A&P LAB MIDTERM/FINAL mastering&PPTquestions
In exfoliative cytology, epithelial cells are removed and examined without any lasting damage to the tissue from which these cells are removed. Why is there usually NO lasting damage? The stored energy in epithelial tissue facilitates effective healing. Epithelial tissues are avascular. Epithelial tissue is capable of regeneration. The contractile property of epithelial tissue minimizes scarring.
Epithelial tissue is capable of regeneration.
What anticodon would complement the codon sequence CTA? TAU AGT GAU GAT
GAU
Which of the following best summarizes the difference between genotype and phenotype? Genotype refers to the genes one has, and phenotype refers to the alleles that person has. Genotype refers to all of the genes individuals inherit, and phenotype refers to the genes they make on their own. Genotype refers to the DNA one has, and phenotype refers to the RNA he or she inherits. Genotype refers to the gene alleles that one has, and phenotype refers to the trait that is expressed in response to those alleles.
Genotype refers to the gene alleles that one has, and phenotype refers to the trait that is expressed in response to those alleles.
Shin splints occur as a result of pulled tendons and muscles of the lower leg. What is the best way to avoid shin splints? No pain no gain: Increase the intensity of the workout. Apply heat after exercise. Gradually build up the workout schedule and do more cross-training in order to avoid doing too much too fast. Ice the lower leg prior to training.
Gradually build up the workout schedule and do more cross-training in order to avoid doing too much too fast.
Skin color may have a diagnostic function. Imagine one of your friends has an obvious orange tint to her skin. What would be a logical conclusion of your observation? She may suffer from damage to her liver. She may have overactive melanocytes. She may have a blood-clotting disorder. She may have a real taste for consuming carrots.
She may have a real taste for consuming carrots.
An acrosome is located at the tip of the head of each spermatozoon. What is contained in the acrosome? enzymes essential for fertilization many mitochondria to produce ATP for sperm movement a nucleus with tightly packed chromosomes centrioles
enzymes essential for fertilization
The type and structure of specific tissue defines its _____________. length function molecules subatomic particles
function
Ingestion of too much alcohol results in which of the following? gain of bicarbonate, metabolic acidosis gain of acid, metabolic acidosis gain of bicarbonate, metabolic alkalosis gain of acid, metabolic alkalosis
gain of acid, metabolic acidosis
During the citric acid cycle, both NAD and FAD ________ a hydrogen atom and become ________. gain; oxidized gain; reduced lose; oxidized gain; ATP lose; reduced
gain; reduced
Around day 15, a third germ layer forms between the superficial and deep layers of the inner cell mass through a cell migration process known as__________. pellucidation differentiation gastrulation embryonation
gastrulation
The attachment and invasion of the blastocyst into endometrium of the uterus is called ___________. implantation blastocoele formation morulation gastrulation
implantation
Interactions between thin and thick myofilaments of the sarcomere are responsible for ________. muscle contraction muscle fatigue the conduction of action potentials in the muscle fiber muscle relaxation
muscle contraction
Which type of tissue has axons and dendrites? neuron fibrocartilage neuroglia stratified cuboidal epithelium
neuron
Acetylcholine is a(n) __________, which is a type of chemical released by neurons that changes the plasma membrane permeability or other properties of another cell. neurotransmitter polypeptide inorganic neurolipid enzyme
neurotransmitter
How many ATP are produced during the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA? no ATP is produced 4 ATP 2 net ATP 36 ATP
no ATP is produced
Transcription is the first step in protein synthesis and it occurs in the______. nucleus ribosomes cytoplasm golgi apparatus
nucleus
Which structure of the intervertebral articulation gives the disc its resiliency and ability to absorb shock? nucleus pulposus vertebral end plates anulus fibrosus ligamentum flavum
nucleus pulposus
Cells located in each seminiferous tubule which function to provide a microenvironment that supports spermatogenesis are called________. Leydig cells nurse cells interstitial cells thecal cells
nurse cells
A group of cells working together forms the level of organization called the _________________. organismal level molecular level organ level tissue level
tissue level
Why do skeletal muscle cells contain high numbers of mitochondria? to efficiently move digested food through the GI tract to give the muscle cell its striated appearance so that the heart continues to beat to supply the ATP needed for skeletal muscle function
to supply the ATP needed for skeletal muscle function
Respiratory alkalosis is a result of _______. too little carbon dioxide in the blood too much carbon dioxide in the blood too much oxygen in the blood too little oxygen in the blood
too little carbon dioxide in the blood
What autoimmune disorder causes the destruction of melanocytes resulting in patches of skin void of pigment? rheumatoid arthritis albinism vitiligo Tay-Sachs
vitiligo
Free earlobes is a strict dominant trait. Both John and Mary have free earlobes. John is homozygous dominant for free earlobes and Mary is heterozygous for free earlobes (Ee). If John and Mary reproduce, what is the chance that their child will have free earlobes? 75% 25% 50% 100%
100%
How many acetyl-CoA molecules are produced from the catabolism of one glucose molecule? 0 4 2 1
2
How many pyruvate molecules are generated from 1 molecule of glucose during glycolysis? 0 2 1 4
2
Which explanation BEST describes why there is only a NET gain of 2 ATP when 4 ATP molecules are generated from the glycolysis of 1 glucose molecule? 2 ATP are used in glycolysis to initially catabolize the glucose molecule there is no ATP produced during glycolysis the initial ATP number was incorrectly calculated when glycolysis was first discovered in 1956 the initial 2 ATP are directly shuttled to the ETS, so they aren't counted in the equation
2 ATP are used in glycolysis to initially catabolize the glucose molecule
How many chromosomes do human gametes contain? 23 26 13 46
23
Secondary spermatocytes are produced during meiosis I. How many chromosomes do secondary spermatocytes have? 23 chromosomes 22 chromosomes 45 chromosomes 46 chromosomes
23 chromosomes
If a DNA coding sequence contains 12 nucleotides, how many mRNA codons will there be? 3 6 5 4
4
How many chromosomes do human primary spermatocytes contain? 45 chromosomes (2n=45) 22 chromosomes (n=22) 23 chromosomes (n=23) 46 chromosomes (2n=46)
46 chromosomes (2n=46)
Type B blood is a strict dominant trait and type O is a strict recessive trait. John has type O blood and Mary is heterozygous for type B blood (Bo). If John and Mary reproduce, what is the chance that their child will have type O blood? 25% 75% 0% 50%
50%
Tongue rolling is a strict dominant trait. John and Mary are both heterozygous for tongue rolling (Tt). If John and Mary reproduce, what is the chance that their child will have the ability to roll his/her tongue? 100% 25% 75% 50%
75%
The cross bridge cycle is a series of molecular events that occur after excitation of the sarcolemma. What is a cross bridge? A myosin head bound to actin Calcium bound to troponin Troponin bound to tropomyosin ATP bound to a myosin head
A myosin head bound to actin
A triad is composed of a T-tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. How are these components connected? Myosin cross-bridge binding sites. A series of proteins that control calcium release. Potassium leak channels. Voltage-gated sodium channels.
A series of proteins that control calcium release.
After a power stroke, the myosin head must detach from actin before another power stroke can occur. What causes cross bridge detachment? ADP and inorganic phosphate are bound to the myosin head. ATP binds to the myosin head. Acetylcholine binds to receptors in the junctional folds of the sarcolemma. Calcium ions bind to troponin.
ATP binds to the myosin head.
Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine? Acetylcholine is transported back into the axon terminal by a reuptake mechanism. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase. Acetylcholine diffuses away from the cleft. Acetylcholine is transported into the postsynaptic neuron by receptor-mediated endocytosis.
Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.
The neuromuscular junction is a well-studied example of a chemical synapse. Which of the following statements describes a critical event that occurs at the neuromuscular junction? Acetylcholine is released by axon terminals of the motor neuron. When the action potential reaches the end of the axon terminal, voltage-gated sodium channels open and sodium ions diffuse into the terminal. Acetylcholine is released and moves across the synaptic cleft bound to a transport protein. Acetylcholine binds to its receptor in the junctional folds of the sarcolemma. Its receptor is linked to a G protein.
Acetylcholine is released by axon terminals of the motor neuron.
The calcaneus bone is the site of attachment of the calcaneal tendon. The calcaneal tendon is also known as the interosseous membrane Achilles tendon tendon tarsalus malleolar tendon
Achilles tendon
A person with ____________ will have a bronze-like appearance of their skin and nails and have hyperpigmentation of their gums. a genetic disorder affecting melanocytes cirrhosis of the liver Addison's disease Renaud's syndrome
Addison's disease
Bone is a type of connective tissue, with specialized cells embedded in a matrix. What does the matrix of bone consist of? Approximately two-thirds of the weight of bone is composed primarily of calcium salts that form hard, brittle crystals of hydroxyapatite. The other major component of the bony matrix is the collagen fibers that provide tensile strength to bone. Approximately two-thirds of the weight of bone is composed primarily of sodium salts that form hard, brittle crystals. The other major components of the bony matrix are collagen fibers, which provide tensile strength to bone. Approximately one-third of the weight of bone is composed primarily of magnesium salts that form hard, brittle crystals. The other major components of the bony matrix are calcium and elastic fibers, which provide hardness and tensile strength to bone. Approximately one-half of the weight of bone is composed primarily of brittle crystals of potassium salts that form hydroxyapatite. The other major components of the bony matrix are calcium and reticular fibers, which provide hardness and elastic strength to bone.
Approximately two-thirds of the weight of bone is composed primarily of calcium salts that form hard, brittle crystals of hydroxyapatite. The other major component of the bony matrix is the collagen fibers that provide tensile strength to bone.
Which of the following statements is NOT true about autopsies? Autopsies can be used to identify a misdiagnosis. Autopsies are used exclusively for internal examinations of a cadaver. Autopsies are interesting not just to scientists and physicians but also to artists. Autopsies can be used to verify the cause of death.
Autopsies are used exclusively for internal examinations of a cadaver.
How is giantism similar to acromegaly? Both disorders result in continued growth of cartilage within the diaphysis. Both disorders result from abnormal cartilage and soft tissue growth. Both disorders result from a decrease in growth hormone availability. Both disorders stem from aberrations in the mesenchymal membranes of the embryonic skeleton.
Both disorders result from abnormal cartilage and soft tissue growth.
Identify the complementary nucleotide sequence that would be generated during DNA replication of the sequence GTTACAG. CAATGTC GTTACAG CAAUGUC TCCGTGT
CAATGTC
What is the nucleotide sequence of an mRNA strand that has been transcribed from the DNA sequence GGTAGC? CCAUCG TTGCTA GGTAGC CCUACG
CCAUCG
Calcium ions couple excitation of a skeletal muscle fiber to contraction of the fiber. Where are calcium ions stored within the fiber? Calcium ions are stored in the mitochondria. Calcium ions are stored in the transverse tubules. Calcium ions are stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Calcium ions are stored in the nuclei.
Calcium ions are stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
What specific event triggers the uncovering of the myosin binding site on actin? Calcium ions bind to tropomyosin and change its shape. Calcium release channels open in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, and calcium levels rise in the sarcoplasm. Calcium ions bind to troponin and change its shape. Sodium ions bind to troponin and change its shape.
Calcium ions bind to troponin and change its shape.
Which of the following is most directly responsible for the coupling of excitation to contraction of skeletal muscle fibers? Calcium ions. Action potentials. Sodium ions. Acetylcholine.
Calcium ions.
Excitation of the sarcolemma is coupled or linked to the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber. What specific event initiates the contraction? Sodium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum initiates the contraction. Action potentials propagate into the interior of the skeletal muscle fiber. Calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum initiates the contraction. Voltage-sensitive proteins change shape.
Calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum initiates the contraction.
The cessation of telomerase activity as we age limits the number of times a cell can replicate. Current research on telomerases is particularly useful in the fight against cancer. Why is this so? Cancer cells have telomerases that suppress the occurrence of cellular mutations. Cancer cells employ a mechanism that activates telomerases, which leads to uncontrolled cellular division. Cancer cells have telomerases that trigger the loss of stem cell populations. Telomerase activation may help reduce the amount of mechanical damage incurred by DNA in cancer cells.
Cancer cells employ a mechanism that activates telomerases, which leads to uncontrolled cellular division.
Why does rebreathing simulate hypoventilation? Oxygen accumulates in the blood with either. Respiratory alkalosis results from either. Respiratory alkalosis results from either and oxygen accumulates in the blood with either Carbon dioxide accumulates in the blood with either.
Carbon dioxide accumulates in the blood with either.
A _________ fracture occurs at the distal portion of the radius, and is typically a result from reaching out to cushion a fall. Pott's compression Colles transverse
Colles
When does cross bridge cycling end? Cross bridge cycling ends when calcium release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum open. Cross bridge cycling ends when ATP binds to the myosin head. Cross bridge cycling ends when sufficient calcium has been actively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum to allow calcium to unbind from troponin. Cross bridge cycling ends when calcium ions are passively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Cross bridge cycling ends when sufficient calcium has been actively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum to allow calcium to unbind from troponin.
Jessica's mother takes her to see her pediatrician, who refers her to a rheumatologist, a doctor who specializes in rheumatic diseases. This doctor withdraws some synovial fluid using a small needle from Jessica's warm, swollen, tender knee that has limited motion. What types of joint are freely movable like the knee? Synchrondroses are freely movable joints. Synarthroses are freely movable joints. Amphiarthroses are freely movable joints. Diarthroses are freely movable joints.
Diarthroses are freely movable joints.
Trisomy 21 is the most common viable chromosomal abnormality. Another name for trisomy 21 is _____________. Klinefelter's syndrome Down's syndrome Turner syndrome fragile-X syndrome
Down's syndrome
Dehydration due to dieting or sweating profusely by being out in the hot summer day on the beach will cause a major water loss. As a result, the concentration of solutes in the ECF can rise. Predict the outcome of this condition. Water, due to osmosis, will move from the ECF into the cell (ICF) until the two solutions become isotonic again. Nothing will happen and an isotonic condition is maintained. ECF becomes hypertonic relative to ICF and draws water out of the cells. The ICF becomes hypertonic relative to ECF and draws water into the cells.
ECF becomes hypertonic relative to ICF and draws water out of the cells.
Excitation-contraction coupling is a series of events that occur after the events of the neuromuscular junction have transpired. The term excitation refers to which step in the process? Excitation refers to the propagation of action potentials along the axon of a motor neuron. Excitation, in this case, refers to the propagation of action potentials along the sarcolemma. Excitation refers to the shape change that occurs in voltage-sensitive proteins in the sarcolemma. Excitation refers to the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Excitation, in this case, refers to the propagation of action potentials along the sarcolemma.
What constitutes a free radical? The free radicals formed in the body are made up of mostly carbon atoms. Free radicals are considered as inert molecules. Free radicals are highly reactive atoms with an unpaired electron. A molecule that acts as a buffer.
Free radicals are highly reactive atoms with an unpaired electron.
There are three alleles that determine blood type. IA and IB are codominant, and i is recessive to both of them. Serina has Type B blood. Which of the following might be Serina's genotype? IBIB or IBi IBIB only IBi or IAIB IBIB or ii
IBIB or IBi
How is a bulging disc different from a herniated disc? In a bulging disk, the hyaline cartilage of the anulus fibrosus is still intact. In a bulging disk, the anulus fibrosus protrudes into the vertebral canal. In a bulging disk, the anulus fibrosus protrudes into the nucleus pulposus. In a bulging disk, the anulus fibrosus has become torn.
In a bulging disk, the anulus fibrosus protrudes into the vertebral canal.
Which of the following is true about genetic mutation? Mutations always have a negative impact. It is a change in the DNA base sequence. It is rarely passed on to other cells. It is defined as a change in a person's phenotype.
It is a change in the DNA base sequence.
What two molecules supply electrons to drive the redox reactions of the ETS? FAD and FADH2 NAD+ and NADH NADH and FADH2 NADPH and FADH2
NADH and FADH2
Breast cancer is a malignant tumor of the mammary glands. Which of the following statements does NOT pertain to mammary glands? Mammary glands respond to hormonal stimuli. Mammary glands secrete into lactiferous ducts. Mammary glands are part of the integumentary system. None of the listed responses is correct.
None of the listed responses is correct.
Alex and his mother both suffer from osteogenesis imperfecta (OI), which means the imperfect formation of bone. Which bone cells are responsible for the formation of new bone matrix? Osteogenic cells are the bone cells that produce new bone matrix. Osteocytes are the bone cells that produce new bone matrix. Osteoclasts are the bone cells that produce new bone matrix. Osteoblasts are the bone cells that produce new bone matrix.
Osteoblasts are the bone cells that produce new bone matrix.
A _________ fracture occurs at the ankle, and affects the medial malleolus of the distal tibia and the lateral malleolus of the distal fibula. Pott's compression epiphyseal Colles
Pott's
What is the name of the enzyme that creates the mRNA copy from DNA? helicase DNA polymerase RNA polymerase reverse transcriptase
RNA polymerase
What disease is associated with cyanosis? a genetic disorder affecting melanocytes cirrhosis of the liver Addison's disease Renaud's syndrome
Renaud's syndrome
What is the link between Parkinson's disease and stem cell research? Parkinson's disease occurs because of lack of stem cells. Patients with Parkinson's disease produce a particularly promising type of neuronal stem cell that may be used to treat other neurodegenerative disorders. Studies with rats have shown how stem cells encourage the progressive loss of dopamine-producing cells associated with Parkinson's disease. Researchers have managed to generate induced pluripotent stem cells, which may differentiate into dopamine-producing neurons.
Researchers have managed to generate induced pluripotent stem cells, which may differentiate into dopamine-producing neurons.
There is a lot of talk about stem cells in the media. What is unique about these cells? Stem cells can provide a cure for all diseases. Stem cells are not affected by nutrient availability. Stem cells are not fully differentiated. Stem cells can grow under any conditions.
Stem cells are not fully differentiated.
Calcium entry into the axon terminal triggers which of the following events? Acetylcholine is released into the cleft by active transporters in the plasma membrane of the axon terminal. Acetylcholine binds to its receptor. Synaptic vesicles fuse to the plasma membrane of the axon terminal and release acetylcholine. Cation channels open and sodium ions enter the axon terminal while potassium ions exit the axon terminal.
Synaptic vesicles fuse to the plasma membrane of the axon terminal and release acetylcholine.
Which base in RNA is replaced by uracil? C G A T
T
Choose the correct statement about telomerases. Telomerases are enzymes that are active throughout one's lifetime. Telomerases are enzymes that form telomeres. Telomerases consist of specific groupings of nitrogenous bases that are repeated. Telomerases are functionally identical to DNA polymerases.
Telomerases are enzymes that form telomeres.
Because dehydroepiandrosterone from the adrenal cortex is converted to testosterone, some individuals reach for it in an effort to boost their athletic prowess. Why? Testosterone maintains secondary male sex characteristics, such as facial hair. Testosterone maintains male reproductive glands, such as the prostate gland. Testosterone stimulates muscle growth. All of the listed responses are correct.
Testosterone stimulates muscle growth.
How does the myosin head obtain the energy required for activation? The energy comes from the direct phosphorylation of ADP by creatine phosphate. The energy comes from the hydrolysis of GTP. The energy comes from oxidative phophorylation. The energy comes from the hydrolysis of ATP.
The energy comes from the hydrolysis of ATP.
How is ATP used in our bodies? It is converted to ADP for storage and later use. ATP is used to make potential energy. It is used to create more energy. The energy released from ATP is converted into kinetic energy to do work.
The energy released from ATP is converted into kinetic energy to do work.
The effectiveness of certain anesthetics depends in part on their lipid solubility. Why is this? The hydrophilic nature of lipid-soluble drugs speeds up their passage through the plasma membrane. Lipid-soluble drugs trigger the opening of certain channels, which they can use to pass through the plasma membrane. The hydrophobic core of the phospholipid bilayer enables lipid-soluble substances to readily pass through the plasma membrane. Polar substances, such as lipid-soluble drugs, have high solubility.
The hydrophobic core of the phospholipid bilayer enables lipid-soluble substances to readily pass through the plasma membrane.
Sodium and potassium ions do not diffuse in equal numbers through ligand-gated cation channels. Why? The outside surface of the sarcolemma is negatively charged compared to the inside surface. Sodium ions diffuse outward along favorable chemical and electrical gradients. The outside surface of the sarcolemma is negatively charged compared to the inside surface. Potassium ions diffuse outward along favorable chemical and electrical gradients. The inside surface of the sarcolemma is negatively charged compared to the outside surface. Sodium ions diffuse inward along favorable chemical and electrical gradients. The inside surface of the sarcolemma is negatively charged compared to the outside surface. Potassium ions diffuse inward along favorable chemical and electrical gradients.
The inside surface of the sarcolemma is negatively charged compared to the outside surface. Sodium ions diffuse inward along favorable chemical and electrical gradients.
Which of the following is a NOT a likely explanation for the increased occurrence of hip fractures in the elderly? The proximal epiphysis of the femur has a preponderance of spongy bone, which is weaker than compact bone. Osteoporosis reduces the ability of bone to be effectively remodeled. Bone density decreases with age. There is a reduced ability to balance that often accompanies old age.
The proximal epiphysis of the femur has a preponderance of spongy bone, which is weaker than compact bone.
What structure is the functional unit of contraction in a skeletal muscle fiber? The triad The sarcomere The cross bridge The junctional folds of the sarcolemma
The sarcomere
While some mutations in the coding sequence of DNA may prove to be positive, most mutations negatively impact the lives of individuals. However, some mutations have no effect at all. How is this possible? Ribosomes require only two of the three nucleotides in a codon to stay constant. Mutations are never passed on genetically. Nucleotides in the short tandem repeats are immune to mutations. There is redundancy in the genetic code to where more than one triplet codes for the same amino acid.
There is redundancy in the genetic code to where more than one triplet codes for the same amino acid.
Why are the muscles that move the fingers and wrist located in the forearm? This design allows the muscles to contract more rapidly. This design allows the hand and fingers to have greater sensitivity to environmental stimuli. This design allows the hand to maintain fine motor control and strength without the interference of bulky muscles. This design allows for less torque strength by the tendons of the fingers.
This design allows the hand to maintain fine motor control and strength without the interference of bulky muscles.
What is the relationship between the number of motor neurons recruited and the number of skeletal muscle fibers innervated? Typically, hundreds of skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by a single motor neuron. Motor neurons always innervate thousands of skeletal muscle fibers. A motor neuron typically innervates only one skeletal muscle fiber. A skeletal muscle fiber is innervated by multiple motor neurons.
Typically, hundreds of skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by a single motor neuron.
If a person exercises for a long time, lactic acid will start to build up in his or her muscles. Which of the following would you expect to happen as the lactic acid first starts to be formed? More water will move to the muscles to buffer the acid. Weak acids in the muscles will act as buffers and resist or minimize any pH change. More water will move to the muscles to move out the acid. Weak bases in the muscles will act as buffers and resist or minimize any pH change.
Weak bases in the muscles will act as buffers and resist or minimize any pH change.
Which of the following sex chromosome disorders cause immediate death? X only XXY Y only XXX
Y only
Dislocations are more common in highly movable joints. Which of the following types of joints would be LEAST likely to dislocate? a bony synostosis a triaxial diarthrosis a cartilaginous symphysis a fibrous syndesmosis
a bony synostosis
The head portion of the sperm contains_______. a nucleus with tightly packed chromosomes flagellar proteins centrioles mitochondria
a nucleus with tightly packed chromosomes
Sickle cell disease distorts the shape of red blood cells. This distortion renders the red blood cells incapable of carrying out their main function, which is transporting oxygen. What causes this distortion? a point mutation in the nucleotide sequence a deletion in the nucleotide sequence an insertion in the nucleotide sequence a reversal of the entire nucleotide sequence
a point mutation in the nucleotide sequence
Movement of the shoulder laterally away from the body is called __________. abduction adduction flexion extension
abduction
Simple squamous epithelial tissue is permeable, therefore it functions in____. mucus movement protection organ support absorption and secretion
absorption and secretion
The enzymes hyaluronidase and acrosin are essential for fertilization to occur. Where are these enzymes located? zona pellucida outer ovum membrane sperm nucleus acrosome of the sperm
acrosome of the sperm
A reduction in the lateral angle of the glenohumeral joint in relation to the anatomical position would be called __________. extension flexion abduction adduction
adduction
Which type of loose connective tissue provides padding, cushions shock, reduces heat loss, and stores energy? Where are some places in the body this type of tissue is commonly found? reticular tissue; around eyes and kidneys areolar tissue; liver and kidney adipose tissue; deep to the skin at sides, buttocks, and breasts reticular tissue; spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow areolar tissue; deep to the dermis, between muscles and around joints
adipose tissue; deep to the skin at sides, buttocks, and breasts
Prostate cancer typically originates in one of the secretory glands of the prostate. Which of the following is NOT a secretory organ in the male reproductive system? bulbourethral gland seminal gland adrenal gland All of the list responses are correct.
adrenal gland
Which of the following isn't a mode of transmission of sexually transmitted diseases? aerosols from sneezing or coughing sharing hypodermic needles sexual intercourse breast feeding
aerosols from sneezing or coughing
What genetic disorder depicted in this image results in a lack of skin pigmentation which increases the chance of developing skin cancer? Addison's disease Renaud's syndrome albinism keloid
albinism
Each codon of mRNA (hence each triplet in DNA) codes for one_____. polypeptide nucleic acid amino acid nucleotide
amino acid
Storage molecules called proteins are catabolized to provide what molecule to the nutrient pool? fatty acids nucleic acids polypeptides amino acids
amino acids
A pregnant female does not know if her child has Down syndrome. What technique would enable her to find out if she is carrying a child with Down syndrome? amniocentesis Pap smear cheek cell swab There is no test to determine this syndrome.
amniocentesis
Male and female pronuclei fuse in a process called________. gestation gastrulation implantation amphimixis
amphimixis
Respiratory acidosis is a result of _______. a decrease in H+ in the blood and an increase in blood pH an increase in the H+ in the blood an increase in blood pH a decrease in H+ in the blood
an increase in the H+ in the blood
Hyperventilation is defined as _______. an increase in the rate and depth of breathing an increase in the rate of breathing a decrease in the depth of breathing an increase in the depth of breathing an increase in the rate of breathing and a decrease in the depth of breathing
an increase in the rate and depth of breathing
Which of the following is not true of the deep fascia of the leg? prevents excess swelling of the muscles separates anterior and posterior muscles an insertion for the majority of lower leg muscles aids in venous return
an insertion for the majority of lower leg muscles
Growth and repair involve primarily what type of reactions? catabolic anabolic It depends on which body or cell part is growing or repairing.
anabolic
Effective auscultation of the lungs relies on knowledge of which of the following anatomical concepts? anatomical landmarks proximal and distal locations sectional planes right and left lower abdominopelvic quadrants
anatomical landmarks
Records exist about ancient Greeks and Romans who performed dissections to get a better understanding of the structures that make up our body. Which of the following terms would best describe these early scientists? doctors embryologists physiologists anatomists
anatomists
A specific amino acid carried by a tRNA is determined by its_______. glycocalyx codon anticodon ribosomes
anticodon
Which structure of the intervertebral disc attaches to the bodies of adjacent vertebra? ligamentum flavum anulus fibrosus vertebral end plates nucleus pulposus
anulus fibrosus
Within an intervertebral disc, which structure provides the tough outer layer of fibrocartilage and which structure provides the soft inner core for resiliency and shock absorption? anular ligament; spinous ligament anulus pulposus; nucleus fibrosus anulus fibrosus; nucleus pulposus nucleus pulposus; anulus fibrosus nucleus fibrosus; anulus pulposus
anulus fibrosus; nucleus pulposus
For severe rheumatoid arthritis that hasn't been helped by medication, a doctor may suggest joint replacement surgery. The medical term for joint replacement is ________________. arthroscopy arthrodesis arthroplasty angioplasty
arthroplasty
Where is elastic cartilage located in the body? surrounding the eye socket between vertebrae of the spinal column between skeletal muscle auricle of the ear
auricle of the ear
Which of the following wouldn't be a possible cause for osteoarthritis? family history repetitive joint damage autoimmune disease being overweight
autoimmune disease
Which surface attaches to the underlying epithelial cells or deeper tissues? glandular lateral apical basal
basal
Skin cancers are the most common form of cancers and they range from benign to malignant. Which of the following types of skin cancers is considered the most common but also the LEAST dangerous? basal cell carcinoma actinic keratosis malignant melanoma squamous cell carcinoma
basal cell carcinoma
Some burn victims benefit from skin grafts cultured from their own skin cells. Which skin cells are the most likely candidates for such a culture? adipocytes dendritic cells fibroblasts basal cells
basal cells
When do female reproductive stem cells complete their mitotic division? before birth between 4 and 5 years of age puberty menopause
before birth
Using your knowledge of anatomical landmarks, where is the likely location of the popliteal lymph nodes? groin area under the arm behind the knee back of the neck
behind the knee
Kevin has been experiencing difficulty urinating now that he is over the age of 60. The doctor examines his prostate gland and finds no evidence of inflammation. Furthermore, Kevin's PSA test is normal. It is most likely that Kevin is suffering from_________. prostatitis. benign prostatic hypertrophy. male climacteric. prostate cancer. impotence.
benign prostatic hypertrophy.
Six days post fertilization, blastomeres form a hollow ball of cells with an inner cavity. This cell is now called a ___________. blastocyst polar body trophoblast gastrula
blastocyst
The first cleavage of a zygote nears completion about 30 hours after fertilization and creates two daughter cells called ___________. morulae zygote 1 and 2 blastomeres gastrulae
blastomeres
Breast tumors can be benign or malignant and can present in both female and male breast tissue. If a tumor is malignant, the patient may undergo surgical procedures such as a lumpectomy, a mastectomy, or a radical mastectomy. What tissues are removed when a radical mastectomy procedure is performed? breast tissue, and the surrounding muscles and lymph nodes breast tissue, the surrounding muscles and lymph nodes, and the periosteum of the ribs breast tissue, and lymph nodes tumor and breast tissue
breast tissue, and the surrounding muscles and lymph nodes
Which bone is the heel of the human foot? cuboid calcaneus navicular talus
calcaneus
A more convex longitudinal arch partly characterizes a foot deformity called congenital talipes equinovarus. Which two bones are tied together by ligaments and tendons to maintain this arch? talus and proximal phalanx calcaneus and metatarsals calcaneus and proximal phalanx talus and distal phalanx
calcaneus and metatarsals
The formation of carbonic acid from water and carbon dioxide is catalyzed by _______. renin bicarbonic anhydrase carbonic anhydrase carbonic hydrolase
carbonic anhydrase
What muscle type has striations, and is under involuntary control? smooth cardiac and smooth cardiac skeletal
cardiac
Which muscle cell type has visible striations but is not under voluntary control? cardiac smooth skeletal
cardiac
Which type of muscle tissue is highly branched, possess intercalated discs and is comprised of cells having a single nucleus? smooth cardiac skeletal elastic
cardiac
Eating too many carrots can result in an orangish skin tint. What is the name of the pigment that is responsible for the orangish coloration? betaine carotene melanin carmine
carotene
A soft callus is primarily comprised of ____________, while a hard callus is mainly comprised of ___________. fibrin; cartilage cartilage; bone fibrin; bone bone; cartilage
cartilage; bone
What structural category is the slightly moveable pubic symphysis? bony cartilaginous fibrous elastic
cartilaginous
Which spinal curve develops as the infant learns to support the head? cervical thoracic lumbar sacral
cervical
What step of cellular respiration produces most of the high energy coenzyme molecules for the electron transport system? intermediate step glycolysis ETS citric acid cycle
citric acid cycle
Oxygen is an important molecule in which of the following? glycolysis only ETS only citric acid cycle and ETS citric acid cycle only glycolysis, citric acid cycle, and ETS
citric acid cycle and ETS
The energy produced from aerobic metabolism comes from what two sources? glycolysis and the citric acid cycle fermentation and the citric acid cycle citric acid cycle and the electron transport chain glycolysis and the electron transport chain glycolysis and fermentation
citric acid cycle and the electron transport chain
__________ fractures occur in the vertebrae subjected to extreme pressure and is often associated with osteoporosis. comminuted compression Pott's Colles
compression
What function do phagocytes perform during the bone healing process? produce histamine to increase inflammation cleans the fracture of debris and any germs that are present release factors that help in clot formation build new matrix
cleans the fracture of debris and any germs that are present
A sequence of cell divisions that begins immediately after fertilization is called ___________. cleavage blastocoele formation differentiation gastrulation
cleavage
In "simple columnar epithelium," which word describes cell shape and which word describes the number of cell layers? simple; columnar columnar; simple epithelium; columnar columnar; epithelium simple; epithelium
columnar; simple
__________ fractures shatter the affected bone area into a multitude of bony fragments. displaced comminuted transverse spiral
comminuted
When fontanelles close prematurely, the skull shape becomes distorted. This condition is known as craniostenosis. If the anterior fontanelle closes prematurely, which of the following sutures is most likely involved? sphenoidal sutures coronal suture squamous suture lambdoid suture
coronal suture
Chromosomal abnormalities associated with recombination errors are more common in females older than age 35. Recombination errors include all of the following EXCEPT __________. translocation defect deletion crossing over chromosomal damage
crossing over
Diseases that involve not getting enough oxygen-rich blood to the blood vessels, such as certain pulmonary and heart diseases can cause the skin to take on a bluish color. What is the name of the abnormal condition of having bluish skin coloration? vitiligo cyanosis porphyria jaundice
cyanosis
Translation is the second step in protein synthesis and it occurs in the______. golgi apparatus nucleus smooth ER cytoplasm
cytoplasm
When PCO2 levels decrease, carbonic acid dissociates into CO2 and water. What effect does this have on H+ ion concentration and plasma pH? decreases H+ concentration which increases pH increases H+ concentration which increases pH increases H+ concentration which decreases pH decreases H+ concentration which decreases pH
decreases H+ concentration which increases pH
The forearm muscles can be divided into anterior flexors and posterior extensors, as well as __________. deep and superficial layers proximal and distal layers cephalic and caudal layers femoral and abdominal layers
deep and superficial layers
Osteoarthritis is also called ____________________ disease. degenerative joint arthritic dysbiosis arthritic dysplasia gouty arthritic
degenerative joint
Which of the following occurs when water is released (lost) during a reaction? catabolic synthesis dehydration synthesis dehydration hydrolysis catabolic hydrolysis
dehydration synthesis
Which structure typically receives information from other neurons? microfibrils dendrite axon neuroglia
dendrite
Which cutaneous membrane must be reached for a tattoo to become permanent? hypodermis epidermal ridge epidermis dermis
dermis
When you cut yourself and bleed/feel the sensation of pain, which cutaneous membranes have been damaged? dermis and epidermis the epidermis and hypodermis the dermis and hypodermis the epidermis only
dermis and epidermis
Rheumatoid arthritis is just one of several types of arthritis. What do all types of arthritis have in common? destruction of cartilage a genetic predisposition crystals of uric acid viral or bacterial infection
destruction of cartilage
Muscles of the shoulder can be divided into groups based on __________. location (superior and inferior) size location (anterior and posterior) distribution and functional relationships
distribution and functional relationships
Implantation somewhere other than the uterus, such as the uterine tube, causes a condition known as _____________. ectopic pregnancy blight ovum implantus imperfectus ovarian pregnancy
ectopic pregnancy
Most of the ATP from metabolism is produced in the_______. citric acid cycle. mitochondrial matrix. electron transport system. glycolysis. cytosol.
electron transport system.
Too much carbon dioxide in the blood can be the result of _______. fever emphysema anxiety hyperventilation
emphysema
What structure is responsible for increasing surface area to provide for the strength of attachment between the epidermis and dermis? tactile discs epidermal ridge stratum corneum stratum lucidum
epidermal ridge
Certain _________ fractures that occur between the epiphysis and epiphyseal cartilage can permanently stop growth at that site. epiphyseal diaphyseal metaphyseal chondrocytic
epiphyseal
Exfoliative cytology involves the removal of epithelial cells for examination. Which of the following is NOT a clinical application of exfoliative cytology? a Pap test performed to examine cells for cervical cancer. examination of cardiac muscle cells after a heart attack evaluating lesions in the oral cavity and pharynx amniocentesis performed partway through a pregnancy
examination of cardiac muscle cells after a heart attack
In a second-degree burn, the entire epidermis and perhaps some of the dermis are damaged. Which of the following functions of the skin is NOT typically affected by a second-degree burn? storage of lipids in the hypodermis protection against abrasion and fluid loss excretion and thermoregulation through sweat glands All of these functions are impacted by a second-degree burn
excretion and thermoregulation through sweat glands
What transport process is utilized when ACh is released into the synaptic cleft? receptor-mediated endocytosis exocytosis phagocytosis pinocytosis
exocytosis
Action potentials travel the length of the axons of motor neurons to the axon terminals. These motor neurons __________. extend from the spinal cord to the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle fiber extend from the brain or spinal cord to the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle fiber arise in the epimysium of a skeletal muscle and extend to individual skeletal muscle fibers extend from the brain to the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle fiber
extend from the brain or spinal cord to the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle fiber
Compare the number of melanocytes between fair-skinned individuals and dark-skinned individuals. fair-skinned people have more melanocytes than dark-skinned people all fair-skinned people have a form of albinism, so they lack melanocytes dark-skinned people have more melanocytes than fair-skinned people fair- and dark-skinned people have the approximately the same number of melanocytes
fair- and dark-skinned people have the approximately the same number of melanocytes
Storage molecules called triglycerides are catabolized to provide what molecule to the nutrient pool? fatty acids fatty bases lipogen lipopolysaccharides
fatty acids
After oocyte activation and the completion of meiosis, the nuclear material remaining within the ovum reorganizes to become the____________. zygotic blastocoele zona pellucida female pronucleus second polar body
female pronucleus
What type of cartilage forms the soft callus during bone fracture repair? elastic cartilage fibrocartilage dense cartilage hyaline cartilage
fibrocartilage
Movement of the elbow joint movement is limited to __________. flexion and extension pronation and supination supination and flexion extension and pronation
flexion and extension
The energy stored in ATP comes from which of the following? heat adenosine triphosphate kinetic energy food molecules
food molecules
Jessica is suffering from juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, the most common type of childhood arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune, inflammatory disease of the synovial membrane. What treatment would you recommend for Jessica? gentle exercise and NSAIDs immune suppressants corticosteroid injections limiting activity
gentle exercise and NSAIDs
The rotator cuff is a term used to describe the group of muscles and tendons that stabilize and reinforce the __________. elbow joint scapula pectoral girdle glenohumeral joint
glenohumeral joint
Although other nutrients can feed into the citric acid cycle, ________ yields energy the quickest. an amino acid glycogen protein fat glucose
glucose
Glycogen is composed of branched chains of _______ molecules. glucose pyruvate fatty acid protein
glucose
A _________ fracture occurs only when one side of the shaft is broken. greenstick transverse Colles comminuted
greenstick
The acetabulum articulates with the______. sacral region of the vertebral column head of the humerus none of the listed answers are correct head of the femur
head of the femur
Alex had incurred previous fractures that were already in the process of healing when he went to the emergency room for his current injury. What is the correct sequence of events in the repair of a fracture? hyaline model, penetration by blood vessels, formation of primary ossification center, formation of secondary ossification center, formation of spongy and compact bone mesenchymal clustering, osteoblast differentiation, ossification, penetration of blood vessels, formation and remodeling of spongy bone hematoma formation, callus formation, spongy bone formation, and compact bone formation callus formation, formation of primary ossification center, mesenchymal clustering, transformation of spongy to compact bone
hematoma formation, callus formation, spongy bone formation, and compact bone formation
Which of the following choices have the steps of a bone fracture repair in the correct order? soft callous formation, hard callus formation, bone remodeling, hematoma formation hematoma formation, soft callous formation, bone remodeling, hard callus formation soft callous formation, hematoma formation, bone remodeling, hard callus formation hematoma formation, soft callous formation, hard callus formation, bone remodeling
hematoma formation, soft callous formation, hard callus formation, bone remodeling
Jessica's knee is a synovial joint. What type of synovial joint is the knee, and what movements is this joint capable of? hinge joint capable of monaxial movement pivot joint capable of rotation saddle joint capable of biaxial movement ball-and socket-joint capable of triaxial movement
hinge joint capable of monaxial movement
The study of tissues using a microscope is called _______________. Thin sections of tissue are fixed, sliced and then stained to enhance contrast. tissology microbiology cytology histology
histology
An individual who expresses a recessive phenotype must have what genotype? heterozygous homozygous dominant homozygous recessive heterozygous with incomplete dominance
homozygous recessive
All the tendons of the rotator cuff muscles combine at which location? scapula humeral head coranoid process radial tuberosity
humeral head
The most abundant form of cartilage in the body is______. elastic cartilage reticular cartilage hyaline cartilage fibrocartilage
hyaline cartilage
Which of the following is NOT one of the body's chemical buffering systems? phosphate protein bicarbonate hydrochloride
hydrochloride
The only bone that doesn't articulate with any other bone is the ______ bone. pisiform hyoid calcaneous navicular
hyoid
Describe the difference in PCO2 levels between hypercapnia and hypocapnia. hypercapnia is caused by an increase in PCO2 levels whereas hypocapnia is caused by a decrease in PCO2 levels both hypercapnia and hypocapnia are caused by an increase in PCO2 levels hypercapnia is caused by a decrease in PCO2 levels whereas hypocapnia is caused by an increase in PCO2 levels hypercapnia and hypocapnia have no relationship to PCO2 levels
hypercapnia is caused by an increase in PCO2 levels whereas hypocapnia is caused by a decrease in PCO2 levels
Which of the following does NOT result in metabolic alkalosis? decrease in food intake lowered body temperature hyperventilation constipation
hyperventilation
When PCO2 levels increase, carbonic acid forms. What effect does this have on H+ concentration and plasma pH? decreases H+ concentration which increases pH increases H+ concentration which decreases pH increases H+ concentration which increases pH decreases H+ concentration which decreases pH
increases H+ concentration which decreases pH
Which of the following is a renal response to acidosis? excretion of bicarbonate ions hyperventilation formation of urea increasing secretion of hydrogen ions
increasing secretion of hydrogen ions
The umbilicus (navel) is __________ to the chin. superficial lateral dorsal inferior
inferior
Marfan's syndrome is a disorder associated with excessive growth in length of limbs and digits, giving the afflicted individual a tall and lanky appearance. What is the clinical term for bone growth in length? interstitial growth heterotopic ossification appositional growth intramembranous ossification
interstitial growth
What is the difference between Intracellular fluid and Intercellular fluid?
intracellular fluid is located within cells, whereas intercellular fluid is located between cells
DNA __________. is processed to remove introns contains uracil is transcribed into mRNA is non-complementary
is transcribed into mRNA
Which 3 bones are fused together to form the pelvic bone? trapezoid, hamate, lunate ischium, ilium, pubis navicular, cuboid, cuneiform malleus, incus, stapes
ischium, ilium, pubis
A pictorial representation of a cell's paired chromosomes that is used determine chromosome copy numbers and abnormalities is called a/an ______________. chromotype karyotype nucleotype allele representation
karyotype
Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting skin color? keratinocytes carotene melanin dermal blood supply
keratinocytes
Compression fractures associated with osteoporosis of vertebral bodies can distort the normal thoracic curvature of the vertebral column in a posterior direction. Such a distortion is called __________. lordosis spinal stenosis scoliosis kyphosis
kyphosis
When a person has an abnormal spine curvature called ___________, their head and shoulders are positioned forward, but if their stomach muscles are slacked, have hyperextended knees, and flat feet, they most likely have an abnormal spine curvature called ___________. scoliosis/kyphosis lordosis/kyphosis lordosis/scoliosis kyphosis/lordosis
kyphosis/lordosis
What molecule will pyruvate be converted to if inadequate amounts of oxygen are in the cytosol? lactic acid amine pyruvate is not converted to any other molecule lipopolysaccharide
lactic acid
Which cellular component/feature do skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle share? large number of mitochondria presence of striations highly branched cells under involuntary control
large number of mitochondria
Latin words have been used to assign descriptive names to skeletal muscles. When naming muscles, magnus means __________, and brevis means __________. long; small large; small long; short large; short
large; short
What organ may be involved if a person presents with jaundice? gall bladder bone liver spleen
liver
When classifying bones by shape, the humerus is classified as a _______ bone, and _________ are classified as irregular bones. flat; vertebrae flat; short long; vertebrae long; short
long; vertebrae
In some individuals, body fat accumulates almost exclusively in the belly region. Because of the enlarged belly, the individual has a swayback appearance. The clinical term for this distortion of the vertebral curvature is called __________. ossitis kyphosis lordosis scoliosis
lordosis
Excessive diarrhea results in which of the following? loss of bicarbonate, metabolic alkalosis loss of bicarbonate, metabolic acidosis loss of acid, metabolic alkalosis loss of acid, metabolic acidosis
loss of bicarbonate, metabolic acidosis
How do the lungs respond to metabolic acidosis? lungs convert carbonic acid to water lungs decrease respiratory rate lungs secrete H+ lungs increase respiratory rate lungs conserve H+
lungs increase respiratory rate
Which organelle is involved in the destruction of bacteria, old organelles, and the liberation of enzymes? endoplasmic reticulum (ER) centrioles peroxisomes lysosomes
lysosomes
In scientific terms, the three auditory ossicles are called the ______, ______, and _____. hamate; capitate; trapezoid scaphoid; lunate; triquetrum malleus; incus; stapes pisiform; navicular; cuneiform
malleus; incus; stapes
During a particularly stressful point in her life, a student suddenly developed a disorder called temporomandibular joint syndrome. As a result, she frequently experiences pain and grinds her teeth during sleep. Which two bone markings are directly involved in this disorder? mandibular foramen and styloid process mandibular fossa and condylar process mastoid process and mandibular notch coronoid process and external acoustic meatus
mandibular fossa and condylar process
The ________ of CT proper consists of proteins fibers and ground substance. compartment lacunae matrix sub-compartment
matrix
Sinusitis, an inflammation of the paranasal sinuses, is brought on by a viral, bacterial, or fungal infection. The most commonly affected paranasal sinuses are the most inferior ones, which are called __________. ethmoid air cells frontal sinuses sphenoidal sinuses maxillary sinuses
maxillary sinuses
The breast bone (sternum) is ____________ to the ribs. medial dorsal lateral ventral
medial
Why does exposure to sunlight darken skin? melanocytes will produce more pigment in response to UV rays melanocytes will rapidly divide in response to UV rays UV light exposure destroys guard cells making the skin appear darker UV light exposure converts pro-melanin to melanin
melanocytes will produce more pigment in response to UV rays
The most dangerous form of skin cancer is called ___________. squamous cell carcinoma melanoma basal cell carcinoma actinic keratosis
melanoma
An arterial blood gas was performed on a patient and the following results were obtained: pH = 7.29 CO2 = 37 mm Hg HCO3- = 20 mEq/L What type of acid-base imbalance would be indicative of these values? respiratory acidosis respiratory alkalosis metabolic acidosis metabolic alkalosis
metabolic acidosis
Glomerulonephritis can cause an acid-base imbalance called ____________. respiratory alkalosis respiratory acidosis metabolic acidosis metabolic alkalosis
metabolic acidosis
A patient is admitted to the hospital with the following plasma values: pH = 7.2, pCO2 = 25 mmHg, and HCO3 − = 18 mEq/L. What is the acid base imbalance? metabolic acidosis with no compensation respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
Diarrhea can lead to which acid/base disturbance? Assuming compensation, would it be a metabolic or respiratory compensation? respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
Starvation would cause which of the following acid-base conditions? Also, determine what type of compensation (metabolic or respiratory) there would be. metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
An arterial blood gas was performed on a patient and the following results were obtained: pH = 7.48 CO2 = 42 mm Hg HCO3- = 28 mEq/L What type of acid-base imbalance would be indicative of these values? respiratory alkalosis respiratory acidosis metabolic acidosis metabolic alkalosis
metabolic alkalosis
Prolonged vomiting can cause a state of ___________. respiratory acidosis respiratory alkalosis metabolic acidosis metabolic alkalosis
metabolic alkalosis
A patient is admitted to the hospital with the following plasma values: pH = 7.5, pCO2 = 45 mmHg, and HCO3 −− = 30 mEq/L. What is the acid-base imbalance? metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation metabolic alkalosis with no compensation
metabolic alkalosis with no compensation
A friend has acid indigestion after eating a big meal. Which of the following would act as a buffer and help ease his pain? milk of magnesia, with a pH of 10 black coffee, with a pH of 5 pure water, with a pH of 7 cola, with a pH of 3
milk of magnesia, with a pH of 10
Where is electron transport system-generated ATP produced in the cell? mitochondria golgi complex nucleus cytoplasm
mitochondria
What molecule is the final electron acceptor in the ETS? water ATP molecular oxygen carbon dioxide
molecular oxygen
After three days of cleavage, the pre-embryo is a solid ball of cells called a _____________. polar body pre-zygote morula gastrula
morula
In oxidative phosphorylation, energy for the synthesis of ATP is directly obtained from the_______. combination of two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen to form water. splitting of oxygen molecules. oxidation of acetyl-CoA. movement of hydrogen ions through channels in the inner mitochondrial membrane. breaking of the covalent bonds in glucose.
movement of hydrogen ions through channels in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
What is the function of cilia located in the trachea that is lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium? food propulsion movement of mucus absorption of nutrients cell motility
movement of mucus
"Cocking" the myosin head requires energy. What molecule acts as an ATPase to break down ATP for the energy needed to cock the myosin head? sodium actin myosin calcium
myosin
Stress fractures due to running primarily affect the metatarsals. Which of the following bones does NOT articulate with the metatarsals? medial cuneiform navicular proximal phalanx cuboid
navicular
Gerlach used a stain called carmine to stain body tissues, but had a very difficult time staining a certain tissue type. He was finally able to stain the tissue section when he mistakenly left the sample in the stain overnight. What type of tissue type was Gerlach finally able to visualize due to his "error"? dense irregular connective tissue neural dense regular connective tissue reticular tissue
neural
The _________ of the ulna forms the point of your elbow. olecranon medial epicondyl coronoid process radial notch
olecranon
During active AIDS infections, HIV rapidly destroys certain immune cells. Because of this, the immune system becomes compromised and conditions caused by microbes that normally wouldn't harm that individual start to present. These type of infections are considered ____________ infections. commensal symbiotic opportunistic mutualistic
opportunistic
When a man experiences testicular cancer, treatment plans may include chemotherapy, radiation, and the removal of one or both testicles. What is the scientific term for surgical removal of the testes? testectomy vasectomy mastectomy orchidectomy
orchidectomy
Inflammation of one or both of the testicles is called __________. testicular dysplasia testitis urethritis orchitis
orchitis
Physicians draw on numerous sources of information on patient health. The function of lungs, for instance, can be checked through careful listening with a stethoscope. Such practice is called auscultation and falls under which of the following particular physiological specialties? cell physiology histology systemic physiology organ physiology
organ physiology
A group of organs working together perform a specific function forms the level of organization called the_________________. organ level organ system level molecular level organismal level
organ system level
Immature bone cells that secrete osteoid are called _________, and bone stem cells are called ___________. osteoblasts; osteoclasts osteocytes; osteoclasts osteoblasts; osteogenic cells osteons; osteocytes
osteoblasts; osteogenic cells
Mature bone cells that maintain the bone matrix are called _______, and multinucleated cells that dissolve the bone matrix are called _________. osteocytes; osteoclasts osteoblasts; osteoclasts osteoblasts; osteogenic cells osteons; osteocytes
osteocytes; osteoclasts
What phosphorylation mechanism is used to generate ATP in the ETS? photophosphorylation oxidative phosphorylation substrate-level phosphorylation both substrate-level and oxidative phosphorylation
oxidative phosphorylation
When a molecule is _______ it loses electrons, and when a molecule is ______ it gains electrons. sad; happy oxidized; reduced a free radical; neutral reduced oxidized
oxidized; reduced
What is the normal pH range of extracellular fluid? pH 7.0-7.35 pH 7.0-7.55 pH 6.35-7.5 pH 7.35-7.45
pH 7.35-7.45
What is the effect of increased plasma PCO2 on pH? there is no effect on plasma pH the pH increases, then returns to normal pH decreases pH increases
pH decreases
What is the effect of decreased plasma PCO2 on pH? pH increases pH decreases there is no effect on plasma pH the pH decreases, then returns to normal
pH increases
What happens to pH when PCO2 increases above 45 mm Hg? pH will stay the same. pH will fall below 7.35. pH will rise above 7.4. pH will fall from 7.4 to 7.35.
pH will fall below 7.35.
Which layer of the cutaneous membrane lies directly inferior to the epidermis? elastic layer of the dermis reticular layer of the dermis papillary layer of the dermis hypodermis
papillary layer of the dermis
While skateboarding, a young person suffered a fracture of the nose that resulted in a deviated septum. Which of the following bones or bone markings is most likely attended to during corrective surgery following this accident? palatine process of the maxilla greater wings of the sphenoid perpendicular plate of the ethmoid lacrimal bone
perpendicular plate of the ethmoid
Are environmental factors more likely to affect genotype or phenotype? Environmental factors can't affect either one. genotype phenotype They can affect both equally.
phenotype
Which of the following is NOT a formed element? platelets RBCs WBCs plasma
plasma
During oogenesis, two or three nonfunctional cells are produced that will eventually disintegrate. What is the name of these cells? polar bodies thecal cells nurse cells Leydig cells
polar bodies
In scientific terms, the thumb is the _________, and the big "great" toe is the __________. pisiform; cuneiform pollex; hallux hamate; scaphoid navicular; capitate
pollex; hallux
What type of trait inheritance occurs when the phenotype of an individual is determined by interaction among the alleles of several genes? variance codominance polygenic inheritance incomplete dominance
polygenic inheritance
Each mRNA strand codes for one________. nucleotide nucleic acid amino acid polypeptide
polypeptide
Fertilization of an egg by more than one sperm would create a zygote that is incapable of normal development. This phenomenon is called ______________. eclampsia polyspermy amphimixis pellucidation
polyspermy
Which of the following is least likely to result in a genetic mutation? errors in DNA replication drugs poor health radiation
poor health
The ball and socket joint in the hip is similar to the ball and socket joint of the shoulder but is designed more for __________ than ___________. speed; precision precision; speed power; precision precision; power
power; precision
Movement of the forearm includes __________. flexion and extension extension and pronation pronation and supination supination and flexion
pronation and supination
Frank is experiencing difficulty urinating, painful urination, low back pain and a slight fever. The doctor prescribes antibiotics and Frank recovers. It is likely that Frank suffered from_______. a circumcision. prostatitis. impotence. prostate cancer. a vasectomy.
prostatitis.
What is the function of Langerhans cells (dendritic cells) which are located in the stratum spinosum? protect the skin from UV rays by producing skin pigmentation protect the body from microbes and help in the immune response against superficial skin cancer produce a tough protein called keratin that helps to waterproof the skin produce sweat excreted from apocrine glands
protect the body from microbes and help in the immune response against superficial skin cancer
Which of the buffer systems buffers pH in the ICF and ECF? protein buffer systems carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system phosphate buffer system All of the listed responses are correct.
protein buffer systems
A marked loss in strength and elasticity of connective tissue characterizes Marfan's syndrome. Which connective tissue component imparts strength and elasticity? fibroblasts adipocytes proteinaceous connective tissue fibers ground substance
proteinaceous connective tissue fibers
When in a woman's life span do secondary oocytes begin to be produced? birth prepubescence puberty 2-3 years of age
puberty
What occurs during bone remodeling? removal of existing bone by osteoclasts and the deposition of new bone by osteoblasts removal of existing bone by osteocytes and the deposition of new bone by osteogenic cells removal of existing bone by osteoclasts and the deposition of new bone by osteogenic cells removal of existing bone by osteoblasts and the deposition of new bone by osteoclasts
removal of existing bone by osteoclasts and the deposition of new bone by osteoblasts
Which of the following has the greatest capacity for pH change in the body? renal system respiratory system digestive system endocrine system
renal system
An arterial blood gas was performed on a patient and the following results were obtained: pH = 7.2 CO2 = 55 mm Hg HCO3- = 24 mEq/L What type of acid-base imbalance would be indicative of these values? metabolic alkalosis metabolic acidosis respiratory acidosis respiratory alkalosis
respiratory acidosis
An arterial blood gas was performed on a patient and the following results were obtained: pH = 7.30 CO2 = 47 mm Hg HCO3- = 25 mEq/L What type of acid-base imbalance would be indicative of these values? respiratory acidosis metabolic acidosis respiratory alkalosis metabolic alkalosis
respiratory acidosis
Emphysema, congestive heart failure, and pneumonia can result in a condition of _____________. respiratory acidosis respiratory alkalosis metabolic acidosis metabolic alkalosis
respiratory acidosis
Hypercapnia resulting from cardiac arrest, or drowning victims causes a condition of ______________. metabolic alkalosis metabolic acidosis respiratory acidosis respiratory alkalosis
respiratory acidosis
Respiratory centers that have been desensitized by barbiturates or alcohol can result in a condition of _____________. respiratory alkalosis respiratory acidosis metabolic alkalosis metabolic acidosis
respiratory acidosis
A patient is admitted to the hospital with the following plasma values: pH = 7.2, pCO2 = 55 mmHg, and HCO3 −− = 30 mEq/L. What is the acid base imbalance? metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
Emphysema can lead to which acid/base disturbance? What would be the compensation? metabolic acidosis; hypoventilation by the lungs respiratory acidosis; hyperventilation respiratory alkalosis; kidneys will retain more H+ and excrete HCO3 −− respiratory acidosis; kidneys will retain more HCO3 −− and excrete H+
respiratory acidosis; kidneys will retain more HCO3 −− and excrete H+
An arterial blood gas was performed on a patient and the following results were obtained: pH = 7.55 CO2 = 30 mm Hg HCO3- = 23 mEq/L What type of acid-base imbalance would be indicative of these values? metabolic alkalosis metabolic acidosis respiratory alkalosis respiratory acidosis
respiratory alkalosis
Hypocapnia caused by pain or severe anxiety results in a condition of _____________. respiratory acidosis metabolic acidosis respiratory alkalosis metabolic alkalosis
respiratory alkalosis
The dermis is composed of the papillary layer and the __________. reticular layer epidermis cutaneous plexus hypodermis
reticular layer
Which type of arthritis could be treated by all of the following medications: steroids, standard DMARDs, and biologic DMARDs. dysplastic arthritis rheumatoid arthritis osteoarthritis gouty arthritis
rheumatoid arthritis
Which of the following rib descriptions is FALSE? rib pairs 8-10 are called vertebrochondral ribs rib pairs 8-12 are called "false ribs" rib pairs 1-8 are called vertebrosternal ribs rib pairs 11-12 are called "floating ribs"
rib pairs 1-8 are called vertebrosternal ribs
What is the name of the sugar in the mRNA nucleotides? glucose deoxyribose ribose maltose
ribose
What organelle assists tRNA in translating the mRNA in the cytoplasm? mitochondria golgi apparatus ribosome nucleus
ribosome
Which suture separates the right and left parietal bones? coronal squamous sagittal lambdoid
sagittal
An abnormal lateral ("side-to-side") curvature of the spine is called _________, When this curvature occurs for an unknown reason, it is referred to as ___________. scoliosis; idiopathic kyphosis; cryptic kyphosis; idiopathic scoliosis; cryptic
scoliosis; idiopathic
Various types of epithelial tissues are classified by the ____________ of individual cells and the number of _________ that form the tissue. organelle distribution; cell layers density; collagen fibers layers; collagen fibers shape; cell layers
shape; cell layers
Using your knowledge of scientific root words, joint movements, and how muscles are named, what is the description and function of the extensor hallicus brevis muscle? small muscle that extends the big toe short muscle that extends the thumb small muscle that extends the thumb short muscle that extends the big toe
short muscle that extends the big toe
When classifying bones by shape, carpal bones are classified as _______ bones, and the _________ is classified as a sesamoid bone. irregular; patella short; patella irregular; flat short; flat
short; patella
The proximal tubule of the nephron (kidney tubule) in the kidney is composed of which type of epithelium? simple cuboidal epithelium ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium stratified squamous epithelium
simple cuboidal epithelium
Which type of epithelia would have the least protective function? stratified cuboidal simple squamous transitional pseudostratified columnar
simple squamous
The wall of the alveolus (air sac) in the lung is composed of which type of epithelium? transitional epithelium simple squamous epithelium simple columnar epithelium
simple squamous epithelium
What tissue type comprises the alveoli of the lung? elastic tissue elastic cartilage simple squamous epithelium simple cuboidal epithelium
simple squamous epithelium
What muscle type has striations, and is under voluntary control? cardiac smooth reticular skeletal
skeletal
Which of the three muscle cell types has multiple nuclei? cardiac smooth skeletal
skeletal
Which type of muscle tissue is comprised of multinucleated, striated cells that are under voluntary control? smooth elastic cardiac skeletal
skeletal
Which type of muscle tissue is comprised of cells that lack striations? skeletal cardiac smooth elastic
smooth
Which part of the neuron (a specialized nerve cell) receives signals from other cells and is also the main metabolic region of the neuron? dendrites soma axon
soma
The only cell in the human body that has a flagellum is a(n)________. Leydig cell oocyte sperm nurse cell
sperm
Male reproductive stem cells are called ____________. spermatoblasts spermatogenic cells Leydig cells spermatogonia
spermatogonia
During spermatogenesis, the process in which spermatids differentiate into physically mature sperm is called____________. spermiogenesis spermiomaturation spermiolation spermioregulation
spermiogenesis
Describe the body pose of someone who is in the anatomical position. standing erect, hands outstretched, palms pointed upward, toes pointing forward standing erect, hands at sides, palms pointed forward, toes pointing forward standing erect, hands at sides, palms pointed backward, toes pointing forward standing erect, hands outstretched, palms pointed downward, toes pointing forward
standing erect, hands at sides, palms pointed forward, toes pointing forward
Epididymitis can be caused by a number of different pathogens. Untreated epididymitis can result in ___________. pregnancy sterility menses overproduction of gametes
sterility
Melanocytes __________. are located in the stratum corneum manufacture melanin from the amino acid alanine are not found in albino individuals store melanin in melanosomes
store melanin in melanosomes
The epithelium of the esophagus is composed of which type of epithelial tissue? keratinized stratified squamous epithelium stratified squamous epithelium simple columnar epithelium
stratified squamous epithelium
In which layer of the skin are melanocytes found? stratum spinosum stratum basale stratum corneum stratum lucidum stratum granulosum
stratum basale
What layer of the epidermis contains melanocytes, Merkel cells, and stem cells? stratum basale stratum corneum stratum spinosum stratum granulosum
stratum basale
Which of the following is the correct order of epidermal layers of thick skin from deep to superficial? stratum lucidum, stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum corneum stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum basale, stratum corneum stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum stratum corneum, stratum spinosum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum basale
stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum
Which layer of the epidermis is the thickest layer? stratum corneum stratum granulosum stratum basale stratum spinosum
stratum corneum
One function of the cytoskeleton is to provide __________. energy production strength and integrity to the cell sensitivity the division of the cell
strength and integrity to the cell
What type of trait inheritance occurs when one allele dominates the second allele and determines the phenotype? codominance strict dominance incomplete dominance polygenic dominance
strict dominance
The citric acid cycle produces two ATP molecules from GTP. What type of phosphorylation process is used to create the ATP during this step? substrate level phosphorylation reductive phosphorylation oxidative phosphorylation photophosphorylation
substrate level phosphorylation
When classifying bones by shape, small, flat, oddly-shaped bones located between flat bones of the skull are called _______ bones. sub-flat sutural short sesamoid
sutural
What functional category is a fibrous gomphosis? syndesmosis amphiarthrosis synarthrosis diarthrosis
synarthrosis
A cartilaginous, immovable joint that joins two adjacent bones is called a ___________. symphysis synostosis synchrondrosis syndesmosis
synchrondrosis
Epiphyseal lines of mature long bones are examples of immoveable, bony __________. synchondroses sutures gomphoses synostoses
synostoses
The fluid within bursae functions to cushion structures in or around a joint. In bursitis, excessive fluid accumulates and joint movements become painful. What is the name of this fluid within healthy bursae? synovial fluid sebum pus plasma
synovial fluid
What molecule possesses an anticodon? tRNA mRNA sRNA rRNA
tRNA
Which DNA strand is utilized for the synthesis of an mRNA molecule? intermediate strand coding strand template strand codon strand
template strand
During contraction, the entire skeletal muscle shortens and produces a pull, called ______, on the tendons on either end of the muscle. flexion tension tautness strain
tension
When an action potential travels along the sarcolemma, it triggers the release of calcium ions by the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). What part of the SR releases calcium? terminal cisternae Z line T tubule medial sulcus
terminal cisternae
Ovarian cancer is a cancer of the female gonads. Therefore, ovarian cancer is to women as __________ cancer is to men. prostate cancer colon cancer testicular cancer penile cancer
testicular cancer
Which of the following groups of muscles are not muscles of the shoulder? the anterior flexor muscles muscles that act on the pectoral girdle the rotator cuff muscles muscles that stabilize and cross the glenohumeral joint
the anterior flexor muscles
The carbon dioxide released by the lungs into the atmosphere was very likely produced within __________. glycolysis the electron transport system formation of pyruvic acid the citric acid cycle
the citric acid cycle
What effect does complete enzyme denaturation have on enzyme activity? the enzyme will require a different cofactor the enzyme will lose activity the enzyme will greatly increase in activity enzyme denaturation has no effect on enzyme activity
the enzyme will lose activity
A torn lateral collateral ligament destabilizes the connection between which of the following bones? the femur and the tibia the femur and the heads of the tibia and fibula the femur and the fibula the patella and the tibia
the femur and the fibula
Which of the following layers is targeted by liposuction? the papillary layer of the dermis the reticular layer of the dermis the stratum corneum of the epidermis the hypodermis
the hypodermis
Cervical cancer could spread to other reproductive structures. Which of the following structures is furthest from the cervix? the fundus of the uterus the infundibulum of the uterine tubes the vagina the uterine isthmus
the infundibulum of the uterine tubes
During a weightlifting event, a participant suffered a painful injury involving a connective tissue pad on the lateral border of his left knee. Which structure is most likely the one that got damaged? the lateral meniscus the fibular collateral ligament the medial meniscus the lateral collateral ligament
the lateral meniscus
There currently is no cure for OI, and treatments are often aimed at preventing or controlling symptoms. One common treatment is rodding surgery, where a metal rod is inserted into a long bone to strengthen and prevent deformity. Using what you know about the structure of a typical long bone, what part of the long bone is the most likely place for this rod to be inserted? the proximal epiphysis the distal epiphysis the compact bone of the diaphysis the medullary cavity of the diaphysis
the medullary cavity of the diaphysis
Connective tissue proper is divided into loose and dense. What structure determines if it is classified as loose of dense connective tissue proper? the number of mast cells in its ground substance the number of neutrophils in its ground substance the number of fibroblasts in its ground substance the number of fibers in its ground substance
the number of fibers in its ground substance
Acetylcholine binds to its receptor in the sarcolemma and triggers __________. the opening of ligand-gated anion channels the opening of ligand-gated cation channels the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels the opening of calcium-release channels
the opening of ligand-gated cation channels
Healthy skin cells require a constant supply of blood. In decubitus ulcers, or bed sores, this blood supply is hindered because superficial blood vessels are compressed. Which layer(s) of the skin hold(s) such compressed blood vessels? the papillary and reticular layers of the dermis the stratum basale of the epidermis the stratum spinosum of the epidermis All of the listed answers are correct.
the papillary and reticular layers of the dermis
Which joint is considered the most flexible joint in the body? the wrist joint the elbow joint the shoulder joint the hip joint
the shoulder joint
The stratum lucidum is only found in thick skin. What is another difference when comparing thick skin to regular (thin) skin? thick skin has a thicker stratum corneum thick skin has a thicker stratum spinosum thick skin has basal cells in all skin layers, except for the stratum lucidum thick skin has more melanocy
thick skin has a thicker stratum corneum
Muscles that act on the knee joint form most of the mass of the __________. knee thigh hip calf
thigh
Which of the following is NOT a white blood cell? neutrophil thrombocyte eosinophil monocyte
thrombocyte
The central dogma of molecular biology states that DNA is ____________ into mRNA, and mRNA is _____________ into protein. The first step of mRNA synthesis from DNA utilizes the enzyme _________________. transcribed/translated/RNA polymerase translated/transcribed/RNA polymerase translated/transcribed/DNA polymerase transcribed/translated/DNA polymerase
transcribed/translated/RNA polymerase
What is name given to the regularly spaced infoldings of the sarcolemma? motor endplates terminal cisternae transverse or T tubules sarcoplasmic reticulum
transverse or T tubules
Some chromosomal disorders such as Edwards syndrome and Patau syndrome are caused by having an extra copy of a chromosome. Having an extra chromosome copy is called ___________. disomy monosomy trisomy tetrasomy
trisomy
_______ covers the active sites of actin prior to calcium binding to troponin. tropomyosin titan troponin myosin
tropomyosin
The wrist exhibits biaxial movement, which means that it moves in _____ planes. two four three all
two
Ketoacidosis is usually a result of _______. uncontrolled diabetes mellitus an increase in food intake vomiting
uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
Transitional epithelia is located in the ___________. liver urinary bladder spleen kidneys
urinary bladder
Pre-embryotic cleavage that occurs during the first four days after fertilization takes place in what female reproductive structure? fimbriae uterus uterine tube ovary
uterine tube
Another term for "anterior" is __________. cranial caudal ventral dorsal
ventral
Which class of acid will have an increased concentration in someone who is suffocating? organic acids volatile acidsf ixed acids Suffocation does not affect any body acids.
volatile acids
What molecule is produced when the final electron acceptor in the ETS gains the required electrons? carbon dioxide glucose water molecular oxygen
water
A temporary state of metabolic alkalosis results from a normal biological process called alkaline tide. When does alkaline tide occur? when an individual is exercising when an individual is urinating when an individual is sleeping when an individual is eating
when an individual is eating
At day ten post fertilization, the primary nutrient source that will provide for the inner cell mass during the next two weeks is formed and is called the _________. amnion ectoderm yolk sac placenta
yolk sac
