A&P 1 Final Exam Review

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The following are stages in the regeneration of skin following an injury. What is the correct order for these events? 1. inflammation 2. cellular migration 3. epidermis covers granulation tissue 4. epidermis covers scar tissue

1, 2, 3, 4

Which of the following tissues are classified as "connective tissue proper"? 1. areolar connective tissue 2. adipose tissue 3. fibrocartilage 4. dense irregular connective tissue

1, 2, and 4

The following are important steps in the process of endochondral ossification. 1. Enlarged chondrocytes die. 2. Osteoblasts replace calcified cartilage with spongy bone. 3. Chondrocytes enlarge and the surrounding matrix begins to calcify. 4. Blood vessels invade the perichondrium. 5. Perichondrial cells become osteoblasts and produce a thin shell of bone. The correct order for these events is

3, 1, 4, 5, 2

The following are major steps in the process of intramembranous ossification: 1. Clusters of osteoblasts form osteoid that becomes mineralized. 2. Osteoblasts differentiate within mesenchymal connective tissue. 3. Spicules of bone radiate out from the ossification centers. 4. Mesenchymal cells aggregate.

4, 2, 1, 3

The following are the main steps in the generation of an action potential 1. Sodium channels are inactivated 2. voltage-gated potassium channels open and potassium 3. sodium channels regain their normal properties 4. a graded depolarization brings an area of an excitable membrane to threshold 5. a temporary hyper polarization occurs 6. sodium channel activation occurs 7. sodium ions enter the cell and depolarization occurs

4, 6, 7, 1, 2, 3, 5

Put the following events of the contraction cycle in the order in which they occur 1. cross-bridge detachment 2. cross-bridge formation 3. active site exposure 4. myosin reactivation 5. calcium ions bind troponin 6. myosin head pivoting

5, 3, 2, 6, 1, 4

Put the following structures in order from superficial to deep: 1. muscle fiber 2. perimysium 3. myofibril 4. fascicle 5. endomysium 6. epimysium

6, 2, 5, 4, 1, 3

A fascicle is a A) group of muscle fibers that are encased in the perimysium. B) layer of connective tissue that separates muscle from skin. C) group of muscle fibers that are all part of the same motor unit. D) group of muscle fibers and motor neurons. E) collection of myofibrils in a muscle fiber

A

A surgical incision parallel to the lines of cleavage A) closes and heals with relatively little scarring. B) has a tendency to reopen. C) heals slower than incisions made perpendicular to the lines of cleavage. D) does not affect the healing process. E) requires no sutures.

A

An example of a receptor in a negative feedback loop controlling body temperature would be A) temperature sensors on the skin that detect a stimulus. B) sweat glands that increase secretion. C) regulatory centers that send commands to an effector. D) effectors that cause blood vessels to dilate. E) sweat glands that act like effectors.

A

Arthritis always involves damage to the ________ cartilages, but the specific cause can vary. A) articular B) intevertebral C) costal D) elastic E) fibrous

A

Bill contracts a viral disease that destroys cells in the posterior gray horns in his spinal cord. As a result, which of the following would you expect? A) loss of sensation in his torso B) inability to breathe C) problems with moving his arms D) uncontrollable sweating of his feet E) problems moving his legs

A

Bundles of axons in central nervous system are known as A) tracts B) ganglia C) nuclei D) horns E) commissures

A

Close examination of a healthy organ reveals a lining of several layers of cells. The layers do not contain any blood vessels and one surface of the cells lines the cavity of the organ. This tissue is a type of A) epithelium. B) muscle tissue. C) connective tissue. D) neural tissue. E) Fat tissue

A

Gustatory receptors are sensitive to dissolved chemicals but insensitive to light. This is due to A) receptor specificity. B) accessory cells. C) the fact that they are interoceptors. D) receptor potentials. E) receptor speciation.

A

If the sodium-potassium pumps in the plasma membrane fail to function, all of the following occur, except A) the intracellular concentration of potassium ions will increase B) the neuron will slowly depolarize C) the membrane will slowly lose its capacity to generate action potentials D) the inside of the membrane will have a resting membrane potential that is more positive than normal E) the intracellular concentration of sodium ions will increase

A

In order for a sensation to become a perception, a) it must be received by the somatosensory cortex. b) the other senses must be silent. c) the individual must vocalize about it. d) it must arrive over fast-conducting nerve fibers.

A

Loose connective tissue functions in all of the following ways except A) providing strong connections between muscles and bones B) supporting epithelia C) anchoring blood vessels and nerves D) cushioning and stabilizing E) filling spaces between organs

A

Neural tissue A) carries information from one part of the body to another B) can contract C) fills spaces in the body D) stores energy E) forms glans

A

Opening of sodium channels in the membrane causes A) depolarization B) repolarization C) hyperpolarization D) increases negative charge inside the membrane E) inhibition

A

Pain is to ________ as cold is to ________. A) nociceptors; thermoreceptors B) baroreceptors; chemoreceptors C) baroreceptors; nociceptors D) chemoreceptors; nociceptors E) baroreceptors; thermoreceptors

A

Pronation is defined as A) a rolling of the distal epiphysis of the radius over the ulna B) a twisting of the ulna medially C) twisting the forearm so that the palms face anteriorly D) the shortening of the angle between the radius and the humerus E) movement of the mandible anteriorly, as seen when biting the upper lip

A

Structurally, the pubic symphysis is classified as a ________ articulation. A) cartilaginous B) bony C) synovial D) fibrous E) diarthrotic

A

Summation that results from the cumulative effect of multiple synapses at multiple places on the neuron is designated A) spatial summation B) temporal summation C) inhibition of the impulse D) hyperpolarization E) impulse transmission

A

Suppose that epiphyseal lines appear in a 10-year-old's long bones. Which of the following statements is therefore true? A) the epiphyseal plates have ossified and further growth is not possible B) administration of growth hormone will stimulate further bone growth in length C) osteoclasts will dissolve the metaphysics so length growth can continue into adulthood D) more growth will occur during the teenage years as sex hormones stimulate the rebuilding of growth plates E) intramembranous ossification will enable further growth in length.

A

The largest quantities of keratin are found in the epidermal layer called the stratum A) corneum. B) lucidum. C) basale. D) granulosum. E) spinosum.

A

The liver is primarily located in the ________ quadrant. A) right upper B) left upper C) right lower D) left lower E) hepatic

A

The muscle found in the walls of most hollow organs of the body is A) smooth muscle B) involuntary started muscle C) skeletal muscle D) cardiac muscle E) voluntary striated muscle

A

The neuroglia cells that participate in maintaining the BBB are the A) astrocytes B) ependymal cells C) microglia D) oligodendrocytes E) Schwann cells

A

The period during an excitable membrane can respond again, but only if the stimulus is greater than the threshold stimulus is _________ period. A) relative refractory B) absolute refractory C) resting D) lag E) stationary

A

The point in a muscle twitch when the troponin is bound to calcium is called the A) contraction phase B) relaxation phase C) stimulus phase D) latent period E) isotonic period

A

Triggering of the muscle action potential occurs after A) Acetylcholine binds to chemical gated channels in the motor end plate (sarcolemma) B) acetylcholinesterase is released from synaptic vesicles into the synaptic cleft C) calcium ion binds to channels on the motor end plate D) the action potential jumps across the neuromuscular junction E) any of these can produce an action potential in the muscle cell

A

When a muscle cell is stimulated enough to release calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, ______ and _______ change their position and open up the active sites to allow cross-bridging to occur A) troponin / tropomyosin B) actin / tropomyosin C) troponin / myosin D) myosin / titin E) myosin / actin

A

When acetylcholine binds to receptors at the motor end plate, the sarcolemma becomes A) more permeable to sodium ions B) less permeable to sodium ions C) more permeable to calcium ions D) less permeable to potassium ions E) less permeable to potassium and sodium ions

A

Which of the following is not an effect of again on the muscular system? A) hypertrophy B) smaller muscle fibers C) decreased recovery from muscle injuries D) exercise tolerance decreases E) muscled become less elastic

A

Which of the following is not controlled by the ANS? A) skeletal muscle system B) cardiovascular system C) respiratory system D) digestive system E) urinary system

A

Which of the following statements is true about general senses? A) they are distributed all over the body B) they are all mechanoreceptors C) all receptors involved in general sensation consist of free nerve endings D) they are located in sense organs E) the reception of the stimulus occurs slowly with these receptors

A

Which one of the following is not a stabilizing factor of synovial joints? A) skeletal muscles around the joint B) the presence of a meniscus C) collagen fibers of the joint capsule D) fat pads around the joint E) the synovial membrane

A

Which organ system transports nutrients, metabolic wastes, gases, and defense cells? A) cardiovascular B) digestive C) muscular D) respiratory E) urinary

A

Working memory becomes short-term memory by ________ and short-term memory becomes long term memory by ________. A) long-term potentiation; consolidation B) consolidation; long-term potentiation C) reducing the number of connections D) reducing the amount of neurotransmitters within the synapse E) adding ISPS

A

________ is a disorder affecting the ability to speak or read. A) Aphasia B) Ataxia C) Apraxia D) Bell's palsy E) Dysphagia

A

____________ nerves are nerves that connect to the spinal cord. A) spinal B) cranial C) afferent D) multipolar E) autonomic

A

cerebospinal fluid A) is secreted by ependymal cells B) is formed by a passive process C) is normally produced twice as fast as it is removed D) has almost the same composition as blood plasma E) contains blood cells and blood plasma

A

A chemical imbalance in the body can cause the heart to stop pumping blood, which in turn will cause other tissues and organs to cease functioning. This observation supports the view that A) all organisms are composed of cells B) all levels of organization within an organism are interdependent C) chemical molecules make up cells D) blood has magical properties E) congenital defects can be life threatening

B

A pedestrian narrowly avoids being hit by an oncoming car. He notices that it takes a little while for his heart rate and respiratory rate to return to normal. This is likely because A) the parasympathetic nervous system has become activated. B) sympathetic activation of the adrenal medulla has released epinephrine and norepinephrine into the bloodstream. C) the splanchnic nerves have become activated. D) somatic motor neurons have increased the heart and respiratory rate. E) the corticospinal pathway has become activated.

B

A person lying face down is in the ______ position. A) anatomical B) prone C) supine D) ventral E) prostrate

B

A person touches you lightly with a feather. What two areas of the brain allow you to feel and interpret this touch? A) primary motor cortex and the primary sensory cortex B) primary sensory cortex and the somatic sensory association area C) primary sensory cortex and the visceral sensory association area D) primary motor cortex and the somatic motor association area E) gustatory cortex and the gustatory association area

B

A tissue with a firm gel matrix and cells inside lacunae is A) areolar connective tissue. B) cartilage. C) bone. D) epithelium. E) dense regular connective tissue.

B

Air-filled chambers found in several areas of the bones of the skull are called A) conchae B) sinuses C) fontanelles D) sutures E) fossae

B

Bladder fullness is to ________ as blood pH is to ________. A) nociceptors; thermoreceptors B) baroreceptors; chemoreceptors C) baroreceptors; nociceptors D) chemoreceptors; nociceptors E) baroreceptors; thermoreceptors

B

Bone growth in length by mitosis of A) concentric lamellae B) cartilage cells in the epiphyseal side of the metaphysis C) growth of trabeculae D) osteoblasts in the endosteum E) cartilage cells in the disphyseal side of the metaphysis

B

Cardiovascular centers located in the _________ adjust the heart rate, the strength of cardiac contractions and the flow of blood through the peripheral tissues. A) pons B) medulla oblongata C) prefrontal cortex D) thalamus E) midbrain

B

Cells that free calcium from bone to maintain blood calcium levels are called A) osteolytics B) osteoclasts C) osteoblasts D) osteogenics E) osteocytes

B

Curling into the "fetal position" ________ the intervertebral joints. A) hyperextends B) flexes C) abducts D) extends E) rotates

B

Damage to the medulla oblongata can result in death because A) electrical activity originates within the medulla. B) the vital centers for the control of blood pressure, heart rate, and breathing are located there. C) the blood might not be able to circulate properly around the brain. D) body temperature is controlled by the medulla. E) digestive processes are controlled by the medulla.

B

Detachment of myosin cross-bridges occurs during the A) contraction phase B) relaxation phase C) stimulus phase D) latent period E) isotonic period

B

During appositional growth, A) bones grow longer B) bones grow wider C) cartilage replaces bones D) the epiphysis fuses with the diaphysis E) compact bone replaces spongy bone

B

Endochondral ossification begins with the formation of a A) fibrous connective tissue model B) cartilage model C) membraneous model D) calcified model E) osteoid model

B

Following a head injury, Kevin can think of the word he wants to say but cannot make his mouth form the correct sounds to produce the word. He is most likely suffering from damage to A) Wernicke's area. B) Broca's area. C) Brodmann's area. D) the general interpretive area. E) the basal nuclei.

B

How can cartilage maintain its function even though it is avascular? A) cartilage is only the thickness of a few cell layers B) nutrients and waste products diffuse through the cartilage's matrix C) cartilage has extensive blood vessels D) cartilage does not contain living cells E) the perichondrium prevents any exchange of nutrients and waste prod

B

IPSPs (inhibitory postsynaptic potentials) A) are local depolarizations. B) are local hyperpolarizations. C) increase membrane permeability to sodium ions. D) block the efflux of potassium ions. E) block the efflux of calcium ions.

B

In a sarcomere, the central portion of thick filaments are linked laterally by proteins of the A) Z line B) M line C) H band D) A band E) I band

B

Intercalated discs and pacemaker cells are characteristic of ________ tissue. A) smooth muscle B) cardiac muscle C) skeletal muscle D) all types of muscle E) nerve

B

Muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that muscle fibers A) lack a plasma membrane B) have many nuclei C) are very small D) lack mitochondria E) have large gaps in the cell membrane

B

Muscle tissue, one of the four basic tissue groups, consists chiefly of cells that are highly specialized for A) conduction B) contraction C) peristalsis D) cushioning E) secretion

B

Rapid impulse conduction from "node" to "node" is called A) spatial propagation B) saltatory propagation C) divergent propagation D) synaptic transmission E) continuous propagation

B

Since each myofibril is attached at either end of the muscle fiber, when sarcomeres shorten, the muscle fiber A) lengthens B) shortens C) strengthens D) weakens E) pulls from the middle

B

The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system is said to function during "rest and digest." A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) thoracolumbar D) visceral E) somatomotor

B

The all-or-none principle states that A) all stimuli will produce identical action potentials B) all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials C) the greater the magnitude of the stimuli, the greater the magnitude of the action potential D) only sensory stimuli can activate action potentials E) only motor stimuli can activate action potentials

B

The appendicular skeleton includes the bones of the upper and lower extremities and their supporting elements called A) joints B) girdles C) sutures D) ball and socket E) rotator cuffs

B

The body's first tissue response to any injury is A) fever. B) inflammation. C) bleeding. D) shivering. E) regeneration.

B

The calvaria (or skullcap) is formed by the _________ bones. A) frontal, temporal, and parietal B) frontal, parietal, and occipital C) temporal, parietal, and occipital D) frontal, temporal, and occipital E) frontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital

B

The first cervical vertebra is called the A) primum B) atlas C) axis D) cervix E) apex

B

The function of ________ is to propagate electrical signals from one place to another. A) muscle cells B) neurons C) transmitter cells D) teleocytes E) neuroglia

B

The heart is ________ to the lungs. A) lateral B) medial C) posterior D) proximal E) distal

B

The nervous tissue outside of the central nervous system composes the _________ nervous system A) somatic B) peripheral C) autonomic D) afferent E) parasympathetic

B

The primary spinal curves A) are also called compensation curves B) accommodate the thoracic and abdominopelvic viscera C) develop several months after birth D) are the lumbar and cervical curves E) help shift the weight to permit an upright posture

B

The repeating unit of a skeletal muscle fiber is the A) sarcolemma B) sarcomere C) sarcoplasmic reticulum D) myofibril E) myofilament

B

The synarthrosis that binds the teeth to the bony sockets is a A) suture B) gomphosis C) synchondrosis D) synotosis E) syndesmosis

B

The three functions of synovial fluid are nutrient distribution, shock absorption, and A) stabilization B) lubrication C) padding D) strengthening E) covered by a capsule

B

When a muscle is stimulated repeatedly at a high rate, the amount of tension gradually increases to a steady maximum tension. This is called A) incomplete tetanus B) complete tetanus C) a twitch D) wave summation E) recruitment

B

When a skeletal muscle fiber contracts, the A) H bands and I bands get larger B) zones of overlap get larger C) Z lines move further apart D) width of the A band increases E) all of the above

B

Which of the following is not a function of synovial fluid? A) shock absorption B) increases osmotic pressure within joint C) lubrication D) provides nutrients E) protects articular cartilages

B

Which of the following is not a function of the neuroglia? A) support B) memory C) secretion of CSF D) maintenance of BBB E) phagocytosis

B

Which of the following is not a property of the blood-brain barrier? A) The capillary endothelial cells are interconnected by tight junctions. B) It is very permeable to many water and lipid-soluble compounds. C) Astrocytes surround the CNS capillaries. D) It is absent in portions of the hypothalamus. E) It is intact except in areas known as circumventricular organs.

B

Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system? A) releases chemical messengers called hormones B) produces a more rapid response than the nervous system C) produces effects that last for days or longer D) produces an effect that involves several organs or tissues at the same time E) important homeostatic system

B

While you're visiting your friend who recently gave birth, she comments on her infant's soft spot. You think to yourself that the correct term for the "soft spot" located at the intersection of the frontal, sagittal, and coronal sutures is A) sphenoidal fontanelle B) anterior fontanelle C) occipital fontanelle D) mastoid fontanelle E) cushion spot

B

________ support, protect, and nourish nerve cells. A) nurse cells B) neuroglia C) neurons D) nurturons E) nutrient cells

B

A midsagittal section of the body would pass through the A) kidney B) lung C) heart D) spleen E) leg

C

A postsynaptic neuron will have an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) when A) chemically regulated potassium channels are open and potassium is diffusing out of the cell B) more calcium ions that usual diffuse into the neuron C) chemically regulated sodium channels are open and sodium is diffusing into the cell D) the neuron is hyperpolarized E) more potassium ions than usual diffuse out of the neuron

C

A single motor neuron together with all the muscle fibers it innervates is called a(n) A) end foot B) end plate C) motor unit D) dermatome E) myotome

C

Accumulations of fluid within the epidermis or between the epidermis and the dermis is/are called A) keloids. B) scabs. C) blisters. D) scars. E) pus.

C

An epiphyseal line is an example of a A) gomphosis B) synchondrosis C) synostosis D) symphysis E) syndesmosis

C

Anatomy is to ______ as physiology is to ________. A) function; form B) form; structure C) structure; function D) structure; form E) growth; form

C

At rest, active sites on the actin are blocked by A) myosin molecules. B) troponin molecules. C) tropomyosin molecules. D) calcium ions. E) ATP molecules.

C

Cells that store fat are called A) fibrocytes B) marcocytes C) adipocytes D) podocytes E) melanocytes

C

Homeostatic regulation usually involves a(n) ________ that detects a particular stimulus, and a(n) ________ that responds to the stimulus by communicating with a(n) ________ whose activity has an effect on the same stimulus. A) control center; effector; receptor B) receiver; communicator; effector C) receptor; control center; effector D) effector; receiver; communicator E) control center; receiver; effector

C

How would the loss of acetylcholinesterase from the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle? A) it would make the muscles less excitable B) it would produce muscle weakness C) it would cause muscles to stay contracted D) it would cause muscles to stay relaxed E) it would have little effect on skeletal muscles

C

Identify the incorrect pair A) synarthrosis; immovable joint B) amiphiarthoris; slightly movable joint C) chondrosis; freely moving joint D) gomphosis; articulation between tooth and bone E) they are all correct

C

In __________ an autoimmune response attacks and causes an inflammation condition. A) rheumatism B) degenerative C) rheumatoid arthritis D) osteoporosis E) gouty arthritis

C

In hydrolysis reactions, compounds react with A) hydrogen, causing decomposition. B) glucose, causing decomposition. C) water, causing decomposition. D) carbon, causing decomposition. E) water, causing synthesis.

C

Ion channels that are always open are called _______ channels A) active B) gated C) leak D) regulated E) local

C

Overseeing the postural muscles of the body and making rapid adjustments to maintain balance and equilibrium are functions of the A) cerebrum. B) thalamus. C) cerebellum. D) pons. E) medulla oblongata.

C

The bones that form the palm are the A) carpals B) tarsals C) metacarpals D) metatarsals E) phalanges

C

The most common distortion of the spinal curvature, in which the thoracic curvature is distorted laterally is A) kyphosis B) lordosis C) scoliosis D) spinosis E) spina bifida

C

The plane that separates the abdominal and the pelvic cavities is A) the mediastinum. B) sagittal on the brachium. C) transverse at the hips. D) midsagittal on the trunk. E) superior to the thorax.

C

The shaft of long bones is called the A) epiphysis B) metaphysis C) diaphysis D) paraphysis E) endophysis

C

The suture that forms the articulation of the parietal bones with the frontal bone is the ________ suture. A) lambdoid B) rostral C) coronal D) squamous E) sagittal

C

The type of burn that may require a skin graft is a ________ burn. A) first-degree B) second-degree C) third-degree D) partial-thickness E) epidermal

C

Unicellular exocrine glands secrete A) milk. B) sweat. C) mucus. D) sebum. E) insulin.

C

Which of the following best describes the term sarcoplasmic reticulum? A) protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle B) repeating unit of striated myofibrils C) storage and release site for calcium ions D) thin filaments are anchored here E) largely made of myosin molecules

C

Which of the following best labels best matches osteocyte? A) stem cell B) dissolve matrix C) mature bone cell D) secretes organic matrix E) immature bone cell

C

Which of the following is not a cranial bone? A) frontal B) parietal C) palatine D) temporal E) occipital

C

Which of the following is not a property of synovial joints? A) freely moveable B) lined by a secretory epithelium C) covered by a serous membrane D) contain synovial fluid E) covered by a capsule

C

Which of the following regions corresponds to the buttocks? A) pelvic B) cephalic C) gluteal D) lumbar E) thoracic

C

Which on of the following is not one of the four main tissue categories? A) muscle tissue B) neural tissue C) osseous tissue D) connective tissue E) epithelial tissue

C

Which organ system provides support, protection of soft tissue, mineral storage, and blood formation? A) integumentary B) muscular C) skeletal D) nervous E) endocrine

C

Which organ system removes carbon dioxide from the bloodstream? A) cardiovascular B) lymphatic C) respiratory D) digestive E) endocrine

C

Which tissue is correctly paired with its category of connective tissue? A) bone--connective tissue proper B) fat--supporting connective tissue C) lymph--fluid connective tissue D) cartilage--fluid connective tissue E) tendon--supporting connective tissue

C

While playing softball, Gina is struck in the frontal bone by a wild pitch. Which of the following complaints would you expect her to have? A) a sore jaw B) a black eye C) a headache D) a sore chest E) a sore back

C

You cannot tell when your small intestines shift position as food enters because you do not have any ________ there. A) chemoreceptors B) nociceptors C) proprioceptors D) thermoreceptors E) photoreceptors

C

You discovered a human skeleton and quickly characterized its a female. What are the telltale signs that this is belonged to a female? A) the more sloping cranium B) a pubic angle of less than 90 degrees C) a pubic angle of greater than 90 degrees D) the more vertical iliac crest E) none of the answers are correct

C

Your friend Greg is hit in the jaw and when looking at him, his face looks misaligned. You immediately take him to the emergency room and are not surprised to learn that he has a broken A) temporal bone B) zygomatic bone C) mandible D) external auditory meatus E) clavicle

C

________ sweat glands are widely distributed across the body surface, ________ glands are located wherever hair follicles exist, and ________ sweat glands are found only in a few areas. A) Sebaceous; merocrine; apocrine B) Apocrine; merocrine; sebaceous C) Merocrine; sebaceous; apocrine D) Merocrine; apocrine; sebaceous E) Apocrine; sebaceous; merocrine

C

during the process of ________, an existing tissue is replaced by bone. A) phosphorylation B) resorption C) ossification D) osteopropagation E) remodeling

C

the _______ nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord A) autonomic B) peripheral C) central D) efferent E) afferent

C

which of the following is not true regarding the axial skeleton? A) has 80 bones B) includes the skull C) includes the pelvic and pectoral girdles D) includes auditory ossicles E) includes thoracic cage

C

Active sites become exposed when calcium ions bind to A) tropomyosin B) actin C) myosin D) troponin E) calcium channels

D

All of the following are true of neural reflexes except that they A) are automatic motor responses B) are the simplest form of behavior C) help perserve homeostasis D) cannot be modified by the brain E) involve at least 2 neurons

D

Based on the motor homunculus, which of the following body regions has the fewest number of motor units involved? A) tongue B) face C) hands D) back trunk

D

Control of the diameter of the respiratory passages depends upon A) sympathetic stimulation only B) parasympathetic stimulation only C) somatomotor stimulation only D) both parasympathetic and sympathetic levels of stimulation E) sensory receptors sensitive to changes in lung ventilation

D

During an inflammatory response to injury, which of the following is the least likely in the region of the injury? A) increase in basophils B) increase in histamine C) increase in blood flow D) cold, pale skin E) swelling

D

Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system except A) protection of underlying tissue. B) excretion of salts and wastes. C) maintenance of body temperature. D) synthesis of vitamin C. E) detection of sensations.

D

If a second stimulus arrives before the relaxation phase has ended, a second, more powerful contraction occurs. This addition of one twitch to another is called A) incomplete tetanus B) complete tetanus C) treppe D) wave summation E) recruitment

D

If an obese person loses weight, a factor that increases the risk of regaining the weight is A) weight loss causes the metabolic rate to slow. B) during weight loss, calories are only temporarily displaced from fat to other tissues. C) brown fat can become white fat if dietary intake increases again. D) the adipose cells do not die but merely shrink, so they can easily store lipid again. E) the body feels unfamiliar after weight loss.

D

Microscopic examination of a tissue reveals a loose framework of fibers embedded in a large volume of fluid ground substance, with a wide variety of cell types. This tissue would most likely have come from the A) inner wall of a blood vessel. B) lungs. C) spleen. D) superficial fascia between skin and muscle. E) bony socket of the eye.

D

Puffer fish poison blocks voltage-gated sodium channels like a cork. What effect would this neurotoxin have on the function of neurons? A) neurons would depolarize more rapidly B) action potentials would lack a depolarization phase C) the absolute refractory period would be shorter than normal D) the axon would be unable to generate action potentials E) none, because the chemically gated sodium channels would still function

D

Sensory information from all parts of the body is routed to A) the prefrontal cortex. B) the cerebellum. C) the primary motor cortex. D) the somatosensory cortex. E) Broca's area.

D

Sensory information is processed and relayed to the cerebrum by the A) medulla oblongata B) pons C) midbrain D) thalamus E) cerebellum

D

The ________ division of the peripheral nervous system brings sensory information to the CNS. A) somatic B) peripheral C) autonomic D) afferent E) parasympathetic

D

The _________ skeletal nervous system controls the skeletal muscles A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) afferent D) somatic E) autonomic

D

The common term for the buccal region is the A) back B) waist C) breast D) cheeks E) buttocks

D

The four spinal curves include all but one of the following. Identify the exception. A) thoracic B) cervical C) lumbar D) axial E) sacral

D

The kidneys and ureters are organs of the _____ system. A) endocrine B) digestive C) respiratory D) urinary

D

The layer of the meninges in direct contact with the spinal cord is the A) dura mater B) subarachnoid space C) arachnoid mater D) pia mater E) choroid plexus

D

The pancreas produces ______ secretions that include digestive enzymes and hormones, respectively. A) serous and sebaceous B) mucous and holocrine C) merocrine and holocrine D) exocrine and endocrine E) secretory and absorptive

D

The shoulder joint, or __________ joint, permits the greatest range of motion of any joint. A) coracocondylar B) humeroacromial C) clavicoscapular D) glenohumeral E) deltobrachial

D

The spinal cord consists of 4 regions and _________ pairs of spinal nerves. A) five B) twelve C) twenty-five D) thirty-one E) the number varies widely among individuals

D

The thalamus is often called the "air traffic controller" of the brain because it A) controls the autonomic functions of the body, such as the fight-or-flight response. B) determines what can enter the brain from the blood. C) controls reflexes. D) determines the routing of incoming sensory information to the correct cerebral cortex area. E) passes motor information on to the cerebellum.

D

There are ________ carpal bones located in the wrist, which form ________ rows of bones. A) 2, 8 B) 10, 3 C) 4, 2 D) 8, 2 E) 6, 2

D

Voluntary movements are carried out by the contraction of A) nonstriated muscle B) all types of muscle C) smooth muscle D) skeletal muscle E) cardiac muscle

D

What type of tissue is replaced in the embryo during endochondral ossification? A) connective tissue membranes B) fibrocartilage C) mesenchymal tissue D) hyaline cartilage E) Wharton's jelly

D

When the epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone, A) puberty begins B) interstitial bone growth begins C) appositional bone growth begins D) long bones have reached their adult length E) the bone becomes more brittle

D

When you perform a physical activity that you have not done in a while, such as riding a bike, which area of your brain coordinates your movements with learned experiences? A) thalamus B) pons C) midbrain D) cerebellum E) medulla oblongata

D

Which of the following chemicals is not present in bone? A) calcium phosphate B) collagen fibers C) calcium carbonate D) chondrition sulfate E) hydroxyapatite

D

Which of the following is not a function of CSF? A) provides cushioning for delicate neural tissues B) provides buoyant support for the brains C) acts as a transport for nutrients D) produces ATP for impulse transmission E) acts as a transport medium for waste products

D

Which of the following types of vertebrae and their numbers is not correct? A) cervical: 7 B) thoracic: 12 C) lumbar: 5 D) sacral: 2 fused E) coccygeal 3 to 5 fused

D

Which statement about tissues is correct? A) tissues are always in the form of sheets of cells B) all the organs of an organ system C) A tissue is composed of a single type of cell D) An organ combines several different tissues E) Tissues are microscopic and invisible to the naked eye

D

Which statement is true regarding cerebrospinal fluid? A) CSF is identical in composition to blood plasma. B) CSF is made during fetal development and does not change through the lifetime of the person. C) There is about a liter of CSF within the brain and spinal cord. D) If CSF is not properly resorbed, the result would be hydrocephalus. E) CSF moves back into the blood supply by the process of osmosis.

D

________ provide information about the external environment. A) spinal nerves B) anaxonic neurons C) internoceptors D) exteroceptors E) proprioceptors

D

After suffering a blow to the back of the head, Phil loses his vision. The blow probably caused damage to the A) frontal lobe. B) postcentral gyrus. C) temporal lobe. D) limbic system. E) occipital lobe.

E

An example of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium would be: A) exposed skin B) air sacs of the lungs C) the lining of the anus D) the outer covering of the intestines E) the lining of the oral cavity

E

Any substance that enters or leaves your body must cross A) muscle tissue B) connective tissue C) secretory tissue D) neural tissue E) epithelial tissue

E

Arrange the spinal meninges from innermost layer to outermost layer. A) dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater B) dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater C) arachnid mater, pia mater, dura mater, D) pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater E) pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater

E

Changes in the CNS that accompany aging include all of the following except A) reduction in brain size and weight B) decrease in the number of neurons C) decreased blood flow to the brain D) changes in synaptic organization in the brain E) increased memory storage

E

Characteristics of epithelia include all of the following except: A) attachment B) avascularity C) regeneration D) polarity E) extracellular matrix

E

Difficulty in swallowing may be a sign of damage to which cranial nerve(s)? A) vagus B) facial C) glossopharyngeal D) hypoglossal E) glossopharyngeal and vagus

E

Disorders involving the vagus nerve might cause A) food to remain in your stomach longer B) a drop in blood pressure C) constriction of the pupils D) more saliva production E) increased sweating

E

From what structure in the above figure does sensible perspiration occur? A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9 E) 10

E

If the posterior root of a spinal nerve is severed, A) output to skeletal muscle would gee blocked B) output to visceral organs would be blocked C) efferent fibers would be blocked D) the brain would not be able to communicate with that level of the spinal cord E) sensory input would be blocked

E

Jane, a 79-year-old woman, has been diagnosed with a tumor in the brain. She has lost some sensory and motor functions associated with the face, like control of facial muscles for emotion and various sensory functions like taste. In addition, she has some hearing loss and balance problems. The location of the tumor is likely to be the A) cerebellum. B) cerebrum. C) medulla. D) thalamus. E) pons.

E

Joints can be classified structurally as A) bony B) fibrous C) cartilaginous D) synovial E) all of the answers are correct

E

Rapid water loss from burned skin is an extreme form of ________ perspiration. A) imprudent B) non-sense C) impractical D) vacuous E) insensible

E

Stem cells that can differentiate into osteoblasts are called _________ cells. A) osteopropagator B) osteoforming C) osteocreator D) osteotrophic E) osteogenic

E

The ______ division of the nervous system carriers motor commands to muscles and glands A) spinal B) peripheral C) autonomic D) afferent E) efferent

E

The brachial plexus gives rise to all the following nerves except the A) radial B) median C) ulnar D) musculocutaneous E) phrenic

E

The ilium, ischium, and pubis fuse into a single bone called the A) patella B) pelvic girdle C) pectoral girdle D) coccyx E) coxal bone

E

The medulla oblongata regulates A) somatic motor contractions. B) food intake C) auditory reflexes D) vision and hearing E) blood pressure and respiration

E

The quadrants of the abdominopelvic region include all of the following except A) right upper quadrant (RUQ). B) right lower quadrant (RLQ). C) left upper quadrant (LUQ). D) left lower quadrant (LLQ). E) pelvic quadrant.

E

The watery fluid component of blood is called A) hemosol. B) liquid elements. C) formed elements. D) hemoplasm. E) plasma.

E

We are constantly bombarded by a variety of stimuli inside and outside of our bodies. Why are we not overwhelmed by sensory information? A) We do not have receptors for most stimuli. B) Stimuli are blocked from the receptors by our immune systems. C) Most stimuli are external to our bodies and we have very few exteroceptors on the outside of the body. D) A particular receptor type can have different sensitivities to different stimuli. E) A very tiny percentage of incoming sensory information is received by the cerebral cortex.

E

Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system? A) body support B) calcium homeostasis C) protection of internal organs D) blood cell production E) all of the answers are correct

E

Which of the following is a recognized function of the skeletal muscle? A) produce movement B) maintain posture C) maintain body temperature D) guard body entrances and exits E) all of the above

E

Which of the following is arranged in correct order from the most complex to the simplest? A) cellular, tissue, molecular, system, organ, organism B) molecular, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism C) tissue, cellular, molecular, organ, system, organism D) organ, organism, molecular, cellular, tissue, system E) organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, molecular

E

Which of the following is not true of osteocytes? A) osteocytes maintain protein and mineral content of the matrix B) osteocytes take part in repair of damaged bone C) osteocytes form cytoplasmic extensions within canaliculi D) osteocytes are located within lacunae E) osteocytes have 50 or more nuclei

E

Which of the following is true of osteoclasts? A) osteoclasts maintain protein and mineral content of the matrix B) osteoclasts are responsible for laying down osteoid C) osteoclasts form cytoplasmic extensions within canaliculi D) osteoclasts are located within lacunae E) osteoclasts secrete protein digesting enzymes and acids that dissolve matrix.

E

Which of the following terms refers to the foot? A) cervical B) brachial C) antebrachial D) femoral E) pedal

E

While walking barefoot on the beach, Joe stepped on a thorn that penetrated through the sole of his foot to the dermis. How many layers of epidermis did the thorn penetrate? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

E

An actively respiring muscle cell has a high energy requirement. It means the it will have a significantly increased number of which organelle?

Mitochondria

The pericardial and the pleural membrane are all classified as ___________ membranes.

Serous

A peptide bond is formed when two amino acids undergo _____________ where water is released

a condensation reaction

The wrist is ________ to the elbow. A) proximal B) distal C) lateral D) medial E) Horizontal

distal


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