All of the above.
A common use for LVP fluid is correcting the fluid and electrolyte balance of a patient suffering from:
diarrhea
What auxiliary label would you use for this particular sig: ii gtts AU bid: take with meals, for the ear, avoid sunlight, for the eye
for the ear AU means both ears
What solvent is traditionally used for otic preparations?
glycerin or waterMedicare Part A
Unless otherwise specifically noted, batch compounded products should always be treated as what?
high risk level products
A pharmacy that sends IV medications to the patient home for administration
home infusion pharmacy
If a technician desires to move past an entry-level position, when should he or she begin planning a career path?
immediatly
A tracking log should be kept for: schedule IV order forms, all cash transactions, schedule II order forms, drug price increases
schedule II order forms
What ingredient is often added to a TPN to complete the fluid requirement for a patient?
sterile water
A doctor wants to phone in a prescription for Demerol: -you inform the doctor that he can not call the prescription in -you ask the doctor if it is okay to use a generic -you inform the pharmacist of the call and only the pharmacist can make the determination -you take the order, but inform the pharmacist before filling
inform the pharmacist and only the pharmacist can make the determination; schedule II drugs can only be phone in during an emergency situation. A hand written script is usually required.
The Kefauver-harris Ammendment
mandates manufacturers to prove to the FDA that a drug is effective for the indication it was being marketed to treat
A retail pharmacy with a high turnover rate and daily ordering rate requires:
less standing inventory in stock
What risk level must a tecnician be qualified for in order to compound most types of TPN?
medium-risk level
How many hours of continuing education must be in pharmacy law every two years?
one
Which of the following has to be stored frozen prior to use? oral polio, injectable polio, influenza, pneumococcal
oral polio
Pharmacy technicians are defined as individuals working in a pharmacy who under the supervision of a licensed pharmacists, assist in pharmacy activities not requiring the professional judgment of the : Chief technician, pharmacist, certified pharmacy technician, certified pharmacist
pharmacist
An individual or company that has contracted with an insurance company to manage formulary guidlines for the insurance company
pharmacy benefit manager
what is PCAT
pharmacy collage apptitude test
Who are the only people who know which participants are taking a placebo in a double-blind study
pharmacy personnel
Because of incompatibility, which of the following additives should be added first to a TPN admixture that will contain calcium gluconate.. sodium chloride, magnesium chloride, patassium svrysyr, potassium phosphate
potassium phosphate
Which drugs is an antiarrhythmic: etodolac, pravachol, levothyroxine, procainamide
procainamide
Sig or Signa on a written prescription means: the strength of the med ordered, the quantity, the directions for the med ordered, the signature of the practitioner writing the medication ordered.
the directions for the medication ordered
The AWP for a gallon (3785 ml) of Promethazine DM cough syrup is $18.75, with an additional 20% discount from the wholesaler. What is the cost of 16 oz of the medication?
$18.75 AWP $18.75 AWP x .20 discount $ -3.75 disc. ------- ------- $3.75 discount $15.00 cost 16 oz = 1 pt there are 8 pt in 1 gallon $15.00 ------- = cost of 1 pt. or $1.87 8 pt $1.87 is the answer.
A pharmacy wants to mark up a product by thirty percent. How much would an item cost with mark up, if it's original cost was $4.50?
$4.50 cost X .30 percent $1.35 mark up $4.50 cost +$1.35 mark up $5.85 is cost with markup $5.85 is the answer.
What would be the selling price of Hydrocortisone cream 1% 30 gm if it costs $7.00 and you want a 50% mark up?
$7.00 cost x .50 is 50% as a decimal $3.50 is mark up $7.00 + 3.50 = 10.50 $10.50 is the answer.
What volume of Lanoxin 0.5 mg/2 ml injection will deliver a dose of 0.125 mg.
0.5 mg .125 mg .25 ml -------- = --------- = ------- 2 ml X 0.5 X X = .5 ml .5 ml = 1/2 ml 1/2 ml is the correct answer
Stability of Ampicillin IVPB is better with:
0.9% NaCl.
A formula for a cough syrup contains 60 mg of codeine per fluid ounce. How many mg are contained in one teaspoonful?
1 fl oz = 30 ml and 1 tsp = 5 ml 60 mg X -------- = --------- 30 ml 5 ml 300 mg -------- = X-10 mg 30X 10 mg is the answer
A bottle of Nitroglycerin has the labeled strength of l/200 grains. What would this strength be in milligrams?
1 gr = 64.8 mg 60 mg -------- = .3 mg 200 mg .3 mg is the answer.
A bottle of Nitroglycerin has the labeled strength of l/150 grains. What would this strength be in milligrams?
1 gr= 64.8 mg 1 ------ X 60 mg/gr = .4 mg 150 gr .4 mg is the answer
What volume of Donnatal would be dispensed to administer a dose of 1 1/2 oz?
1 oz = 30 ml 1 1/2 oz = 45 ml 45 ml is the answer.
The pharmacy bases its prices on $4.00 plus AWP of the drug. The prescription reads 1 tab qid X 10 days. The AWP of drug is $49.00 per 100 tabs. What will be the retail price?
1 tab 4 times daily for 10 days= 40 tabs 100 tabs 40 tabs $1960.00 ---------- = -------- = ---------- $49.00 X 100X X=$19.60 19.60 + 4 = $23.60 $23.60 is the answer.
If a prescription states "refill prn", for how long may this RX be refilled?
1 year
A third party insurance program pays for only a 14 day supply of Skelaxin. If the directions for use read "i - ii tabs po tid-qid", what is the maximum allowed quantity to be dispensed?
1-2 tabs 3-4 times daily maximum=2 tabs 4 times daily or 8 tabs a day 8x14 days = 112 tabs 112 tabs is the answer.
You receive a prescription for Amoxicillin suspension 125 mg/5 ml, 1.5 tsp TID x 10 days. The appropriate quantity to dispense would be:
1.5 tsp=7.5 ml 7.5 ml/dose X 3 dose/daily =22.5 ml/day 22.5ml/day X 10 days = 225ml 225 ml is the answer
How many 100 mg tablets will be needed to make 1/2 liter of 1:250 solution?
1/2 liter = 500 ml 1:150 = 1 gram per 250 ml 1 gm X 500 gm -------- = --------- = ---------- = 2gm 250 ml 500 ml 250X 2gm = 2000 mg 100 mg 2000 mg 2000 --------- = --------- = ------- = 20 tabs 1 tablet X 100X 20 tablets is the answer
The doctor writes for Aminophylline 125 mg po QID x 10 days. You only have the solution 250 mg/5ml. How much would be needed for one dose?
1/2 tspn
A retail pharmacy receives an extra 1/2% discount on a $555.53 invoice from the manufacturer. What is the savings?
1/2% = 0.5% $555.55 x .005 discount = $2.78 $2.78 is the answer
A pharmacy technician wishes to add 500 mg of Amino Acids to 500 ml of D5W. The Amino Acid solution is supplied in a 10% concentration. The volume of the 10% concentration required to supply 500 mg of the drug is:
10 % = 10 gm per 100 ml or 10,000 mg/100ml 10,000 mg 500 mg ----------- = -------- 100 ml X 50,000 ml ----------- = X=5 ml 10,000 x 5 ml is the answer
What is the max concentration of dextrose in a TPN that can be infused through a peripheral vein?
10-12%
An order specified Suprax 75 mg qd for 10 days. If a 100 mg/5 ml suspension is used, the volume of each daily dose will be:
100 mg 75 mg --------- = --------- 5 ml X 375 ml -------- = X= 3.75 ml 100X 3.75 ml is the answer.
A patient is taking 100 mg capsules of Phenytoin tid. How many milligrams of Phenytoin would the patient take in 20 days?
100 mg x 3 daily for 20 days. 6000 mg is the answer.
Rx: Cefixime 100 mg/5 ml. Sig: 60 mg po qd x 10 d. What volume of medication would be required for a single daily dose?
100 mg/5 ml = 60mg/X X=3 ml 3 ml
The doctor writes for Aminophylline 125 mg po QID x 10 days. You only have the solution 250mg/5ml. How much would be needed for the treatment?
100 ml
Regular U-100 insulin contains:
100 units per 1 ml.
When hand-filling capsules using the punch method, what percentage of the compounded capsules should the technician check for proper weight.
100%
How many mcg of B-12 injection are contained in 0.5 ml of a B-12 1000 mcg/ml injection?
1000 mcg X 500 mcg ------------ = ------- = ---------- 1 ml .5 ml X X=500 mcg 500 mcg is the answer.
The infusion rate of an I.V. is over 12 hours. The total exact volume is 1000 ml. What would be the infusion rate in mls per minute?
1000 ml --------- = 83.33 12 hr 83.33 ml/hr ------------- = 1.39 ml/min 60 min/hr 1.39 ml/minute is the answer.
How many hours will a 1000-ml IV solution last if it is infusing at a rate of 125 ml/hr?
1000 ml --------- = 8 hr 125 ml/hr 8 hr is the answer.
How many hours will a 1000-ml of NaCl 0.9% last if it is infusing at a rate of 125 ml/hr?
1000 ml --------- = 8 hr 125 ml/hr 8 hr is the answer.
Lanoxin contains 0.25 mg/ml. How much Lanoxin will 3.5L contain?
1000 ml = liter 3.5 L = 3500 ml 875 mg is the answer.
The pharmacy technician is asked to divide 1 liter of MOM suspension into an equal number of 10 ml and 15 ml unit dose dispensing cups. How many 15 ml dispensing cups can be made from this quantity of suspension?
1000 ml X 3000 ml -------- = ------ = --------- 5 parts 3 parts 5x x= 600 ml 600 ml ------------- = 40 cups 15 ml/bottle 40 cups is the answer.
How many units of NPH U-I 00 would be administered if the patient's noon dose was 0.3 ml?
100units/1ml=X/.3ml 30units/X=30 units 30 units is the asnwer.
A Tagamet IV has been ordered to run at 3 drops/min. It contains 1000 mg of Tagamet in a total of 250 ml. How many milligrams of Tagamet will the patient receive per hour if the set is calibrated to deliver 10 gtts/ml?
1000mg/250ml = 4mg/ml 60 min/hr X 3 drops/min = 180 drops/hr 180 drops/hr /10 drops/ml = 18 ml/hr 4 mg/ml X 18 ml/hr = 72 mg/hr 72 mg/hr is the answer.
If 15 gallons of distilled water cost 42.00, how much will 4 gallons cost
11.20
To prepare 450 ml of a 30% (w/v) solution of potassium chloride, how many grams of solute are needed? 13.5 g, 15, g, 135 g, none of the above
135 g
Once a manufacturer has recieved FDA approval for a medication, it is granted patent protection for a period that is not to exceed ___ years.
14
Cefaclor oral suspension is stable in a refrigerator for how many days after reconstitution?
14 days
Amoxicillin oral suspension is stable in a refrigerator for how many days after reconstitution?
14 days.
What is the error percentage rate if 12 errors are detected in the preparation of 400 prescriptions?
12 errors/ 400 prescriptions .03 or 3% 3% is the answer.
How many days will the following prescription last? Paxil 10 mg #120 Sig: 2 PO BID
120 tabs/4 tabs/daily = 30 days 30 days is the answer.
How many 250 mg doses are in a 5 oz bottle of 125 mg/5 ml Cefaclor suspension?
125 mg/5 ml= X/150 ml 18750 mg/5X = 3750 mg 250 mg/1 dose = 3750 mg/X 3750 dose/250X = 15 doses 15 doses is the answer.
Heparin is available in a vial labeled 20,000U/ml. How many ml are required for a 12,500U dose?
12500 ml/20,000 X X=.625 .625 ml is the answer.
An administration set that delivers 10 gtt/ml is set up to infuse 1000 ml Ringers Solution over a 24-hr period. What flow rate will be required to deliver the 1000 ml.
1440 minutes in a day 1000 ml ---------- = .69 ml/ min 1440 min 10 drops X 6.9 drops --------- = ------- = ----------- 1 ml .69 ml 1X X=6.9 drops 7 drops/min is the answer.
A 150 ml bottle of Amoxicillin 250 mg/ml oral suspension requires the addition of 88 ml of purified water to give 150 ml of suspension. What is the powder volume?
150 ml total volume - 88 ml water added 62 ml is the powder volume. 62 ml is the answer.
How many ounces in one pint? 12,18, 16, 24
16
How many ounces are contained in one pint?
16 ounces
How many ounces are contained in one pint?
16 ounces is the answer
To prepare 400 ml of a 40% w/v solution of sodium bicarbonate how many grams of solute are needed?
160g
the initial dose of aminophylline for a non-smoking adult is .7 mg/kg/hr for 12 hours. How many ml of an IV solution containing 400 mg per 100 ml would be required for a 154 lbs male over this 12 hour period?
167 ml
How much 90% ethanol must be mixed with 10% ethanol to make 1 pint of a 40% sln. -161ml of 90% + 312 ml of 10% -177 ml of 90% + 296 ml of 10% -196 ml of 90% + 277 ml of 10% -207 ml of 90% + 266 ml of 10%
177 ml of 90% and 296 ml of 10%
What is the % equivalent of a 1:16 ratio?
1:16 = 1/16 = 0.0625 = 6.25% 6.25% is the answer.
How many 60 mg KMNO4 (Potassium Permanganate) tablets are needed to make the following Solution: KMNO4 1:5000 600 ml.
1:5000 means 1 gm per 5000 ml 1 gm = 1000 mg 1000mg/5000ml=X/600ml X=120 mg 60mg/1tab=120mg/X X=2 tabs 2 tabs
What is the % equivalent of a 1:8 ratio?
1:8 ratio is .125 as a decimal .125 X 100% will give you 12.5% 12.5% is the answer
An I.V. infusion order is received for Lidocaine 2 g in 250 ml of 0.9% NaCl to be infused at 3 mg/min. What will the flow rate be in ml/hr?
2 gm = 2000 mg 3 mg/min (60 min/hr) = 180 mg/hr 2000 mg 180 mg/hr ---------- = ----------- 250 ml X 22.5ml/hr 22.5 ml/hr is the answer.
How many 10 mg Minoxidil tablets would be needed to make 60 ml of a 2% solution?
2 gm/100 ml = X/60ml 120gm/100X = 1.2 gm (1200 mg ) -By ratio proportion - solve for number of number of tablets needed. 100mg/1tab=1200mg/X 10X=1200 =120 tabs 120 tabs
What is the resultant percentage concentration when 30 gms of codeine phosphate is dissolved in 2 liters of solution?
2 liters=2000 ml 30gm ------ =.015 gm/ml 2000ml .015 gm/ml x 100 ml = 1.5% 1.5% is the answer
What is the resultant percentage concentration when 30 gms of codeine phosphate is dissolved in 2 liters of solution?
2 liters=2000 ml 30 gm/2000ml=0.015gm/ml 0.015gm/ml X 100ml =1.5% 1.5%
How many days will the following prescription last? Paxil 10 mg #120 Sig: 2 PO BID
2 po bid = 2 tabs twice daily, or 4 total. 120 tabs ------------- = 30 days 4 tabs/daily 30 days is the answer.
You receive an order for Donnagel 30 ml tid pc. How many tablespoonful is one dose equal to?
2 tblspn
In this formula, how much Talc is needed to fill 120 grams? Nupercainal Ointment 4% Zinc Oxide 20% Talc 2%
2%=2 gm per 100 gm 2 gm/100gm=X/120gm X=2.4 gm 2.4 gm *1000=2400mg 2400 mg
a retail pharmacy receives an extra 1/2% discount on a $437.89 invoice from the wholesaler. Calculate the savings.
2.19
The AWP for a gallon (3785 ml) of Promethazine DM cough syrup is $18.75, with an additional 20% discount from the wholesaler. What is the cost of 1 pint of the medication?
18.75*.20=3.75 18.73-3.75=15 3785ml/473mlperpint=8 pints 15.00/8pints=$1.87 1.87
If a third party payer specifies a maximum 1-month supply for a specific drug and the directions for use state "I cap po tid", how many units of the drug may be dispensed?
3 cap tid = 3 caps daily 3 caps/daily x 30 day/mo = 90 caps 90 caps is the answer.
If 75 gm's of codeine phosphate is dissolved in 3 liters of sterile water, what is the resultant percentage strength of the solution?
3 liters=3000ml 75gm ------- = 0.025 gm/ml 3000ml .025 gm/ml X 100 ml= 2.5% 2.5% is the Answer
Rx. Cefixime 100 mg.5ml: Sig: 60 mg po qd x 10 d. What volume of medication would be required for a single daily dose?
3 ml
Mylanta and Donnatal are to be combined in a 2:1 ratio. How much of each is required to make 90 ml of the suspension?
3 parts total/ 90 ml total = 2 parts/X 180 ml/3X X = 60 ml Mylanta 90 ml total-60 ml Mylanta = 30 ml Donnatal 60 ml /30 ml is the answer.
What is the maximu fill level for a syringe used in reconstituting a hazardous drug?
3/4 full
To prepare 450 ml of a 30% (w/v) solution of Potassium Chloride (KCl), how many grams of solute are needed?
30 % means 30 gm per 100 ml 30 gm/ 100 ml=X/450 ml X=135 gm 135 gm is the answer.
The usual dose of M.O.M. is 30 cc. This is equivalent to:
30 cc = 2 tablespoons/ 2 TBS 2TBS is the answer
The laminar flow workbench must be running for atleast how long before using? 10 minutes, thirty minutes, 45 minutes, sixty minutes
30 minutes
To prepare sterile products, the laminar flow hood should be running for a minimum of:
30 minutes.
To prepare sterile products, the vertical flow hood should be running for a minimum of:
30 minutes.
45 ml is equivalent to how many fluid ounces?
30 ml = 1 oz 30 ml 45 ml 45 oz ------- = ------- = -------- = X= 1.5 oz 1 oz X 30x 1.5 oz is the answer.
The markup for a $35.18 vial of antibiotic is 22%. What is the retail price for this medication?
35.18 * .22 = $7.74 $35.18+$7.74=$42.92 42.92
How much Elixophyllin elixir 80 mg/15 ml is required for a dose of 240 mg?
3600 ml ----------- = x=45 ml 80 X 1 tbsp = 15 ml 45 ml ----------- = 3 tbsp 15 ml/tbsp 3 tbsp is the answer.
The dose of Ceclor in children is 20 mg/kg/day in divided doses. A prescription for an 82-lb youngster prescribes 375 mg PO TID. After bringing this prescription to the attention of the pharmacist, the pharmacist agrees that there is a problem with this prescription. The problem is:
2.2 lbs 82 lbs 82 kg ------- = ------ = -------- 1 kg X 2.2x x=37.27 kg 20 mg/kg/day x 37.27 kg = 745.4 mg/day dose prescribed is 375 mg tid 375 mg x 3 doeses = 1125 mg The dose 1125 mg prescribed is an overdose.
The initial dose of Theophylline for an adult is 0.8 mg/kg/hr for 12 hours. How many ml of an IV solution containing 800 mg per 100 ml would be required for a 250 lb male over this 12 hour period?
2.2 lbs = 1 kg 2.2lbs/1kg = 250lbs/X X=113.6 kg .8mg/kg/hr (113.6kg)(12 hr) 1090.56 mg 800 mg/100 ml = 1091mg/X X=136.4 136 ml is the answer.
The standard pediatric dose for Cefazolin is 20 mg/kg/day. The order is written for 150 mg TID. The infant weighs 8 lbs. Is this dose:
2.2 lbs = 1 kg 20 mg/kg/day X 3.6 kg =72mg 72 mg/day is the standard dose. 150 mg is too high Too high is the answer.
If 75 gm of codeine phosphate is dissolved in 3 liters of sterile water, what is the resultant percentage strength of the solution? .25%, 2.5%, 25%, 250%
2.5
The AWP for a drug is $24.65 with a 17% discount from the wholesaler. what would be the net cost of this drug? 20.21, 20.46, 20.63, 20.87
20.46
How much Cefaclor suspension 250 mg/5 ml would be needed to fill a prescription for Cefaclor 200 mg PO q8h for 10 days?
200 mg/dose x 3 doses/day x 10 days =6000mg 250 mg 6000 mg 30,000 ml --------- = ----------- = ----------- = 120 ml 5 ml X 250 X 120 ml is the answer.
The minimum age to sign the exempt narcotic log is
21
1 1/2 tblspns is equivalent to how many ml? 7.5ml, 22.5 ml, 17.5 ml, 12.5 ml
22.5 ml 1 T = 15 ml
How much diluent do you need to add to a 4 gm vial to get a concentration of 250 mg/ml? Disregard the space the powder may occupy.
250 mg 4000 mg 4000 ml --------- = ---------- = --------- = X=16ml 1 ml X 250 X 16 ml is the answer.
You receive a prescription for Amoxicillin 75 mg QID for ten days. How many ml's of Amoxicillin 250 mg/5 cc do you need?
250 mg 75 mg 375 mg --------- = ------ = ---------- 5 cc X 250X x = 1.5 ml 1.5 ml/dose X 4 doses/daily X 10 days= 60 ml 60 ml is the answer.
A Pharmacy Technician dilutes a 2 g vial of ampicillin with 6.8 ml of sterile water for injections. When properly mixed, the concentration of the drug solution is 250 mg/ml. If the prescribed dose is 750 mg, the volume of the drug solution required is:
250 mg/ 1 ml = 750 mg/X 750 ml/250x = X = 3 ml 3 ml is the answer.
An IV order calls for the addition of 35 mEq of Calcium Carbonate. You have a 50 ml vial of CaCo3 4.4 mEq/ml. How many ml's of this concentrate do you need to add to this IV?
4.4 mEq 35 mEq 35 ml ---------- = -------- = -------- = X=7.95 ml or 8 1 ml X 4.4X 8 ml is the answer.
An IV order calls for the addition of 45 mEq of CaCO3 (Calcium Carbonate). You have a 25 ml vial of CaCo3 4.4 mEq/ml. How many ml's of this concentrate do you need to add to this IV?
4.4 mEq 45 mEq 45 ml ---------- = -------- = ------ 1 ml X 4.4x x=10.2 ml 10.2 ml is the answer.
The concentration of an Furosemide is 40 mg/5 ml. What volume would be required for an 8 mg dose?
40mg/5ml=8mg/X 40 ml/40X=1 ml 1 ml
a script read "hydrocortisone 1%, aa ap qhs" how many gms of hydrocortisone would be required to make 90 gms. 60/30 30/60 90/10 45/45
45 gm each; the abbreviation aa is of each. Equal parts of each would be half hydrocortisone and half clotrimazole;
A 500 tablet bottle of Carisoprodol costs $62.88. What would be the cost of 45 tablets?
62.88 --------- = .126 cost per tab 500 tab 45 tabs .125 cost per tab ----- 5.67 cost of 45 tab $5.67 is the answer
In the beginning of the 20th century, what percentage of medications needed to be compounded by the pharmacist?
70%
What is the maximum number of refills permitted for a Schedule III medication: -5 refills in 6 months -no refills -1 refill in 6 months -pm refills in 12 months
5 refills in 6 months
Oral poliovirus vaccine (live, oral) should be stored in a temperature not to exceed 46 degrees Fahrenheit. What is this temperature in Centigrade? Use this formula: Centigrade = 5/9 (F-32)
5/9(46-32)=7.77 7.78*C is the answer.
You have a 70% solution of Dextrose. How many grams of Dextrose is in 400 ml of this solution?
70gm/100ml = X/400ml 28000gm/100x=280 gm 280 gm is the answer.
Penicillin 'V' is commercially available in which strength?
500 mg
An IV solution containing 500 mg of aminophylline in 1000 ml of solution will completely infuse in 20 hours. How many mg of aminophylline is being infused per hour?
500 mg -------- = 25 mg/hr 20 hr 25 mg/hr is the answer.
The doctor writes a prescription for Na Heparin 20,000 units in 500 ml N.S. Infuse over 8 hours. The administration set delivers 60 drops/ml. What is the flow rate in drops/min?
500 ml -------- = 62.5 or 63 ml/hr 8 hrs 63 ml/hr x 63 ml --------- = -------- - ------- 60 min/hr 1 min 60X 60 drops X 63 drops ---------- = ------- - --------- 1 ml 1.05 ml 1X X=63 drops 63 drops is the answer
Cleocin suspension is available in a concentration of 75 mg/5 ml. How many ml are required for a 300 mg dose?
75 mg 300 mg 1500 -------- = --------- = ------- = X= 20 ml 5 ml X 75X 20 ml is the answer.
Cleocin suspension is available in a concentration of 75 mg/5 ml. How many ml are required for a 300 mg dose?
75mg / 5 ml = 300mg/X X=20 ml 20 ml is the answer.
Rx: Cefaclor 125 mg/5ml. Sig: 100 mg po bid x 10 d. What volume of medication would be required for a daily dose? 40 ml, 80 ml, 4 ml, 8 ml
8 ml
Rx: Cefaclor 125 mg/5 ml. Sig: 100 mg po bid x 10 d. What volume of medication would be required for a daily dose?
8 ml is the answer.
The concentration of Gentamicin is 80 mg/2ml. An order is written for 130 mg of Gentamicin in 100 ml NS. How many milliliters of Gentamicin do you inject into the IVPB bag?
80 mg 130 mg 260 ml ------- = -------- = ---------- 2 ml X 80 X X=3.25 ml 3.25 ml is the answer.
The infusion rate of an I.V. is over 12 hours. The total exact volume is 800 ml. What would be the infusion rate in mls per minute?
800 ml/ 12 hrs = 66.66 ml/hr 66.66ml/hr / 60 min/hr = 1.11 ml /minute 1.11 ml/minute is the answer.
What is the cost of 60 tablets if 90 tablets cost $90.15?
90 tabs 60 tabs $5,409 --------- = --------- = ------- $90.15 X 90X X=60.10 $60.10 is the answer.
How much of 90% ethanol must be mixed with 10% ethanol to make 1 pint of a 40% ethanol solution?
90%-40%= 50 parts 10%-40%= 30 parts 80 total parts 30 parts ---------------- = --------- 473 ml X 14190 ml ---------- = X=177 ml 80x 177 ml of 90% and 296 ml of 10% is the answer.
How much of 95% ethanol must be mixed with 20% ethanol to make 1 pint of a 40% ethanol solution?
95%-40%= 55 parts 20%-40%= 20 parts 75 total parts 1 pt = 473 ml 75 parts 20 parts 9460 ml --------- = ---------- = --------- 473 m l X 75X X=126 ml 126 ml is the answer
How much of 95% ethanol must be mixed with 20% ethanol to make 1 pint of a 40% ethanol solution?
95%-40%=55 parts of 10% 20%-40%=20 parts of 95% 75 total parts 1 pt =473 ml 75 parts/473 ml = 20 parts/X 9460 ml/75X X= 126 ml 126 ml is the answer.
Thirty-four degrees Celsius (34 degrees C) would be how many degrees Fahrenheit?
9c = 5F -160 9 (34) = 5f -160 306=5F -160 306 + 160 = 5 F 466 = 5F 93.2= F 93.2 F is the answer
Which of the following medications is NOT typically associated with dry eyes? A: Antibiotics B: Antihistamines C: Anticholinergics D: Diuretics
A: Antibiotics
Which of the following medications delivered via rectal suppository has a topical effect? A: Hemorrhoid preparations B: All of the answers C: Anti-nausea medications D: Laxative medications
A: Hemorrhoid preparations
What pieces of compunding equipment are used to triturate solid materials to attain the desired particle size? A: Mortats and pestles B: Glass beakers C: Glass funnels D: Graduates
A: Mortats and pestles
Which of the following medications can be sent throught a pneumatic tube? A:[Penicillin B:Tirofiban C: Cyclosporin D: Caspofungin
A: Penicillin
All of the following are valid considerations in determining a compounded parenteral product's beyond use date EXCEPT: A: Route of administration B: Variation from optimum storage temperature C: Potential of bacterial growthh over time D: Stability of the solution
A: Route of administration
What is not a type of intravenous administration? A: intramuscular injections b;bolus injections c;intermittent infusion d; continuous infusion
A: intramuscular injections
Which of the following is no longer approved for use as a topical antiseptic by the FDA? A: Mercurochrome B: Campho-POheniquie C: bactine D:Batadine
A:Mercurochrome
Which of the following statements regarding shipping controlled substances throught the mail is false? A:The contents of the package must be cleary labeled on the outside wrapper B: The package must give no indication of the contents C: Controlled substances can be mailed to a patient's home in reasonable quantities D: the medication should be for the personal use of the patients
A:The contents of the package must be cleary labeled on the outside wrapper
JCAHO requires all of the following on an open container of medicine EXCEPT: A: Bar code B: Drug name C: storage conditions D: date opened
A:bar code
What was the 1st pro org specifically for pharm techs
AAPT
Who establ?ished a code of ethics for pharmacy technicians
AAPT
Which of the following are water soluble vitamins?
B and C.
If the manufacturer's expiration date for a drug is 12/23, the drug is considered okay to dispense until which date: A) 12/01/23. A) 12/31/23. A) 11/30/23. A) 01/01/2023.
B) 12/31/23
What type of medication recall occurs when a medication is not likely to cause a temporary adverse health consequence? A) No recall is required. B) Class III recall. C) Class II recall. D) Class I recall.
B) Class III recall
What is the proper method of measuring a liquid in a graduated cylinder? A) Hold at eye level and read the top of meniscus. B) Hold at eye level and read the bottom of the meniscus. C) Place graduate on table and read meniscus from above. D) Place graduate on table and read meniscus from below.
B) Hold at eye level and read the bottom of the meniscus
What information may a CPhT find on a inpatient medication profile? A) Last hospitol stay B) Home address and phone number C) All Lab reports D) Patient work history
B) Home address and phone number
The first five digits of the NDC number identifies the: A) Product. B) Manufacturer. C) Units. D) Type of packaging.
B) Manufacturer
The Poison Prevention Packaging Act requires childproof packaging for all medications except: A) Prednisone. B) Nitroglycerin. C) Isosorbide Dinitrate SL 20 mg. D) ASA 5 gr.
B) Nitroglycerin
Which of the following is not a function of the inventory control area? A) Reduce costs. B) Reduce cash flow. C) Improve customer service. D) All of the above are functions.
B) Reduce cash flow
According to the Controlled Substances Act, a prescription for Dexedrine should be filed under which schedule? A) Schedule I. B) Schedule II. C) Schedule III. D) Schedule IV.
B) Schedule II
Which of the following is not a prime opportunity for microorganisms to penetrate the skin? A: An insect bite B: A sneeze C: An open wound D: An injection
B: A sneeze
Which of the following objects is allowable in a Class 5 cleanroom? A: Wooden stool B: Automated compounding device C; Computer terminal D: Refrigerator
B: Automated compounding device
All of the following can be considered a technician's responsibility EXCEPT: A: Evaluating the prescription for missing information B: Counseling the patient C: Greeting hte patient D: Answering the pharmacy telephone
B: Counseling the patient
alll of the following should be included on your resume EXCEPT A; Special skills and abilities B; date of birth C: degreses completed D: formal instruction
B: Date of Birth
Which of the following TPN components can affect the size of the micorn filter used to filter out precipates? A: Multivitamin preparations B: Dextrose C: Lipids D: Amino Acids
B: Dextrose
Which of the following is considered a high-alert medication that would require a second person to double check the medication and dose before it leaves the pharmacy? A: Non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs B: Magnesium sulfate injection C: Penicillin injection D: Milk of magnesia
B: Magnesium sulfate injection
Principles established by a healthcare professional to aid in decisions pertaining to the medical treatment of the patient: A: Ethics B: Medical ethics C: Morals D: Values
B: Medical ethics
Which of the following is NOT part on a prescription torsion balance? A: Balance pan B: Tare button C: Arrest knob D: Leveling screws
B: Tare button
Which of the following statement regarding the DEA form 222 is NOT true. A: There are ten item lines on each form 222 B: DEA forms 222 are duplicate C: DEA forms 222 are triplicate D: The forms may be obtained from the regional DEA office nearest the pharmacy
B:DEA forms 222 are in duplicate
QD is on the abbreviation watch list. It should be spelled out as: A: Every other day B: Each day C: Nightly D: Bedtime
B:Each day
Which of the following best describes the state of hte pharmacy technician specialization? A: Under investigation by the APhA B:Emerging C:Discouraging D:Becoming obselete
B:Emerging
An "automatic stop order" in the hospital setting would apply to which category of drugs? A) Antidepressants. B) Antipsychotics. C) Antibiotics. D) Antihypertensives.
C) Antibiotics
The labeling of Unit-dose products must include medication name and which of the following? A) Patient name, expiration date, dispensing date. B) Physician name, generic name, patient name. C) Dose strength, manufacturer or pharmacy code, drug expiration date. D) Directions for use, manufacturer or pharmacy code lot number.
C) Dose strength, manufacturer or pharmacy code, drug expiration date
The dispensing label on an outpatient pharmacy prescription requires: A) Manufacturers lot #. B) Physicians DEA #. C) Legal name of pharmacy and address. D) Physicians state license #.
C) Legal name of pharmacy and address
Computer generated safety features include drug alerts that _______________________. A) the technician should learn to override B) never be referred to the pharmacist - he is too busy C) Should be relayed to the Pharmacist on duty. D) only doctors should be aware of
C) Should be relayed to the Pharmacist on duty
Requires that the patient recieve enought information about the drug and its side effects to make a decision: A: Competence B; Voluntariness C: Disclosure D: Understanding
C: Disclosure
All of the following are standard types of lozenges that can be compounded in a pharmacy setting EXCEPT: A: Chewable gummy gel B: Hand rolled C: Eutectic D: Hard candy
C: Eutectic
Which of the following is generally reserved for emergency solutions? A: Saline solution B: Intermittent infusion C: IV push D: Implantable pump
C: IV push
All of the following ointment bases spread easily EXCEPT: A: Water-soluble bases B: Water in oil bases C: Oleaginous bases D: Oil in water bases
C: Oleaginous bases
Order controlled substances
A Pharmacy with a DEA Form 222 is allowed to:
Antacids should not be given to who?
A child under 2 years of age
You inform the Pharmacist of the call and only the Pharmacist can make the determination
A doctor wants to phone in a prescription for Percocet, what should you do?
Tell the patient that the medication is not refillable
A patient hands you an empty vial of Methylphenidate and asked for the Rx to be refilled. What should you do?
BD 4695283
A patient presents a prescription order for Morphine Sulfate tablets, prescribed by John Doe, M.D. Which of the following DEA registration numbers is consistent with the prescriber? a) BD 2147828. b) BD 4695283. c) AJ 436814. d) BJ 4147828.
Needed on outpatient prescriptions for controlled substances
A prescriber's DEA number is
Both A and C (Acetaminophen with Codeine & Talwin NX)
A prescriber's DEA number is needed to prescribe which drugs? A. Acetaminophen with Codeine. B. Sumycin. C. Talwin NX. D. Both A and C.
Used syringes are generally discarded where?
A sharps container
What should the technican be sure to create when reconstituting a hazardous drug?
A slight negative pressure in the vial
What is only used in extreme life-threatening emergences?
Intracardiac injection
Which route is injecting medication into the top skin layers?
Intradermal.
What is done to eliminate or prevent exessive amound of fluid from building up in the pleural sac surrounding the lungs?
Intrapleural administration
Preservative-free injectable drugs must be used when drugs will be injected by which route of administration?
Intrathecal.
What is difficult to recover if a medication error or adverse reactin occurs?
Intravenous medication
The systems approach to medication errors
Involves categorizing and evaluating error to establish safe procedures
What is the proper generic name for Mevacor?
Lovastatin
Which of the following types of syringes should be used in the mixing of Vinblastine?
Luer-lock.
Adult antitussives have been shown to have drug interactions with which of the following?
MAOI inhibitors
Who is responsible for the initial ordering of investigation drugs? P+T Committee, Nursing, Pharmacy, MD
MD
Which of the following is classified as Schedule II: MS contin, Dalmane, Valium, Lomotil
MS Contin
What sould a pharmacy technician do if he or she removes an item from an order before it can be checked in?
Make a written note of the removal and initial of it
What is a government funded program that provides healthcare services for the poorest of the poor?
Medicaid
Upon recieving an order, the technician should first?
Check the number of boxes on the shippers manifest
Which is not an example of quality control measures utilized when preparing an IVPB:
Checking with the Director of Nursing to see which Pharmacist mixed the IVPB.
Drug manufacturers can contribute to medication errors by,,,
Choosing drug names that look like other drug names
Schedule II
Codeine, Demerol and Percodan all belong to which controlled schedule?
Schedule II
Codeine, Meperidine, and Oxycodone all belong to which controlled schedule?
Homeopathic remedies are used to treat
Cold. Cough. Anxiety. All of the above
A pharmacy tech onocology specialist would have the most interaction with patients suffering from what?
Colon cancer
What is the main responsibility of teh P&T Committeee?
Managing the formulary
All the following medications must be stored in the refrigerator, but not frozen, except:
Mannitol
The first set of numbers of a NDC code identifies the
Manufacturer
When labeling prescriptions packed in a Unit Dose, what information should it not contain? Lot Number Expiration Date Manufacturers address Auxiliary labels
Manufacturers address
After syringes are used for preparation of hazardous substances, the pharmacy technician should:
Correct!! Hazardous substances should be placed in a sealed plastic bag and disposed in special waste.
What protective apparel must be worn when reconstituting Vinblastine?
Correct!! Protective apparel includes 2 pair of gloves (double gloving), a hair covering, a mask and a protective barrier gown.
Why might a compounding lab use a two-pan prescription torsion balance instead of a prescription electronic balance?
Cost of electronic balance
Why do patient tend to prefer creams to ointments?
Creams do not feel as greasy
Which of the following statements regarding contemporary pharmacy technicians is false? A: Pharmacy technicians perform duties that require professional judgement. B: Pharmacy technicians must be alert for drug interactions. C: Pharmacy technicians perform duties that do onot require profesional judgement. D: Pharmacy technicians must be able to communicate effectively with the patient and determine when pharmacist counseling is needed.
C: Pharmacy technicians perform duties that do onot require profesional judgement.
Proper PPE for a technician checking in an order containing hazardous drugs includes all of the following items EXCEPT: A: Respiratory mask B: Chemotherapy gloves C: Radiation suit D: Goggles
C: Radiaion suit
Which of the following rules is informed consent mandates that the information the patient recievs is in lay terms and given in a non-threatening manner so the patient understands the benefits and can make a reasonable decision? A: Disclosure B: Voluntariness C: Understanding D: COmpetence
C: Understanding
The purpose of a formulary is a document: A) The pharmacy reference sources approved for use. B) The use of experimental drugs only. C) List of approved generics only. D) A listing of committee-approved pharmaceuticals and therapeutics in stock.
D) A listing of committee-approved pharmaceuticals and therapeutics in stock
All of the following are requirements for a prescription label except: A) Name and address of the pharmacy. B) Name of the prescriber. C) Serial number of the prescription. D) Address of patient.
D) Address of the patient
Pharmacist may substitute a generic product for a brand name product if the following criteria are met: A) The physician has not indicated �Dispense as Written� B) The substituted drug is equal to or less in price than the brand name drug. C) The savings are passed onto the consumer or a third party payer D) All of the above
D) All of the above
The iPledge program, restricts the distributiion of: A) Accutane B) Claravis C) Isotretinoin D) All of the above
D) All of the above
Which of the following is a common disease treated in the home care environment? A) Osteomyelitis. B) Chronic pain. C) Malnutrition. D) All of the above.
D) All of the above
A prescription states "Norvasc 5 mg #100 1 tab po qd". If the third party coverage limits the dispensing to a 30 day supply, the pharmacy should: A) Dispense a 30 day supply with no refills. B) Dispense a 100 day supply and have the patient pay the difference. C) Call the third party payor and get special permission to dispense 100. D) Dispense a 30 day supply with refills.
D) Dispense a 30 day supply with refills
A prescription states "Procardia XL 30 mg #100 1 tab po qd". If the third party coverage limits the dispensing to a 30 day supply, the pharmacy should: A) Dispense a 30 day supply with no refills. B) Dispense a 100 day supply and have the patient pay the difference. C) Call the third party payer and get special permission to dispense 100. D) Dispense a 30 day supply with refills.
D) Dispense a 30 day supply with refills
Another pharmacy calls for a copy of an Rx and the pharmacist is busy counseling a patient. The pharmacy technician should: A) Convey the prescription information to the pharmacy. B) Interrupt the pharmacist. C) Ask the pharmacy to call the prescribing physician. D) Tell them that the pharmacist is busy and to call back later.
D) Tell them that the pharmacist is busy and to callback later
A resource that may be used to determine if the parenteral medication must be filtered is all the following except: A) The package insert. B) Handbook on Injectable Drugs. C) The manufacturer. D) The Red Book on injectable drugs.
D) The Red Book on injectable drugs
A 500-ml quantity of D5W contains how many grams of dextrose?
D5W means 5% Dextrose in water By definition 5% means 5 gm/100 ml 5 gm X 2500 gm ------- = -------- = ---------- = X=25 100 ml 500 ml 100 X 25 gm is the answer
A 500-ml quantity of D5W contains how many grams of dextrose?
D5W=5% Dextrose in water. 5gm/100ml=X/500ml x=25 25 gm
When confronted with an unexpected ethical situation, which of the following would NOT be helpful in reaching an acceptable decision? A: Choose the best of the alternatice B: Carefully identify the problem C: Gather as much pertinent info about the issue as possible in the amount of time available D: Act quickly, think later
D: Act quickly, think later
Common technician responsibilities that require extra precaution unclude all of the ollowing EXCEPT: A: Dilution of hazardous drugs B: Reconstuitution of hazardous drugs C: Decontamination and cleaning of drug preparation area D: Administration of hazardous drugs
D: Administration of hazardous drugs
Which of the following types of medications are administered into the ear canal? A: Antibiotics B:Analgestics C:Anti-Inflammatory agents D:All of the above
D: All of the above
A patient suffering from this illness would be a good candidate for tatal parenteral nutrition: A: Kidney stones B:Binge-eating disorder C; Diabetes D: Anorexia nervosa
D: Anorexia nervosa
Which of the following is NOT an exaample of an acticvity that supports life-long learning? A: Attending education seminars B: Networking with other medical professionals C: Reading professional journals D: Boycotting membership in professional organizations
D: Boycotting membership in professional organizations
Which of the following key terms describes the reason that the relationship between nphysicians and pharmacists began to sour in the late 1800s? A: Shotgun preparations B: Patent medicines C: Paradign shift D: Counter- prescribing
D: Counter prescribing
A technician needs to look up the solubility on a solubility table. In what ration wil this information be listed? A:Grams of solvent per milliliters of vehicle B: Grams of solvent per milliliters of suspending agent required C: Grams of solvent per milliliters of final solution D: Grams of solvent per milliliters of solvent
D: Grams of solvent per milliliters of solvent
Which of the following is not a major contributing factor to the high cost of compounded parenteral products? A: Equipment costs B: Oersibbek training costs C: Deliverary Costs D: Meterial costs
D: Material Costs
What is not one of the minimum education requirements for pharmacy technicians? A: Law and ethics for the allied health professional B: Pharmacy math ;C: Medical terlminology D: Nuclear pharmacy technician certificate
D: Nuclear pharmacy technician certificate
Which of the following is an example of a scedule I drug? A: Barbiturates B:Amohetamines C: Opium dericatives D: Peyote
D: Peyote
Which of the following is NOT a reason that the price a patient pays for a prescription drug would change? A: Patent for brand-name drug expires B: Insurance plan changed coverage guidlines C: Presription transferred to OTC status D: Pharmacy technicians offers discount to patient on fixed income
D: Pharmacy technicians offers discount to patient on fixed income
Which of the following contains only a very small amount of narcotic drugs? A: Schedule IV B: Schedule III C: Schedule II D: Schedule V
D: Schedule V
Which of the following is NOT acharacteristic of a eukaryotic cell? A: Golgi apparatus B: Mitochondria C: Nucleus D: Simple flagella
D: Simple flagella
Which of teh following is NOT an aqueous solution? A: Douches B: Enema C: Gargles D: Spirits of peppermint
D: Spirits of peppermint
Which of the following does NOT describe an element of the typical HMO prexcription drug plan? A: The use of available generics is often required B: THe patients PCP writes all teh prescriptions C: Only a 30 day suppy of medication is allowed to be purchased at the retail pharmacy D: THe patient sees a provider from the plan's preferred list and takes the prescriptin to a member pharmacy that has a contract with the insurance plan
D: THe patient sees a provider from the plan's preferred list and takes the prescriptin to a member pharmacy that has a contract with the insurance plan
A patient who is hearing impared comes to the counter. Which of the following is NOT an appropiate solution? A: Ask if anyone knows American Sign language B: Write a note to the patient C: Look at the patient as you speak distinctly in a moderatly loud voice D: Talk very loudly; yell if necessary
D: Talk very loudly; yell if necessary.
Which of the following statements is true of facultative anaerobic bacteria? A: They cant function in an atmosphere with oxygen B: tehy need around 5% oxygen to survive C: They need oxygen level similar to that of room air D: They can function with or w/o the rpresense of oxygen
D: They can function with or w/o the rpresense of oxygen
The APhA offers all of teh following services to its members EXCEPT A: Professional journal B: online career center C: online drug info center D: seperate sect. for pharmacy techs
D: seperate sect. for pharmacy techs
All of the following are standard items of basic equipent needed for routine compounding of ointments, creams, gels, and pastes EXCEPT: A: Ointment slab or pad B:Mortars and pestles C: Clasls A prexription balance D: Capsule-filling machine
D:Capsule filling machien
Which of the following is most likely to be a contributing factor to the incorrect drug being dispensed? A: Dosage form B:Third party insurance regulations C: Patient refusing counseling from the pharmacist D:Look alike and sould alike drug names
D:Look alike and sould alike drug names
All of the following are narcotis/sedatives EXCEPT: A:Midazolam B; Morphine C: Lorazepam D:Sodium chloride (concentrations greater than 0.9%)
D:Sodium chloride (concentrations greater than 0.9%)
What is required ofr ordering scehdule II ddrugs?
DEA Form 222
The form number for ordering Schedule II drugs is: DEA Form 242; DEA form 218,, DEA form 222, DEA Form 322
DEA form 222
Which act states that before a dietary supplement or dietary ingredient can be marketed, the manufacturer must ensure it is safe?
DSHEA
How often must a technician clean an automated compounder used for sompounding TPNs?
Daily
False communication about another person that causes harm to their reputation is a tort called what?
Defamation of character
For what type of condition is a topical powder most liekly to be prescribed/compounded?
Dermatological
What are three base components of a TPN?
Destrose, lipid emulsion, amino acids
What part of the administration port musct be punctured in order for the solution to pour out of a standard LVP?
Diaphragm
Which of the following medications belong to the same class of drugs as Etodolac? phenylephrine, diclofenac, haloperidol, cefaclor
Diclofenac
Which of the following drugs is a coronary calcium channel blocker?
Diltiazem
Which of the following drugs is a calcium channel blocker?
Diltiazem.
Which of the following drugs is prescribed for the relief of allergy symptoms?
Diphenhydramine, Chlorpheniramine and Hydroxyzine are all used in the treatment of allergy symptoms. All of the above.
If you believe someone has presented a fraudulent prescription at your pharmacy, the best action would be to: Call the police stat. Call the physician whose name appears on the prescription immediately. Discreetly notify the pharmacist so that the appropriate action may be taken. Tell the patient that the prescription is fraudulent.
Discreetly notify the pharmacist so that the appropriate action may be taken.
Sharps used in hazardous waste are
Disinfected in an autoclave or microwave
Preventable medical errors with in the professional pharmacy practices do occur during____________________.
Dispensing, packaging, and compounding
Following the preparation of an Vinblastine I.V. admixture, the needle and syringe should be:
Disposed of in an approved container without recapping or clipping.
If triuration, levigation and spatulation fail to reduce a solid to an acceptably fine powder, what might be the best procedure?
Dissolving solid in a suitable solvent
A technician is preparing to compoung capsules for a rprescription that requires a capsule to accommadoate a 0.6 g of powder. Which capsule size will the technician most likely choose.
Double size zero
What is the largest capsule size for use in the human patients?
Double size-zero
Of the following, which medication is most likely to be associated with development of photosensitivity?
Doxycycline, Tetracycline and Minocycline all have the side effect of photosensitivity.
Of the following Drug Recalls, which one is the most important in that all parties involved in the dispensing of a prescription (Doctor, Pharmacy and patient) must be notified due to the drugs potential or serious harm?
Drug Recall 1
The second field of numbers in the National Drug Code (NDC) identifies the:
Drug description
A medication has a warning label stating it should not be used in a patient who has glaucoma. This is an example of what?
Drug-dissease interaction
What are three primary concerns when using a TPN as a drug delivery vehicle?
Drugs compatibility with the other agents in TPN mixture, need to adjust dose during infusion, drug's stability in the solution
A kit containing drugs needed for an emergency situation in a hospital is...
EDK
What can cause a severe allerrgive reaction in individuals with sensiticity to sunflowers and related plants?
Echinacea
Of the following medications, which one may not be crushed? Ecotrin 325, Fiorinal, Inderal 10, Robaxin 500
Ecotrin - it has an enteric coating designed to dissolve in the intestines and should not be crushed.
Of the following medications, which one may not be crushed?
Ecotrin 325 mg.
Who is responsible for the drug recall process: OSHA, OBRA, FDA, NBA
FDA
Who is responsible for the drug recall process?
FDA
Of the following, the reference source that would provide the most comprehensive indication and dosage information about a newly released Macrolide is: American Drug Index. Facts and Comparisons. Physician's Desk Reference. Merck Index.
Facts and Comparisons
Why must technicians be sure to store suppossitories with fatty-type bases at room temperature or colder?
Fatty bases are formulated to melt at body temp
Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to another person
Federal law requires that all controlled substances dispensed bear the following statement on the dispensing label?
A log of controlled substances dispensed
Federal laws requires which of the following information to be documented on a daily basis?
Which of the following medications is not commercially available as a tablet?
Fentanyl.
which of the following dosage forms best masks the unpleasant taste of a drug: -film coated tablets -chewable tablet -buccal tablet -SL tablet
Film coated tablets
Which of the following dosage forms best masks the unpleasant taste of a drug?
Film-coated tablets
Which of the following dosage forms is formulated to mask an objectionable taste of a medication?
Film-coated tablets
What pertinent piece of legislation addresses the issue of extemporaneous compounding in a pharmacy setting?
Food Drug Modernization Act of 1997
Vapsuels for pharmacy compounding are usually made of what?
Gelatin
What are3 standard techniques for mixing solid particles into a homogenous mixture?
Geometirc, dilution, tumbing, spatulation
The pharmacist asked you to check the compatibility of parenteral Dilantin with sodium chloride 0.9%. Which reference would you select to find this information?
Handbook on Injectable Drugs.
In performing their duties, what must a Pharmacy Technician do? Check everything they do. Read all labels three times. Have all labels and products checked by a pharmacist. Are certified.
Have all labels and products checked by a pharmacist.
What do antieoplastic drugs do?
Helo control or cure cancer
When confronted with an angry or upset patient, which of the following steps would NOT be helpful in reaching an acceptable resolution? A: Speak in a calm voice B: Excuse yourself, step away from the patient, and enlist the help of another technician or pharmacist C: do not allow the patient to treat you disrespectfully, shout back if necessary D: If the patient seems distraught, ask if there is anything you can do to help
C: do not allow the patient to treat you disrespectfully, shout back if necessary
Which of the following statements regarding non-consequential ethics is not true? A: Asks if the immediate action is an ethical one B: Based on the truth of a situation C: emphasized the end result D: questions whether immediate action is a good one
C: emphasized the end result
For what condition is a rectal suppository most likely to be preprescsribed/compoundeD?
Hemorrhoids
Which of the following is a federal program that provides healthcare for patients wiht end-stage renal disease? A: Point of service plans B: Medicaid C: medicare D: SCHIP
C:Medicare
ProtoFoam is one of several OTC preparations for the treatment of what?
Hemorrhoids
Parasympatholytic agents are not used to treat which of the following?
Irritable Bowel Syndrome
Records of Schedule II substances must be maintained separately from all other records of the registrant
How should records of the receipt and disposition of all controlled substances must be kept?
Finished preparation release checks and tests include all the following except:
Infectious microbial carcinoma testing
Which of the following is NOT an indication that a compounding harmacy is involved in manufacturing procedures? A: Pharmay is selling at wholesale to other companies B: Pharmacy is advertising compounded prodcuts C:Pharmacy is using commericial products as ingredients for compounding D: Pharmacy is compounding in bulk for national distribution
C:Pharmacy is using commericial products as ingredients for compounding
Which of the following individuals is NOT an authorized prescriber for controlled drugs? A: Mid-level practicioner registered with the DEA B:Intern using DEA number of institution where he or she is working C:Physician D: Physician registered with the DEA
C:Physician
Which federal legislation enacted in 1970 regulates the use and distribution of substances with high abuse potentinal: FDCA, CSA, DEA, FDA
CSA CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE ACT
A cash resgister is a mechanical or electronic device used for which of the following?
Calculate and Record sales transactions
While a mother is waiting for an Amoxicillin prescription for her 8-year old, she asks the technician what to give the child for fever. The technician should:
Inform the pharmacist that the mother would like help choosing a nonprescription product.
What rule dirests that patients be fully informed about the benefits and risk of taking their medication?
Informed consent
Who does a reverse distributors provide services for? Manufacturer Drug wholesaler Independent Pharmacies None of the above
Independent Pharmacies
Propranolol is the generic name for:
Inderal.
Propranolol is the same as:
Inderal.
All of the following medications must be prepared in a vertical laminar airflow hood except:
Ceftriaxone.
The walls of a clean room should be washed how often?
Monthly.
What piece of compounding equipment are used to triturate solid mateials when compounding a solution?
Mortars and Pestles
Which of the following medications is an over the counter analgesic?
Naproxen tablets.
Narcan is categorized as a:
Narcotic Antagonist
Meperidine is classified as a/an:
Narcotic.
Each pharmacy that participates in the Medicare Part D insurance plan is required to obtain a __ number to ensure secure, efficient transfers of health information between providers and health plans.
National provider indentifier
A technician working in a pharmacy recieves an order from a wholesaler. Two boxes appear to have been damaged during shipping. WHat is the appropiate course of action for the recieveing technician?
Note damage on shipper manifest or refuse the boxes
The Poison Prevention Act.
Of the following, which one deals with the issue of child-proof caps on prescription bottles?
Medicare is divided into 4 parts. Which part provides hospital care and requires no monthly premium for eligable members?
Medicare Part A
Medicare is divided into four parts. What part is a prescription drug plan provided by private insurance companies and funded by the federal government?
Medicare Part D
A policy sold by an insurance company to fill the gaps in the original Medicare plans
Medicare supplemt policy
Nmae three things that are a part of a patient profile.
Medication history, diagnoses, allergies
There are legend drugs that are exempt from The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970. One is ___________________________.
Medroxyprogesterone acetate tablets
Schedule II
Meperidine belongs to which category of controlled substances?
What is the process whereby a drug is transformed by the liver to another chemical:
Metabolism
CII
Methylphenidate belongs to which schedule of controlled substances?
Sumycin and Achromycin should not be administered with which of the following beverages?
Milk.
A physicial prescribes a drug that is not included in teh formulary. What is require by the insurance company in order to request coverage for this drug.
Prior authorization
Which of the following improves your chances for career advancement?
Problem -solving
What kind of cells are bacteria classified as?
Prokaryoticyes
On a vertical flow hood, what is the shield on teh front designed to do?
Protect the compounder from hazardous materials
The counseling of patients by pharmacists
The establishment of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) in 1990, led to most states requiring:
Of the following the reference that would prov ide the most comprehensive indication and dosage info about a newly released macrolide would be: facts and comparison, the merck, the US Pharmacoepia
The facts and comparisons its updated monthly
What law deals with child-proof caps on Rx bottles: The controlled substance act, the Poison prevention act, Hazardous substance act, or Federal food and cosmetic act
The poison prevention act
Assure a safe and healthful workplace
The purpose of OSHA is to:
When compounding a hazardous sterile product, what should the technician do immediately prior to labeling the product?
Put on new gloves
The decrease of effectiveness of the drugs when ampicillin and gentamicin are given together is an example of which incompatibility? Chemical, physical, therapeutic, all of the above
Therapeutic
The pharmacy technician is filling a prescription for Zithromax and notices in the patient profile that the patient is taking EES tablets. This is an example of:
Therapeutic Duplication
A patient comes in wondering whether he/she can take a certain medication with another one. As a Pharmacy Technician what should you do?
Request the patient see the pharmacist for a consult.
The decrease of effectiveness of the drugs when Omnipen and Gentamicin are given together is an example of which incompatibility?
Therapeutic.
Whatare the factors in determining the risk level for compounding sterile products?
Risk of pathogens, risk of increased microbial growth, risk of inaccurate ingredients
Why should hazardous drugs not be stored above eye level?
Risk of them falling
CII
Ritalin belongs to which schedule of controlled substances?
Morphine Sulfate oral solution 20 mg/5 ml and morphine sulfate oral solution concentrate 20 mg/1 ml should be stored at what temperature?
Room Temperature, at 15 degrees C to 30 degrees C (59 degrees F to 86 degrees F) for both.
THe directions to the patient, ften using abbreviations that must be clearly typed on the medication label in fully understandable text, is also called the
SIGNA
Ear infections can be treated with which of the following?
SMZ-TMP
How is insulin injected?
SQ
Add-Vantae is an ex of what kind of system?
SVP
As of Janurary 1, 2008, what change in continuing education should pharmacy technicians be aware of?
Seperate and non-transferable credits for pharmacists and technicians
The two basic parts of a needle are the:
Shaft and hub.
Suprax suspension requires which auxiliary label?
Shake Well.
Needles used to prepare sterile IV solutions should be disposed in:
Sharp's Container.
Personal Protective Equipment includes:
Shoe covers Face mask Non-shedding gown All of the above (answer)
Efudex cream:
Should be applied with gloves or a nonmetallic object.
What is not an advantage of compounded capsules as a dosage form?
Significantly less expensive than other dosage forms
All aseptic manipulations in the laminar flow hood should be performed at least:
Six inches within the hood.
As a rule of thumb, when do pharmacy technicians begin disposal procedures with produccts in the inventory?
Six to eight weeks before the listed expiration date
A pharmacy tech makes a disparaging comment about a difficult patient following a disagreement. The tech's comment is overheard by the patient or others nearby. THis is grounds for what?
Slanderless
What key factor determines whether the formulation will be a solution or a suspension?
Solubility
Medication orders written in a hospital setting that should be deliverd within 15 minutes are called what?
Stat orders
What institution ussues and suspends licenses for pharmacists, technicians, and pharmacy practice settings in each state?
State BOP
What organization determines which certification exam is accepted for state certification?
State BOP
licensing and general professional oversight of pharmacists and pharmacies are carried out by: US board of Pharmacy, State board of Pharmacy, The American Board of pharmacy, The DEA
State board of Pharmacy
What type of fungal infection affects the soft tissues, muscles, and bones immediately below the skin?
Subcutaneous
one way a P&T Committee may try to reduce inventory cost is by what?
Substituting suitable drugs of a specific class for more expensive ones
A pharmacy technician answers the phone in a bus pharmacy. A physician immediatly begins to give an oral prescription for a patient. Which of the following isNOT an appropiate response?
Take the oral prescription
What is the generic name for Nolvadex an anti-estrogen type medication that is often used in the treatment of breast cancer?
Tamoxifen (Nolvadex)
The laminar flow hood should be left operating continuously. If it is turned off, it should not be used until it has been running for at least:
Thirty minutes.
The laminar flow workbench should be left operating continuously. If it is turned off, it should not be used until it has been running for at least:
Thirty minutes.
When shelving medication from a recieved order, the technician should check the product label ___ times.
Three
Which of the following medications is available by prescription only?
Temazepam
The possibliity of a drug or disease interaction is higher with wihich of the following products?
Tera Flu Severe Cold and Congestion
What type of potentially hazardous drug is Isotretinoin (Accutane), which is commnly prescribed for severe acne? A: oNCOGENIC B: Mutagenic C: Gygienic D:Teratogenic
Teratogenic
Which drug is most likely to cause a photosensitivity reaction?
Tetracycline
Glycylcyclines are a new class of antibiotics derived from
Tetracycline.
The appearance of crystals in Mannitol injection indicates:
That the solution is cold and the crystals may be redissolved.
Schedule III - V
The "C" designation for controlled substances applies to:
Schedule III - V
The 1 inch Red Letter "C" designation for controlled substances applies to
Schedule III - V
The 1 inch Red Letter "C" designation for controlled substances applies to:
Testosterone
The Anabolic Steroids Control Act of 1990 places anabolic steroids under the regulatory provisions of the Controlled Substances Act. These drugs are defined as "any drug or hormonal substance chemically and pharmacologically related to:
If you suspect that a schedule II drug has been stolen, who is to be notified? The DEA and the P.D., The DEA, The FDA and DEA, The FBI and DEA
The DEA
When developing a policy and procedure for ensuring the safety of a medication in a multi-dose vial, all the following should be considered except: The cost of the medication. The stability of the medication. The presence of a suitable preservative. All of the above.
The cost of the medication
in writing, orally, or by Pharmacist
The counseling under OBRA 90 may be made:
The gauge of a needle represents:
The diameter of the needle.
Sig on a written prescription is the:
The directions for the medication ordered
Sig or Signa on a written prescription means:
The directions for the medication ordered is the answer.
A list of compounding formulas for drug preparation is called
a pharmacopeia
A cash register is a mechanical or electronic device used for which of the following: calculate sales transactions, calculate and record sales transactions, record sales transactions only, none of the above
calculate and record sales transactions
A medication that isnt listed in an insurance formulary ay still be covered by the insurance plan if the physician:
calls the insurance company for prior authorization for the drug
What forms a eutetic mixture when combined?
camphor and salycylic acid
Which of the following is an unacceptable DEA #?
a. Add 1st, 3rd, 5th digits b. Add 2nd, 4th, 6th digits (x2) c. Add the results together d. Last digit of this sum should correspond with the ninth digit of DEA. AH3126426 is correct
The prexcription label for a compounded topical should include all of the following info EXCEPT: a: ingredients and amount B: patients name C: compounding procedure D: expiration date
a: ingredients and amount
An order calls for Hytone 1% cream, Lotrimin 1% cream, aa q.s. How many grams of Lotrimin cream would be needed to make a total of 60 g of cream?
aa=of each 60 gm total=gm of each Hytone and Lotrimin cream 30 g
Tall Man Letters help prevent errors. Which of the following make safe use of Tall Man Letters?
acetaZOLAMIDE-acetoHEXAMIDE
advantage of lozenges as silid form dosage
can treat mouth and troat issues locally,are formulated to taste pleseant,,are good for patients that cant swallow other dosage forms
What accessory might a compounding lab require if it frequently compounds capsules?
capsule filling machine
lanoxin is a member of which of the following classes of drugs? ACE inhibitors, cardiac glycosides, beta-blocker, calcium-channel blocker
cardiac glycosides
Medication errors are: not recordable, do not happen in pharmacies, preventable, patients responsibility
are preventable
PRN
as needed
What is arguably the 1st major step in beoming a pro pharm. tech?
certification
A lozenge is also know as a(n):
Troche
A prescription can be written for OTC drugs.
True
What is the most potent and fast acting antacid that can potentially cause a rebound effect if overused?
Tums
The doctor writes ii gtts OU bid. What does this mean?
Two drops in each eye twice a day
Patients taking Piroxicam for an inflammation should be advised by the pharmacist to use which drug for simple headache?
Tylenol
What determines the speed with which the active ingredient of a compounded topical will be absorbed?
Type of based used.
Tobrex ophthalmicc ung refers to: ointment for the eye, solution for the eye, topical ointment, ointment used for the ear.
UNG is abbreviation for ointment ointment for the eye
What reference book should a pharmacy technician look to find storage requirements for a particular medication: handbook on injectable drugs, facts and comparisons, American drug index, usp-nf
USP-NF standards provide essential specifications for product development, quality control, production, labeling and storage
The directions for use of a medication is "i sl prn". The meaning:
Under the tongue
What kind of packaging do manufacturers of oral antibiotic powders for reconstitution generally use?
Unit of use of bottles
What does USP stand for?
United States Pharmacopeia
What type of mortat should be used if a non-porous interier surface is required?
clear glass mortar
An example of a major drug-drug interaction would be:
Warfarin-aspirin.
When looking for buying discrepancies, state board inspectores often check controlled drug invoices against what?
daily dispensing records
After succesfulyy compounding a product, which item should NOT be left for the pharmacist to chekc?
Weighing paper
The Poison Prevention Act
What Act deals with the issue of safety caps on prescription bottles?
American Pharmaceutical Association
What do the initials APhA stand for?
5 refills in 6 months
What is the maximum number of refills permitted for a Schedule III medication?
Certification
What is the process by which a non-governmental association or agency grants recognition to an individual who has met certain predetermined qualifications?
Registration
What is the process of making a list or being enrolled in an existing list?
What volume of 24% trichloroacetic acid (TCA) is needed to prepare eight 3 ounce bottles of 10% TCA solution?
What volume of 24% trichloroacetic acid (TCA) is needed to prepare eight 3 ounce bottles of 10% TCA solution? 24%-10%=14 parts 10%-0%=10 parts 24 total parts 3 ounces= 90 ml, 8 bottles x 90ml 720 total ml 24 parts 10 parts ------------- = ---------- 720 total ml X 7200 ------ = X=300 ml 24 X 300 ml is the answer
All of the above The patient must sign an informed consent, participation is voluntary, and the patient may withdraw from the study at any time
Which of the following are true concerning patient participation in an investigational drug study: a) The patient must sign an informed consent. b) Participation is voluntary. c) The patient may withdraw from the study at any time. d) All of the above
Drugs with no accepted medical use in the United States ,with a high potential for physical dependence - ex. Heroin, opium, marijuana.
Which of the following best describes controlled substances in Schedule I?
Methylphenidate
Which of the following is a Schedule II controlled substance? a) Diazepam. b) Methylphenidate. c) Pentazocine. d) Lomotil.
Valium
Which of the following is a Schedule IV controlled substance? a) Lomotil. b) Valium. c) Demerol. d) Haldol.
Third copy DEA Form 222C & a Commercial invoice.
Which of the following is proof of receipt of Class II controlled substances?
Oxycodone
Which of the following may only be ordered by completing the DEA Form 222? a) Alprazolam. b) Acetaminophen with codeine. c) Oxycodone. d) Diphenoxylate.
Xanax
Which of the following medications is a Schedule IV controlled substance? a) Xanex b) Lomotil c) Tylox d) Tylenol #4
Triazolam
Which of the following medications is a Schedule IV substance? a) Paregoric. b) Triazolam. c) Diphenoxylate with atropine. d) Dronabinol
Oxazepam
Which of the following substances is not classified as a Schedule II controlled substance? a)
Schedule I
Which schedule deals with drugs that have no medicinal use in the United States and have a high abuse potential?
P & T Committee
Who implements formulary review for new drugs?
Pharmacist
Who is legally responsible by virtue of state licensure for the care and safety of patients served by the pharmacy?
Candida are found in the gastointestinal, rectal, oral, and vaginal muscosa and can be classifies as a species of what?
Yeasts
Which of the following is not a true statement regarding multiple dose containers?
Ampules can be refrigerated up to 28 days.
Norco
An example of a Schedule II controlled substance is a) Norco b) Soma c) Xanex d) Ultram
Which of the following are true about Cimetidine:
An over-the-counter preparation is available. It reduces the acidity of the stomach. It interacts with many other drugs. All the above.
Which of the following types of medications would not be used on the skin?
Anthelmintics
What can increase the risk of opportunistic fungal infections?
Antibiotic therapy.
Bacteria that produve endotoxins are generally treatable with:
Antibiotics
Heparin belongs to which pharmacological category?
Anticoagulant
Your receive a prescription for Fluoxetine (Prozac) qd x 30 days. What is Fluoxetine?
Antidepressant
Prochlorperazine belongs to what classification of drugs?
Antiemetic.
To which drug classification does the drug prochlorperazine belong?
Antiemetic.
Which of the following is not a type of respiratory system medication?
Antifungal.
Which of the following is not a type of cardiac medication?
Antihyperlipidemic agent.
Medications used to relieve the signs and symptoms of psychosis are classified as
Antipsychotics
A drug or chemical that reduces itching.
Antipuritic
Ethambutol, Rifampin, and Isoniazid are examples of:
Antitubercular agents
A substance that reduced or inhibits the cough reflex...
Antitussive
For a dry hacking cough, what class of drug would be needed?
Antitussive.
What type of medication is used to relieve a dry hacking cough?
Antitussive.
Which class of drugs would be administered for a dry hacking cough?
Antitussive.
Of the following Group names, which one would be used for cough?
Antitussives
Annual media fill testing is required for pharmacy personnel involved in compounding what?
Any IV admixture
A technician working in a pharmacy that specialized in the management of diabetes would be required to become familiar with the sale and use of what?
Blood glucose testing equipment
Thiazide diuretics are used for:
Blood pressure treatment.
What describes a large dose injected over a short period of time?
Bolus dose
Which of the following is an example of a side effect of Fluorouracil therapy?
Bone marrow supression
Which of the following is an example of a side effect of antineoplastic therapy?
Bone marrow supression
Terbutaline belongs to which drug classification?
Bronchodilator
Beta -2 receptor blockers belong to which drug classification?
Bronchodilator.
How can the technician hasten solution of solute and solvent when compounding a solution?
By placing mixing beaker in a water bath
Bulk powders can be administered to dose internally to treat what? give three examples
constipation, psoriasis, heatburn
True or False? Records of all recieving and dispensing of controlled drugs must be stored with other records.
false
What are 3 contributing factors to the increased importance of HIV pharmacotherapy?
fda fast-tracking of AIDS drugs, Increased life expectancy of HIV/AIDS patients, development of specialty pharmacies for HIV/AIDS patients
Name 3 plave that are considered a portal exit for microorganisms
fecal matter, respiratory secretins, blood and body fluids
What can determine the final therapeutic effect of topically applied medications?
the use of an occlusive dressing, the delivery vehicle, and the condition of teh patient's skin
Digoxin is available in a concentration of 0.1 mg/ml. How many ml are required to administer a 75 mcg dose?
.1mg=100mcg 100mcg/1ml=75mcg/X = .75ml .75 ml
What volume of Digoxin 0.5 mg/2 ml injection will deliver a dose of 0.125 mg.
.5 ml is the answer.
Which of the following types of medications would not be used on the skin antiseptic, anti-infective, anthelmintic, anti-inflammatories
anthelmintic
superficial wounds may be treated with
anticeptic oinments,antibiotic oinments and anesthetic oinmments
Heparin belongs to which pharmaceutical category? anticonvulsant, anticoagulant, antibiotic, antipsychotic
anticoagulant
Until recently, all of the anticonvulsant drugs have been used for decades. Which of the following drugs is a new drug in the arsenal of anticonvulsant therapy?
Gabapentin.
Once every two years
How often must Schedule II controlled substances be physically inventoried?
21 years old
How old must a person be to sign the exempt narcotic log:
Upload or submit copies of the continuing education documentation as instructed
If chosen for an audit, what should the CPhT do?
What medication increases the amount of dopamine in the Central Nervous System.
Levadopa.
What medication increases the amount of dopamine in the Central Nervous System?
Levadopa.
The strepptoccus pyogenes bacterium is responsible for strepp throat and appears under the microscope in this kind of formation:
Long chain of circular shaped bacteria
Lanoxin Elixir is available in a concentration of 0.05 mg/ml. What quantity is required for a 0.25 mg dose?
.05 mg .25 mg .25 ml -------- = --------- = -------- 1 ml X .05X X=5 ml 5 ml is the answer
How much Neomycin powder must be added to Triamcinolone 1% cream to dispense an order for 60 g Neomycin 0.5% cream in Triamcinolone 1% cream?
.5gm/100gm=X/60gm 30gm=100x=.3 gm 300 mg
A TPN order is to contain 1 mg of folic acid per 1000 cc of TPN. If the stock vial of oflic acid contains 5mg.ml, what volume would be required to prepare 3000 ml of TPN.
.6ml
What quantity of dexamethasone 0.75 mg tablets will be required for a 4.5 mg dose?
.75 mg 4.5 mg 4.5 tab -------- = -------- = ---------- 1 tab X .75X X=6 tabs 6 tabs is the answer
The proper method for disposing of a used needle and syringe after mixing Cefitriaxone is:
Place needle and syringe directly in a sharps container, do not recap
Digoxin Elixir is available in a concentration of 0.05 mg/ml. What quantity is required for a 0.125 mg dose?
0.05 mg .125 mg .125 ml --------- = --------- = -------- 1 ml X .05 X X=2.5 ml 2.5 ml is the answer.
Sublingual (SL) tabs are:
Placed under the tongue
What volume of pediatric digoxin injection 0.1 mg/ml is required for a 50 mcg dose?
.1 mg = 100 mcg is the proportion 100 mcg 50 mcg 50 ml ---------- = --------- = -------- 1 ml X 100x X=.5ml 0.5 ml is the answer
Position or job descriptions: -are the same for technicians from pharmacy to pharmacy -are written descriptions outlining employee responsibilities and duties -are the same for pharmacists and doctors -apply only to head technicians
-are written descriptions outlining employee responsibilities and duties
certification is the process : -of granting recognition or vouching for conformance with a standard -by which a non-governmental agency or association grants recognition to an individual who has met certain predetermined qualifications specified by that agency or association -of formally recognizing professional or technical competence by a governmental agency -of making a list or being enrolled in an existing list
-by which a non-governmental agency or association grants recognition to an individual who has met certain predetermined qualifications specified by that agency or association
A piggyback has 50 ml of antibiotic infusing at a rate of 30 gtts/min. How long will it take for this solution to be administered if the set is calibrated to deliver 15 gtts/ml?
15 gtts/1 ml * X/50 ml = 750 gtts 30 gtts/1 min * 750 gtts / x = 25 min 25 minutes is the answer.
Most unit-dose systems provide each patient with a storage bin, in which can be found a supply of drugs for:
24 hours
An administration set that delivers 10 gtt/ml is set up to infuse 1000 ml Ringers Solution over a 24-hr period. What flow rate will be required to deliver the 1000 ml.
24 hr/dayX60 min/hr=1440 min 1000 ml -------- = .69 ml/min 1440 min 10 drops X 6.9 drops ---------- = ----- = ----------- 1 ml .69 ml 1X X=6.9 drops 7 drops/min is the correct answer.
What volume of 24% trichloroacetic acid (TCA) is needed to prepare eight 3 ounce bottles of 10% TCA solution?
24-10=14 parts 0-10=10 parts 24 total parts 3 ounces= 90 ml, 8 x 90 ml = 720 total ml 24 total parts/720 total ml=10 parts/X 7200/24x = 300ml 300 ml
What ratio of 25% dextrose and 10% dextrose should be mixed to make a 20% dextrose solution?
25%- 10 parts 20% -15 parts total 10% - 5 parts 10:5 = 2:1 2:1 is the answer.
You receive a prescription for Amoxicillin 75 mg QID for ten days. How many ml's of Amoxicillin 250 mg/5 cc do you need?
250mg/5cc=75mg/X 375ml/250X =1.5ml 1.5 x 4 daily x 10 days =60 ml 60 ml
How much Ceclor 250 mg/5 ml suspension should be dispensed for a 375 mg dose?
250mg/5ml=375mg/X 1875ml/250X = 7.5 ml 7.5 ml
You receive an order for Vinblastine. In preparing this drug you should:
Prepare it in a biological safety cabinet.
Pharmacy Benefit Manager (PBM) are companies that only handle:
Prescription Billing
A prescription is written for penicillin VK 250 mg tab's po qid for 10 days. If the patient cannot swallow tablets and requests a liquid dosage form, what volume of 250 mg/5 ml suspension should be dispensed?
4 doses X 10 days = 40 doses 5 ml X 40 doses = 200 ml 200 ml is the answer.
Legend drugs
Prescription drugs are also known as:
If 15 gallons of distilled water cost $42.00, how much will 4 gallons cost?
42.00 X $168.00 ------- = ------- = --------- 15 gal 4 gal 15X X=$11.20 $11.20 is the answer
What is the max number of refills for schedule III drug
5
what is the total amount of hydrocortisone found in eight 1oz tubes of hydrocortisone cream 2.5%
6 gm
how often must a laminar flow hood be checked: 3months, 6 months, yearly, when it breaks down
6 months
A technician uses Cod Liver Oil, USP as an ingredient to compound a hemorrhoid treatment. WHat is the longest expiration date that the technician should list on the label?
6 months from date of compounding
A posion is defined as a substance that may be destructive to human life in a quantity of what?
60 grains or less
Tylenol No. 4 is Acetaminophen 325 mg and Codeine ______ mg.
60 mg.
an ASAP order written in a hospital setting should be delivered within what?
60 minutes
Tylenol sinus would be contraindicated in a patient with:
A history of hypertension
Hazardous substances are most likely to be compounded in what?
A horizontal airflow hood
The pharmacy technician is filling a prescription for Cephalexin and notices in the patient profile that the patient is taking Cefaclor. This is an example of:
A therapeutic duplication.
The National Drug Code (NDC) is usually required for purchasing of pharmaceutical products. The NDC can be found in which of the following? A) Drug Topics Red Book. B) USP. C) Drug Facts and Comparisons. D) APhA Handbook on Drugs.
A) Drug Topics Red Book
The Patient Package Insert (PPI) for oral contraceptives is required to be dispensed: A) Each time the prescription is dispensed. B) Only upon the request of the prescriber. C) The first time the prescription is dispensed. D) Is never dispensed with the prescription.
A) Each time the prescription is dispensed
All of the following are the technician's responsibility except? A) Signing the DEA form from the wholesaler. B) Assisting in the controlled substance inventory. C) Prepackaging of controlled substances. D) Prepackaging controlled substance dispensing report.
A) Signing the DEA form from the wholesaler.
The computer error message "refill too soon" indicates: A) The patient is attempting to get the prescription earlier than the "day supply" indicated. B) The pharmacy should not refill the prescription under any circumstances. C) Should call police it a Schedule III. D) None of the above.
A) The patient is attempting to get the prescription earlier than the "day supply" indicated.
What is the pharmacy technician's essential role? A) To be part of the process of safely filling and dispensing medications. B) To get coffee C) To counsel patient D) To report medication errors to DEA.
A) To be part of the process of safely filling and dispensing medications.
Technicians may serve on the Phamracy Technician Advisory Group, provided they meet the qualifications and are members of what organization?
ASHP
Who developed an accreditation process for pharmacy technician training programs in the late 1900s?
ASHP
The process where a drug is taken up from the site of administration and is transported to the blood stream is:
Absorption
Number of items received and date of receipt
According to DEA regulations, when Schedule II substances are received, which of the following items of information must be recorded on DEA Form 222?
Transport records
According to federal law, control substances must be safeguarded by all of the following EXCEPT:
The DEA
According to federal law, in the event of the suspected theft of a Schedule II medication, the pharmacy is required to notify which agency or agencies?
Schedule III
According to the Federal Controlled Substance Act, a prescription for Acetaminophen No. 4 would be filed in which schedule?
Which of the following nonprescription analgesics would be the safest choice for a patient taking Warfarin (Coumadin)?
Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
What types of vers are best for describing your skills and responsibilities on a professional resume?
Active
The actual price that is paid for a drug after all discounts and hipping costs have been applies is called what>?
Actualy Acquiition Cost
When preparing a compounded packet product, the tachnician should document the compounding procedure and ingredients on a master formula sheet when?
After applying labels to compounded product
All the following are correct when opening an ampule except:
After wiping with an alcohol pad, dry the neck with a paper towel.
Which procedure would you not do when opening an ampule?
After wiping with an alcohol pad, dry the neck with a paper towel.
What feature of a barrier isolater provides a seal between the internal and external environment and serve as an anteroom for the transfer of materials?
Air locks
A technicians needs to weigh out 100 mg of a powder for reconstitution. What must the technician prepare in order to measure the material with a prescription torsion balance?
Aliquot
Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA) offers new benefits to all Americans that include: Ten Essential Health Benefits examples (Doctors visits and Hospitol stays) Adult Services Women's Preventative Services All of the above.
All of the above
Which of the following medications have different chemical forms? Doxycline Metoprolol Diclofenac All of the above
All of the above
What is the ratio strength (w/v) of a solution containing 300 g of solute in 1500 ml of solution? A.) 1:05 B.) 1/5. C.) 300/1500. D.) All of the above.
All of the above is the answer
Drugs used in the treatment of cardiovascular abnormalities include
All of the above. Drugs used in the treatment of cardiovascular abnormalities include Vasodilators, Beta-Andrenergic Blockers, and ACE Inhibitors.
Anticoagulants are used in the treatment of
All of the above. Anticoagulants are used in the treatment of pulmonary emboli, DVT, prophylaxis of systemic emboli after myocardial infarction, and atrial fibrillation with embolism.
Phenytoin is available in which dosage forms?
All of the above. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is available in tablets, capsules, and I.V. injection dosage forms.
What establishes minimum standars for pharmaceutical services in hospitals?
American Society of Hospital Pharmacists
What TPN component provides for the patient's protein needs?
Amino acids
An abnormal irregular heartbeat is referred to as:
Arrhythmia
Hydrocodone
As of October 6, 2014 the US Drug Enforcement Administration required all products containing what to become a Schedule II controlled substance?
You are morally opposed to oral contraceptived. In your curent practice setting, you rarely have to assist the pharmacist with dispensing them. When it does ocur, what would be the best way to handle the situation?
Ask one of the other pharmacy techs on your shift to handle this order
The physician has written instructions for a patients medication on a prexcription blank using Latin abbreviations. THe technician is translating the abbreviated instructions. THe handwriting is poor and there is a discrepency oncerning legibility. What should the technician do?
Ask the pharmacist to contact the physician's office to verify the prescrition.
Which problem can be avoided by administering Promethazine I.V.?
Aspiration.
What is a social issure that may require decisions that go agaisnt the personal beliefs of the technician?
Assisted suicide
The abbreviation "AWP" used in pharmacy stands for:
Average Wholesale Price.
AWP Stands for?
Average Wholesale price
What does the number that accompanies PEG formulations indicate?
Average molecular weight
Why are the bacteriostatic agents not included in the preparation of LVPs?
Because of the large volume of the solutions.
Bentyl is ordered to be administered "a.c." How will Bentyl be taken?
Before meals. AC= before meals.
Which of the following drugs is not a beta-blocking agent? Labetalol, Benazepril, Atenolol, Metoprolol
Benazapril; it is a ACE inhibitor
USP Chapter 795 outlines basic guidlines for establishing what?
Beyond-use dating for non-sterile compounds
The fraction of the administered dose of Demerol that reaches systemic circulation and the rate at which this occurs is the Demerol's:
Bioavailability.
The percentage or fraction of the administered dose of a drug that actually reaches systemic circulation and the rate at which this occurs is the drugs:
Bioavailablity
What is an acceptable compounding environment for a hazardous sterile products?
Biological safety cabinet
A technician is enterint a prescription in the patient profile in the computer. THe computer indicated a drug-disease interactin. What should the technician do first?
Call the pharmacist to check the interaction
A missing license number on a prescription presented by a patient at a retail pharmacy should be verified how?
Calling the prescriber's office
Schedule V meds must be ordered by: completing DEA form, Calling the FDA, Calling the wholesaler directly, Calling the bureau of controlled substance
Calling the wholesaler directly
Caution should be exercised during reconstitution of alkylating agents because these agents
Can cause severe itching and burning upon contact.
What type of prescription balance must be used for weighing 120 mg of a 1% Hydrocortisone cream?
Class A prescription balance
What Class number indicated that the drug may cause serious health problems or death?
Class I
If a manufacturer's labeling results in a temporary, but reversible adverse effects or little likelihood of serious effects, what type of FDA recall would be instituted? Class I. Class II. Class III. Class IV.
Class II
The Durham Humphrey Ammendment....
Classifies drugs into those that can be safely used by consuers without medical supervisioni and those that require a prescription
What is the proper procedure for cleaning a laminar flow hood?
Clean the hood from side to side starting from the back of the hood towards the front of the hood.
A vial of reconstituted Mutamycin breaks inside a vertical flow hood. What should the technician do?
Clean up the spill with a spill kit
Which drug can be used as a patch?
Clonidine
Which drug can be used as a patch? Anusol HC, Clonidine, Antivert, Propranolol
Clonidine (Catapres TTS)
What can result from allowing a TPN to be warmed for too long a period of time before infusion?
Coagulation of lipids
Which of the following is NOT amandatory lebeling requiremtn (per USP CH 797) for compounded sterile producst>?
Compounding procedure used
What is the immediate potential result of a breach in aseptic technique when compounding an IV admixure?
Contamination by microorganism
"Conjuncitivis: When is Self'Care Appropiate," "Understanding Epilepsy," and "Common Sense Customer Service" are all examples of what
Continuing education courses offered throught the NPTA
A technician is measuring out 15 ml of a solution for use in a compounded product. WHat piece of volumetirc measuring equipment should the technician use?
Cylindrical or conial graduate
What benefit do the amino acids in a TPN provide for the patient?
Encourage tissue groth and injury repair
What type of bacterial toxins are released only when the cell dies?
Endotoxins
Which dosage form is formulated to dissolve in the intestine rather than the stomach?
Enteric-coated
If a bottle breaks under the laminar flow hood, a spill kit should be used if the bottle contained which of the following?
Etoposide.
Sterilization methods include all of the following except:
Evaporation
How often must PTCB certification be reneewed?
Every 2 years
When compounding hazardous sterile preparatins, how often should the technician change gloves?
Every 30 minutes
How often must personnel compounding high-risk level compounds be revalidated?
Every 6 months
Asusbtance that helps to thin mucous so it can be coughed up is...
Expectorant
Which class of drugs decreases the viscosity of respiratory tract secretions?
Expectorants.
The directions for Fosamax states "10 mg po qd pc". The technician should bring this to the pharmacist's attention because:
Fosamax should be taken 1/2 before breakfast. PC= after meals. The medication should be taken 1/2 hour before breakfast is the answer
Louis Pasteur revolutionized scientific theory how?
Growing anthrax bacteria in a sterile culture and producing the disease by inoculating an animal with it.
What is hte main ingredient in expectorants?
Guaifenesin
What would be a recommended OTC treatment for an overgrowth of candida albicans in the genital tract?
Gyne-Lotrimin
Tagamet, Axid, and Pepcid are examples of a:
H2 receptor blocker
Tagamet, Axid, and Pepcid are examples of a: dopamine receptor blocker, H2 receptor blocker, ACE inhibitor, Beta Blocker
H2 receptor blocker
What is the Latin abbreviation for "at bedtime"?
HS means at bedtime.
The first line of defense against contamination of an IV product is when working in a laminar flow hood:
Hand washing.
The first line of defense against infection/contamination of an IV product is:
Hand washing.
The most widely used reference book used in I.V. admixture program is the:
Handbook of Injectable Drugs.
The most widely used reference of an IV admixture program is the:
Handbook of Injectable Drugs.
Hazardous drugs must be clearly labeled as what?
Hazardous
Herbal products are medications
Herbal products are medications that can be sold without being tested to prove they are safe and effective.
What risk level is assigned to compounded IV admixture products that utilize nonsterile ingredients or nonsterile equipment?
High-risk level.
Most drug research is conducted in conjunction with what kind of instituations?
Hospital pharmaciesH
May not be refilled
How long may a schedule II drug be refilled?
Ten
How many hours of continuing education may be earned in the practice site under the supervision of the pharmacist?
One
How many hours of continuing education must be in Pharmacy Law every two years?
Twenty every two years
How many hours of continuing education must the CPhT have before re-certification?
Black bile, blood, and phlegm were describes as what by Hippocrates and Galen?
Humors
Sudafed is contraindicated in which of the following disease states?
Hypertension.
Red blood cells can burst when exposed to _______ I. V. solution.
Hypotonic.
Which type of IV solution can cause the red blood cells to burst?
Hypotonic.
Codeine, Meperidine, and Oxycodone all belong to which controlled schedule
II
What schedule is Meperidine, (1,2,3,4,5,)
II
What schedule is Xanax
IV
A small volume intravenous bag specifically used to deliver medication, which is hung higher than the primary IV bag, is called an:
IVPB
a 50 ml IV bag specifically used to deliver medication, which is hung higher than the primary IV bag is called an : IV, IVPB, injection, none of the above
IVPB - IV piggy back;
The more stringent law
If State, Local and Federal pharmacy law differ, which law applies?
1 year
If a prescription for Fosamax states "refill prn", for how long may this RX be refilled?
Until the patient has a new prescription filled
If a prescription for Fosamax states "refill prn", for how long may this RX be refilled?
photocopies of the
If chosen for an audit, the CPhT must list all continuing education hours on the application and send ______ certificates of completion of the credits.
A patient calls to report she is having an advers effect or allergic reaction from a medication. WHat should the pharmacy technician do?
Immediately refer the patient to the pharmacist.
What type of potentially hazardous drug mighthe recipient of a kidney transplant depend on to prevent rejection of the new organ??
Immunosuppressant
Which of the following drugs is not a laxative: colace, Imodium, Fibercon, Bisocodyl
Imodium
Which of the following drugs is not a laxative?
Imodium
Gowns used in preparing Cancer Chemotherapy drugs must close:
In the back.
In what environment should base ingredients be added to an IV bag during manual compounding of a TPN?
In the laminar airflow hood
After reconstitution, how should the drug filgrastim be stored?
In the refrigerator.
Schedule III
In which controlled substance schedule is Fioricet with Codeine classified?
What is a primary drawback to using commercially available, ready-to-mix SVP systems?
Inaccurate doses caused by activation failure
Distribution is the physiological process by which a drug:
Is transported throughout the body.
Cleaning of a vertical laminar airflow hood includes using which of the following agents?
Isopropyl alcohol.
Which solution is recommended for cleaning a Biological Safety Cabinet?
Isopropyl alcohol.
Which solution is recommended for cleaning a laminar flow hood?
Isopropyl alcohol.
Which solution is safest for a newborn?
Isotonic.
Which solution is safest for a patient?
Isotonic.
Most drugs and their metabolites are excreted by the:
Kidneys
What aspect of standard technician training might best qualify the technician for a career as a state board of pharmacy inspecotr?
Knowledge of state pharmacy practice act
The Roman numeral LXI is equivalent to:
L=50 X=10 I=1 61 is the answer.
The Ante Area is which of the following:
Located between the buffer area and the common pharmacy
A listof regulations established by a legislative group or regulating body of a profession:
Laws
What is the last step involved in the compounding of any parental product?
Leaving product and paperwork for the pharmacist to check
The process of producing a smooth dispersion of a drug with a spatula is called: Levigation. Trituration. Micturition. Flocculation.
Levigation
What duty is an importnat if understated function of the pharmacy technician position at a retail chain drug pharmacy?
Liason between customer and pharmacist
State Board of Pharmacy
Licensing and general professional oversight of pharmacists and pharmacies are carried out by:
Although the bag should be checked repeatedly for precipitates during TPN compounding, which ingredient requires extra caution with respect to spottin precipitates?
Lipids
Drugs are metabolized in the:
Liver
Where should the form and technique for compounded a product be documented?
Master formula sheet
Which of the following auxiliary labels should be affixed to a prescription for Diphenhydramine elixir?
May Cause Drowsiness
Which of the following auxiliary labels should be affixed to a prescription for Hydroxyzine elixir?
May Cause Drowsiness
Which of the following auxiliary labels should be affixed to a prescription for Hydroxyzine elixir?
May Cause Drowsiness.
If an insurance company will pay for a 30 day supply only and the prescription reads "i-ii q4-6h," what is the maximum number of units that can be dispensed?
Most they should take is 2 ever 4 hrs, or 12 daily. 12 x 30 = 360 tabs 360 tabs is the answer
What organizatiincludes boards of pharmacy in Canada and Australia?
NABP
aWHo represent the policy positions of oharmacy operations such as Rite-Aod or Walgreens?
NACDS
Which professional rganization explicitly recognized teh ExCPT as proof of a technician's ability to perform the minimum functions of the profession.
NACDs
What does it mean when the pointer on a two-pan prescription torsion balance moves back and forth within the index when the arrest knob is released?
Near equilibrium has been attained
What job search method is the most effective?
Networking
Which of the following drugs is a calcium channel blocker?
Nifedipine.
Which of the following drugs is a coronary vasodilator?
Nitroglycerin
Which of the following medications must be administered in a glass IV container?
Nitroglycerin.
Which of the following is not a means of contamination?
None of the above.
Which of the following is not a type of amino acid product used in admixing TPN?
None of the above.
What is a common commercially available LVP?
Normal saline 0.9 %
A "Hospital Borne" infection is also known as a ______________ infection.
Nosocomial.
If mailing controlled substances via the USPS,the authorized sender must _________________. Not Label the outside wrapper with name and quantity of drug within the package. Use clear packaging State the DEA number on wrapper under which the medication was prescribed Clearly print on wrapper the pharmacy address that is mailing the package.
Not Label the outside wrapper with name and quantity of drug within the package.
What is the main thing that should be considered when hanging IV bags in a biological safety cabinet during compounding?
Not to block the airflow from other tiems in hood
A patient who has been on oral Cephalexin for a skin infection asks for a recommendation of an OTC vaginal yeast infection product. What should the technician do?
Notify the pharmacist of potential side effects of the antibiotic regimen.
What is a specialty treatment program for technicians that was sanctioned in 2002 by the Academy of Pharmacy Practice of Managemtn?
Nuclear
What kind of technician specialist would be most likely to take a required class entitled "Mathematics of Radioactivity?"
Nuclear
What potential specialty area for technicians might involve calculating formule amounts in a NICU?
Nutrition and dietetics
Which federal legislation enacted in 1990 requires pharmacist to counsel medicaid patients: FDCA, OBRA, DEA, FDA
OBRA
Who mandates that the patients be given the opportunity for counseling by the pharmacist?
OBRA 90
How to patients generally aquire vaginal suppositories for treating yeast infections?
OTC:over the counter
Dermabase is hydrophilic, easily spreadable and belongs to this type of ointment base...
Oil in water
.What kind of base is perolatum an example of?
Oleaginous base
The Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organization (JCAHO) verifies that laminar flow hoods should be certified at least:
Once per year.
When retrieving medication from the shelves to prepare a prescription, how many times should the technician check the label?
One
A formula for a cough syrup contains 1 gr of codeine per fluid ounce. How many grains are contained in one teaspoonful?
One fluid once = 30 ml One teaspoonful = 5 ml 30 ml contains 1 gr 5 ml would contain 5/30 of 1 gr 5/30 gr reduced to the lowest fractional value = 1/6 gr 1/6 gr is the answer.
All of the above
Organizations that endorse the ExCPT exam include A. National Organization for Competency Assurance B. Northwest Career Colleges Federation C. Pharmacy Technician Educators Council D. All of the above
Inventory of Drugs surrendered for disposal (DEA Form 41)
One of the records that must be maintained in a pharmacy is
Must be within 30 days of high school graduation, have a high school diploma or the equivalent
One of the requirements to sit for the ExCPT exam is:
1-1/2 tablespoons is equivalent to how many ml?
One tablespoon = 15 ml 1/2 tablespoon = 7.5 ml 22.5 ml is the answer.
1-1/2 tablespoons is equivalent to how many ml?
One tablespoon = 15 ml 1/2 tablespoon = 7.5ml 22.5 ml is the answer.
What practice settings would most likely permit a close working relationship between the prescriber, the patient, and the pharmacy staff?
Onsite clinic pharmacy
Schedule II
Opiates or Narcotics are generally found in what schedule:
Which type of drug would be considered a drug of abuse?
Opiates, Alcohol and Nicotine are all considered as drugs of abuse. All of the above.
What are three things found in the compounding formulas in the Eber's papyrus?
Opium, Castor oils, Peppermint
What are three statements regarding ophthalmic preparations.
Opthalmic preparations must be sterile, may be drops, and may be ointments
An order reads "Tylenol 325 mg PR q4h prn". What dosage form should be dispensed?
PR=per rectum Suppositories is the answer
Who established the germ theory?
Pasteur
Estraderm is available in which dosage form?
Patch.
What term is referred to in the text as "wonder drugs?"
Patent medicines
What medication in a dose of 20 mg qd, is used to treat dyspepsia?
Pepcid
What drug in a dose of 20mg qd is used to treat dyspepsia? Lasix, Pepcid, Inderal, dilantin
Pepcid (famotidine) is used to treat indigestion (dyspepsia); It is an H2 antagonist
A patient on Warfarin 2 mg therapy should never take which of the following pain medications?
Percodan
If a patient has had an anaphylactic reaction to ASA, which analgesic may they not take?
Percodan
The medication profile of John Doe: Cardizem CD 120 mg PO qd, Coumadin 5 mg PO qd, Synthroid 0.088 mg PO qd John Doe presents new prescriptions for: Percodan i to ii OI q4-6h prn severe pain. Zocor 20 mg PO qd. What possible drug interaction exists?
Percodan and Coumadin
A patient on Warfarin therapy should never take which of the following medications?
Percodan.
A patient on Warfarin 2mg therapy should never take which of the following pain medications?
Percodan; it contains aspirin
Latex gloves, gowns, respirators, face shields, and chemical splash goggles used in Antineoplastic agent preparation are known as:
Personal protective equipment.
Who has the authority to decide whether or not a preservative should be added to a compounded product?
Pharmacist
A list of compounding formulas for drug preparations
Pharmacopeia
What does "P&T" in P&T Committee stand for?
Pharmacy and therapeutics
The cleaning and maintenance of an automated dispensing machine is generally the responsibility of who?
Pharmacy technician
Pharmacist
Pharmacy technicians are defined as individuals working in a pharmacy who, under the supervision of a licensed pharmacists, assist in pharmacy activities not requiring the professional judgment of the ______.
Which of the following is not an antihistamine?
Phenylpropanolamine.
Because of incompatibility, which of the following additives should be added first to a T.P.N. admixture that will contain calcium gluconate?
Potassium phosphate.
What factor should the technician take into account when measuring out purified water in order to reconstitude an antibiotic powder?
Powder displacement
What is typically found in the outpatient setting?
Precription
The purpose of a horizontal laminar airflow workbench is to:
Provide a sterile environment for admixture compounding.
The purpose of a horizontal laminar flow hood is to:
Provide a sterile environment for admixture compounding.
The purpose of a laminar flow work bench.
Provide an aseptic environment for safe preparation of sterile products.
Which of the following is often used in the illegal manufacture of methamphetamine?
Pseudoephedrine
A patient presents a prescription for Furosemide. Which items should the technician alert the pharmacist if the patient wants to purchase?
Pseudoephedrine-containing decongestant.
A male patient has purchased an EZ Detect fecal occult blood test. He returns to the pharmacy counter tand tells the pharmacy technician that the test was a positive and that he is concerned and upset. He wants to know what he should do. How should the technician respond?
Refer the patient to the pharmacist for counseling.
A patient calls for a recommendation for an over-the-counter product. What should hte pharmacy technician do?
Refer the patient to the pharmacist.
Maximum of 5 refills and not more than 6 months after date of issuance
Refill limitations for a Schedule III controlled substance are:
What is the storage requirement for the drug Neupogen?
Refrigerate
The only type of insulin that may be added to an I.V. solution is:
Regular insulin.
Insulin is to be added to a TPN. What type of insulin may be used?
Regular.
The pharmacy technician is asked to assist in the compounding of a lotion. In what drug information source would this information be looked up? Handbook on Injectable Drugs. Merck Index. Facts and Comparisons. Remington's Pharmaceutical Sciences.
Remington's Pharmaceutical Sciences.
An overdose of MS-Contin would cause:
Respiratory depression.
Schedule II Narcotic prescriptions may not be refilled
Schedule II narcotic prescriptions may be refilled how many times?
Calling the wholesaler directly
Schedule III medications must be ordered in which of the following ways?
The red "C" in the lower right corner of a prescription designates that the drug is: Schedule I, II, III IV or IV, or all of the above
Schedule III, IV, V
Schedule I
Schedule drugs within which class of controlled substances contain no legal use in the United States?
Dosage forms designated with LA, SR, CD, etc. are formulated to:
Slowly release medication over an extended period of time.
A US #F30 Sieve will be able to pass ____ particles that a US # 16 Sieve
Smaller
Needles used to prepare IV solutions should be discarded by:
Snipping them into a Sharps Container.
What is the program called that is used for dispensing medication in the pharmacy setting. Hardware. Mediumware. Software. Modem.
Software
A prescription balance is used primarily for weighing what?
Solid dosaged forms or powdered chemicals
Which characteristic is important when preparing an IV admixture?
Sterility. Solubility. Stability. All the above (answer)
Which characteristic is important when preparing an IV admixture in a Laminar Flow Hood?
Sterility. Solubility. Stability. All the above. (answer)
An order reads "Acetaminophen 325 mg Pr q4h prn". What dosage form should be dispensed?
Suppositories. Pr= per rectum
Corticosteroid therapy is characterized by:
Suppression of the body's production of cortisol.
A technician is compounding a suspension for a dermatology patient. WHat might the technician add to the formulation to assist in re-dispersing the particles when the product is shaked?
Suspendol-S
What type of oral solution has a high sugar content inteded to improve palatability?
Syrup
Required premarketing approval process before a new drug could be marketed is what?
THe Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
The do-not use list" of abbreviations is implemented by which organization? USP FDA TJC DEA
TJC
What is the mission of PTEC?
TO promote education and training to prepare better technicians
A physician prescribes Ceclor 375 mg po bid. What is wrong with this prescription?
The Rx lacks duration of therapy is the answer.
A physician prescribes Amoxicillin 500 mg po bid. What is wrong with this prescription?
The Rx lacks duration of therapy.
Admission orders are often written in the form of a SOAP note. THe term objective describes:
The physician's observations and questioning of the patient
Abuse potential
The five schedules for controlled substances were established on the basis of:
DEA Form 222
The form number for ordering Schedule II drugs is:
A patient has been dispensed the wrong medication and has already taken two doses. What is the primary concern?
The health and well-being of the patient
If State and Federal law differ, which law applies?
The more stringent law
In red in the lower right hand corner of the Rx
The one inch "C" designation for controlled substances must appear on a controlled prescription:
Admission norders are often written in the form of a SOAP not. The term subjective describes:
The patient's observations and questining of the patient
Schedule III, IV or V controlled substance
The red "C" in the lower right corner of a prescription designates that the drug is:
Scheduled III, IV or V controlled substances.
The red "C" in the lower right corner of a prescription designates that the drug is:
MD
The responsibility for the initial ordering of investigation drugs belong to whom?
The two parts of the syringe that should not be touched and remain sterile are:
The tip and plunger.
The active ingredient of a drug product is labeled USP. What does USP mean?
The united states pharmacopoeia
The sterile parts of a syringe that may never be touched are the:
Tip and plunger.
Why should a slight overfill be added to the syringe when a drug for subcutaneous injection is sent to the floor with a Luer cap?
To help prime the syringe
Why is it important that nasal solutions be isotonic in nature?
To keep from irritating nasal passages.
Why should a technician make sure the bevel edge of the needle is up before applying leteral and downward pressure to the rubber stopper on the medication vial??
To prevent the coring of the rubber
The letters TPN stand for?
Total parenteral nutrition
State an untrue statement about abbreviations.
Trailing zeroes should be placed ater a decimal point for doses expressed in whole numbers.
Which of the following describes administration of medication through the skin using a flat unit?
Transdermal
As a technician you are asked to prepare an IC solution with insulin. -you should use only regular insulin. The other insulin cannot be given IV; -You do not need to bother making the IV in the laminar flow hood since insulin is not sterile -Should use 70/30 only -Should use Humulin 50/50 only
Use only regular insulin for IV injection
Zantac, Tagamet and Pepcid are H2 blockers, which are now available over-the-counter (OTC). What are these drugs used for?
Used to inhibit stomach acid secretion
Zantac, Tagamet and Pepcid are H2 blockers, which are now available over-the-counter (OTC). What are these drugs used for?
Used to inhibit stomach acid secretion.
List the pathogenic miccroorganisms in order fromsmallest to largest.
Viruses, Rickettsiae, Bacteria
The technician receives a prescription for Cyanocobalamin. What should the technician dispense?
Vitamins B-12.
___means that the patient chooses to participate in a trail without any coercion.
Voluntariness
When does the recieving process begin?
WHen the order arrices at the pharmacy
Whem might using a weighting boat be a better option thatn using wrighing ppaer?
WHen weighing larger amounts of chemicals
Longest time period
When state and federal requirements differ on how long records should be kept, what should take precedence?
Class I
When use of or exposure to a product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death, it's recall is designated:
If Betadine ointment is received from the wholesaler, where should they be stocked?
Where the bacitracin ointment is stored.
Meperidine
Which drug requires a follow-up "cover" prescription when dispensed as a verbal order? a) Meperidine. b) Atenolol. c) Buspirone. d) Procainamide.
Dilaudid
Which drug requires a follow-up "cover" prescription when dispensed with an emergency verbal order a) Dilaudid. b) Atenolol. c) Buspirone. d) Procainamide.
OSHA
Which governmental agency is responsible for safety in the workplace?
JCAHO
Which non-governmental agency is responsible for the accreditation of institutional settings?
RT is a 4 year old who weighs 36 lbs. What is an acceptable dose of Captoril for RT? Usual adult dose, ORAL is 12.5 bid or tid. Use Young's Rule.
Young's Rule Age/Age+12 * Adult dose 4/16 * 12.5 = 3.12 mg 3.12 mg bid-tid is the answer.
What ingredient in a TPN can be considered a trace element?
Zinc
Pharmacy Technicians
______ are defined as individuals working in a pharmacy who under the supervision of a licensed pharmacist assist in pharmacy activities.
Licensure
______ is the process by which a government agency grants permission to an individual engaged in a given occupation.
When preventing medication errors, communication with patients is: -responsibility of the patient -responsibility of all health professionals -responsibility of technician only -responsibility of doctor only
all health care professionals
What questions can be answered by MSDS: -what precautions must be taken when preparing and dispensing Adriamycin -how should an employee exposed to Adriamycin be treated -how should a chemotherapy spill be cleaned -all of the above
all of the above
Which dosage form is Phenytoin available: tablet, capsule, iv, all of the above
all of the above
An example of an anticonvulsant: Dilantin, phenytoin, phenobarbital, all of the above
all of the above Dilantin is phenytoin
A cross sensitivity is which of the following: -allergic to two drug which are chemically similar -a side effect -drug to drug interaction -hypersensitivity
allergy to two drugs that are chemically similar ex. penicillin and cephalosporins
Amber has the following TPN order: 1 mg/1000 ml TPN of Folic Acid. If the stock vial of Folic Acid contains 5 mg/ml, what volume would be required to prepare 3000 ml of TPN?
amount of folic acid in 1000cc 5 mg 2 mg 2 ml ------ = ------ = ----- = X=.4ml 1 ml X 5 X .4 ml X 1200 ml ------- = --------- = --------- 1000 ml 3000ml 1000X X=1.2 ml is the answer
Which of the following OTC medication does not have ibuprofen: advil, anacin, motrin, nuprin
anacin
The purpose of OSHA is to: ensure safe and effective drug therapy, assign drug recall classifications, monitor 010 labeling requirements, assure a safe and healthful workplace
assure a safe and healthful workplace
The directions for the use of Gentamicin Ophthalmic drops are "ii gtts au q4h x5d". The proper interpretation of "au" is:
au = both ears Both ears is the answer.
automated capsule filling mschines ares less common in small,independent pharmacies?
because price can be a barrier
Prokaryotic cells reproduce by means of...
binary fission
The directions for the use of Gentamicin Opthalmic drops are "ii gtts au q4h x 5d". The proper interpretation of au is: in both eyes, in both ears, in right eye, in right ear
both ears
What requires that the patient have the ognizant ability to assimilate the info and make a decision for themselves
competence
What is an advantage of solutions over solid dosage forms?
completely homogenous
What info should a filled-out chemo incident form contain?
details of the spil and the action taken
Talc or starch are often added to topical powders such as...
diluents
Orders written by the physician when the patient leaves the facility and returns home:
discharge orders
A prescription states "Procardia XL 30 mg #100 1 tab po qd". If the third party coverage limits the dispensing to a 30 day supply, the pharmacy should: -dispense a 30 day supply with no refills -dispense a 100 day supply and have the patient pay the difference - call the third party payer and get special permission to dispense 100. -dispense a 30 day supply with refills
dispense a 30 day supply with refills
Which label is required when dispensing Metronidazole: -may discolor urine -may cause drowsiness -shake well and refrigerate -do not drink alcoholic beverages
do not drink alcoholic beverages; metronidazole (flagyl) should not be taken with alcohol because it can cause vomiting reaction
Which of the following is not a defining characteristic of a lipids free T.P.N.?
effervescence
Which of the following is not a defining characteristic of an intravenous solution: isotonicity, effervescence, acid content, color and clarity
effervescence
Nyquil is commercially available example of what type of liquid?
elixir
What is the best way to succeed as a pharmacy technician?
envision yourself as a professional
There are some systematic preparation methods for what?
ethnical decision making
How often must controlled substances be inventoried? every 2 yrs, twice yearly, once yearly, once every 3 yrs
every 2 yrs
QOD is on the ebbreviation watch list. It should be spelled out as
every other day
The process of repackagin quantities of medications that will be used in a short time usually for one patient is called: batching, extemporaneous, bulk packaging, quick counting
extemporaneous
What type of spatula should a technician use to handle and transfer chemicals that may react with metal?
hard rubber spatula
Where would one contract a nosocomial infection?
hospital
Patient information for Cerumenex would included the following: how to instill eye drops, how to apply and rotate a patch, how to instill ear drops, how to use an inhaler;
instill ear drops.
What is the final step of any IV admixture procedure?
leaving product and paperwork for pharmacist to check
Capsules may contain drugs and diluents in what form(s)?
liquids, poweders, and pellets
the purpose of a formulary is a document: the pharmacy reference sources approved for use, the use of experimental drugs only, list of approved generics only, listing of committee-approved pharmaceuticals and therapeutics in stock
listing of committee-approved pharmaceuticals and therapeutics in stock
Which of the following is a schedule II drug: diazepam, methylphenidate, pentazocine, lomotil
methylphenidate (Ritalin)
A pharmacy that prepares radiopharmaceuticals:
nuclear pharmacy
Needles are labeled according to needle length and:
needle gauge
Are moral standards a result of the media's influence?
no
Does a purchaser of an exempt drug have to be at least 21 years old?
no
Is Ritalin typically found on a high-alert medications list?
no
Is Suppository a form of nasal solution?
no
Is counseling patients a duty of the pharmacy tech?
no
how long may a schedule class II drug be refilled: 1 yr., 6 months or 5 refills, no refills, as many refills as physician indicates
no refills
Which of the following is not a type of amino acid product used in admixing TPN: -branched chain amino acid sln -essential amino acid solutions -mixed essential and non-essential amino acid solutions -none of the above
none of the above
a patient package insert must be dispensed with which of the following meds? norethindrone, betamethasone, sprironolactone, prednisone
norethindrone - birth control pills
which of the following is not a schedule II drug: codeine, meperidine, fentanyl, oxazepam
oxazepam
A patient presents a script for Furosemide. Which items should the technician alert the pharmacist if the patient wants to purchase? blood pressure monitor, potassium, pseudoephedrine-containing decongestant, sunscreen
pseudoephedrine will increase blood pressure; furosemide is taken to decrease blood pressure.
MSDS reports provide what information: -info concerning side effects -info relating to contraindications -info describing clinical trials -info regarding product ingredients
regarding product ingredients
A script with the directions 2 qtts ad qid should be administered to: both eyes, left eye, right ear, left ear.
right ear;
Use a spatula to rub a small amount of very fine powders together with small amounts of ointment base to reduce graininess is an example of
spatulation
Who was Willian Proctor, Jr.?
the "Father of American Pharmacy"
The amount of medical expenses that a patient is required to pay before the insurance will begin to cover expenses is called what?
the Premium
A pharmacy's turnover rate can be calculated by taking the total cost of goods for theyear and dividing it by what?
the avg inventory
A DEA form 222 can only be signed by
the registrant or a person who has a pwer of attorney form on file with the DEA
Name three likely reasons for a patient to recieve an incorrect dose of a medication.
the wrong dose of the medication may bt choosen by the technician, the medication is not commercially available in the dose prescribed, a compounded medication may have a miscalculation
The pharmacy technician is filling a prescription for Zithromax and notices in the patient profile that the patient is taking EES tablets. This is an example of : -drug interaction, a contraindication, a therapeutic duplication, an adverse reaction
therapeutic duplication; they are both antibiotics in the same class of drugs (macrolides)
The two parts of the syringe that should not be touched and remain sterile are: -tip and barrel -collar and barrel -tip and plunger -collar and plunger
tip and plunger
Why are the dextrose solutions used in TPNs concentrated?
to keep from exceeding patients daily fluid dose
Why might an antipruritic be added to a dry powder compound?
to reduce itching
The standard pediatric dose for Amoxicillin is 20 mg/kg/day. The order is written for 150mg TID. The infant weighs 8lbs. is this dose: Too high, too low, within guidelines, do what doctor orders.
too high
Of the two routes of administration which is slowest? Topical or Parental?
topical
Being a vested professional pharmacy technician involved staying current with continuing educatin. t or f
true
If 75 gm's of codeine phosphate is dissolved in 1.5 liters of sterile water, what is the resultant percentage strength of the solution?
w/v% = gm per 100 ml 75gm X gm 7500 ------- = ------ == -------- 1500ml 100ml 1500X X=5%
A major drug-drug interaction would be: warfarin/aspirin, digoxin/diltiazem, penicillin/cephalosporin, hydrocodone/codeine
warfarin and aspirin - both thin the blood
USP Ch. (1151) states that antimicrobial agents are required for most dosage froms that contain what?
water
What is the most commonly used solvent in the compounding of solutions?
water
How often should work surfaces in the cleanroom be cleaned and sanitized?
weekly
Can Teratogenic pose a risk for developing fetus?
yes
Can a stainless steel cart be brought into a cleanroom?
yes
DOes the following scenario require the pharmacy tech to refer the patient to a pharmacist? :The patient calls with concerns that they mght have recieved the wrong medication
yes
DOes the technician have to pass the PTCE exam to have the titel of Certified Pharmacy tech?
yes
Is Enoxaprin an anticoagulent?
yes
Is Spend-down based on the income and family circumstances of the recipent?
yes
Is this an acceptable mean for a pro pharmacy tech to reduce transmission of pathogens in the workplace: use of latex gloves
yes
Should your hair cover be discarded when leaving the cleanroom?
yes
Would this be considered an error of commission?: Giving the wrong medication to the wrong patient
yes
Iff a patient is applying two different types of ophthalmic ointments, how long should they wait between applications?
~10 minutes
