualty team d. Honor guard

c. Casualty team

The installation personnel readiness element (IPR) provides all of the following personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team training except a. developing training templates for Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning Segment b. training on the reclama and shortfall process and executing personnel data system updates c. providing PERSCO team chief with information concerning plans, exercises, and deployments d. training the PERSCO teams, personnel readiness center, and the personnel deployment function personnel to operate the Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning Segment

b. training on the reclama and shortfall process and executing personnel data system updates

Service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable and necessary adoption expenses, per adoptive child, up to a. $1,000 b. $1,500 c. $2,000 d. $2,500

c. $2,000

Married Service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable and necessary adoption expenses, per calendar year, up to a. $3,000 b. $4,000 c. $5,000 d. $6,000

c. $5,000

As of August 2009, how many major commands made up the Air Force structure? a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 11

c. 10

After the Assignment Notification report on individual personnel (RIP) is forwarded to the unit commander, the initial relocation briefing is conducted within how many calendar days? a. 7 b. 13 c. 15 d. 21

c. 15

When performing system updates, it is crucial to ensure the correct code is applied for the correct incident, duration, and for the correct person. Which code would you use in the military personnel data system (MilPDS) to reflect a member on a control roster? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3

c. 2

The Career Development element personnelist will provide all members relocating overseas with the opportunity to elect tour options on the AF IMT a. 63 b. 899 c. 965 d. 1466

c. 965

All requests under the Air Force memorialization program to name medical facilities must be staffed for approval by the a. Joint Chief of Staff b. Secretary of Defense c. Air Force Chief of Staff d. Secretary of the Air Force

c. Air Force Chief of Staff

The system used to select and classify individuals and assess their skills and knowledge in various areas is called a. Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) b. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) c. Air Force Military Personnel Testing System (AFMPTS) d. virtual enlisted promotion (EPROM) System

c. Air Force Military Personnel Testing System (AFMPTS)

What component is comprised of an information technology solution that is provided to commanders to support their personnel needs? a. Military personnel data system (MILPDS) b. Personnel service delivery model (PSDM) c. Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM) d. Automated records management system (ARMS)

c. Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM)

What rule of e-mail communication would you use to make sure the subject line communicates your purpose? a. Be selective about the message you send b. Keep your e-mail under control c. Be clear and concise d. Watch your tone

c. Be clear and concise

Which of the following is not a tenet that describes the characteristics of a successful mobilization? a. Having an objective b. Ensuring timeliness c. Being subjective d. Being flexible

c. Being subjective

Which element or function identifies all assigned officers and verifies their eligibility status for promotion? a. Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) b. Major command (MAJCOM) c. Career Development element d. Force Management Operations element

c. Career Development element

What does the first position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identify? a. Skill level b. Career field c. Career group d. Career field subdivision

c. Career group

Which is not an installation security program manager's program responsibility? a. Recognizing the training efforts of effective security managers publicly b. Assessing the effectiveness of training programs as part of the information security program review c. Indoctrinating personnel to the investigation position code reflected in the unit manpower document d. Developing and conducting classroom or one-on-one training for newly appointed security managers

c. Indoctrinating personnel to the investigation position code reflected in the unit manpower document

Who must obtain conclusive evidence before reporting the death of an individual? a. Force Support Squadron commander b. Air Force Casualty Service Branch chief c. Installation commander d. Major command staff

c. Installation commander

When obtaining conclusive evidence of death, what information is not considered reasonable doubt that an individual could not have survived? a. Statements of witnesses to the incident b. Circumstances of the incident c. Location of the incident d. Search results

c. Location of the incident

What management assessment product (MAP) would a member's name be reflected on if administrative certification under the personnel reliability program (PRP) is required and the member is projected to Minot AFB, ND? a. MAP 7B, EMPLOYMENTS-EXPIRED DS-LOST TIME b. MAP 10, RELOC-AAC c. MAP 13B, RELOC-PPC-PRP d. MAP 15, EMPLOYMENTS-FUNCTCAT

c. MAP 13B, RELOC-PPC-PRP

What rank transitions from being technical experts and first line supervisors to leaders with operational competence? a. Staff sergeants b. Technical sergeants c. Master sergeants d. Senior master sergeants

c. Master sergeants

What is a senior noncommissioned officer (SNCO) primary purpose? a. Career progression b. Maintain readiness c. Mission accomplishment d. Review evaluation reports

c. Mission accomplishment

The readiness of the Reserves allows for rapid expansion of the total force through what form of movement? a. Deployment b. Employment c. Mobilization d. Demobilization

c. Mobilization

Which organization does not have the authority under the Air Force memorialization program to name streets, buildings, rooms and facilities? a. Major command b. Wing command c. Numbered Air Force d. Air Force Chief of Staff's office

c. Numbered Air Force

If a member's legal, fiscal, morale, and informational needs are not being met, what responsibility is the personnelist not fulfilling? a. Physical health b. Spiritual health c. Personal support d. Personnel development

c. Personal support

Which directorate is responsible for developing guidance, procedures and training for active duty, guard, reserve, and civilian personnel directly supporting Air Force programs? a. Staff b. Force Operations c. Personnel Services d. Personnel Data Systems

c. Personnel Services

What agency, or individual, coordinates on all suggested changes and/or improvements to management assessment products (MAP)? a. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) b. Military Personnel Section (MPS) c. Personnel System Manager (PSM) d. Major Command (MAJCOM)

c. Personnel System Manager (PSM)

Which is not a Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO) function that a personnel craftsman performs? a. Preparation of movement b. Personnel accountability c. Personnel classification d. Personal support

c. Personnel classification

What Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) reject code appears when a reenlistments clerk updates a reenlistment or extension, but does not include the obligated service? a. BDE b. DJM c. RDJ d. VAM

c. RDJ

If there is a permanent change of station (PCS) ineligibility condition and there is no indication a waiver or exception has been granted, what action will the military personnel section (MPS) take regarding the assignment selection? a. Request a replacement and forward rip b. Request an extension to resolve condition c. Reclama the assignment and not forward rip d. Reclama the assignment and forward rip to Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)

c. Reclama the assignment and not forward rip

Who issues written instructions to officer selection boards to announce competitive categories, promotion zones, eligibility, and selection criteria? a. Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC)/CC b. Military Personnel Section (MPS) commander c. Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) d. Major command (MAJCOM)/CC

c. Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF)

How many effective communication steps are needed to become a better communicator whether you are writing or speaking? a. Three b. Five c. Seven d. Nine

c. Seven

Which skill level identifies enlisted personnel with a high degree of technical knowledge who have acquired additional supervisory capabilities through training and knowledge? a. Three b. Five c. Seven d. Nine

c. Seven

How many subordinate units does the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) have? a. Two b. Four c. Six d. Eight

c. Six

When awarding an enlisted Air Force specialty code (AFSC), which factor is not a criteria for eligibility? a. Retraining b. Initial classification c. Special duty submission d. Downgrade or withdrawal

c. Special duty submission

Which joint and service planning system is the single automated reporting system within the Department of Defense (DOD) functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the United States armed forces and certain foreign organizations? a. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES) b. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES) c. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) d. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)

c. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)