AEMT Test 2 Questions
A 27-year-old male complains of an acute onset of abdominal pain. He is found curled in a fetal position with his right knee drawn up into his abdomen. This position is most commonly seen in patients with acute: Select one: A. appendicitis. B. cholecystitis. C. pancreatitis. D. gastroenteritis.
A. appendicitis.
A 70-year-old male presents with acute aphasia, unilateral weakness, and confusion. You should: Select one: A. assess his blood glucose level to rule out hypoglycemia. B. use the Cincinnati Stroke Scale to rule out a stroke. C. start an IV line with a hypertonic crystalloid solution. D. apply an AED in case the patient develops cardiac arrest.
A. assess his blood glucose level to rule out hypoglycemia.
Intracellular and extracellular fluid account for what percentage of total body weight? Select one: A. 60% B. 70% C. 80% D. 50%
A. 60%
If you administered naloxone (Narcan) to a patient who overdosed on morphine, what effect would occur? Select one: A. Antagonism B. Cross-tolerance C. Hypersensitivity D. Potentiation
A. Antagonism
If you administered naloxone (Narcan) to a patient who overdosed on morphine, what effect would occur? Select one: A. Antagonism B. Hypersensitivity C. Potentiation D. Cross-tolerance
A. Antagonism
Which of the following is not a component of the cardiac electrical conduction system? Select one: A. Interatrial septum B. Sinoatrial node C. Atrioventricular node D. Purkinje fibers
A. Interatrial septum
A 70-year-old male presents with an acute onset of difficulty breathing that woke him from his sleep. He has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and several heart attacks. During your assessment, you note dried blood around his mouth. The patient tells you that he cannot lie down because he will "smother." What additional assessment findings will you most likely discover? Select one: A. Pulmonary rales B. Fever and chills C. Slow respiratory rate D. Diffuse wheezing
A. Pulmonary rales
A 66-year-old male with congestive heart failure presents with pulmonary edema and difficulty breathing. His blood pressure is 180/90 mm Hg and his pulse rate is 110 beats/min and irregular. When starting an IV, which of the following, if available, would be most appropriate for this patient? Select one: A. Saline lock B. 14-gauge angiocath C. Butterfly catheter D. Intracath
A. Saline lock
Ventricular tachycardia is: Select one: A. a rapid contraction of the ventricles that does not allow for normal filling of the heart. B. the disorganized quivering of the ventricles that does not produce forward blood flow. C. a variation of a normal rhythm in which the SA node is still the dominant pacemaker. D. generated by multiple ectopic foci that originate between the atria and the ventricles.
A. a rapid contraction of the ventricles that does not allow for normal filling of the heart.
A 22-year-old female with type 1 diabetes is unresponsive and has a blood glucose level of 29 mg/dL. She is receiving high-flow oxygen, and several attempts to establish IV access have failed. You should: Select one: A. administer 0.5 to 1 mg of glucagon via the intramuscular route. B. place small amounts of oral glucose between her cheek and gum. C. call for a paramedic unit so they can establish intraosseous access. D. begin transport and continue to attempt IV access en route.
A. administer 0.5 to 1 mg of glucagon via the intramuscular route.
You are dispatched to an assisted-living center for a 67-year-old male with "mental status changes." You arrive at the scene and begin to assess the patient. He is responsive to painful stimuli only, has rapid and shallow breathing, and a slow radial pulse. You should: Select one: A. begin assisting the patient's ventilations. B. apply a nonrebreathing mask set at 15 L/min. C. assess his blood glucose level and start an IV. D. start an IV and administer a fluid bolus.
A. begin assisting the patient's ventilations.
An ischemic stroke is most often the result of a(n): Select one: A. blocked cerebral artery. B. sudden cerebral vasospasm. C. intracerebral hemorrhage. D. cerebral embolism.
A. blocked cerebral artery.
Factors that alter a patient's response to a drug include: Select one: A. body mass and psychological factors. B. the route of administration. C. over-the-counter versus prescription. D. the type of drug given.
A. body mass and psychological factors.
Unlike the honeybee, wasps and hornets: Select one: A. can sting multiple times, because their stinger is not left imbedded in the skin. B. have a barbed stinger, which will remain imbedded in the skin. C. have weaker venom, which is less likely to cause anaphylactic shock. D. are typically easier to identify as the species that caused an allergic reaction.
A. can sting multiple times, because their stinger is not left imbedded in the skin.
Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they: Select one: A. cough. B. vomit. C. have a fever. D. are bleeding.
A. cough.
A 30-year-old male presents with respiratory distress that began within minutes of being exposed to an unknown chemical at an industrial site. When caring for this patient, it is most important to remember that: Select one: A. he must be properly decontaminated first. B. he will likely require frequent suctioning. C. inhalation injuries can cause aspiration pneumonia. D. aggressive airway management may be needed.
A. he must be properly decontaminated first.
Perfusion depends on adequate cardiac output, which is calculated as: Select one: A. heart rate times stroke volume. B. afterload times blood pressure. C. blood pressure minus heart rate. D. preload times heart rate.
A. heart rate times stroke volume.
Benzodiazepines are a classification of medication that are used to: Select one: A. induce sedation. B. relieve pain. C. reduce fatigue. D. increase heart rate.
A. induce sedation.
The ________ is a solid organ. Select one: A. ovary B. stomach C. gallbladder D. urinary bladder
A. ovary
Factors that increase the risk for developing MRSA include: Select one: A. prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit. B. a history of a respiratory illness within the past 6 to 8 weeks. C. prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. D. failure to be vaccinated against any strain of hepatitis.
A. prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit
During your assessment of an elderly woman, you note a shunt on her left forearm. This indicates that she: Select one: A. receives hemodialysis treatments. B. receives chemotherapy for cancer. C. has had numerous IVs in her forearm. D. has had peritoneal dialysis in the past.
A. receives hemodialysis treatments.
Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by: Select one: A. repeating the primary survey. B. taking another set of vital signs. C. reviewing all treatment performed. D. reassessing the nature of the illness.
A. repeating the primary survey.
After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to: Select one: A. take standard precautions. B. notify law enforcement. C. contact medical control. D. quickly access the patient.
A. take standard precautions.
During your assessment of a 39-year-old female with acute abdominal pain, you note the presence of diffuse pain while palpating her abdomen. With this information, you: Select one: A. should suspect that she has blood in the retroperitoneal space. B. cannot identify the underlying organ that is causing the pain. C. may be able to localize the problem organ or area causing her pain. D. can conclude that the upper abdominal organs are inflamed.
B. cannot identify the underlying organ that is causing the pain.
The spinal nerves branch out from the spinal cord and: Select one: A. are only capable of sensory input. B. carry signals to and from the body. C. send motor responses to the brain. D. send messages exclusively to the brain.
B. carry signals to and from the body.
Which of the following types of shock are caused by "relative hypovolemia"? Select one: A. Cardiogenic and hemorrhagic B. Anaphylactic and neurogenic C. Obstructive and septic D. Septic and cardiogenic
B. Anaphylactic and neurogenic
In addition to administering supplemental oxygen, what is the most appropriate management for a patient with circulatory overload caused by excessive IV fluid administration? Select one: A. Head lowered, medical control notified B. Head elevated, medical control notified C. Lateral recumbent position, event documented D. Trendelenburg's position, event documented
B. Head elevated, medical control notified
What is the most significant drawback to cannulating a scalp vein in a child with a butterfly catheter? Select one: A. It is aesthetically unpleasant. B. It does not allow for rapid fluid administration. C. It causes apprehension for the family. D. Scalp veins are often difficult to cannulate.
B. It does not allow for rapid fluid administration.
Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct? Select one: A. Most patients who are infected with HIV experience chronic symptoms that vary in duration and severity. B. The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream. C. The risk of HIV infection is high, even if an infected person's blood comes in contact with your intact skin. D. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B and is easily transmitted in the health care setting.
B. The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream.
Which of the following statements regarding pulmonary respiration is correct? Select one: A. There are fewer carbon dioxide molecules in the blood than in inhaled air; therefore, carbon dioxide moves from the blood into the alveoli. B. There are more oxygen molecules in the alveoli than in the blood; therefore, the oxygen molecules move from the alveoli into the blood. C. There are more carbon dioxide molecules in inhaled air than in the blood; therefore, carbon dioxide moves from the alveoli into the blood. D. There are fewer oxygen molecules in the alveoli than in the blood; therefore, the oxygen molecules move from the blood into the alveoli.
B. There are more oxygen molecules in the alveoli than in the blood; therefore, the oxygen molecules move from the alveoli into the blood.
Which of the following injuries or conditions would be least likely to result in hypovolemic shock? Select one: A. Blunt abdominal trauma B. Widespread vasodilation C. Severe thermal burns D. Nausea and vomiting
B. Widespread vasodilation
A 30-year-old man presents with widespread urticaria after being bitten numerous times by fire ants. He is conscious and alert and denies respiratory distress. Further assessment reveals that his breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. He tells you that his wife has a prescribed epinephrine auto-injector because she is allergic to hornets. However, he does not have a prescribed auto-injector of his own. You should: Select one: A. request a paramedic unit to administer epinephrine. B. administer oxygen as needed and transport promptly. C. assist him in self-administering his wife's epinephrine. D. refer him to his primary care physician for epinephrine.
B. administer oxygen as needed and transport promptly.
You are assessing a 62-year-old female who has an automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator (AICD). As you are applying oxygen to her, she becomes unconscious, pulseless, and apneic. You should: Select one: A. begin CPR and insert a multilumen airway device. B. begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. C. allow the AICD to defibrillate her and start CPR. D. deactivate the AICD with a magnet and begin CPR.
B. begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.
In contrast to anaphylaxis, an anaphylactoid reaction: Select one: A. typically does not present with respiratory symptoms. B. can occur without previous exposure to the offending agent. C. is typically not life-threatening and does not require epinephrine. D. is classified as a response mediated by IgE antibodies.
B. can occur without previous exposure to the offending agent.
Shortly following a meal, a 49-year-old female complains of acute pain to the right upper quadrant of her abdomen with referred pain to her right shoulder. This is most suggestive of acute: Select one: A. pyelonephritis. B. cholecystitis. C. appendicitis. D. pancreatitis.
B. cholecystitis.
The movement and utilization of oxygen in the body is dependent on all of the following, except: Select one: A. adequate number of functional erythrocytes. B. effective alveolar-capillary osmosis. C. adequate concentration of inspired oxygen. D. efficient off-loading of oxygen in the tissues.
B. effective alveolar-capillary osmosis.
When performing a secondary assessment on a responsive patient with nontraumatic abdominal pain and stable vital signs, you should: Select one: A. only palpate tender areas of the abdomen. B. focus on his or her chief complaint. C. prepare the patient for transport first. D. examine him or her from head to toe.
B. focus on his or her chief complaint.
A solution that hydrates the cells while depleting the vascular compartment is referred to as being: Select one: A. hyperosmolar. B. hypotonic. C. hypertonic. D. isotonic.
B. hypotonic.
The alpha1 effects of norepinephrine result in: Select one: A. a regulated release of alpha2. B. increased peripheral vascular resistance. C. profound bronchoconstriction. D. dilation of the arteries and veins.
B. increased peripheral vascular resistance.
Reconstituting a drug, such as glucagon, involves: Select one: A. diluting a medication with at least 20 mL of saline prior to administration. B. injecting liquid from one vial into another vial that already contains powder. C. placing at least 10 mL of saline into a vial that contains powdered medication. D. injecting liquid from one vial into another vial that contains liquid medication.
B. injecting liquid from one vial into another vial that already contains powder.
In contrast to an epidemic, a pandemic: Select one: A. is usually confined to a specific geographic location. B. is a disease outbreak that occurs on a global scale. C. is a disease for which a vaccine is readily available. D. occurs in more of the population than was expected.
B. is a disease outbreak that occurs on a global scale.
Your general impression of a 50-year-old man with acute abdominal pain reveals that he is confused and has pale, diaphoretic skin. After correcting any problems with airway, breathing, and circulation, your main focus should be on: Select one: A. assessing his vital signs. B. prompt transport to the hospital. C. administering IV fluid boluses. D. performing a secondary assessment.
B. prompt transport to the hospital.
Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by: Select one: A. irregular tachypnea with occasional periods of apnea. B. rapid and slow breathing with alternating apneic periods. C. impaired respirations with sustained inspiratory effort. D. rapid and deep breathing with an acetone breath odor.
B. rapid and slow breathing with alternating apneic periods.
Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by: Select one: A. reviewing all treatment performed. B. repeating the primary survey. C. taking another set of vital signs. D. reassessing the nature of the illness.
B. repeating the primary survey.
After applying the AED to your cardiac arrest patient, you receive a "shock advised" message. You should: Select one: A. perform CPR for 2 minutes and then reanalyze. B. resume CPR as the defibrillator is charging. C. reanalyze again before you deliver the shock. D. check to ensure the pads are correctly placed.
B. resume CPR as the defibrillator is charging.
You are dispatched to a residence for a 60-year-old diabetic male who is unresponsive. As you are assessing the patient, your partner attempts to obtain a blood glucose reading; however, the glucometer reads "error" after two attempts. You should: Select one: A. administer oral glucose in between his cheek and gum. B. start an IV and administer 50 mL of 50% dextrose. C. transport rapidly to the closest appropriate facility. D. treat him for hyperglycemia with severe ketoacidosis.
B. start an IV and administer 50 mL of 50% dextrose
Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is a procedure in which: Select one: A. the affected coronary artery is bypassed by way of a graft. B. the coronary artery is mechanically cleared via angioplasty. C. medications are given in order to increase cardiac contractility. D. the coronary thrombus is destroyed with a fibrinolytic agent.
B. the coronary artery is mechanically cleared via angioplasty.
During a seizure, neurons are in a hypermetabolic state. This means that: Select one: A. the cells have converted to aerobic metabolism and are producing CO2. B. they are using large amounts of glucose and producing lactic acid. C. brain cell death occurs in as little as 60 seconds after a seizure begins. D. electrical impulses travel from one neuron to another very slowly.
B. they are using large amounts of glucose and producing lactic acid.
Which of the following most accurately describes the correct sequence of events after attaching an AED to a patient in cardiac arrest and pushing the analyze button? Select one: A. "No shock advised" message, stand clear, reanalyze, "no shock advised" message, perform CPR for 2 minutes B. "No shock advised" message, check pulse for up to 10 seconds, resume CPR, reanalyze after 2 minutes C. "Shock advised" message, stand clear, defibrillate, immediately resume CPR, reanalyze after 2 minutes D. "Shock advised" message, stand clear, defibrillate, perform CPR for 1 minute, stand clear, reanalyze, defibrillate if needed
C. "Shock advised" message, stand clear, defibrillate, immediately resume CPR, reanalyze after 2 minutes
During a long-distance transport, you initiate an IV of normal saline and infuse 125 mL over 2 hours. Using microdrip tubing, how many drops per minute (gtt/min) is your IV flow rate set at? Select one: A. 39 gtt/min B. 53 gtt/min C. 63 gtt/min D. 58 gtt/min
C. 63 gtt/min
You are caring for a 27-year-old male with suspected ketoacidosis. He is unresponsive and his blood glucose level, as measured by glucometer, reads "high." His blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, pulse is 130 beats/min and weak, and respirations are 40 breaths/min and shallow. Which of the following represents the most appropriate treatment approach? Select one: A. Oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, 10-mL/kg crystalloid boluses to maintain perfusion, and prompt transport B. Assisted ventilation, 0.5 to 1 mg of glucagon IM, 20-mL/kg crystalloid boluses to maintain perfusion, and transport C. Assisted ventilation, 20-mL/kg crystalloid boluses to maintain perfusion, transport, and consider an advanced airway D. Oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, an IV of normal saline set to keep the vein open, 50 mL of D50, and rapid transport
C. Assisted ventilation, 20-mL/kg crystalloid boluses to maintain perfusion, transport, and consider an advanced airway
Which of the following is not a physiologic effect of sympathetic nervous system stimulation? Select one: A. Dilated pupils B. Reduced digestion C. Decreased heart rate D. Vasoconstriction
C. Decreased heart rate
Which of the following pain patterns is most consistent with kidney stones? Select one: A. Localized costovertebral angle tenderness B. Flank pain with referred pain to the shoulders C. Flank pain that radiates to the groin D. Retropubic pain without radiation
C. Flank pain that radiates to the groin
Which of the following statements regarding hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS) is correct? Select one: A. Most cases of HHS are caused by severe overhydration. B. Pneumonia and urinary tract infections are often caused by HHS. C. HHS is not associated with a fruity odor on the patient's breath. D. HHS most often occurs in patients with type 1 diabetes.
C. HHS is not associated with a fruity odor on the patient's breath.
In addition to administering supplemental oxygen, what is the most appropriate management for a patient with circulatory overload caused by excessive IV fluid administration? Select one: A. Trendelenburg's position, event documented B. Head lowered, medical control notified C. Head elevated, medical control notified D. Lateral recumbent position, event documented
C. Head elevated, medical control notified
Which of the following signs indicate narcotic-induced CNS depression and would indicate the administration of naloxone? Select one: A. Hyperventilation B. Violent behavior C. Hypoventilation D. Tachycardia
C. Hypoventilation
Which of the following signs indicate narcotic-induced CNS depression and would indicate the administration of naloxone? Select one: A. Violent behavior B. Hyperventilation C. Hypoventilation D. Tachycardia
C. Hypoventilation
What is the most significant drawback to cannulating a scalp vein in a child with a butterfly catheter? Select one: A. It is aesthetically unpleasant. B. It causes apprehension for the family. C. It does not allow for rapid fluid administration. D. Scalp veins are often difficult to cannulate.
C. It does not allow for rapid fluid administration.
Which of the following conditions would most likely mimic the signs and symptoms of an acute ischemic stroke? Select one: A. Hyperglycemic ketoacidosis B. Ruptured cerebral aneurysm C. Low blood glucose level D. Severe intracranial pressure
C. Low blood glucose level
Which of the following medications is administered in gel form? Select one: A. Activated charcoal B. Nitroglycerin C. Oral glucose D. Fentanyl
C. Oral glucose
Which of the following statements most accurately describes asthma? Select one: A. Irreversible airway disease that results in increased alveolar surface tension B. Acute, irreversible airway obstruction that presents with inspiratory wheezing C. Reversible obstruction caused by bronchospasm, mucus production, and edema D. Chronic respiratory disease caused by long-term exposure to toxic substances
C. Reversible obstruction caused by bronchospasm, mucus production, and edema
Which of the following electrolytes is essential for the distribution of water throughout the body? Select one: A. Potassium B. Calcium C. Sodium D. Chloride
C. Sodium
Which of the following statements regarding pulmonary respiration is correct? Select one: A. There are fewer oxygen molecules in the alveoli than in the blood; therefore, the oxygen molecules move from the blood into the alveoli. B. There are more carbon dioxide molecules in inhaled air than in the blood; therefore, carbon dioxide moves from the alveoli into the blood. C. There are more oxygen molecules in the alveoli than in the blood; therefore, the oxygen molecules move from the alveoli into the blood. D. There are fewer carbon dioxide molecules in the blood than in inhaled air; therefore, carbon dioxide moves from the blood into the alveoli.
C. There are more oxygen molecules in the alveoli than in the blood; therefore, the oxygen molecules move from the alveoli into the blood.
Definitive treatment to reduce acute respiratory distress in a patient with a pleural effusion involves: Select one: A. endotracheal intubation. B. needle decompression. C. a fluid thoracentesis. D. antibiotic therapy.
C. a fluid thoracentesis.
If ventilation becomes difficult due to gastric distention, the patient will require: Select one: A. increased ventilation volume. B. an oropharyngeal airway. C. an orogastric or nasogastric tube. D. continuous airway suctioning.
C. an orogastric or nasogastric tube.
When applying the AED pads to a patient with a surgically implanted pacemaker, you should: Select one: A. apply the pad directly over the implanted pacemaker. B. avoid applying the AED and perform CPR only. C. apply the pads at least 1 inch away from the pacemaker. D. apply both pads on the posterior aspect of the chest.
C. apply the pads at least 1 inch away from the pacemaker.
The liver secretes ________, which is an enzyme that the body uses to: Select one: A. chyme, remove waste products. B. glucagon, convert glycogen to glucose. C. bile, dissolve fats into solution. D. hydrochloric acid, break down foods.
C. bile, dissolve fats into solution.
A 50-year-old male was stung two times by a yellow jacket. He has a history of coronary artery disease and thinks that he is allergic to yellow jackets. Your assessment reveals a fine rash to his trunk and arms. His breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally, his vital signs are stable, and he denies shortness of breath. Treatment for this patient should include all of the following, except: Select one: A. an IV line set to keep the vein open. B. oxygen therapy as needed. C. epinephrine via auto-injector. D. psychological support.
C. epinephrine via auto-injector.
Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system results in: Select one: A. decreased blood pressure and heart rate. B. vasoconstriction and decreased heart rate. C. increased blood pressure and heart rate. D. vasodilation and a mild heart-rate decrease.
C. increased blood pressure and heart rate.
The AEMT must be especially cautious when administering IV fluids to patients with: Select one: A. shock due to sepsis. B. external blood loss. C. internal hemorrhage. D. severe dehydration.
C. internal hemorrhage.
A known contraindication to the administration of 50% dextrose (D50) is: Select one: A. dehydration. B. inability to follow commands. C. intracranial hemorrhage. D. hypertension.
C. intracranial hemorrhage.
The Narcotic Control Act of 1956: Select one: A. assigned each controlled substance a specific schedule, based on its use and potential for addiction. B. protected the public from mislabeled, poisonous, or otherwise harmful foods and medications. C. made the possession of heroin illegal and outlawed the acquisition and transportation of marijuana. D. regulated the import, manufacture, prescription, and sale of several nonnarcotic medications, as well as cocaine and opium.
C. made the possession of heroin illegal and outlawed the acquisition and transportation of marijuana.
During two-rescuer CPR, the compressor and ventilator switch positions. While rescuer one is finishing his or her cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should: Select one: A. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds. B. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions. C. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest. D. suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations.
C. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.
During times of decreased perfusion, the autonomic nervous system: Select one: A. diverts all available blood flow to the kidneys. B. decreases the heart rate so as to decrease oxygen demand. C. redirects blood to the most vital organs of the body. D. causes vasodilation to increase venous capacitance.
C. redirects blood to the most vital organs of the body
While starting an IV on a patient, you see bright red blood quickly traveling up the IV tubing. You should: Select one: A. evaluate the puncture site for signs of infiltration. B. lower the IV bag to ensure viability of the IV line. C. remove the catheter and apply direct pressure. D. secure the IV line and apply direct pressure.
C. remove the catheter and apply direct pressure.
A 29-year-old male with a history of type 1 diabetes presents with excessive urination and marked thirst. These signs indicate that the: Select one: A. kidneys are excreting excess insulin. B. cells of the body are producing fructose. C. renal system is excreting excess glucose. D. blood glucose has exceeded 120 mg/dL.
C. renal system is excreting excess glucose.
Which of the following scenarios is most descriptive of an absence seizure? Select one: A. A 4-year-old female with tonic-clonic muscle movement to her entire body; the child remains unresponsive after the event. B. An 8-year-old female with a brief period of unresponsiveness and unilateral muscle twitching; she becomes agitated after the event. C. A 2-year-old male with high fever and a sudden onset of generalized muscle twitching; symptoms subside after 2 minutes. D. A 6-year-old male who is conscious, but will not respond to his mother; symptoms subside spontaneously within a few minutes.
D. A 6-year-old male who is conscious, but will not respond to his mother; symptoms subside spontaneously within a few minutes.
You are dispatched to the home of a 64-year-old male patient with lung cancer. The patient complains of acute dyspnea; however, as long as he is sitting upright, his breathing is easier. He denies fever, and his breath sounds are decreased over the base of the left lung. What is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms? Select one: A. Consolidation of fluid within the lung B. Localized bronchospasm in the lungs C. Air in the pleural space with lung collapse D. Collection of fluid outside of the lung
D. Collection of fluid outside of the lung
In which of the following situations would a diabetic patient most likely develop hypoglycemic crisis (insulin shock)? Select one: A. A large meal following a normal insulin dose B. An inadvertent underdose of insulin C. Nausea after taking a regular insulin dose D. Heavy exertion following a small meal
D. Heavy exertion following a small meal
Which of the following statements regarding multiple-organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) is correct? Select one: A. MODS typically occurs within 2 to 4 weeks following resuscitation of a patient with massive trauma. B. In MODS, the release of bradykinin, a potent vasoconstrictor, leads to preferential shunting of blood. C. In MODS, uncontrolled epithelial damage in the venules and arterioles results in spontaneous bleeding. D. MODS occurs when injury or infection triggers a massive immune, inflammatory, and coagulation response.
D. MODS occurs when injury or infection triggers a massive immune, inflammatory, and coagulation response.
Which of the following physiologic responses would you expect to occur following administration of a drug that possesses alpha-1 properties? Select one: A. Dilation of the bronchioles B. Increased cardiac contractility C. Systemic vasodilation D. Peripheral vasoconstriction
D. Peripheral vasoconstriction
When assessing a middle-aged male patient with chest pain, you note a large vertical scar in the center of his chest. This indicates that he has most likely had: Select one: A. a percutaneous coronary angioplasty. B. a surgically implanted cardiac pacemaker. C. coronary artery stent placement. D. a coronary artery bypass graft.
D. a coronary artery bypass graft.
Definitive treatment to reduce acute respiratory distress in a patient with a pleural effusion involves: Select one: A. antibiotic therapy. B. needle decompression. C. endotracheal intubation. D. a fluid thoracentesis.
D. a fluid thoracentesis.
Your primary survey of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to: Select one: A. perform a head-to-toe secondary assessment. B. retrieve the stretcher and prepare for transport. C. assess her oxygen saturation and blood pressure. D. administer oxygen with the appropriate device.
D. administer oxygen with the appropriate device.
A 57-year-old female with a history of peripheral vascular disease presents with an acute onset of confusion, aphasia, left-sided hemiparesis, and facial droop. You should suspect an: Select one: A. arterial hemorrhage in the right cerebral hemisphere. B. arterial hemorrhage in the left cerebral hemisphere. C. arterial blockage in the left cerebral hemisphere. D. arterial blockage in the right cerebral hemisphere.
D. arterial blockage in the right cerebral hemisphere.
You are assessing a 59-year-old male with an altered mental status. You should suspect an acute ischemic stroke versus hypoglycemia if the patient: Select one: A. rapidly loses consciousness. B. is incontinent of urine and feces. C. has a prescription for phenobarbital. D. attempts to communicate with you.
D. attempts to communicate with you.
When treating a patient who complains of dyspnea, it is important for the AEMT to: Select one: A. give oxygen via nasal cannula to minimize anxiety. B. routinely request that a paramedic unit respond to the scene. C. closely monitor the patient's cardiac rhythm. D. be prepared to treat the patient's anxiety as well.
D. be prepared to treat the patient's anxiety as well.
The largest part of the brain is the: Select one: A. occiput. B. brain stem. C. cerebellum. D. cerebrum.
D. cerebrum.
A 61-year-old female called EMS after suddenly being awakened in the middle of the night with a feeling that she was "smothering." You arrive to find the patient, very apprehensive and restless, sitting on the living room couch in obvious respiratory distress. Her BP is 160/90 mm Hg, pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular, and respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored. Auscultation of her lungs reveals diffuse rhonchi in all fields. Treatment for this patient should include: Select one: A. an IV line with a 250-mL normal saline bolus and oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. oxygen at 4 to 6 L/min via nasal cannula and up to three nebulizer treatments. C. oropharyngeal suctioning and assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device. D. continuous positive airway pressure and an IV line set to keep the vein open.
D. continuous positive airway pressure and an IV line set to keep the vein open.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone targets the adrenal _______ and causes it to release _______. Select one: A. cortex; epinephrine B. medulla; cortisol C. medulla; epinephrine D. cortex; cortisol
D. cortex; cortisol
An allergic reaction is most accurately defined as a(n): Select one: A. autoimmune response of the body to an internal or external stimulus. B. abnormal sensitivity of the body to a foreign toxin or substance. C. direct negative effect on the human body as the result of a foreign toxin. D. exaggerated response of the body's immune system to a foreign stimulus.
D. exaggerated response of the body's immune system to a foreign stimulus.
The cells convert glucose into energy through the Krebs cycle and: Select one: A. glucogenesis. B. gluconeogenesis. C. glycogenolysis. D. glycolysis.
D. glycolysis.
Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system results in: Select one: A. vasodilation and a mild heart-rate decrease. B. vasoconstriction and decreased heart rate. C. decreased blood pressure and heart rate. D. increased blood pressure and heart rate.
D. increased blood pressure and heart rate.
You should attempt to remove an imbedded stinger from a patient who was stung by a bee because: Select one: A. desensitization to the venom will occur following prolonged exposure. B. the toxicity of the venom increases when it enters the bloodstream. C. it is likely to cause severe local swelling and intense pain. D. it can inject venom for up to 20 minutes after the initial sting.
D. it can inject venom for up to 20 minutes after the initial sting
Basic life support (BLS) is defined as: Select one: A. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management. B. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses. C. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency. D. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.
D. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.
When attaching an administration set to a bag of IV fluid and priming the IV tubing, you should ensure that the drip chamber is: Select one: A. one fourth full. B. three fourths full. C. completely full. D. one half full.
D. one half full.
Upon encountering an ill patient with a recent travel history, you should: Select one: A. transport immediately. B. don two pairs of gloves. C. contact medical control. D. place a mask on the patient.
D. place a mask on the patient.
Pain to palpation of the costovertebral angle is most suggestive of: Select one: A. pancreatitis. B. diverticulitis. C. cholecystitis. D. pyelonephritis.
D. pyelonephritis.
When the parasympathetic nervous system is stimulated, it: Select one: A. increases the heart rate by increasing SA node discharge. B. produces epinephrine and increases cardiac contractility. C. enhances conduction through the atrioventricular node. D. slows the heart rate by decreasing SA node discharge.
D. slows the heart rate by decreasing SA node discharge.
When the parasympathetic nervous system is stimulated, it: Select one: A. produces epinephrine and increases cardiac contractility. B. increases the heart rate by increasing SA node discharge. C. enhances conduction through the atrioventricular node. D. slows the heart rate by decreasing SA node discharge.
D. slows the heart rate by decreasing SA node discharge.
A drug's therapeutic index refers to: Select one: A. the minimum dose required to achieve the desired effect. B. the maximum concentration that can safely be given. C. how quickly the drug will be excreted from the body. D. the difference between a therapeutic and lethal dose.
D. the difference between a therapeutic and lethal dose.
Disease or inflammation of organs that lie behind or beneath the abdominal cavity can cause signs of peritonitis because: Select one: A. the visceral peritoneum is highly vascular and prone to hemorrhage. B. the organs become significantly enlarged due to the disease process. C. large volumes of fluid accumulate in the retroperitoneal space. D. the parietal peritoneum is richly supplied with very sensitive nerves.
D. the parietal peritoneum is richly supplied with very sensitive nerves.
Ventricular tachycardia often causes hypotension because: Select one: A. tachycardia causes widespread vasodilation, which lowers the blood pressure. B. afterload increases, which causes the ventricles to work against higher pressure. C. blood from the atria fills the ventricles too quickly due to the rapid heart rate. D. there is not enough time between beats for the left ventricle to fill with blood.
D. there is not enough time between beats for the left ventricle to fill with blood.
Index of suspicion is most accurately defined as: Select one: A. your prediction of the type of illness a patient has based on how the call is dispatched. B. determining the underlying cause of a patient's medical condition based on signs and symptoms. C. ruling out specific medical conditions based on the absence of certain signs and symptoms. D. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness.
D. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness.
