A+ certification test B

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Maria, a network administrator, is working in an organization. A device connected to the organization's network is having an IP address 120.168.1.1. She wants to verify that the device has a TCP/IP stack loaded. Which of the following addresses should she ping?

127.0.0.1 Maria should ping the address 127.0.0.1. The address 127.0.0.1 is a reserved IP address corresponding to the host computer. It is also known as loopback address. It is used whenever a program needs to access a network service running on the same computer as itself. This address, 127.0.0.1, is defined by the TCP/IP protocol as a reserved address that routes packets back to the host. A successful ping to this address concludes that the device is running a TCP/IP stack.

What is the default subnet mask for IP address 196.132.74.10?

255.255.255.0 The first octet of the IP address 196.132.74.10 falls in the 192 to 223 range. Therefore, the IP address is a class C address. The default subnet mask for class C addresses is 255.255.255.0.The following table shows the range of the first octet of an IP address for the network classes:

What is the minimum number of physical disk drives required in RAID 5?

3 RAID level 5 spreads data byte by byte across multiple drives, with parity information also spread across multiple drives. You need at least 3 physical disk drives that have the same capacity and are the same type. If one drive fails, the parity information on the remaining drives can be used to reconstruct the lost data. In the event of a drive failure, data recovery is not instantaneous (as it is in RAID 1); the bad drive needs to be replaced, and then the missing data needs to be reconstructed. With RAID 5, disk performance is enhanced because more than one read and write can occur simultaneously. However, the parity calculations create some write-performance overhead.

Which of the following is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?

30 The CIDR value for the subnet mask 255.255.255.224 is /27. Therefore, the number of host bits in the given subnet mask is 5 (32-CIDR value). Now, the number of host per subnet is given by the formula:2n - 2, where n is the number of host bits.So, using the above formula, the number of hosts per subnet are: 25 - 2=30.

Which of the following are standard AMD processor socket types?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A FM1 B AM3 The FM1 and AM3 are AMD CPU socket types. The FM1 is AMD's next generation socket type that is designed to be used with the Fusion and Athlon II processors. The AM3 was designed to replace AM2+. The AM3 has 941 pins, while the AM2+ has 940.

James, a technician, wants to transfer files between two systems. Which of the following protocols will help him? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A FTP B SCP File Transfer Protocol (FTP) and Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) can be used to transfer files on a network. FTP protocol transfers files across an IP network, and it can accomplish this between any two machines that are using it. The problem with FTP is that all data is sent in clear text. SCP provides a secure file-transfer service over an SSH connection and offers a file's original date and time information, which is not available with FTP.

Which of the following TCP ports are used by the File Transfer Protocol (FTP) for data transfer and to control commands?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two

A Port 21 B Port 20 File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a TCP/IP protocol that enables the transfer of files between a user's workstation and a remote host. FTP works on two TCP channels: TCP port 20 for data transfer and TCP port 21 for control commands. These channels work together to enable users to execute commands and transfer data simultaneously. It works on the Application layer (layer 7) of the OSI model and the Application layer of the TCP/IP model.

Which of the following encryption types is used with WPA2?

AES Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) adds Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) cipher-based Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) encryption for even greater security and to replace TKIP. It provides a 128-bit encryption key.

Which connectors will you use to connect a serial port and an Ethernet port on a switch? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

B DB-9 C RJ-45 A registered jack (RJ-45) is an eight-pin connector found in most Ethernet networks. The unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) and shielded twisted-pair (STP) connections use RJ-45 connectors in computer networks.A DB-9 connector is used on serial cables. Serial cables use the RS-232 protocol which defines the functions of the 9 pins in a DB-9 connector. It is an older connector used for low-speed asynchronous serial communications, such as a PC to a serial printer, a PC to a console port of a router or switch, or a PC to an external modem.

Which of the following features makes an e-Reader different from a modern tablet? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

B Smaller on-board storage D Longer battery life An e-reader is a device outwardly similar to a tablet, but with functionality limited to downloading and reading electronic versions of books, magazines, and other documents. E-readers typically can transfer documents from a PC using a USB cable, but many have Wi-Fi or cellular capability so you can directly download them from online bookstores or libraries. Since they have narrower system demands than tablets, e-readers typically have longer battery life and displays more optimized for reading the text.

You want to transfer data from one device to another within the operational range of about 10 meters. Which of the following wireless connection methods will you use?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

B Wi-Fi D Bluetooth You can use Bluetooth as well as Wi-Fi to transfer data from one device to another within the operational range of about 10 meters. Bluetooth is used for connecting mobile accessories to a device, like a headset, full-size keyboard, and mouse. The maximum range for Bluetooth based wireless connection is 30 meters. Wi-Fi can also be used, as it can extend well up to 100m. It is a local area wireless technology that allows electronic devices to connect to the network, mainly using the 2.4 gigahertz (12 cm) UHF and 5 gigahertz (6 cm) SHF ISM radio bands.

Which of the following must be configured when trying to start a machine with a DVD?

Boot sequence Boot sequence is one of the most important settings in your BIOS/UEFI. It controls the order in which the computer searches its disk drives for an operating system. You use the boot sequence setting to change the search order of drives. For example, you might change the first boot device from the hard drive to an optical or flash drive in order to launch an operating system installation or recovery program, or to switch between operating systems on different drives.

Which of the following devices can be used to merge traffic between two different network topologies?

Bridge A bridge is a bit like a repeater, except instead of blindly regenerating signals and passing it on, it actively works to prevent collisions by making sure not to send data to a segment that's already busy. The simplest sort of bridge even conveys all traffic that reaches it like a repeater does: it's just that it manages collisions by storing the frame it receives from one side, and waiting for the network to be clear before sending it on the others. That way, if a node on side A and a node on side B transmit at once, they don't collide; instead, the bridge stores both frames, then transmits each to the opposite side.

A custom-built gaming PC is dropping frames while playing a graphic-intensive video game, making it unplayable. Which of the following should be reviewed as potential bottlenecks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

C Amount of available RAM D Video card E Central processing unit A gaming PC is a computer that comes equipped with powerful graphics capabilities, fast processing capabilities, and a large amount of memory. The main difference between a gaming PC and other consumer workstations is that they are specifically designed and built to support the demanding computing requirements by gaming software applications. All gaming PCs will require a high-end GPU to support the detailed 3D graphics and realistic imagery presented in PC games today. There is such a wide variety of gaming software applications that each gaming PC will have specific requirements based on the needs of the user and the applications used. Common requirements include: A multicore processor A high-end video/specialized GPU unit A high definition sound card High-end cooling such as a water cooling system Maximum RAM that is supported by the motherboard Fast Internet connection for interactive gaming needs Real-time video and audio input/output capabilities

A server administrator is setting up a new server for the company's network. Which port and service should be open to allow the newly installed server to assign IP addresses for the devices connecting with the network?Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two

C DHCP D 67 The server technician should open the DHCP service on the server that uses UDP ports 67 and 68 for dynamically assigning IP addresses to clients on the network. UDP port number 67 is the destination port of a server, and UDP port number 68 is used by the client. DHCP lets a network or server administrator supervise and distribute IP addresses from a central point and automatically sends a new IP address when a computer is plugged into a different place in the network.

You want to transfer an audio file from your mobile device to your friend's mobile device using the Bluetooth feature. Which of the following steps will you perform before entering the device passcode? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

C Locate and select the Bluetooth device. D Turn on the Bluetooth device. You should perform the following steps for transferring data from one device to another: 1.Turn on the Bluetooth device.Enable Bluetooth.Enable pairing. 2.Use your mobile device to locate and select the Bluetooth device. 3.Enter the Bluetooth device passcode. 4.Confirm pairing on the Bluetooth device. 5.Test the connectivity.

Which of the following devices operate at the Data Link layer of the OSI model?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

C Switch D Bridge Switches and bridges function at the MAC sub-layer of the Data Link layer. A switch is a network hardware device that joins multiple computers together within the same LAN. A bridge is a bit like a repeater, except instead of blindly regenerating signals and passing it on, it actively works to prevent collisions by making sure not to send data to a segment that's already busy.

Which of the following external ports would a technician use to connect a keyboard to a computer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

C USB D PS/2 Universal Serial Bus (USB) provides a standard connection between the computer and a variety of computer peripherals, such as keyboards, digital cameras, printers, external disk drives, and more. One of the benefits of the USB interface is that it can supply power to the peripheral device. PS/2 is a six-pin interface used to connect older keyboards and pointing devices to a computer. Older computers will have a purple port for the keyboard and a green port for the mouse or other pointing device, or two ports without clear color coding.

Which of the following technologies is the most secure form of wireless encryption?

WPA WiFi Protected Access (WPA) is a security protocol introduced to address some of the shortcomings in WEP. It provides for dynamic reassignment of keys to prevent the key attack vulnerabilities of WEP. WPA provides improved data encryption through the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP), which is a security protocol created by the IEEE 802.11i task group to replace WEP.

Which of the following requires both hardware and software on a system to meet certain requirements to produce complex 3D designs?

CAD workstation Computer-aided design (CAD) workstations are unique in that they require both hardware and software on a system to meet certain requirements to produce complex 3D designs. CAD workstations require a high-end graphics card and monitor, and specialized input devices such as a digitizing tablet and light pen. Industries that use CAD created design specifications include automotive companies, aerospace, and architectural firms.

A user complains that his computer automatically reboots after a short period of time. Which of the following computer components will you change to perform preventive maintenance on the computer?

CPU cooling fan The very common cause for this issue is that the CPU fan is not working properly. It causes the computer to reboot after a short period of time.

A user is having trouble moving and opening icons with a finger on a tablet. A technician has checked the preferences and configured the speed and sensitivity, however, the problem remains. Which of the following actions should the technician advise the user to take?

Clean the screen. If your touch screen is not responsive or is not responding as expected, there are several steps you should take to resolve the issue: Clean the screen with a soft, lint-free cloth using gentle pressure. Restart the computer or device using a cold boot. Recalibrate the touch screen. Check for and install any touch screen driver updates. Check for electromagnetic interference by trying the touch screen in other locations.

Which of the following cables contains a center conductor made of copper surrounded by a plastic jacket with a braided shield over it?

Coaxial The coaxial cable contains a center conductor made of copper surrounded by a plastic jacket with a braided shield over it. It includes one physical channel that carries the signal surrounded (after a layer of insulation) by another concentric physical channel, both running along the same axis.

You are setting up a printer in a training room. The trainer needs to be able to print multiple copies of the training documentation for the classes. Which of the following should you configure on the printer to facilitate this?

Collate You should choose the collate option. If you are printing multiple copies of a file, the collate feature keeps all of the pages for each copy together. This prevents the user from needing to manually sort through the stack of output pages and assembling each copy by hand.

A technician is connecting a router directly to a PC using the G1/0/1 interface. Without the use of auto-sensing ports, which of the following cables should be used?

Crossover The crossover cable is used to connect like devices, such as device-to-device, switch to switch, or router to router. It is a cable that is used to interconnect two computers by crossing over (reversing) their respective pin contacts. Either an RS-232C or a telephone jack connection is possible. A crossover cable is sometimes known as a null modem.

Which of the following protocols work at the Network Interface layer of the TCP/IP model?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

D NDP E ARP The Network Interface layer, also known as the Network Access layer or Link layer, defines how nodes communicate on local network and adapter level. It combines the physical and data link layer functions into a single layer. The protocols include the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP), Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP), IEEE 802.3, and IEEE 802.11 work at this layer.

Which of the following memory modules is used if it is labeled as 4 GB PC 1333?

DDR3 Double Data Rate (DDR3) is a type of SDRAM that is used for system memory. It is available in both DIMM and SO-DIMM form factors. DDR3 transfers the data at twice the rate of DDR2 and uses 30 percent less power in the process. Like DDR2, DDR3 chips use 240-pin connections but cannot be used interchangeably because of differences in notch location and electrical requirements. The variants of DDR3 memory module includes DDR3-800, DDR3-1066, DDR3-1333, and DDR3-1600.

Which of the following is the form factor of a standard Parallel connector?

DB-25 The DB-25 connector is used for parallel, small computer system interface (SCSI), or RS-232 serial applications. In parallel applications, DB-25 connectors are known as IEEE-1284 Type A connectors. The DB-25 is part of the D-subminiature (D-Sub) connector plug and socket family for computer and communication devices.

Which of the following servers manages a record of all the IP addresses allocated to network nodes?

DHCP A DHCP server manages a record of all the IP addresses it allocates to network nodes. If a node is relocated in the network, the server identifies it using its MAC address that prevents accidentally configuring multiple devices with the same IP address. A DHCP server provides IP addressing information for network computers. This information includes IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, and DNS server addresses.

A network administrator wants to ensure sensitive data is not exfiltrated from the system electronically. Which of the following should be implemented?

DLP Data loss prevention (DLP) is used to classify and protect your organization's confidential and critical data. Within the DLP software, you create rules that prevent users from accidentally or maliciously sharing particular types of data outside your organization. For example, a DLP rule might prevent users from forwarding any business emails outside of the corporate mail domain. Another DLP rule might prevent users from uploading files to a consumer cloud service, like OneDrive or Dropbox. Yet another type of rule would prevent users from copying files to removable media.

Which of the following Internet connection types transports high-bandwidth data over a simple telephone line?

DSL Digital subscriber line (DSL) is a technology that transports high-bandwidth data over a simple telephone line. It has become a popular way to connect small businesses and households to the Internet because it is affordable and provides a relatively high download speed. However, distance from the phone company's switching station and the quality of the lines affect the total bandwidth available to a customer.

Which of the following should a technician do next after reporting an incident in the incident response process?

Document the incident The incident response process relies on documentation. Documentation should begin when the incident is discovered, whether or not it's something you immediately need to report to your superiors or legal authorities. You should continue documenting new discoveries and your actions throughout the incident response process, culminating in an incident report which can be used to prevent similar incidents in the future. The incident report isn't just a summary of the incident itself, but is used to document and evaluate the response process itself.

A user needs a device that meets all of the following criteria: Longest possible battery life Best-in-class viewing experience for printed text only Wireless download capability for new content Which of the following devices would best meet the user's requirements?

E-reader An e-reader is a device outwardly similar to a tablet, but with functionality limited to downloading and reading electronic versions of books, magazines, and other documents. E-readers typically can transfer documents from a PC using a USB cable, but many have Wi-Fi or cellular capability so you can directly download them from online bookstores or libraries. Since they have narrower system demands than tablets, e-readers typically have longer battery life and displays more optimized for reading text.

Which of the following CPU characteristics allows the processor to classify and separate memory areas where application code can and cannot execute?

EDB Execute disable bit (EDB) is a hardware-based security feature which allows the processor to classify and separate memory areas where application code can and cannot execute. Malware programs and worms, when treated as trustworthy data, can exploit and overrun a memory buffer, and the computer may interpret the extra bits as instructions and execute them. The action could range from damaging files to disclosing confidential information and creating an access point. Intel refers to this as the XD bit and AMD refers to it as Enhanced Virus Protection. The operating system must support the no-execute (NX) bit to use this security feature.

Which of the following components of the laser printer carries an electrical charge that attracts the toner?

EP drum The electrostatic photographic drum (EP drum), or imaging drum is a component of the laser printer that carries an electrical charge that attracts the toner. It then transfers the toner to the paper.

Which of the following networking cables transmits digital signals using light impulses rather than electricity?

Fiber optic The fiber optic cable transmits digital signals using light impulses rather than electricity. It is immune to EMI (Electromagnetic Interference) and RFI (Radio Frequency Interference). This cable allows light impulses to be carried on either a glass or a plastic core. Glass can carry the signal a greater distance, but plastic costs less.

Which of the following devices should a network administrator configure on the outermost part of a network?

Firewall The network administrator should configure the firewall on the outermost part of the network. A firewall is a software program or hardware device that protects networks from unauthorized data by blocking unsolicited traffic. Firewalls allow incoming or outgoing traffic that has specifically been permitted by a system administrator and incoming traffic that is sent in response to requests from internal systems.

A user reports slow computer performance in his PC, that has RAID configuration, to a technician. The technician uses the manufacturer's diagnostic software, and the computer passes all tests. The technician then uses a defragmentation tool and hears clicking noises. Which of the following should the technician identify and replace?

HDD The technician should identify and replace the HDD. A hard disk drive (HDD) is a storage device that contains one or more round platters which are coated with several layers of various materials. One of those layers can be magnetized or demagnetized to store binary data. Magnetized indicates the binary number 1, demagnetized indicates the binary number 0. Each piece of binary data is a bit. The platters are mounted on a drive spindle and rotate (spin on the spindle) in unison. Read/write heads are positioned over the top and bottom of each platter. As the platters spin, an actuator moves the read/write heads across the patters. The faster the platters spin, the quicker data passes under the read/write heads.

What monitors network traffic and restricts or alerts when unacceptable traffic is seen in the system?

NIDS A network intrusion detection system (NIDS) is a network-based IDS that monitors network traffic and restricts or alerts when unacceptable traffic is seen in the system. A network-based IDS primarily uses passive hardware sensors to monitor traffic on a specific segment of the network.

A technician is tasked with connecting a digital display to a computer that requires a 4GB connection speed. Which of the following types of connection cables is sufficient for this requirement?

HDMI High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) is a proprietary audio/video interface for transferring uncompressed video data and compressed or uncompressed digital audio data from a display controller to a compatible peripheral device (such as a display monitor, a video projector, digital TV, or digital audio device) over a single HDMI cable. It is a digital standard used to transfer high-definition video and audio from your computer to a display device. HDMI is popular for new monitors and televisions. Portable devices such as laptops and tablets might have smaller micro HDMI ports.

Which custom configuration has a chassis with the smallest dimensions?

HTPC A home theater PC (HTPC) is a computer system dedicated and configured to store and stream digital movies, either from the local hard drive or through an online subscription such as Netflix. HTPCs are built specifically for home theater purposes, so most of the required elements are built right into the actual system. They generally include: A TV tuner card that allows the computer to display high-definition (HD) digital output and attach the cable provider's cable TV wire directly to the system. A cable card that provides authentication and encryption services to connect with the cable set top box provided by the cable company. HDMI output for high-definition video and audio. Video card with both GPU and HD capabilities. Special chassis Bluetooth or wireless capabilities when using specialized remotes or input devices.

Maria, an employee, is on a business trip. She connects her laptop to a hotel's wireless network to send emails to customers. Next day she notices that emails have been sent from her account without her consent. Which protocol is used to compromise her email password utilizing a network sniffer?

HTTP According to the scenario, HTTP is used to compromise Maria's email password utilizing a network sniffer. The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is a network protocol that works on the Application layer of the OSI and TCP/IP models and enables clients to connect to and retrieve web pages from a server to interact with websites. It is an application protocol that runs on top of the TCP/IP suite of protocols (the foundation protocols for the Internet). This protocol sends data in plain text. Therefore, a network sniffer or a packet sniffer can be used to capture an HTTP packet by an attacker. The data then can be read by an attacker, perhaps allowing the attacker to see confidential information.

Which of the following protocols is considered stateless and uses TCP when communicating between a server and a client?

HTTP Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is considered stateless and uses TCP when communicating between a server and a client. It is a network protocol that works on the Application layer of the OSI and TCP/IP models and enables clients to connect to and retrieve web pages from a server to interact with websites.

Replacement of which of the following components on a laptop will typically require reinstallation of the OS?

Hard disk drive A hard disk drive (HDD) is an electromechanical data storage device that uses magnetic storage to store and retrieve digital information using one or more rigid rapidly rotating disks (platters) coated with magnetic material. HDDs are a type of non-volatile storage, retaining stored data even when powered off. If the HDD has been replaced then the laptop will typically require reinstallation of the OS.

Which of the following custom configurations needs to support media streaming?

Home server PC A home server PC is a server for your house connected to multiple computing devices within the home to store videos, music, and pictures. Home server PCs have a variety of features and functions, but they all have common requirements for providing a home with necessary functions: Media streaming capabilities to access and play digital movies File sharing for all home users to access the file system on the server Print sharing

Which of the following devices transmits data to all ports regardless of final destination?

Hub A hub, or multiport repeater, is a networking device used to connect the nodes in a physical star topology network into a logical bus topology. A hub contains multiple ports that you can connect devices to. When data from the transmitting device arrives at a port, it is copied and transmitted to all other ports so that all other nodes receive the data. However, only the specified destination node reads and processes the data while all other nodes ignore it.

Smith, a network administrator, is having an issue of loss in signal strength after a certain point in the company's local network infrastructure. There are more than one devices to which the same signal needs to be transmitted. Which of the following devices should the network administrator most likely use to resolve this problem?

Hub Smith should use a hub to resolve the issue of losing signal strength. A hub is a hardware device that operates at the Physical layer (Layer 1) of the OSI model to connect computers in a network. Hubs are very simple device and possess no decision-making capability. They simply repeat and forward the data received on one port to all the other ports. For this reason, they are often known as multiport repeater.

Lucy, a technician, is working on a project to interconnect her company's private data center to a cloud company that offers e-mail services and another that can provide burstable compute capacity. What type of cloud delivery model is she creating?

Hybrid Lucy is creating a hybrid cloud which is a combination of two or more clouds that remain distinct but are bound together, offering the benefits of multiple deployment models. It uses a mix of on-premises, private cloud and third-party, public cloud services with orchestration between the two platforms.

Jennifer, a client, is searching for a cloud-based service that manages all underlying infrastructure including updating the operating system. Which service would you recommend to her?

IaaS Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and run their own data center. It is an arrangement in which, rather than purchasing equipment and running your own data center, you rent those resources as an outsourced service. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure but has control over operating systems, storage, and deployed applications. Examples of IaaS include Rackspace's Cloud Servers, Amazon's Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) service, and Simple Storage Service (S3).

According to the TCP/IP model, at which of the following layers is the routing of packets across multiple logical networks controlled?

Internet The Internet Layer controls the routing of packets across multiple logical networks. It is the next layer up from the Link layer and is associated with the Network layer of the OSI model. Functions include traffic routing, traffic control, fragmentation, and logical addressing. The protocols include the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP), Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP), and Internet Protocol (IP) work at this layer.

A customer's laptop display has suddenly become very dim. The image on the display can only be seen with a bright, external light, as adjusting the brightness/ contrast does not cause much change. Which of the following components most likely needs to be replaced?

Inverter An inverter is used to convert DC power to AC power for the display. When an inverter fails, depending on the laptop model, it may be appropriate to simply replace the display rather than replace the inverter. Replacement of the inverter requires an exact match, both electrically and mechanically (connectors, size/shape, and mounting).

James, a technician, needs to configure a computer system for maximum safety of stored data while staying cost effective. Which of the following RAID levels should he use?

James should use RAID 1 for maximum safety of stored data while staying cost effective. In RAID 1, data from an entire partition is duplicated on two identical drives by either mirroring or duplexing. In mirroring, the two disks share a drive controller. In disk duplexing, each disk has its own drive controller, so the controller card is not a single point of failure. Data is written to both halves of the mirror simultaneously. This redundancy provides fault tolerance and provides for quick failure recovery, but the storage overhead consumes half the available space. The work of reading the data can be split between both drives, improving performance.

Which of the following devices will allow a technician to use a single set of input devices on several computers?

KVM switch A keyboard, video, mouse (KVM) switch is a device that enables a computer user to control multiple computers with a single keyboard and mouse, with the display sent to a single monitor. This feature is particularly useful in managing multiple test environments, or in accessing multiple servers that have no need for dedicated display or input devices. KVM switches are available with PS/2 or USB connections, and come in desktop, inline, or rack-mount varieties. Higher-end rack-mount models can be uplinked to connect dozens of computers.

Which of the following would allow for multiple computers to share display and input devices?

KVM switch A keyboard, video, mouse (KVM) switch is a device that enables a computer user to control multiple computers with a single keyboard and mouse, with the display sent to a single monitor. This feature is particularly useful in managing multiple test environments, or in accessing multiple servers that have no need for dedicated display or input devices. KVM switches are available with PS/2 or USB connections, and come in desktop, inline, or rack-mount varieties. Higher-end rack-mount models can be uplinked to connect dozens of computers.

James, a security analyst, is hardening an authentication server. One of the primary requirements is to ensure there is mutual authentication and delegation. Given these requirements, which of the following technologies should he recommend and configure?

Kerberos Kerberos is an authentication service that is based on a time-sensitive ticket-granting system. It was developed by the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) to use an SSO method in which the user enters access credentials that are then passed to the authentication server, which contains an access list and permitted access credentials. Kerberos can be used to manage access control to several services by using one centralized authentication server.

Which of the following stores information about authorized users and their privileges as well as other organizational information?

LDAP Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a simple network protocol used to access network directory databases, which store information about authorized users and their privileges as well as other organizational information. In LDAP, port 389 is used to request information from local DC and port 3268 to query the global catalog.

Joe, a technician, is tasked to maintain a printer. He checks the printer and finds that its imaging drum and transfer roller are not working. For which of the following types of printers should he obtain a maintenance kit containing an imaging drum and transfer roller?

Laser printer A laser printer produces a high-quality and high-speed output of both text and graphics by using a process called electro-photographic imaging. It is a printer that uses a laser beam to project a document onto an electrically charged drum. Laser printers include some specialized components not found in other printer types: Toner cartridge Laser scanning assembly High-voltage power supply Paper transport mechanism Electrostatic Photographic drum (EP drum), or imaging drum Transfer corona assembly Fuser assembly Formatter board

A network engineer wants to segment the network into multiple broadcast domains. Which of the following devices would allow for communication between the segments?

Layer 3 switch A Layer 3 switch is a specialized hardware device used in network routing. It combines the functionality of a switch and a router. It acts as a switch to connect devices that are on the same subnet or virtual LAN at lightning speeds and has IP routing intelligence built into it to double up as a router. It can support routing protocols, inspect incoming packets, and can even make routing decisions based on the source and destination addresses.

Which of the following would be the most important factor to consider when building a virtualization workstation?

Maximum RAM and CPU cores A virtualization workstation is a computer that uses both hardware virtualization and client virtualization resources to provide a comprehensive virtual environment for users. Organizations may use virtualization workstations to reduce the use and cost of hardware and to provide employees with a wide variety of OS specific applications from a single workstation. Common virtualization workstation software are VMWare, Oracle's VirtualBox, and Microsoft's Hyper-V. There are few most important factors to consider when building a virtualization workstation, these are: Maximum RAM the motherboard can support Maximum central processing unit (CPU) cores Fast network connection for server-side VM hosting

A company has subscribed to a cloud service, paying monthly for a block of services and being billed incrementally when they exceed the monthly fee. Which of the following cloud concepts does this represent?

Measured service Measured service is a cloud computing feature which refers to the cloud provider's ability to monitor and meter the customer's use of resources. This supports the customer's ability to dynamically make changes to the resources they receive. Based on the metered and measured information, the provider knows what resources the customer has used and can then bill for those resources during the next billing cycle.

A technician is troubleshooting a desktop that is having intermittent issues with locking up and system errors. The technician suspects that the problem might be that not enough power is getting to the motherboard. Which of the following tools would the technician use to determine if the hypothesis is correct?

Multimeter The technician would use a multimeter to determine if the hypothesis is correct. A multimeter is an electronic instrument used to measure voltage, current, and resistance. It usually has two probes with leads, one red and one black, that are plugged into two sockets on the meter. To switch between measuring volts, ohms, and amps, the leads can be moved to different sockets, or there may be a selector switch. Digital meters have a screen that displays the numeric value of what you are measuring. Analog meters have a thin needle that swings in an arc and indicates the value of what you are measuring. Many meters also have specific settings for testing circuit continuity, diodes, or battery charges. Multimeters are sometimes called volt-ohm meters.

Maria is a technician at a medium-sized accounting firm. During tax preparation season, the internal demand for computing resources rises, and then after the taxes are filed, the computing capacity is no longer needed. She is being asked to create a more efficient and agile solution to her company's operations that maximizes operational expenditures. Which cloud computing feature will help to meet her needs?

On-demand On-demand self-service is a cloud computing feature through which users can access additional storage, processing, and capabilities automatically, without requiring intervention from the service provider. It enables end users to request and access cloud resources as they are needed. This type of cloud service is useful for project-based needs, giving the project members access to the cloud services for the duration of the project, and then releasing the cloud services back to the hosting provider when the project is finished. This way, the organization is only paying for the services for the duration of the project.

A cloud computing feature through which users can access additional storage, processing, and capabilities automatically, without requiring intervention from the service provider is known as:

On-demand self-service On-demand self-service is a cloud computing feature through which users can access additional storage, processing, and capabilities automatically, without requiring intervention from the service provider. It enables end users to request and access cloud resources as they are needed. This type of cloud service is useful for project-based needs, giving the project members access to the cloud services for the duration of the project, and then releasing the cloud services back to the hosting provider when the project is finished. This way, the organization is only paying for the services for the duration of the project.

A user reports the inability to access a company server using the FTP protocol. A technician finds other ports to the server seem to work normally. The technician has determined the problem is an incorrectly configured software firewall on the user's machine. Which of the following is most likely the cause?

Outgoing connections on port 21 are blocked. The technician should open the port 21 for outgoing connections. The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a TCP/IP protocol that enables the transfer of files between a user's workstation and a remote host. It works on the Application layer (Layer 7) of the OSI model and the Application layer of the TCP/IP model. FTP works on two TCP channels: TCP port 20 for data transfer and TCP port 21 to control commands. These channels work together to enable users to execute commands and transfer data simultaneously.

Which of the following expansion slots uses a serial connection?

PCIe PCI Express (PCIe) is a high-speed serial computer expansion bus standard, designed to replace the older PCI, PCI-X, and AGP bus standards. It is based on the concept of lanes. Lanes can be grouped to increase bandwidth. Each device uses two lanes, one to transmit and one to receive (full duplex). PCIe slots come in various lengths and are used for high-speed I/O devices.

A brownout has occurred within a building. A technician is repairing a workstation which has a power light, but is not displaying anything on the screen and is not making any sounds during boot up. Which of the following should be used to further troubleshoot the workstation?

POST card The technician should use a POST card to further troubleshoot the workstation. A POST card is a card that can be plugged directly into the motherboard in an available expansion card slot, or connected to an available USB port, that can read and display any error codes that get generated during the POST process of a computer. This tool can be extremely useful for determining why a computer will not boot up. The specific error codes will differ depending on the BIOS version and the specific manufacturer. You may need to refer to the manufacturer for an updated error code list before you start using the card in the computer.

Which of the following cloud service models enables a consumer to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes?

PaaS Platform as a Service (PaaS) is an access to a computing platform or software environment the customer can use to develop and host web-based applications. It provides a platform allowing customers to develop, run, and manage applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure typically associated with developing and launching an application. The provider manages the underlying hardware infrastructure and development tools, so the customer only has to do the actual software development. Example of PaaS includes Amazon's Relational Database Service (RDS).

Maria, a network administrator, wants to block the availability to nonwork-type websites. Which type of server should she use for this purpose?

Proxy server Maria should use a proxy server to block the availability to nonwork-type websites. A proxy server can be used to deny access to certain websites as configured by an administrator. A proxy server is a computer that acts on behalf of several client PCs requesting content from the Internet or intranet. It acts as a security barrier or firewall between the local network and the Internet, so that external users on the Internet cannot access the internal network. A proxy server provides security by restricting inbound as well as outbound connections. URL filtering is one of the functions of a proxy server where it is used to block users from accessing social networking sites during working hours.

Which of the following RAID types should be used to configure two drives for maximum performance?

RAID 0 RAID 0 implements striping, which is the process of spreading data across multiple drives. Striping can dramatically improve read and write performance. You must have at least two physical disk drives to implement striping. RAID 0 takes the contents of files and spread them in roughly even parts across all drives in the RAID array. It allows the CPU to read and write simultaneously on different drives, improving performance.

John, a customer, needs to run several virtual machines on his design workstation to work on cross platform software. Which of the following should be maximized to improve workstation performance? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

RAM Number of CPU cores A virtualization workstation is a computer that uses both hardware virtualization and client virtualization resources to provide a comprehensive virtual environment for users. The virtualized workstation is configured to use the system's hardware functions such as access to the random-access memory (RAM), and network interface cards (NICs), as well as run the software that provides multiple virtual machines (VMs). Virtualization provides users with a variety of applications and resources by offering multiple platforms within a single system. Virtualization software vendors will all have specific hardware and system requirements based on their actual software needs, but in most cases will require a virtualization workstation to have: The maximum RAM the motherboard can support. Maximum central processing unit (CPU) cores. Fast network connection for server-side VM hosting.

Which cloud computing feature enables the cloud services provider to service multiple customers to suit each customer's needs?

Resource pooling Resource pooling is a cloud computing feature which enables the cloud services provider to service multiple customers to suit each customer's needs without any changes made to one customer affecting any of the other customers. It is used in cloud computing environments to describe a situation in which providers serve multiple clients with provisional and scalable services.

A host with an IP address of 15.0.0.126/25 needs to transfer data to a host with an IP address of 15.0.0.129/25. Which of the following devices will be required for this purpose?

Router The host 15.0.0.126/25 is in the 15.0.0.0 subnet and host 15.0.0.129/25 is in the 15.0.0.128 subnet. Therefore, a router (or a Layer 3 switch) is required for these hosts to communicate with each other as they are in different subnets.

A technician wants to remotely and securely access the desktop of a Linux workstation. The desktop is running remote control software without encryption. Which of the following should the technician use to secure the connection?

SSH Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol that enables a user or an application to log on to another device over a network, execute commands, and manage files. It creates a shell or session with a remote system, offers strong authentication methods, and ensures that communications are secure over insecure channels. It operates at the Application layer (layer 7) of the OSI model and the Application layer of the TCP/IP model. It uses port 22 and runs on TCP.

Which of the following is a security protocol that combines digital certificates for authentication with public key data encryption?

SSL Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is a security protocol that combines digital certificates for authentication with public key data encryption. SSL is a server-driven process; any web client that supports SSL, including all current web browsers, can connect securely to an SSL-enabled server. It is a cryptographic protocol that provides communication security over a computer network. Internet mail services require secure connections using Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) or Transport Layer Security (TLS).

Which provides protection against network eavesdropping and signal interference and works at the physical layer of the OSI model?

STP cable A shielded twisted pair (STP) cable provides protection against network eavesdropping and signal interference and works at the physical layer of the OSI model. It consists of one or more pairs of twisted wires that are insulated with a metal foil to minimize electromagnetic interference. The metal shield is connected to the ground to prevent external signals from getting into and internal signals from getting out of the cable.

Which networking device must be used to have full duplex communication between two host devices?

Switch A switch allows full duplex communication where two devices on a network can simultaneously send and receive the data. It is a layer 2 device that joins multiple computers together within the same LAN. It examines the Layer 2 header of the incoming packet and forwards it properly to the right port and only that port. This means that there is a point-to-point connection (dedicated channel) between the transmitter of the sending device and the receiver of the receiving device.

Which of the following connection types can be used simultaneously for video, storage, and audio?

Thunderbolt Thunderbolt is a standard interface developed by Intel in collaboration with Apple that allows the connection of external peripherals to an Apple computer. Thunderbolt connection is a high-speed I/O technology interface that consists of a host controller that joins together PCI-Express data and/or DisplayPort video. Thunderbolt connection can support up to six peripheral devices, including full 4K video displays, audio, external graphics, and storage devices. It is capable of delivering up to 100 watts of power, so a single cable can be used to connect to a dock or display and charge your MacBook Pro or MacBook Air simultaneously.

While installing Hyper-V, you receive an error that software is unable to install. Which of the following configuration options will you check?

Virtualization support If the CPU supports virtualization, you can use the system firmware setup utility to enable or disable the various virtualization settings available. Virtualization support within the system firmware is dependent on the OEM model. Hyper-V is a Windows-based virtualization software that can create virtual machines on x86 and x64 systems running Windows. Linux-based virtualization typically uses either Xen or Kernel-based Virtual Machine (KVM).

A company offers several out-of-the-box computer configurations to its clients. A client requests several new computers for its newest location, which will be used by guests to check in upon arrival and fill out contact information. Which of the following configurations would best fit this customer's needs?

Touch-screen kiosk According to the given scenario, a touch-screen kiosk would best meet the customer's needs. A touch-screen kiosk is a computer terminal featuring specialized hardware and software that provides access to information and applications for communication, commerce, entertainment, or education. Integration of technology allows kiosks to perform a wide range of functions, evolving into self-service kiosks. For example, kiosks may enable users to order from a shop's catalogue when items are not in stock, check out a library book, look up information about products, issue a hotel key card, enter a public utility bill account number in order to perform an online transaction, or collect cash in exchange for merchandise.

Which layer of the TCP/IP model manages end-to-end communication between hosts, error detection and correction, and message reordering?

Transport The Transport layer manages end-to-end communication between hosts, and breaks application data up into the segments or datagrams sent over the network. It is the next layer and is typically related directly with the same named layer in the OSI model. Functions include message segmentation, acknowledgement, traffic control, session multiplexing, error detection and correction (resends), and message reordering. The protocols include the Transport Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) work at this layer.

Which process is used by receivers in a GPS system to calculate the distance between themselves and the satellites to determine their location?

Triangulation Triangulation is a process used by receivers to calculate the distance between themselves and the satellites (based on the time it takes to receive a signal) to determine their location. They require input from four or three satellites to provide location and elevation.

Which of the following combines the features of a firewall, gateway anti-virus, and IDS/IPS into a single device?

UTM A Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance is a security device that combines the features of a firewall, gateway anti-virus, and IDS/IPS into a single device. The goal of UTM is to centralize security management, allowing administrators to manage all of their security-related hardware and software through a single device or interface.

James, a technician, wants to syndicate the security controls of some of the network devices in the company. His company does not have sufficient resources to manage its large infrastructure. Which of the following methods would best accomplish his goal?

UTM Unified Threat Management (UTM) would be best in this scenario to accomplish the goal. An all-in-one appliance, also known as UTM, is one that provides a good foundation for security. UTM is a combination of a firewall with other abilities. These abilities include intrusion prevention, antivirus, content filtering, and so on. The advantages of combining everything into one include a reduced learning curve, a single vendor to deal with, and reduced complexity.

Which of the following separates the personal computing environment from a user's physical computer?

VDI Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) is a virtualization implementation that separates the personal computing environment from a user's physical computer. It uses virtualization to separate the personal computing environment from the user's physical machine. In VDI, a desktop operating system and applications are run inside the VMs that are hosted on servers in the virtualization infrastructure.

Which of the following is a point-to-point logical network created by grouping selected hosts, regardless of their physical location?

VLAN A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a point-to-point logical network created by grouping selected hosts, regardless of their physical location. It uses a switch or router that controls groups of hosts, which receive network broadcasts. VLANs can provide network security by enabling administrators to segment groups of hosts within the larger physical network.

James, a network administrator, wants to access his company's internal website from a remote location via a wireless Internet connection. Which type of connection does he need to make this secure?

VPN A virtual private network (VPN) is a private network configured by tunneling through a public network, such as the Internet. It provides secure connections between endpoints, such as routers, clients, or servers, by using tunneling to encapsulate and encrypt data. It can create a secure connection over an insecure network, such as wireless or the Internet. The common VPN protocols include SSL, L2TP, L2F, PPTP, and TLS.

Joe, a user, reports to a technician that his inkjet printer is regularly feeding two sheets of paper for every page printed. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

Worn feed roller Worn feed roller is the possible symptom of the paper slips or begins to pick up 2 to 3 pages or more at once, and then jams. It occurs when feed rollers lose their grip. To resolve this issue, wheels either need to be cleaned with alcohol or replaced.

A user is notified of file system errors on an external hard drive. Which of the following tools can be used to repair common errors on the drive?

chkdsk The chkdsk command is used to verify the logical integrity of a file system. With the /f switch, chkdsk.exe can repair the file system data. Enter chkdsk "drive letter" /f in the Run dialog box or at the command line. With the /r switch, chkdsk can locate bad sectors on the disk and recover any readable information. Entering chkdsk /? displays a list of all available switches.

Which port needs to be opened on the firewall for DNS?

port 53 Domain Name System (DNS) is the primary name resolution service on the Internet and private IP networks. It uses port 53 as the default port.

A client's computer is not connecting to a website. Which of the following commands will allow the technician to view the route/number of hops between the host and remote systems?

tracert The tracert (Windows) and traceroute (Mac OS X, Linux) utilities show the route that a packet takes to get to its destination. At the command prompt, type tracert or traceroute followed by a space and an IP address or URL. The output describes the route from the customer's machine to the destination machine, including all devices the packet passes through and how long each hop between devices takes.


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