4 da FINAL

The charge nurse confronts a new nurse about not wearing gloves into a client's room. The client is not on transmission-based precautions. How does the new nurse best respond?

"Can you show me the hospital policy for when to wear gloves?"

A nurse is educating a client on the use of continuous oxygen. The nurse asks the client, "What is the advantage of using an oxygen mask versus a nasal cannula?" The nurse confirms that the education has been effective if the client states: "The air is humidified with a mask prior to being delivered." "There is less chance of my skin breaking down with the mask." "I will have a greater concentration of oxygen delivered." "There is less damage done to my nasal passages."

"I will have a greater concentration of oxygen delivered." Rationale:The greatest advantage of using an oxygen mask is the ability to deliver a more concentrated form of oxygen for clients who are not getting optimal results from a nasal cannula. With both systems, the air can be humidified prior to delivery. There is a greater chance of skin breakdown with the mask. The use of the mask does not damage nasal passages less than a nasal cannula.

what are the 4 broad aims of nursing practice. a. Care b. Promote health c. Comfort d. Restore health e. Facilitate coping f. data collection g. prevent illness

- b promote health - d restore health - e facilitate coping with disability or death - g prevent illness

Place in order the nurse's steps for applying a fecal incontinence collection device. Use all options. Apply skin protectant or barrier and allow to dry. Separate buttocks with nondominant hand. Put on clean gloves and place waterproof pad under client's hips. Cleanse perianal area and pat dry. Apply fecal device to anal area with dominant hand. Hold device in place for 30 seconds.

1)Put on clean gloves and place waterproof pad under client's hips. 2)Cleanse perianal area and pat dry. 3)Apply skin protectant or barrier and allow to dry. 4)Separate buttocks with nondominant hand. 5)Apply fecal device to anal area with dominant hand. 6)Hold device in place for 30 seconds. Rationale:The first step is for the nurse to put on clean gloves and place a waterproof pad under the client's hips, then clean perianal area and pat dry. Next, the nurse applies skin protectant or a barrier and allows it to dry. The nurse then separates the buttocks with the nondominant hand, followed by applying the fecal incontinence collection device to anal area with the dominant hand. Next, the nurse holds the device in place for 30 seconds for good adhesion, then releases the buttocks. Lastly, the nurse attaches the connector of fecal collection device to drainage bag and hangs it below level of client.

HR

110 - 160

The nurse is preparing to administer a rectal suppository to an adult client. How many inches (or centimeters) should the nurse plan to insert the suppository? 3 inches (7.5 cm) 1 inch (2.5 cm) 5 inches (12.5 cm) 2 inches (5 cm)

3 inches (7.5 cm) Rationale:A rectal suppository must make contact with the rectal mucosa for absorption to occur, so it should be inserted about 3 to 4 inches (7.5 to 10vcm). Inserting the suppository 1 or 2 inches (2.5 to 5 cm) will not make contact with the rectal mucosa and inserting it 5 inches (12.5 cm) could affect the client's comfort level.

A patient should be instructed to retain the oil from an oil-retention enema for at least ______ minutes for best cleansing results.

30

The risk for diabetes and cardiovascular disease increases with a waist circumference measurement of 35 inches or more for women and ____ inches or more for men.

40

Normal blood glucose

60-120

The nurse is setting up the equipment needed to deliver oxygen to a postsurgical client via a nasal cannula. After connecting the nasal cannula to the oxygen source and flow meter, what is the next action the nurse should perform? Instruct client to breathe through the nose with the mouth closed. Insert the nasal cannula into the client's nostrils. Assess the client's respiratory rate and effort. Adjust the flow rate to the prescribed amount.

Adjust the flow rate to the prescribed amount. Rationale:After connecting the nasal cannula to the oxygen source and flow meter, the nurse would adjust the flow rate to the prescribed amount. The nurse would then check the flow, insert the nasal cannula into the client's nostrils, and instruct the client to breathe through the nose with the mouth closed to achieve optimal oxygen delivery. The respiratory rate and effort would be assessed prior to setting up the nasal cannula equipment and flow meter.

Dementia

An abnormal condition marked by multiple cognitive defects that include memory impairment.

The nurse has just confirmed proper placement of a nasogastric tube. Which action should the nurse take next? Apply skin barrier to the tip and end of the nose. Measure the length of the exposed tube. Lubricate the lips generously. Secure the tube to the client's nose using tape.

Apply skin barrier to the tip and end of the nose. - Skin barrier improves adhesion and protects the skin. Applying the skin barrier should occur before taping the tube to the client's nose, measuring the length of exposed tube, or lubricating the lips.

The nurse is caring for five clients on a busy medical floor. Which tasks can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? Select all that apply. Bathing and shaving of a client on continuous oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. Reapplying the nasal cannula after the client dislodges it during repositioning. Applying a face mask to a client with a pulse oximeter reading of 90% on nasal cannula. Administering initial oxygenation to a client with a pulse oximeter reading of 88%. Ambulating in the hall a client who always uses portable oxygen via nasal cannula.

Bathing and shaving of a client on continuous oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula.,Reapplying the nasal cannula after the client dislodges it during repositioning.,Ambulating in the hall a client who always uses portable oxygen via nasal cannula. Rationale:If the nasal cannula is removed or dislodged during nursing care activities, such as bathing, shaving, or repositioning, reapplication of the nasal cannula may be performed by UAP. A UAP may ambulate a client that uses portable oxygen, unless the client is unstable. The administration of oxygen by nasal cannula is not delegated to UAP, because assessment by a registered nurse is required.

cleansing enema

Distend colon: tap water, normal saline solution, soap solution

What medication do you give to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum, which can cause neonatal blindness

EYE PROPHYLAXIS

Adaptation theory outlines the process of growth and development of humans as orderly and predictable.

FALSE

In the excitement phase of the sexual response cycle, desire and arousal continue to build and intensify, leading to orgasm.

FALSE

Masochism refers to the practice of gaining sexual pleasure while inflicting abuse on another person.

FALSE

The Valsalva maneuver may be contraindicated in people with cardiovascular problems because it increases blood flow to the atria and ventricles, temporarily increasing cardiac output.

FALSE

A nurse is caring for five clients on a busy surgical unit. Which tasks can the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? Select all that apply. Complete oral hygiene for a client admitted with recurrent falls and dementia. Provide nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who was admitted with lung cancer. Obtain the initial vital signs for a client who is being admitted with acute appendicitis. Perform oropharyngeal suctioning for a client who was admitted with a stroke. Feeding lunch to a client admitted with new bilateral upper extremity fractures.

Feeding lunch to a client admitted with new bilateral upper extremity fractures. Rationale:Performing oropharyngeal suctioning, providing oral hygiene, and feeding clients are within the scope of practice of UAP. Providing nasopharyngeal suctioning is not within the scope of the UAP and would require a licensed practical nurse or a registered nurse. Initial vital signs for a client being admitted for acute appendicitis should always be performed by a registered nurse, because the client would be soon going for surgery and requires assessment.

Following the removal of a nasogastric NG tube, the nurse should monitor the client for which possible adverse reaction? Gastric distention. Decreased fluid output. Elevated blood pressure. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance.

Gastric distention.

A nurse is assessing a client who has recently had bowel surgery and will be receiving a nasogastric tube. Which finding would most likely contraindicate placement of a nasogastric (NG) tube by the nurse in this client? One nare being less patent than the other History of facial fractures Abdominal distention Bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract

History of facial fractures - Rationale: Clients with facial fractures or facial surgeries present a higher risk for misplacement of the tube into the brain. Many institutions require a health care provider to place NG tubes in these clients, which would contraindicate the nurse placing the tube. The nurse should assess the patency of the client's nares by asking the client to occlude one nostril and breathe normally through the other. However, the nurse does this to select the nostril through which air passes more easily, not because one nare being less patent than the other is a contraindication for NG tube placement by the nurse. Abdominal distention does not contraindicate NG tube placement. Monitoring bleeding in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is one of the indications for NG tube placement, so bleeding in the GI tract is not a contraindication.

A nurse is suctioning a client with a congested airway. The nurse has just removed the catheter from the client's naris and knows that the client will need additional suctioning. What would the nurse do next?

Insert the catheter into the sterile saline solution to flush it. Rationale:After removing the catheter from the naris, the nurse would insert the catheter into the sterile saline solution to flush it. The catheter would then be ready for additional suctioning attempts, so it is unnecessary to open another catheter kit to perform another suctioning attempt. The catheter need not be lubricated again before reinsertion. The nurse would not flush the entire catheter with water from a sterile bottle.

An example of a disease often diagnosed in a specific population is Tay--Sachs disease, which is associated with individuals of Eastern European _____________ descent.

Jewish

physiologic reserves

Levels of health and fitness above those needed for day to day function

The nurse is caring for an adult client by inserting a rectal suppository. Which action would be most appropriate by the nurse? Insert the suppository to a depth of about 1 inch (2.5 cm). Insert the suppository's flat end first. Lubricate the suppository and gloved finger. Encourage the client to remain still for about 30 minutes.

Lubricate the suppository and gloved finger. Rationale:When inserting a suppository, the nurse would lubricate the suppository and the gloved index finger to help reduce friction and promote client comfort. The rounded end of the suppository is inserted first, to a depth of approximately 3 to 4 inches (7.5 to 10 cm) to ensure that the suppository is beyond the internal sphincter. The client should remain still for approximately 5 minutes to promote absorption of the suppository.

anthropometric measurements

Measures of height, weight, and skinfold thickness to evaluate muscle atrophy.

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous oxygen at 3 L/minute via nasal cannula. The client's oxygen saturation has consistently been 94% to 96%, but suddenly drops to 86% as the nurse palpates the client's abdomen. The client denies respiratory difficulty or other distress. Which is a likely reason for the client's decreasing oxygen saturation? The client is holding his or her breath. The client has developed a pulmonary embolism and has a ventilation-perfusion mismatch. The client's appendix has ruptured. The nurse has inadvertently stepped on the client's oxygen tubing, occluding the flow of oxygen.

Nonrebreather mask Rationale:A nonrebreather mask is the only device that can deliver an FiO2 of 100% to a client without a controlled airway. A Venturi mask delivers a maximum FiO2 of 55%. A nasal cannula delivers a maximum FiO2 of 44%. A simple mask delivers a maximum FiO2 of 60%.

The nurse is monitoring a client who had a nasogastric (NG) tube placed postoperatively after abdominal surgery. Which criterion would the nurse use to determine that the tube could be removed? Stable vital signs. Passage of flatus. Loss of appetite. Absent bowel sounds.

Passage of flatus.

The nurse is caring for a client receiving oxygen at a rate of 8 liters per minute via face mask. While monitoring the client for skin irritation, what is the best action by the nurse? Remove the mask and dry the skin every 2 to 3 hours. Change the mask oxygen delivery system to a nasal cannula. Continue to monitor for skin irritation as there is no breakdown. Lift up the mask and dry the skin every 4 to 5 hours.

Remove the mask and dry the skin every 2 to 3 hours. Rationale:The nurse would remove the face mask, dry the skin under the mask, and assess for skin breakdown every 2 to 3 hours. Skin integrity can be compromised due to mask pressure and moisture under the mask. Changing the oxygen delivery system would not be an appropriate nursing action. Lifting the mask to dry the skin every 4 to 5 hours would not be often enough to prevent skin compromise. Continuing to monitor is necessary, but it is not the best action, because simply monitoring does not prevent skin breakdown or eliminate the moisture from the skin.

APGAR cite

Ricci p.1439, Table 38-4

Reflexes cite

Ricci p.962, 25.1 Table

A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease that requires frequent nasopharyngeal suctioning. After putting on the face shield and sterile gloves, but before picking up the catheter, the nurse's dominant hand touches the bedside table. What should the nurse do? Continue the nasopharyngeal suctioning procedure, because the catheter is still sterile. Ask a different nurse to bring a new pair of sterile gloves and catheter to the bedside. Stop and change into a new pair of sterile gloves before picking up the catheter. Restart the procedure from the first step to prevent contamination.

Stop and change into a new pair of sterile gloves before picking up the catheter. Rationale:The dominant hand is the sterile hand for the procedure; by contacting the bedside table, it has touched a contaminated surface and become contaminated. The nurse should stop the procedure and get new sterile gloves. If the catheter has not been touched, the nurse would only need to change gloves. The nurse could ask a different nurse to bring a new pair of sterile gloves, but does not need a new catheter, because it has not been contaminated. If the catheter was in the dominant hand when it touched the bedside table, the entire procedure would need to be restarted.

A nurse is caring for a client with end-stage lung cancer and who requires nasopharyngeal suctioning. As the nurse is preparing to insert the catheter into the naris, the tip touches the client's cheek. What should the nurse do? Stop the suctioning procedure and get a new catheter. Ask a different nurse to come in and suction the client. Continue the current nasopharyngeal suctioning procedure. Adjust the catheter and use the other naris to suction.

Stop the suctioning procedure and get a new catheter. Rationale:By touching the client's cheek, the catheter has touched an unsterile surface; the nurse should stop the procedure and get a new catheter. If the gloved hand is still sterile, the nurse could call for someone to open another catheter, and then restart the procedure. Continuing the current suctioning procedure or adjusting the catheter and using the other naris do not address the contaminated catheter. It is not necessary to have a different nurse suction the client, but it is necessary to maintain sterility of the catheter during the procedure.

Chronic diarrhea typically lasts for more than 3 to 4 weeks.

TRUE

Faith is a confident belief in something for which there is no material evidence or proof.

TRUE

Nurses always have the moral right to withdraw from administering care that violates their personal moral code.

TRUE

Pain tolerance is the point beyond which a person is no longer willing to endure pain.

TRUE

The nurse is caring for a client with a pressure injury on the heel of the foot. The injury is covered with stable black eschar. What is the best nursing intervention at this time? Remove the eschar by irrigating with sterile saline. Teach the client ways to relieve the pressure on the heel. Prescribe the client a high carbohydrate diet to promote healing. Teach the client to reposition every 4 hours.

Teach the client ways to relieve the pressure on the heel. Rationale:The best nursing intervention at this time is to teach the client ways to relieve the pressure on the heel to prevent further damage. Stable eschar serves as "the body's natural (biological) cover" and is only removed by health care provider order. Teaching the client to reposition is a good intervention, but the client should be taught to reposition at least every 2 hours. The client would need adequate protein to promote healing, not carbohydrate.

Katz Index

The Katz index of ADLs uses nominal scale index to ID self-care problems and the level of assistance required within six areas: bathing, dressing, toileting, transfers, continence and feeding.

Which assessment findings will the nurse use to determine the stage of a client's pressure injury? Select all that apply. Visible subcutaneous fat Skin around injury is red and warm to touch Drainage is foul smelling and green in color No bone, tendon, or muscle visible. Full-thickness tissue loss

The assessment findings which will help the nurse determine the stage of a client's pressure injury are: subcutaneous fat is visible; there is full-thickness tissue loss; and no bone, tendon, or muscle is visible in the wound bed. This information should lead the nurse to document this as a stage 3 pressure injury. The skin being red and warm to the touch and the green foul drainage are indications of wound infection, but do not influence the staging of the client's pressure injury.

At birth, a newborn's assessment reveals the following: heart rate of 140 bpm, loud crying, some flexion of extremities, crying when bulb syringe is introduced into the nares, and a pink body with blue extremities. The nurse would document the newborn's Apgar score as:

The correct response is D. One point would be subtracted for color (acrocyanosis) and 1 point for fair flexion of extremities. All the assessment parameters should rate 2 points, except for color and flexion. Therefore, any score except 8 points would be incorrect. 8

Which of the following findings in a newborn would the nurse document as abnormal when assessing the newborn head? a. Two soft spots palpated between the cranial bones b. A spongy area of edema outlined on the head c. Head circumference 32 cm, chest 34 cm d. Asymmetry of the head with overriding bones

The correct response to this question is "C" because the circumference of the newborn's head should be approximately 2 cm greater than the circumference of the chest at birth. Response "A" is incorrect because these two soft spots are fontanels that are normally found on all newborn's heads. The posterior fontanel will close within 6 weeks and the anterior fontanel will close in about 18 months. Response "B" is incorrect because scalp edema (caput succedaneum) is commonly found on the newborn's head due to trauma sustained from childbirth. It will dissipate within days. Response "D" is incorrect since the overriding of bones (molding) is a common finding on all newborns to accommodate their head through the birth canal during childbirth.

The nurse is caring for a client with a pressure injury and is applying a saline-moistened dressing to the wound. What does the nurse understand to be the primary rationale for using a saline-moistened dressing? To prevent the dressing from sticking to the wound. To fill the wound with saline to dissolve wound secretions. To promote moist wound healing and protect the wound from contamination and trauma. To soften the dressing to prevent trauma to the wound bed.

To promote moist wound healing and protect the wound from contamination and trauma. Rationale:Saline-moistened dressings are used to maintain a moist wound environment to promote moist wound healing and protect the wound from contamination and trauma. A moist wound surface enhances the cellular migration necessary for tissue repair and healing. It is important that the dressing material be moist, not wet, when placed in open wounds. Although a moist dressing may also prevent sticking to the wound, this is not its primary purpose.

Incivility is rude, disruptive, intimidating, and undesirable behavior directed at another person.

True

LPNs work under the direction of a health care provider or RN T or F

True

A nurse is suctioning a client's airway with a nasopharyngeal catheter. During the suctioning, the client is gagging and seems likely to vomit. What should the nurse do? Move finger from suction and wait until emesis has passed, then continue. Remove the catheter to avoid entering the esophagus inadvertently. Continue suctioning to prevent the emesis from entering the airway. Turn the client to the side and elevate the head of bed to prevent aspiration. Push the catheter forward about 5 cm and continue to suction the client.

Turn the client to the side and elevate the head of bed to prevent aspiration. Rationale:If the client gags or becomes nauseated, stop suctioning and remove the catheter; it has probably entered the esophagus inadvertently. If the client still requires suctioning, the nurse should change catheters, because contact with the esophagus has contaminated the current catheter. The nurse should turn client to the side and elevate the head of the bed to prevent aspiration. Pushing the catheter 5 cm further would not be appropriate, because this would place the catheter in an incorrect position and would not prevent it from entering the esophagus.

A nurse is feeding a patient who states that she is feeling nauseated and can't eat what is being offered. What would be the most appropriate initial action of the nurse in this situation? Remove the tray from the room. Administer an antiemetic and encourage the patient to take small amounts. Explore with the patient why she does not want to eat her food. Offer high-calorie snacks such as pudding and ice cream.

a. The first action of the nurse when a patient has nausea is to remove the tray from the room. The nurse may then offer small amounts of foods and liquids such as crackers or ginger ale. The nurse may also administer a prescribed antiemetic and try small amounts of food when it takes effect.

A nurse is feeding an older adult patient who has dementia. Which intervention should the nurse perform to facilitate this process? Stroke the underside of the patient's chin to promote swallowing. Serve meals in different places and at different times. Offer a whole tray of various foods to choose from. Avoid between-meal snacks to ensure hunger at mealtime.

a. To feed a patient with dementia, the nurse should stroke the underside of the patient's chin to promote swallowing, serve meals in the same place and at the same time, provide one food item at a time since a whole tray may be overwhelming, and provide between-meal snacks that are easy to consume using the hands.

The process of cultural assimilation or ___________________ occurs when a minority group, living within a dominant group, takes on the values of the dominant culture.

acculturation

2nd A in APGAR

activity (muscle tone) +1 = Some flexion, limited resistance to extension

Patients treated with opioids for pain rarely develop _________, although the likelihood is overestimated by nurses.

addiction

An atheist is a person who denies the existence of a higher power; an _________ is one who holds that nothing can be known about the existence of a higher power.

agnostic

5 values that embody the caring, professional nurse.

altruism, autonomy, human dignity, integrity, and social justice

sentinel event

an accident or incident that results in grave physical or psychological injury or death

convulsion

any sudden and violent contraction of one or more voluntary muscles

A in APGAR

appearance (Skin color) +1 = blue extremities (acrocyanosis)

What side of a stethoscope to listen in neonates

bell

Culture conflict occurs when people become aware of cultural differences; cultural ____________ occurs when one ignores differences and proceeds as though they do not exist.

blindness

In order for a communication process to occur, three components are needed: a source or sender, the message, and the __________, the medium the sender selects to send the message.

channel

nurse uses four blended competencies

cognitive, technical, interpersonal, and ethical/legal

Cephalhematoma

collection of blood between periosteum and skull bone that it covers does not cross suture line results from trauma during birth

Accepting cultural differences in the assessment of health care needs is an example of __________ competent nursing care.

culture

A nurse is feeding a patient who is experiencing dysphagia. Which nursing intervention would the nurse initiate for this patient? Feed the patient solids first and then liquids last. Place the head of the bed at a 30-degree angle during feeding. Puree all foods to a liquid consistency. Provide a 30-minute rest period prior to mealtime.

d. When feeding a patient who has dysphagia, the nurse should provide a 30-minute rest period prior to mealtime to promote swallowing; alternate solids and liquids when feeding the patient; sit the patient upright or, if on bedrest, elevate the head of the bed at a 90-degree angle; and initiate a nutrition consult for diet modification and food size and/or consistency.

The nurse is preparing to document the application of a client's fecal device. Which areas need to be included in the documentation? Select all that apply. client's reaction to the procedure appearance of perianal area date and time fecal device is due to be removed amount of stool in drainage bag color and consistency of stool date and time fecal device was applied

date and time fecal device was applied,amount of stool in drainage bag,client's reaction to the procedure,color and consistency of stool,appearance of perianal area Rationale:Documentation should include the date and time the fecal device was applied; appearance of perianal area; color of stool; intake and output (amount of stool out); and the client's reaction to the procedure. It is not necessary to document when the fecal device needs to be removed, because it is up to the nurse to determine if the device needs to be removed. The reasons for removal include leaking from device, skin breakdown, or decrease in liquid stool. The fecal collector may be left in place for up to 7 days as long as skin barrier is intact and adherent. The nurse would remove the fecal device based on manufacturer's recommendations.

caput succedaneum

diffuse edema of the fetal scalp that crosses the suture lines. reabsorbes within 1 to 3 days

The therapeutic communication technique known as ___________ is the skill of identifying with the way another person feels.

empathy

Which nursing tasks may be delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who has received appropriate training? Select all that apply. inserting a nasogastric tube emptying a stoma device on a colostomy applying a fecal incontinence collection device irrigating a colostomy administering a small-volume enema

emptying a stoma device on a colostomy,administering a small-volume enema,applying a fecal incontinence collection device Rationale:Emptying a stoma device on a colostomy, administering a small-volume enema, and applying a fecal incontinence collection device may all be delegated to the UAP. Irrigating a colostomy and inserting a nasogastric tube are not considered appropriate to delegate to a UAP, due to the invasive nature of these skills and the need for nursing judgment.

A nurse is caring for a client at risk for falls who does not have access to an activated bed or chair alarm. How often should the nurse assess this client?

every 60 minutes Rationale:If a client who is at high risk for falls has no access to an activated bed or chair alarm, a nurse should observe the client every 60 minutes. Unless the client is on one-to-one observation, every 30 minutes is too frequent. Once a shift, or at 2- or 4-hour intervals, is too infrequent.

The _______ control theory of pain describes the transmission of painful stimuli and recognizes a relation between pain and emotions.

gate

Order of removing PPE

gloves, goggles, gown, mask

Order of PPE

gown, mask, goggles, gloves

G in APGAR

grimace (reflex irritability) +1 = Grimace or frown when irritated

Four concepts common in nursing theory are the person, the environment, ______________, and nursing.

health

Closely related to spirituality, faith, and religion, ______ is the ingredient in life responsible for a positive outlook even in life's bleakest moments.

hope

Fulmer SPICES

identifying common problems experienced in older adults that can lead to negative outcomes Sleep disorders Problems with eating or feeding Incontinence Confusion Evidence of falls Skin breakdown

omphalitis

inflammation of the umbilicus

Don't use hot water because

it opens up pores that allow a portal of entry.

Nurse Practice Act

law established to regulate nursing practice

When auscultating the lung sounds in a neonate remember to _______.

listen in the abdomen

Moro reflex (startle reflex)

occurs when a baby is startled by a loud noise, a sudden movement, or the head falling back. The arms are thrown apart. The legs extend and then flex. A brief cry is common

During the ____________ phase of the helping relationship, the tone and guidelines for the relationship are established.

orientation

An intimate communication zone occurs during interaction between parents and children, whereas a ___________ zone occurs when people interact with close friends.

personal

a person's health includes ______, ______, and ______

physical, social, and mental components an active state of being healthy by living a lifestyle that promotes good physical, mental, emotional, and spiritual health

Theories that address nursing interventions and the consequences of those interventions are called ______________; they are designed to promote, control, and change clinical nursing practice.

prescriptive

P in APGAR

pulse (heart rate) [apical pulse for 1 min] +1 = Slow (<100 bpm)

Glactosemia

recessive genetic disorder; characterized by body's inability to tolerate galactose

R in APGAR

respiratory (respiratory effort) +1 = Slow, irregular, shallow

Five Rights of Delegation

right - task - circumstance - personnel - communication - supervision/evaluation

never events

serious but preventable surgical errors (that should never occur)

enema

the placement of a solution into the rectum and colon to empty the lower intestine through bowel activity

Nursing _______________differentiates nursing from other disciplines and activities in that it serves the purposes of describing, explaining, predicting, and controlling desired outcomes of nursing care practices.

theory

Of the four physiologic processes involved in nociception or the ability to feel painful stimuli, ___________ refers to the activation of pain receptors.

transduction

Ninety-five percent of the lipids in the diet are in the form of ____________, the predominant form of fat in food and the major storage form of fat in the body.

triglycerides

Obesity is defined as body weight 20% or more above ideal weight or having a body mass index (BMI) of 30 or more.

true

cryptorchidism

undescended testicles