A+ Ucertify Stuff

SLP

(Service Location Protocol) • tcp/427, udp/427 • Find Mac OS services by name

A single Serial ATA (SATA) data cable can be used to connect a motherboard slot with:

1 device

Which of the following are characteristics of a Double Data Rate 4 Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DDR4 SDRAM)? (Select 3 answers) 1 notch on the module contact surface Reads/writes 8 words of data per clock cycle 260 contact pins 2 notches on the module contact surface 288 contact pins Reads/writes 16 words of data per clock cycle

1 notch on the module contact surface Reads/writes 8 words of data per clock cycle 288 contact pin

What are some characteristic features of the Double Data Rate 2 Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DDR2 SDRAM)? (Select 3 answers) Reads/writes 2 words of data per clock cycle 1 notch on the module contact surface 204 contact pins Reads/writes 4 words of data per clock cycle 240 contact pins 2 notches on the module contact surface

1 notch on the module contact surface Reads/writes 4 words of data per clock cycle 240 contact pins

Cat 5e

1,000 Mbps at 100-meter segments or 10 Gbps at 55-meter segments.

What are some characteristic features of SATA revision 1.0? (Select 2 answers) 1.5 Gbps data transfer rate Maximum cable length of 1 meter 3 Gbps data transfer rate Maximum cable length of 2 meters 6 Gbps data transfer rate Maximum cable length of 3 meters

1.5 Gbps data transfer rate Maximum cable length of 1 meter

Cat 3

10 Mbps

Cat 5

100 Mbps

Which of the following are characteristic features of Category 5 (Cat 5) cabling? (Select all that apply) Coaxial cabling 100 Mbps Ethernet (100BaseT networks) F-type connector 55-meter cable segment length 1 Gbps Ethernet (1000BaseT networks) BNC connector 100-meter cable segment length RJ-45 connector 10 Gbps Ethernet (10GBaseT networks) Twisted-pair copper cabling Fiber-optic cabling

100 Mbps Ethernet (100BaseT networks) 100-meter cable segment length RJ-45 connector Twisted-pair copper cabling

What is the typical maximum segment length for a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable? 33 meters 55 meters 100 meters 250 meters

100 Meters

How far does single mode transmit?

100km

10BaseF 100BaseFX 10Base5 10BaseT and 100BaseT

10BaseF networks, which operate at 10 megabits per second (Mbps), support the longest cable length with a maximum distance of 2,000 meters (m) or 2 kilometers (km) The 100BaseFX standard is identical to 10BaseFL except that the network speed is 100 Mbps rather than 10 Mbps. Networks built on a 10Base5 topology support a maximum cable length of 500 meters. 10BaseT and 100BaseT topologies support a maximum distance of 100 meters between two devices.

What pins do you leave blank when plugging a 20 pin into a 24 pin ATX power connector?

11, 12, 23, 24.

Loopback address (IPv4)

127.0.0.1

What is the peak transfer rate of a DDR3-1600 module? 6400 MB/s 8533 MB/s 10667 MB/s 12800 MB/s

12800 MB/s

Which of the following port numbers are reserved for NetBIOS services? (Select 3 answers) 136 161 137 162 138 139

137 138 139

SATA power

15 pin power connector, 3.3V (rare), 5V and 12V

The SATA interface specification defines a power connector consisting of: 7 pins 34 pins 40 pins 15 pins

15 pins

An SNMP Agent receives requests on UDP port: 161 138 162 139

161

An SNMP management station receives SNMP notifications on which of the following UDP ports? 161 137 162 138

162

The Parallel ATA (PATA) interface standard specifies a maximum allowable cable length of: 4.5 meters 1 meter 18 inches 2 meters

18 inches

What is the maximum number of devices that can be attached to a PC through a single PATA cable?

2

Which of the following sizes is the most common magnetic hard disk drive form factor used in laptops? What is the second most common?

2.5in 1.8in

What is the channel bandwidth specified in the IEEE 802.11a standard? 20 MHz 22 MHz 40 MHz 80 MHz

20 MHz

Which of the following channel bandwidths is specified in the IEEE 802.11g standard? 20 MHz 22 MHz 40 MHz 80 MHz

20 MHz

The IEEE 802.11n standard specifies available channel bandwidth options of: (Select 2 answers) 20 MHz 22 MHz 40 MHz 80 MHz 160 MHz

20 MHz 40 MHz

Cat 4

20 Mbps

DDR2 SDRAM SODIMM memory modules contain: 200 contact pins 204 contact pins 240 contact pins 260 contact pins

200 contact pins

How many contact pins are used in SODIMM DDR3 SDRAM modules? 200 204 240 260

204

Which of the following is a channel bandwidth used in 802.11b networks? 20 MHz 22 MHz 40 MHz 80 MHz

22 MHz

What is the peak transfer rate of a DDR4-3200 module? 19200 MB/s 21333 MB/s 23466 MB/s 25600 MB/s

25600 MB/s

How many contact pins are used in SODIMM DDR4 SDRAM modules? 200 204 240 260

260

How far does multimode transmit?

2km

SATA revision 2.0 specifies: (Select 2 answers) Maximum cable length of 3 meters 6 Gbps data transfer rate Maximum cable length of 2 meters 3 Gbps data transfer rate Maximum cable length of 1 meter 1.5 Gbps data transfer rate

3 Gbps data transfer rate Maximum cable length of 1 meter

What is the maximum allowable length for a Thunderbolt copper cable?

3 Meters

Cat 2

4 Mbps

What is the peak transfer rate of a DDR2-533 module? 3200 MB/s 4266 MB/s 5333 MB/s 6400 MB/s

4266 MB/s

Which port number is used by SLP? 143 427 548 443

427

Which of the following ports is used by the Server Message Block (SMB) protocol?

445

What is the maximum allowable cable length for both Full Speed USB and High Speed USB?

5 meters

Which of the following answers describe features of the IEEE 802.11ac wireless standard? (Select 3 answers) Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO) Data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps 5.0 GHz frequency band Maximum data signaling rate of up to 6.77 Gbps Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO) 2.4 GHz frequency band

5.0 GHz frequency band Maximum data signaling rate of up to 6.77 Gbps Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO)

AFP runs by default on TCP port: 427 443 445 548

548

Fiber-optic Thunderbolt interfaces have a maximum cable length of:

60 Meters

The SATA interface specification defines data cable connector consisting of: 40 pins 34 pins 15 pins 7 pins

7 pins

The IEEE 802.11g standard is backwards compatible with: 802.11n 802.11a 802.11b 802.11ac

802.11b

The IEEE 802.11n standard offers backward compatibility with: (Select all that apply) 802.11g 802.11ac 802.11b 802.11a

802.11g 802.11b 802.11a

FM2

904 pins A series

AM3

941 pins Athlon II Phenom II Sempron941 pins

What is the network prefix that is used to denote an unsubnetted Class C IP address? A /24 B /32 C /16 D /8

A /24

Question 211 : Which IP address is used by a Class A private network? This task contains the radio buttons and checkboxes for options. The shortcut keys to perform this task are A to H and alt+1 to alt+9. A 10.0.0.0 B 127.0.0.1 C 192.168.0.0 D 172.16.0.0

A 10.0.0.0

Which of the following is the correct pin for the Socket B? A 1366 B 1155 C 1156 D 1331

A 1366 It is also known as LGA 1366 and was introduced in Nov 2008. It supports Core i7, Xeon 3500 series, Xeon 3600 series, Xeon 5500 series, and Xeon 5600 series CPUs.

Question 68 : You were recently hired as an IT technician. The IT supervisor informs you that many of the desktop computers have Advanced Technology Extended (ATX) motherboards. Which of the following statements is TRUE for these computers? A An ATX motherboard can support a maximum of seven expansion slots. B An ATX motherboard can support Extended Data Output (EDO) Random Access Memory (RAM). C The processor, memory, and expansion slots on an ATX motherboard are all in line with each other. D An ATX motherboard has a 12-pin power connector.

A An ATX motherboard can support a maximum of seven expansion slots. Explanation: An ATX motherboard supports a 20-pin power connector, which consists of a single connector that can only be connected in one way to the motherboard. A 12-pin power connector is supported on AT and baby AT motherboards, and is a combination of two 6-pin power connectors where the P8 and P9 pins are together. The processor, memory, and expansion slots are NOT in line with each other on an ATX motherboard. The memory slot on an ATX motherboard, also referred to as a RAM slot, is placed at a 90-degree angle to all expansion slots. The processor, memory, and expansion slots are oriented parallel to each other on AT and baby AT motherboards. An ATX motherboard cannot support EDO RAM, which is considered obsolete.

Which of the following Ethernet cables would best support an application that requires a 600 Mbps throughput at the lowest price point? A Cat 5e B Cat 5 C Cat 6 D Cat 3

A Cat 5e Cat 5e is currently the most common type of Ethernet, mainly due to its low production cost and ability to support faster speeds than the original Cat 5 cables. Cat 5e has completely replaced its predecessor. It supports speeds of up to 1000 Mbps. It's flexible enough for small space installations like residences, though it is still used in commercial spaces. Answer C is incorrect. Cat 6 cable supports much higher bandwidths than Cat 5 and Cat 5e cables, but it is also more expensive. Cat 6 cables can technically support speeds up to 10 Gbps, but can only do so for up to 55 meters. Answer B is incorrect. Cat 5 is a unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable but it is able to carry data at a higher transfer rate. Cat 5 cables can support either 10 Mbps or 100 Mbps speeds. Answer D is incorrect. Cat 3 is one of the oldest forms of Ethernet cable still in use today. It is an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable that is capable of carrying 10 Mbps of data or voice transmissions. Its maximum possible bandwidth is 16 MHz.

Which of the following memory modules is used if it is labeled as 4 GB PC 1333? A DDR3 B RIMM C SIMM D DDR SDRAM

A DDR3 Double Data Rate (DDR3) is a type of SDRAM that is used for system memory. It is available in both DIMM and SO-DIMM form factors. DDR3 transfers the data at twice the rate of DDR2 and uses 30 percent less power in the process. Like DDR2, DDR3 chips use 240-pin connections but cannot be used interchangeably because of differences in notch location and electrical requirements. The variants of DDR3 memory module includes DDR3-800, DDR3-1066, DDR3-1333, and DDR3-1600.

Which liquid-crystal technology allows the polarized crystals to move more freely into the desired alignment? A IPS B TN C VA

A IPS

Which motherboard form factor only supports mini-PCIe and laptop RAM slots? A Nano-ITX B Mini-ITX C Micro-ATX D Mini-ATX

A Nano-ITX Nano-ITX is an ITX board which measures 4.7 inches square and only supports mini-PCIe and laptop RAM slots.

You need to replace a computer's power supply. When you purchase the new power supply, you notice an 8-pin power connection. For which device type is this connection intended? A PCI Express device B SATA hard drives C CPU connector D ATA hard drive

A PCI Express device The 8-pin power connector is used for PCI Express (PCIe) devices. This is an 8-pin power connection that provides 12 volts. PCIe can also use 6-pin connectors. Many power supplies come with a 4+4 pin 12 volt cable which is compatible with both 4 and 8 pin motherboards. A 4+4 power cable has two separate 4 pin pieces. If you plug the two pieces of a 4+4 power cable together then you have an 8 pin power cable which can be plugged into an 8 pin 12 volt connector. Answer D is incorrect. ATA hard drives use a 4-pin connector that provides 5 or 12 volts. Answer C is incorrect. CPU connectors do not require a separate power connection. They run off the power supplied to the motherboard. Answer B is incorrect. SATA hard drives use a 15-pin connector that provides 3.3, 5, or 12 volts.Answer B is incorrect. SATA hard drives use a 15-pin connector that provides 3.3, 5, or 12 volts.

Steven wants to upgrade the RAM in his gaming system. Which features are important considerations before he adds memory modules to a computer's system board? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A Parity B Level 1 cache C Access speed D CPU type

A Parity C Access speed

Christine has a motherboard with a Socket 1156 and has called you to see if a Socket 1150 CPU could be used in its place. What would you recommend that she do? A Purchase a new motherboard that has an 1150 socket. B Upgrade the socket on the existing motherboard so it is compatible with an LGA 1156. C Replace the heat sink. D Replace the thermal paste and pins.

A Purchase a new motherboard that has an 1150 socket. Intel motherboards with a Socket 1156, also known as Socket H, hold LGA Socket 1156 CPUs and have 1,156 pins. An 1156 socket is not compatible with LGA Socket 1150 (Socket H3), which has 1,150 pins and was compatible with 4th- and 5th-generation Core desktops and Xeon E3, v3, and v4 for servers.

Which cable standard is used by 10BASE5 "Thicknet" Ethernet? A RG-8 B RG-58 C RG-6 D RG-11

A RG-8

James, a technician, wants to transfer files between two systems. Which of the following protocols will help him?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A SCP B FTP C NTP D OSPF

A SCP (Secure Copy Protocol) B FTP (File Transfer Protocol)

Which of the following protocols is used for file sharing between MAC OS and Windows OS workstations on a LAN? A SMB B SSH C Telnet D RDP

A SMB Server Message Block (SMB) is a protocol used for file sharing between MAC OS and Windows OS workstations on a local area network (LAN). It helps share resources such as files, printers, and serial ports among computers. In a TCP/IP network, NetBIOS clients, such as Windows systems, use NetBIOS over TCP/IP to connect to servers, and then issue SMB commands to complete tasks such as accessing shared files and printers. AFP is a file transfer protocol similar to SMB.

Jack has several areas in the office where he needs to install cabling. He has coaxial cable on hand, and he would like to use splitters to connect the different computers and areas. If he runs multiple splitters, which effects should he anticipate? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Service quality issues B More collisions C Fewer collisions D Signal loss E Connection speed issues

A Service quality issues D Signal loss E Connection speed issues

Which improvements does IPv6 provide over the current IP addressing scheme? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A The IP header options allow more efficient forwarding and less rigid length limits. B The IP address size increased from 128 bits to 156 bits with simpler auto-configuration of addresses. C The IP address size is increased from 64 bits to 128 bits with simpler auto-configuration of addresses. D Some header fields have been dropped or made optional. E Header fields have been made mandatory to reduce processing requirements. F A new type of address is used to deliver a packet to a specific address node.

A The IP header options allow more efficient forwarding and less rigid length limits. D Some header fields have been dropped or made optional.

Beverly has contacted you and stating that her computer will not boot and keeps beeping. Which components must pass a computer's power-on self-test (POST) before an operating system will load?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A The video card B The keyboard C The memory D The central processing unit (CPU) E The network interface card (NIC) F The hard disk drive

A The video card C The memory D The central processing unit (CPU)

You have begun the process of replacing the CPU in your computer by physically installing the CPU. You must ensure that the motherboard recognizes the new CPU. What should you do first? A Update the firmware. B Update the driver. C Access the motherboard vendor's website to find out if the CPU is compatible with the motherboard. D Contact the motherboard vendor to inquire about compatibility.

A Update the firmware. You should update the motherboard's firmware to ensure that the motherboard recognizes the new CPU. You should not update the driver until after you have ensured that the motherboard recognizes the new CPU and the computer has booted in the operating system.

You perform several hardware upgrades on a user's computer. You notice that the computer has an AMI BIOS. After completing the upgrades, you boot the computer. You hear eight short beeps. Which component should you check? A Video card B Memory C Keyboard D CPU

A Video Card

RG-59

A coaxial cable that uses BNC connectors. It is used for analog data and can be used between a TV and DVD player. 10 MBPS - 250 meters 100 MBPS - 150 meters

RG-58

A thin, flexible coaxial cable used in 10Base2 network. Also called thinnet. 10 MBPS - 185 meters

Fast Ethernet

A type of Ethernet network that is capable of 100-Mbps throughput. 100Base-T/X and 100Base-FX are both examples of Fast Ethernet.

AM3+ socket

AMD FX processor (AM3 compatible) 942 holes for pins (PGA) Uses Bulldozer architecture Works with DDR3 memory AM3 processors include the Phenom II, Athlon II, Sempron, and Opteron 138x. AM3+ processors include the Phenom II, Athlon II, FX, and Opteron 3000. Socket AM3 fits AMD processors and has 940 holes in the socket, supporting CPUs up to 938 pins.

Which of the following are hardware virtualization enhancements developed by AMD for its CPUs? (AMD Virtualization software)

AMD-V

An Apple technology that is built into most popular printer models and which enables network printing services without requiring manual configuration by users is called:

Airprint

AM3+

Almost identical to the AM2 and AM3, it supported Athlon 2, Phenom 2, and DDR3. It has 942 pins. Bulldozer (A series)

A customer's laptop display has suddenly become very dim. The image on the display can only be seen with a bright, external light, as adjusting the brightness/ contrast does not cause much change. Which of the following components most likely needs to be replaced? A NAS appliance B Digitizer C Inverter D Backlight

An inverter is used to convert DC power to AC power for the display. When an inverter fails, depending on the laptop model, it may be appropriate to simply replace the display rather than replace the inverter. Replacement of the inverter requires an exact match, both electrically and mechanically (connectors, size/shape, and mounting).

AFP (Apple Filing Protocol)

An outdated file access protocol used by early editions of the Mac operating system by Apple and is one protocol in the suite of AppleTalk networking protocols. TCP 548

Which of the following describes the IEEE 802.11ac channel bandwidth option(s)? 20 MHz 40 MHz 80 MHz 160 MHz Any of the above

Any of the above

You are explaining the significance of the wires running from a power supply. The Power Good signal sends power to the motherboard to indicate that the electrical power is sufficient and can prevent the computer from booting. Which voltage is used by the Power Good signal? A +12 B +5 C +3.3 D -5 E -12

B +5 The Power Good signal is a +5 voltage sent over a specific wire in the connector. This wire sends power from the power supply to the motherboard. If the motherboard does not receive the signal, the computer will not boot. If this is occurring, the only solution is to replace the power supply. The +5 voltage provides power to the motherboard. It also provides power to older CD/DVD drives, hard drives, PCI cards, and Pentium III and earlier processors. The +3.3 voltage provides power to certain video cards and the motherboard. However, it has nothing to do with the Power Good signal. The -5 voltage provides power to the ISA or AT bus adapter cards. The -12 voltage provides power to some older network adapters and serial ports. The +12 voltage provides power to newer CD/DVD drives, hard drives, and Pentium 4 and Athlon processors.

What is the transfer rate of the DDR4 2400? A 21.3 GB/sec B 19.2 GB/sec C 12,800 MB/sec D 25.6 GB/sec

B 19.2 GB/sec

You are an IT technician at your company. The company has two small offices in different cities. The company's head office contains a DNS server and a DHCP server. The branch office does not contain a DHCP server. A user travels frequently between the head office and the branch office. You are configuring the IP address on this user's laptop. You must ensure that the user is able to connect to the Internet from both offices. How should you configure the Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) Properties dialog box on the user's laptop while expending the least administrative effort? A Configure the General tab and the Alternate Configuration tab to use a static IP address from the branch office network range. B Configure the General tab to use the DHCP server at the head office. Configure a static IP address from the branch office network range on the Alternate Configuration tab. C Configure the General tab and the Alternate Configuration tab to use the DHCP server. D Configure a static IP address from the head office network range on the General tab. Configure a static IP address from the branch office network range on the Alternate Configuration tab.

B Configure the General tab to use the DHCP server at the head office. Configure a static IP address from the branch office network range on the Alternate Configuration tab. When the General tab is configured to use a DHCP server and there is no DHCP server located on the network, the alternate IP address settings are checked by the computer. If the alternate IP address settings are also not configured, then an IP address from the Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) range (169.254.0.0 -169.254.255.255) is assigned to the computer.

You have a motherboard that includes an LGA 1155 CPU socket. Which CPU would NOT be supported with this motherboard? A Xeon B Core 2 Duo C Core i7 D Celeron

B Core 2 Duo An LGA 1155 CPU socket supports Core i3/i5/i7, Pentium, Celeron, and Xeon CPUs. Core 2 Duo CPUs will require an LGA 775 socket. LGA 775 sockets also support Pentium 4, Celeron, Pentium 4 Extreme Edition, Core 2 Quad, and Xeon processors.

Susan has just been hired as your new tech support. You are explaining different RAM types to her. Which random access memory (RAM) technology would you tell her fetches 4 bits of data per clock cycle and uses 1.8 V to operate? A DDR SDRAM B DDR2 SDRAM C SDRAM D SGRAM

B DDR2 SDRAM DDR2 SDRAM uses differential pairs of signal wires to allow faster signaling without noise and interference problems to achieve higher throughput. DDR2 SDRAM uses 1.8 V to operate and fetches 4 bits of data per clock cycle instead of 2 bits as with DDR SDRAM.

When Kevin was hired, he inherited a box of different types of RAM. Which RAM would you ask him to set aside if you needed to increase the number of data wires available from 64 to 128? A Single-channel B Dual-channel C Double-sided D Single-sided

B Dual-channel The dual-channel memory architecture increases the number of data wires available from 64 to 128. The triple-channel memory architecture increases the number of data wires to 192. The quad-channel memory architecture increases the number of data wires to 256. Single-channel architecture has 64 wires. Single-sided RAM has chips on one side of the RAM. Double-sided RAM has chips on both sides of the RAM.

You need to assemble a new computer. You have an AMD Opteron processor. Which of the following CPU sockets will NOT support this? A AM2 B FM1 C F D 940

B FM1 The FM1 CPU socket will NOT support an AMD Opteron CPU. This socket will support the AMD Llano CPU. The F CPU socket will support Opteron and Athlon 64 FX CPUs. The Socket 940 CPU socket will support Opteron and Athlon 64 FX CPUs. The AM2 CPU socket will support Athlon 64, Athlon 64 X2, Athlon 64 FX, 2nd generation Opteron, Sempron, and Phenom CPUs.

Aaron has been hired as the new PC repair technician. He has a motherboard that has a Socket AM3+. He has two different Socket AM3 CPUs that have lost their original packaging. What should Aaron do? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A Remove the AM3+ socket from the motherboard and replace it with an AM3 socket. B Install one of the AM3 processors into the AM3+ socket. C Purchase a new AM3+ processor. D Purchase a new motherboard with an AM3 socket.

B Install one of the AM3 processors into the AM3+ socket.

You perform several hardware upgrades on a user's computer. You notice that the computer has an AMI BIOS. After completing the upgrades, you boot the computer. You hear two, three, four, or five short beeps. Which component should you check? A Video card B Memory C Keyboard D CPU

B Memory

You need to replace a computer's power supply. When you purchase the new power supply, you notice an 8-pin power connection. For which device type is this connection intended? A CPU connector B PCI Express devices C SATA hard drives D ATA hard drives

B PCI Express devices

Which of the following uses a grid of horizontal and vertical wires with an LCD element at each intersection? A Active matrix B Passive matrix C Transmissive D Reflective

B Passive matrix

Question 75 : You are creating a crossover cable. You know that each end of the crossover cable must be configured differently. Which pins contain the Blue wire? A Pin 3/Pin 1 B Pin 4/Pin 4 C Pin 5/Pin 5 D Pin 6/Pin 2

B Pin 4/Pin 4 In a crossover cable, the Blue wire should be in Pin 4 at both ends of the cable. Basically, a crossover cable is wired for the 568A specification at one end and the 568B specification at the other end. The wiring scheme for a crossover cable is shown here: Pin 1 (End 1) - Orange/White | Pin 1 (End 2) - Green/White Pin 2 (End 1) - Orange | Pin 2 (End 2) - Green Pin 3 (End 1) - Green/White | Pin 3 (End 2) - Orange/White Pin 4 (End 1) - Blue | Pin 4 (End 2) - Blue Pin 5 (End 1) - Blue/White | Pin 5 (End 2) - Blue/White Pin 6 (End 1) - Green | Pin 6 (End 2) - Orange Pin 7 (End 1) - Brown/White | Pin 7 (End 2) - Brown/White Pin 8 (End 1) - Brown | Pin 8 (End 2) - Brown nCommunication over a crossover cable only occurs over Pin 1, 2, 3, and 6. A crossover cable is an OSI Physical layer (Layer 1) device. A T1 crossover cable is a special crossover cable that is used to connect a PBX to another PBX. To create a T1 crossover cable, the ends should be configured in the following manner: Pin 1 (End 1) - Orange/White | Pin 1 (End 2) - Blue Pin 2 (End 1) - Orange | Pin 2 (End 2) - Blue/White Pin 3 (End 1) - Green/White | Pin 3 (End 2) - Green/White Pin 4 (End 1) - Blue | Pin 4 (End 2) - Orange/White Pin 5 (End 1) - Blue/White | Pin 5 (End 2) - Orange Pin 6 (End 1) - Green | Pin 6 (End 2) - Green Pin 7 (End 1) - Brown/White | Pin 7 (End 2) - Brown/White Pin 8 (End 1) - Brown | Pin 8 (End 2) - Brown

Buffered (RDIMM)

Buffered, or registered memory modules (RDIMMs), include specialized chips that act as buffers for all signals from the memory controller, except, in some cases, the data signals. By buffering these signals, the electrical load placed on the controller is reduced because the memory controller communicates in series with the register, instead of in parallel with the memory chips.

Which of the following is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask? A 15 B 16 C 30 D 31

C 30 The CIDR value for the subnet mask 255.255.255.224 is /27. Therefore, the number of host bits in the given subnet mask is 5 (32-CIDR value). Now, the number of host per subnet is given by the formula:2n - 2, where n is the number of host bits.So, using the above formula, the number of hosts per subnet are: 25 - 2=30.

You have purchased a program that requires a joystick. Which of these types of computer ports could allow you to attach a joystick?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A An IEEE 1394 port B An SPDIF port C A DA-15 port D A USB port

C A DA-15 port D A USB port

Which allows the operating system to control the amount of power given to each device and to power them down when not in use? A CMOS B PCIe C ACPI D Riser card

C ACPI Advanced Configuration Power Interface (ACPI) allows the operating system to control the amount of power given to each device and to power them down when not in use.

Which of the following are standard AMD processor socket types?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A LGA 1156 B LGA 775 C AM3 D FM1 E LGA 2011

C AM3 D FM1 The FM1 and AM3 are AMD CPU socket types. The FM1 is AMD's next generation socket type that is designed to be used with the Fusion and Athlon II processors. The AM3 was designed to replace AM2+. The AM3 has 941 pins, while the AM2+ has 940.

A technician is connecting a router directly to a PC using the G1/0/1 interface. Without the use of auto-sensing ports, which of the following cables should be used? A Rollover B Straight-through C Crossover D Fiber optic

C Crossover

A server needs a RAM upgrade, and a technician has been tasked to retrieve the RAM from storage and then installing it. Which of the following is the best RAM type for the technician to retrieve? A SODIMM B RIMM C DDR4 SDRAM D DDR3 SDRAM

C DDR4 SDRAM DDR4 is able to achieve higher speed and efficiency thanks to increased transfer rates and decreased voltage. DDR4 chips are expected to support transfer rates between 2133 MT/s (million transfers per second) and 4266 MT/s. This new memory also uses less power, 1.2 Volts compared to 1.65 Volts of DDR3 chips. FYI: DDR3 SDRAM is a memory module which transfers data at twice the rate of DDR2 and uses 30 percent less power in the process. Like DDR2, DDR3 chips use 240-pin connections but cannot be used interchangeably because of differences in notch location and electrical requirements.

Andrew, a network analyst, is tasked to provide security to the network traffic by ensuring data confidentiality, data integrity, sender and recipient authentication, and replay protection. Which of the following will help him accomplish the task? A DHCP B HTTPS C IPSec D FTP

C IPSec Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a set of open, non-proprietary standards that you can use to secure data as it travels across the network or the Internet. IPSec uses different protocols and services to provide data authenticity and integrity, anti-replay protection, non-repudiation, and protection against eavesdropping and sniffing. Unlike SSL/TLS and SSH, IPSec operates at the network layer (layer 3) of the OSI model, so the protocol is not application dependent.

You are responsible for managing your research department's network. This network uses RG6 coaxial cabling. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding this network? A Its signal quality is not as good as that of RG59 coaxial cable. B It does not have a foil shield. C It is thicker than RG59 coaxial cable. D It should be used in situations that require lower frequencies than 50 MHz.

C It is thicker than RG59 coaxial cable. RG6 cable should be used in situations that require the 50 MHz frequencies or higher. RG6 signal quality is better than the signal quality of RG59 cable. RG6 cable has a foil shield. RG59 cable should be used in situations that require lower frequencies than 50 MHz. RG59 is thinner than RG6 cable. RG59 does not have a foil shield. For both of these cable types, the maximum cable length is 185 meters, and the maximum transmission speed is 10 Megabits per second (Mbps).

You perform several hardware upgrades on a user's computer. You notice that the computer has an AMI BIOS. After completing the upgrades, you boot the computer. You hear six short beeps. Which component should you check? A Video card B Memory C Keyboard D CPU

C Keyboard

Which of the following stores information about authorized users and their privileges as well as other organizational information? A SFTP B NTP C LDAP D RDP

C LDAP

Which of the following is a small program that is read into memory and is executed after the BIOS bootup? A TTL B SR-IOV C MBR D POST

C MBR Master Boot Record (MBR) is a small program that is read into memory and is executed after the BIOS bootup. The computer BIOS locates the boot device, and then loads and runs the MBR. The MBR scans the partition table to locate the active partition, loads the boot sector on the active partition into memory, and then executes it.

Shared Bandwidth?

Cable

Which of the following physical security controls provide protection against laptop theft? (Select 2 answers) Encryption Cable lock LoJack for laptops Smart card reader Laptop lock

Cable Lock Laptop Lock

Which of the following describe(s) characteristics of Parallel ATA (PATA) cabling? (Select all that apply) Fiber-optic cabling Cable consisting of 40 wires RJ-11 connector Ribbon cable Cable consisting of 80 wires Coaxial cabling

Cable consisting of 80 wires Cable consisting of 40 wires Ribbon cable

Which of the following tools is used to verify that the electrical connections of wires in a cable are correct? Loopback plug Tone generator Cable tester Multimeter

Cable tester

Network connections implemented with the use of a cable modem take advantage of: (Select 3 answers) Cabling that carries TV signals Telephone lines Coaxial cabling Shared bandwidth Twisted-pair copper cabling Dedicated bandwidth

Cabling that carries TV signals Coaxial cabling Shared bandwidth

What is the common minimum requirement for twisted-pair copper cabling in modern Ethernet networks? Cat 3 Cat 5 Cat 5e Cat 6 Cat 6A

Cat 5e

Cat 6

Cat6, 1 Gbps at 100 meters, 10Gbps at 55 meters. Cat6a supports up to 10 Gbps and 250 MHz at 100-meter segments.

H (1156 LGA)

Celeron Dual-core Pentium Dual-core Core i3 Core i5 Core i7 Xeon 3400 series

H3 (LGA 1150)

Celeron G1800 series Core i3 Core i5 Core i7 Pentium Dual-core Xeon E3 series

H4 (LGA 1151)

Celeron G3900 series Core i3 Core i5 Core i7 Pentium Dual-core Xeon E3 series

Which of the following are characteristics of RG-6 cabling specifications? (Select 3 answers) Twisted-pair copper cabling Suitable for short-distance cable runs Used for analog video and CCTV installations Coaxial cabling Suitable for long-distance cable runs Used for cable television, satellite television and cable modems

Coaxial cabling Suitable for long-distance cable runs Used for cable television, satellite television and cable modems

What are some characteristic features of RG-59 cabling specification? (Select 3 answers) Coaxial cabling Suitable for short-distance cable runs Used for analog video and CCTV installations Twisted-pair copper cabling Suitable for long-distance cable runs Used for cable television, satellite television and cable modems

Coaxial cabling Suitable for short-distance cable runs Used for analog video and CCTV installations

CIFS

Common Internet File System

H2 (1155 LGA)

Core i3 Core i5 Core i7 Celeron G series Pentium G series Xeon E3 series

R (LGA 2011)

Core i7

B (LGA 1366)

Core i7 Xeon 3500 series Xeon 3600 series Xeon 5500 series Xeon 5600 series

What type of Ethernet cable is used to establish a direct communication link between two PCs?

Crossover Cable

What is the default subnet mask for IP address 196.132.74.10? A 127.0.0.1 B 255.0.0.0 C 255.255.0.0 D 255.255.255.0

D 255.255.255.0 Class C

By default, how much power is drawn from a motherboard through a PCIe expansion slot? A 50 watts B 225 watts C 150 watts D 75 watts

D 75 watts

You perform several hardware upgrades on a user's computer. You notice that the computer has an AMI BIOS. After completing the upgrades, you boot the computer. You hear seven short beeps. Which component should you check? A Video card B Memory C Keyboard D CPU

D CPU

An IBM computer is giving one long beep and one short beep when turned on. The computer does not boot up. What should you do to troubleshoot the problem? A Check the central processing unit (CPU). B Reconnect the keyboard. C Check the video adapter card. D Check the motherboard.

D Check the motherboard.

Which interface connects hard disk drives and optical drives to the circuitry of the motherboard? A DVI B PS/2 C VGA D IDE

D IDE

Which RG standard is used for long distance drops and underground cables? A RG-8 B RG-59 C RG-4 D RG-11

D RG-11

Which resource sharing protocol allows folders or hard drives to be shared over a network? A NetBIOS B AFP C FTP D SMB

D SMB The server message block (SMB) protocol allows folders or hard drives to be shared over a network and accessed much like they were local drives.

You are performing some hardware upgrades on an old computer. You notice that the computer has an available Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) slot. Which statement is an accurate characterization of this architecture? A All PCI cards support bus mastering. B The PCI bus is for 80386 and 80486 computers only. C The PCI architecture is for Intel-compatible computers only. D The PCI architecture supports 32- and 64-bit data transfers.

D The PCI architecture supports 32- and 64-bit data transfers. The PCI architecture supports 64-bit data transfers and includes 32-bit data paths for backward compatibility, whereas older Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) buses support only 8-bit and 16-bit data transfers. Because PCI slot circuitry is more compact than ISA circuitry, PCI slots are shorter and take up less space on a system board than their ISA counterparts.

What type of power jack can be found on a laptop case?

DC

Which of the following connector types could be used to connect devices to an RS-232 port? (Select 2 answers) RG-6 RJ-11 DE-9 RG-59 RJ-48C DB-25

DE-9 DB-25

Dedicated Bandwidth

DSL

What are the characteristic features of Thunderbolt 1? (Select all that apply) Data transfer rate of up to 20 Gbps Mini DisplayPort (MDP) connector Capability to send PCIe/DisplayPort data and power over single cable Support for up to 6 devices on a single port Data transfer rate of up to 40 Gbps USB-C connector

Data transfer rate of up to 20 Gbps Mini DisplayPort (MDP) connector Capability to send PCIe/DisplayPort data and power over single cable Support for up to 6 devices on a single port

Double Data Rate SDRAM (DDR SDRAM)

Double Data Rate SDRAM (DDR SDRAM) is a RAM standard created by JEDEC. DDR SDRAM is the most common video RAM technology found on recent video cards. DDR SDRAM is designed to transfer data at speeds twice that of conventional SDRAM by transferring 2 bits of data per clock cycle, once at the falling edge and once at the rising edge of the cycle. DDR uses 2.5 V to operate.

You are an IT technician for your company. The company has 10BaseT, 100BaseT, and 1000BaseT networks that are interconnected. What is the maximum segment distance for data transmission on these networks? A 500 meters (1,640 feet) B 185 meters (607 feet) C 50 meters (164 feet) D 25 meters (82 feet) E 100 meters (328 feet)

E 100 meters (328 feet)

You are setting up a new subnetwork on an existing network. Management has asked that you use existing cabling that the company has already purchased. However, you need to ensure that the cabling can be used on a 10BaseT network. What is the minimum category of UTP cable you can use? A Category 6 B Category 5e C Category 5 D Category 2 E Category 3

E Category 3

You are clearing the IT technician workspace for your company of any old or obsolete hardware. You have found several different types of RAM, including modules that use 168 pins. Which type of computer memory module uses 168 pins? A SIPP B SIMM C DIPP D RDRAM E DIMM

E DIMM Dual inline memory modules (DIMMs) have 168 pins. Some DIMM designs have 72 or 144 pins. These are known as Small Outline DIMMs. DIMM modules are 8 bytes wide and transfer 8 bytes (64 bits) of data at a time. With DIMMs made of older SDRAM (synchronous DRAM) memory chips, the data is transferred once per clock cycle. However, with DDR SDRAM and DDR2 SDRAM, the data is transferred two times per clock cycle: once on the leading edge of the clock signal and again on the falling edge. DDR SDRAM comes in 184-pin DIMMs. Single inline pin packages (SIPPs) have 30 pins, and single inline memory modules (SIMMs) have 30 or 72 pins. Dual inline pin packages (DIPPs) have 16 pins. Rambus dynamic random access memory (RDRAM) was developed by Rambus, Inc., to provide data transfers faster than those available with standard dynamic random access memory (DRAM) modules.

In modern PCs, BIOS contents are stored in: (Select 2 answers) EEPROM ROM EPROM Flash memory PROM

EEPROM Flash memory

AM4

Excavator (A series) Ryzen (R series)

SDRAM's backward compatibility feature provides a convenient way to build PCs utilizing different types of SDRAM modules.

False

eSATA connectors feature a distinct L-shape (right-angled or left-angled) that prevents the improper insertion of a connector plug into an eSATA port.

False

Which of the following are characteristic features of Static Random-Access Memory (SRAM)? (Select all that apply) Non-volatile storage media type Faster than Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DRAM) Widely used as system's primary storage media (regular RAM modules installed in memory slots on the motherboard) More expensive in comparison to Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DRAM) Slower than Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DRAM) Volatile storage media type Utilized for CPU cache memory chips Less expensive in comparison to Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DRAM)

Faster than Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DRAM) More expensive in comparison to Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DRAM) Volatile storage media type Utilized for CPU cache memory chips

What is the function of a Time-Domain Reflectometer (TDR)? Finding breaks in copper network cables Locating the beginning and the end of a cable in a cabling bundle Checking network installation for compliance with TIA or ISO standards Finding breaks in fiber-optic network cables

Finding breaks in copper network cables

What are the characteristic traits of a network switch? (Select all that apply) Forwarding decisions made in hardware (ASIC) Typically capable of connecting more network segments than bridge (more physical ports) Older and less effective type of network device in comparison to network bridge Forwarding decisions made in software Sometimes referred to as multiport bridge Newer and more effective type of network device in comparison to network bridge Typically capable of connecting fewer network segments than bridge (fewer physical ports)

Forwarding decisions made in hardware (ASIC) Sometimes referred to as multiport bridge Newer and more effective type of network device in comparison to network bridge Typically capable of connecting more network segments than bridge (more physical ports)

Which of the following describe the features of a network bridge? (Select 3 answers) Forwarding decisions made in hardware (ASIC) Newer and more effective type of network device in comparison to network switch Typically capable of connecting more network segments than switch (more physical ports) Forwarding decisions made in software Typically capable of connecting fewer network segments than switch (fewer physical ports) Older and less effective type of network device in comparison to network switch

Forwarding decisions made in software Typically capable of connecting fewer network segments than switch (fewer physical ports) Older and less effective type of network device in comparison to network switch

Which interface uses a 19-pin Type A connector? USB Thunderbolt FireWire DisplayPort HDMI

HDMI

What are characteristic features of satellite Internet connections? (Select 3 answers) High signal latency Lack of signal interference Cheaper in comparison to terrestrial links Interference (weather dependent) Low signal latency Relatively high cost in comparison to terrestrial links

High signal latency Interference (weather dependent) Relatively high cost in comparison to terrestrial links

The main disadvantage of using this device is its negative impact on network performance, resulting from the fact that any incoming signal on any of its ports is re-created and sent out on any connected ports. Router Switch Bridge Hub

Hub

Which of the following is a set of Intel CPU hardware enhancements improving support for virtualization?

Hyper-V

A unique number used to identify a mobile network phone user is a(n): SSID MAPI IMSI IMEI

IMSI (international mobile subscriber identity). The IMSI is a unique number identifying a GSM subscriber.

FE80::/10

IPv6 APIPA

::1/128

IPv6 loopback address

Which of the following is a laser printer component that holds a representation of the output image drawn on its surface by the laser? Transfer belt Print head Transfer roller Imaging drum

Imaging drum

Which of the following is a dedicated device designed to supply power to PoE equipment? Inverter Power Supply Unit (PSU) Injector Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)

Injector

Which of the following hardware components is the most difficult to replace on a laptop computer? Optical drive Primary storage System board Integrated GPU Secondary storage

Integrated GPU

Kerberos

Kerberos is an authentication service that is based on a time-sensitive ticket-granting system. It can be used to manage access control to several services by using one centralized authentication server.

TCP port 389 is the default network port for: RDP LDAP SMB LDAPS

LDAP

Which of the following are network protocols designed to enable remote printing? (Select 2 answers) LPD/LPR PCL Telnet LPT IPP

LPD/LPR (Line Printer Daemon protocol/Line Printer Remote protocol) IPP (internet printing protocol)

Which of the following are legacy parallel printer ports? (Select 2 answers) USB RS-232 LPT COM DB-25

LPT DB-25

Which of the following is a directory service protocol that defines how a client can access information and perform operations? A LDAP B RADIUS C TACACS+ D Kerberos

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a directory service protocol that defines how a client can access information, perform operations, and share directory data on a directory server. It was designed for use specifically over TCP/IP networks and on the Internet in particular. In most implementations, LDAP relies on the DNS service.

Which protocol is used by Active Directory? A SFTP B SSH C LDAP D SMB

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is used by Active Directory. It is used by applications to access directories. By default, it uses port 389.

When troubleshooting problems with a Network Interface Card (NIC), which of the following tools can be used to test connector pins on the NIC's port? Tone generator and probe Cable tester Multimeter Loopback plug

Loopback plug

Which of the following USB variants have a practical cable length limitation of 3 meters? (Select 2 answers) Low Speed USB Full Speed USB High Speed USB SuperSpeed USB

Low Speed USB SuperSpeed USB

A set of printer replacement parts is commonly referred to as a: Spare kit Field Replaceable Unit (FRU) Maintenance kit Standard technician toolkit

Maintenance kit

A network switch with configuration features that can be modified via a user interface is a: Virtual switch Multilayer switch PoE switch Managed switch

Managed Switch

SATA revision 3.2 specifies: (Select 2 answers) Maximum cable length of 1 meter 6 Gbps data transfer rate Maximum cable length of 3 meters 32 Gbps data transfer rate Maximum cable length of 2 meters 16 Gbps data transfer rate

Maximum cable length of 1 meter 16 Gbps data transfer rate

Characteristic features of SATA revision 3.0 include: (Select 2 answers) 32 Gbps data transfer rate Maximum cable length of 2 meters 16 Gbps data transfer rate Maximum cable length of 1 meter 6 Gbps data transfer rate Maximum cable length of 3 meters

Maximum cable length of 1 meter 6 Gbps data transfer rate

What are the characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11b wireless standard? (Select 2 answers) Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps 2.0 GHz frequency range Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps 5.0 GHz frequency range Maximum data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps 2.4 GHz frequency range

Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps 2.4 GHz frequency range

Which of the following answers apply to the IEEE 802.11g wireless standard? (Select 2 answers) Maximum data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps 5.4 GHz frequency band Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps 2.4 GHz frequency range Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps 5.0 GHz frequency range

Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps 2.4 GHz frequency range

Which of the following answers apply to the IEEE 802.11a wireless standard? (Select 2 answers) 2.4 GHz frequency band Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps 5.0 GHz frequency band Maximum data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps 5.4 GHz frequency band Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps

Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps 5.0 GHz frequency band

Which of the following is a feature of UEFI? (Select all that apply) Mouse support DRM support Support for hard drives with a maximum of 4 partitions per drive GUI mode Secure boot Designed as a replacement for BIOS Support for partitions/hard drives of up to 2TB Network access

Mouse support DRM support GUI mode Secure boot Designed as a replacement for BIOS Network access

Which of the following MS Windows utilities provides access to basic information about a computer's BIOS? Winver.exe Msinfo32.exe Control.exe Services.msc

Msinfo32.exe

Which memory type can provide a CPU with the fastest access to frequently used data? DRAM Secondary storage Flash memory Multi-level cache

Multi-level cache

Which of the following are characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11n wireless standard? (Select all that apply) Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO) Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps 2.4 GHz frequency band Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO) 5.0 GHz frequency band Maximum data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps

Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO) 2.4 GHz frequency band 5.0 GHz frequency band Maximum data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps

Which of the following are characteristics of the type of RAM most commonly used as the main system memory in desktop PCs? (Select 2 answers) SODIMM Non-ECC memory Static RAM MicroDIMM Dynamic RAM ECC memory

Non-ECC memory Dynamic RAM

Which of the following is the industry name used for DDR2-1066 modules? PC2-4200 PC2-5300 PC2-6400 PC2-8500

PC2-8500

Which of the following is the industry name of DDR3-1333 modules? PC3-6400 PC3-8500 PC3-10600 PC3-12800

PC3-10600

DDR4-2666 is also known as: PC4-17000 PC4-19200 PC4-21300 PC4-25600

PC4-21300

A type of technology that enables sending data over wiring used for transmission of electrical power is known as: PLC ECP PoE EPP

PLC (power line communication)

A type of twisted-pair copper cable used for connecting workstations to network devices is known as: (Select 2 answers) Patch cable RG-59 cable Crossover cable RG-6 cable Straight-through cable

Patch cable Straight-through cable

LGA 775 (Socket T)

Pentium 4, Celeron, Pentium 4 Extreme Edition, Core 2 Quad, and Xeon processors.

Question 79 : While performing routine maintenance on your company's firewall, you discover that port 3389 is open. Which service uses this port?

Port 3389 is used by the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP).

IPv6 FC00::/7

Private IPv6 address

Which of the following lists the correct sequence of steps in a laser printing process? Processing, exposing, charging, transferring, developing, fusing, cleaning Developing, cleaning, exposing, transferring, charging, fusing, processing Processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, cleaning Cleaning, fusing, exposing, developing, transferring, processing, charging

Processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, cleaning

BIOS updates are performed in order to: (Select all that apply) Repair damaged BIOS Fix physical hardware faults Provide support for new types of attached hardware Fix known programming errors discovered in the current BIOS version

Provide support for new types of attached hardware Fix known programming errors discovered in the current BIOS version Repair damaged BIOS

Which of the following are characteristic features of SMB/CIFS? (Select 2 answers) Used mainly by computers running Linux distributions Provides shared access to files, directories, and devices Enables connectivity over SAN Used mainly by computers running Microsoft Windows operating systems Enables voice and multimedia communications over IP networks

Provides shared access to files, directories, and devices Used mainly by computers running Microsoft Windows operating systems

Thunderbolt 3: (Select all that apply) Provides support for up to 6 devices on a single port Uses Mini DisplayPort (MDP) connector Enables data transfer rate of up to 40 Gbps Uses USB-C connector Enables data transfer rate of up to 20 Gbps Provides the capability to send PCIe/DisplayPort data and power over single cable

Provides support for up to 6 devices on a single port Enables data transfer rate of up to 40 Gbps Uses USB-C connector Provides the capability to send PCIe/DisplayPort data and power over single cable

A CPU design based on an instruction set that tries to improve speed by utilizing relatively few simple instructions is referred to as:

RISC(Reduced Instruction Set Computer)

Which of the following are characteristic features of Category 5e (Cat 5e) cabling? (Select all that apply) 10 Gbps Ethernet (10GBaseT networks) RJ-11 connector 55-meter cable segment length 100 Mbps Ethernet (100BaseT networks) RJ-45 connector Fiber-optic cabling 100-meter cable segment length Twisted-pair copper cabling 1 Gbps Ethernet (1000BaseT networks) Coaxial cabling

RJ-45 connector 100-meter cable segment length Twisted-pair copper cabling 1 Gbps Ethernet (1000BaseT networks) 100 Mbps Ethernet (100BaseT networks)

Which of the following is an older type of serial cable used for connecting modems, printers, mice, and other peripheral devices? RJ-11 RG-6 RS-232 RG-59

RS-232 (looks like a wider VGA)

Which of the following are examples of D-sub connector applications? (Select 2 answers) USB cables RS-232 cables eSATA cables IDE/PATA cables VGA cables

RS-232 cables VGA cables

Which of the following answers describe Double Data Rate 3 Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DDR3 SDRAM)? (Select 3 answers) 1 notch on the module contact surface Reads/writes 4 words of data per clock cycle 204 contact pins 2 notches on the module contact surface 240 contact pins Reads/writes 8 words of data per clock cycle

Reads/writes 8 words of data per clock cycle 240 contact pins 1 notch on the module contact surface

RADIUS

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) enables a server to provide standardized and centralized authentication for remote users. It is a mechanism that allows authentication of dial-in and other network connections. It is commonly used by Internet service providers (ISPs) and in the implementation of virtual private networks (VPNs).

RADIUS

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is a protocol that enables a server to provide standardized, centralized authentication for remote users.

Andrew, a network administrator, wants to use network-based operating system administration tools to manage the network. Which of the following tools will he use?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A VNC B SMTP C DHCP D RDP

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) Virtual Netwrok Computing (VNC)

A device designed to filter and transfer IP packets between dissimilar types of computer networks is called a: Proxy Hub Switch Router

Router

Examples of cabling types used for mass storage devices include: (Select all that apply) UTP SATA HDMI IDE/PATA STP SCSI

SATA IDE/PATA SCSI

Which of the following protocols permits automated discovery of networked services on Local Area Networks (LANs)? SMB AFP CIFS SLP

SLP (service location protocol)

Port 445 is used by: (Select 2 answers) RDP SMB CIFS HTTPS IMAP

SMB CIFS

Maria, a technician, needs to check the running configuration of a remote router securely. For this, she needs an application that utilizes which of the following protocols? A SSL B SSH C IPSec D ARP

SSH... couldn't copy more info

Which of the following can be used as countermeasures against VM escape? (Select 2 answers) Group policy Sandboxing User training Patch management Asset documentation

Sandboxing Patch management

The UEFI functionality designed to prevent loading of malware and/or unauthorized OSs is called: LoJack Bitlocker Secure boot Kerberos

Secure boot

Portable devices combining the capabilities of mobile phones and handheld PCs are commonly called: Phablets Smartphones PDAs Thick clients

Smartphones

Which of the following describes the function of a laptop inverter? (Select 2 answers) Converts AC power into DC power Supplies voltage to backlights in older types of LCD panels Converts DC power into AC power Supplies voltage to backlights in OLED displays

Supplies voltage to backlights in older types of LCD panels Converts DC power into AC power

Which of the following describe(s) Thunderbolt 2? (Select all that apply) USB-C connector Data transfer rate of up to 40 Gbps Support for up to 6 devices on a single port Capability to send PCIe/DisplayPort data and power over single cable Mini DisplayPort (MDP) connector Data transfer rate of up to 20 Gbps

Support for up to 6 devices on a single port Capability to send PCIe/DisplayPort data and power over single cable Mini DisplayPort (MDP) connector Data transfer rate of up to 20 Gbps

Which device improves network performance by dividing a given network segment into separate collision domains? Hub Repeater Switch Router

Switch

Synchronous DRAM (SDRAM)

Synchronous DRAM (SDRAM) is a type of DRAM that is designed to run in synchronization with the memory bus. A high-speed clocked interface is used by SDRAM to deliver information in very high-speed bursts. SDRAM is used primarily in older AGP 2x/4x low-end video cards and chipsets.

Which port enables FTP's Data Connection to send file data? UDP port 20 TCP port 20 UDP port 21 TCP port 21

TCP port 20

FTP's Control Connection for administering a session is established through: TCP port 20 UDP port 20 TCP port 21 UDP port 21

TCP port 21

SSH protocol runs on: TCP port 21 UDP port 22 TCP port 20 TCP port 22

TCP port 22

A network technician wishes to use an RDP client on their Windows OS to remotely troubleshoot a problem on another Windows machine. Which of the following ports needs to be opened for the built-in Windows RDP server to allow this type of network connection? TCP port 1720 TCP port 636 TCP port 3389 TCP port 445

TCP port 3389

Three applications that use UDP

TFTP (trivial file transfer protocol) SNMP (simple network managment protocal) NFS (network file system)

TACACS+

Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS+) is an authentication protocol that provides centralized authentication and authorization services for remote users.

Synchronous Graphics RAM (SGRAM)

The Synchronous Graphics RAM (SGRAM) is similar to SDRAM in its capability to be synchronized with high-speed buses up to 200 MHz. Unlike SDRAM, SGRAM includes circuitry to perform block writes to increase the speed of graphics fill or 3D Z-buffer operations.

FM1

The first to support AMD APU capabilities, it had 905 pins. A series (A4, A6, etc) Athlon II E2 Sempron

FM2+

The third to support AMD APU, it had 906 pins, with a substantial PCI-E support. A series processors

Examples of security measures that can be used to protect data privacy on public/shared SOHO multifunction devices include user authentication and regular clearing of a printer's cache memory.

True

In laser printing, the function of a transfer roller is to apply an electrical charge to a sheet of paper to move the representation of an image or text (consisting of toner) from the imaging drum to the paper.

True

T or F: In 10GBaseT networks, Category 6 (Cat 6) cabling supports a 10 Gbps data transfer rate at a limited range of 33-55 meters, whereas Cat 6A (Augmented) cabling allows for a 10 Gbps data transfer rate over a segment length of 100 meters.

True

The CMOS battery located on a computer's motherboard allows for maintaining the correct time and date information stored in CMOS RAM. In older computer systems, the CMOS battery also allowed for maintaining the BIOS configuration settings stored in CMOS RAM.

True

The function of the NetBT protocol is to allow NetBIOS services to be used over TCP/IP networks. (T/F)

True

The term "VM escape" refers to the process of breaking out of the boundaries of a guest operating system installation to access the primary hypervisor controlling all the virtual machines on the host machine.

True

The term "VM sprawl" is used to describe a situation in which large number of deployed virtual machines lack proper administrative controls.

True

Which of the following describe characteristics of DSL modems? (Select 3 answers) Dedicated bandwidth Cabling that carries TV signals Shared bandwidth Twisted-pair copper cabling Telephone lines Coaxial cabling

Twisted-pair copper cabling Telephone lines Dedicated bandwidth

Which of the following is a Mini-HDMI connector used with portable devices such as camcorders and digital cameras? Type A Type B Type C Type D

Type C

DHCP runs on: (Select 2 answers) UDP port 63 UDP port 65 UDP port 67 UDP port 68 UDP port 69

UDP port 67 UDP port 68

Examples of wired connection types that can be used for SOHO multifunction device/printer sharing include: (Select all that apply) USB Bluetooth Serial 802.11x Ethernet

USB Serial Ethernet

Which USB connector type can be used on an Android device for mobile device synchronization? USB Mini-B USB Type-A USB Micro-B USB Mini-A USB Type-B

USB Micro-B

Which USB connector type can be used on an Android device for mobile device synchronization? USB Mini-B USB Type-A USB Micro-B USB Mini-A USB Type-B

USB Micro-B

Which USB 3.x connector type provides full backward compatibility with earlier USB standards? USB Type-B Mini-USB USB-C Micro-USB USB Type-A

USB Type-A

Which of the following security measures can be used to prevent VM sprawl? (Select 2 answers) Patch management Usage audit Physical security controls Sandboxing Asset documentation

Usage audit Asset documentation

Which of the following statements describe(s) coaxial cabling? (Select all that apply) Fiber-optic cabling Does not protect against EMI Used for carrying a cable television signal Copper cabling Protects against EMI Used for broadband cable Internet access

Used for carrying a cable television signal Copper cabling Protects against EMI Used for broadband cable Internet access

Which of the following is a way to create private encrypted network connections on a mobile device? WLAN VPN WPAN VLAN

VPN

Which of the following are examples of Hardware-Assisted Virtualization (HAV) technologies? (Select 2 answers) EPV Hyper-V AMD Catalyst VT-x AMD-V

VT-x AMD-V

Which of the following are characteristics of Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DRAM)? (Select all that apply) Volatile storage media type Utilized for CPU cache memory chips More expensive in comparison to Static Random-Access Memory (SRAM) Non-volatile storage media type Slower than Static Random-Access Memory (SRAM) Widely used as system's primary storage media (regular RAM modules installed in memory slots on the motherboard) Faster than Static Random-Access Memory (SRAM) Less expensive in comparison to Static Random-Access Memory (SRAM)

Volatile storage media type Slower than Static Random-Access Memory (SRAM) Widely used as system's primary storage media (regular RAM modules installed in memory slots on the motherboard) Less expensive in comparison to Static Random-Access Memory (SRAM)

Which wireless network type has a design that uses mesh topology? MAN WMN VLAN WAN

WMN (wireless mesh network)

Which of the following WAN technologies uses cell towers that provide wireless signal coverage for mobile devices? WAP WWAN Satellite WLAN

WWAN (wireless wide area network)

Which of the following is a long-distance line-of-sight Internet service? WiMAX IEEE 802.11 IR Bluetooth

WiMAX

What is Hyper-V

Windows-based virtualization software