AMT Exam P2
Which abnormal gene is inherited with Chediak-Higashi syndrome resulting in dysfunctional cells causing greater susceptibility to infections? a. CHS1 LYST b. JAK2 c. TET2 d. ADAMTS13
A
Which antinuclear antibody (ANA) pattern is seen in the image on the right, which represents the result of an ANA test viewed using fluorescent microscopy? Note: (a) points to the nuclei of interphase cells, the primary consideration for discerning the ANA pattern and (b) indicates a metaphase mitotic cell. a. there is no discernable pattern b. homogenous c. centromere d. nucleolar
A
Which of the following best defines "sensitivity" ? a. the percentage of patients with a disease who will have a positive test result b. the percentage of patients with a disease who will have a negative test result c. the percentage of patients with a disease who will have a positive test d. the percentage of patients with a disease who will have a negative test result
A
Which of the following proteins has the FASTEST electrophoretic mobility? a. albumin b. alpha globulins c. beta globulins d. gamma globulins
A
Which of the following test s would be useful in the assessment of glomerular filtration: a. 24 hour urine protein b. creatinine clearance c. PSP test d. urea clearance
B
how should the production of a blue or purple color on the test pad of an Ictotest be interpreted ? a. positive for bilirubin b. positive for ketones c. negative for bilirubin d. negative for ketones
A
The three base nucleotide sequence that provides the information necessary to identify an amino acid is termed a(n): a. codon b. genome c. probe d. oligonucleotide
A
This suspicious form was seen in a stool specimen and measures 33 um by 28 um. What is the identification of this form? a. taenia species egg b. hymenolepis nana egg c. ascaris lumbricoides egg d. hookworm egg
A
What are the smallest nucleated cells seen in normal peripheral blood? a. lymphocytes b. segmented neutrophils c. monocytes d. platelets
A
What is a typical regimen for long-term maintenance therapy of individuals with hereditary hemochromatosis (HH) ? a. removal of 2 to 6 units of blood yearly b. dietary restrictions on iron intake only c. treatment with deferoxamine d. removal of one unit of blood per week
A
What is the MOST common infective agent to be transmitted through blood transfusion that results in morbidity and mortality ? a. bacteria b. HIV c. HAV d. malarial parasites
A
What is the characteristic feature of the trophozoite stage for the intestinal flagellate Giardia duodenalis? a. Two nuclei b. An undulating membrane c. Two flagella d. Lack of a sucking disc
A
What is the expected life span of a normal red blood cell? a. 3-4 months b. 1-2 months c. 3-6 weeks d. 1-3 weeks
A
What minimum level of specific resistance (megohms @ 25 degrees Celsius) is required for a clinical laboratory reagent water (CLRW) system? a. 10.0 b.5.0 c. 2.0 d. 0.1
A
When evaluating a 2-hour glucose tolerance test report performed on a reagent woman, which of the following results is considered NORMAL (within age for this test)? a. A 2-hour glucose level is less than 140 mg/dL b. A 2-hour glucose level is less than 10 mg/dL c. A 2-hour glucose level is less than 153 mg/dL d. no change in glucose values during the 2-hour glucose tolerance test
A
Which analyte should be increased in the presence of gout? A. uric acid b. aldolase c. amylase d. troponin
A
Which is the incorrect statement about sample labeling requirements? a. prelabeled tubes should be used b. the label should have the patients first and last name c. the label should have a unique identification number d. the date of collection should be included
A
Which of the following fungi is the cause of tinea pedia, ringworm of the feet? a. trichophyton rubrum b. microsporum canis c. fusarium species d. aspergillus species
A
Which of the following is a negative regulator of intestinal iron absorption? a. Hepcidin b. Ferroportin 1 c. Erythroferron d. Hephaestin
A
Which of the following terms could be used to describe an analyzer that can test specimens out of sequence? a. random access b. parallel c. multi-channel d. discrete
A
Which of the following tests included on a urine chemical reagent strip would never be reported as negative? a. Urobilinogen b. Bilirubin c. Leukocyte esterase d. Blood
A
For the diagnosis of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) which of the following test principles provides the highest specificity ? a. FANA b. ELISA c. Latex ANA d. CRP
B
How many milliliters of Rh positive whole blood is one dose of Rh immune globulin capable of neutralizing? a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. 450
B
Identify the nucleated cell in the image. a. Neutrophil b. Monocyte c. Lymphocyte d. Basophil
B
Below are the urinalysis results of a female patient completed within two hours of collection. The slight turbidity observed correlates most likely with which of the following results Color-light yellow Appearance, slightly turbid Sp. Gravity- 1.009 pH - 8 Glucose (Multistix) - 0 Glucose (Clinitest) - 0 Protein - 1+ Blood - 0 WBC - 15/HPF RBC - 1/HPF Epithelial - 0/HPF Casts - 2 hyaline/LPF Crystalks - none BActeria - 2+ ANswer choices: pH Bacteria and the WBCs Specific Gravity Glucose
Bacteria and the WBCs
All of the following organisms are aerobic organisms EXCEPT: Francisella tularensis Bacteroides fragilis Pseudomonas aeruginosa Neisseria meningitidis
Bacteroides fragilis
The immunoassay procedure for serum hCG antisera against which subunit of hCG? Alpha Gamma Epsilon Beta
Beta
Select the letter representing the cell that contains histamine and heparin responsible for immediate hypersensitivity reactions. A B C D
B
The accuracy of an immunoassay is its ability to discriminate between results that are true positives and results that are true negatives. Two parameters of test accuracy are specificity and sensitivity. Which of these statements apply to an immunoassay with high specificity, but low sensitivity? a. Accurately identifies the presence of disease b. Accurately identifies the absence of disease and has few false-positives c. Has few false-positives and accurately identifies the presence of diesease d. Has few false-negatives and accurately identifies the presence of diesease
B
The antigen marker most closely associated with transmission of HBV infections is: a. HBsAg b. HBeAg c. HBcAg d. ABiAg
B
The fluid created in the abdominal cavity: a. Pleural fluid b. Peritoneal fluid c. Amniotic fluid d. Synovial fluid
B
The property MOST responsible for the migration of proteins in an electrical field is: a. molecular weight b. net surface charge c. endosmotic flow d. voltage
B
The volume of urine recommended for centrifugation for a microscopic examination is: a. 1-3 ml b. 10-15 ml c. 15-20 ml d. volume is not important
B
This antinuclear antibody (ANA) pattern is characterized by granular staining in the nuclei of the interphase cells (a). There is also an absence of staining in the chromosomal area of the metaphase mitotic cells (b). The slide is viewed using fluorescent microscopy. Which pattern is this? a. Homogeneous b. Speckled c. Nucleolar d. Centromere
B
Total iron-binding capacity measures the serum iron transporting capacity of: a. hemoglobin b. transferrin c. ferritin d. ceruloplasmin
B
Vision breaks to glance away and focus on a distant object should be taken at which of these intervals? a. every 5 minutes b. every 20 minutes c. every hour d. every 2 hours
B
What is the infective stage for the intestinal amebae? a. trophozoite b. cyst c. larvae d. egg
B
Which analyte should be increased in the presence of muscular dystrophy? A. uric acid b. aldolase c. amylase d. troponin
B
Which section of the SDS would provide information on chemical hazards that might affect your health? a. physical and chemical properties section b. toxicological information section c. stability and reactivity section d. hazardous ingredients data
B
Which two antibiotics are used to confirm the presence of carbapenemase production in Enterobacteriaceae? a. cefotaxime and cefotaxime-clavulanate b. ertapenem an meropenem c. cefoxitin and oxacillin d. clindamycin and erythromycin
B
Which type of kinetic reactions are reactions in which the enzyme is in excess and the substrate concentration is the limiting factor? a. zero order b. first order c. second order d. third order
B
A patient whose diagnosis is hepatitis may have which of the following test positive on urine test strip? Ketone Blood Bilirubin Nitrite
Bilirubin
Parvovirus B19 is the only human pathogen in the family Parvoviridae. It is most known for its association with which of the following diseases? a. hepatitis b. Kaposi sarcoma c. fifth disease d. measles
C
The process of the motion of a liquid when a voltage is applied between the ends of an insulating tube that contains that liquid is known as: a. densitometry b. electrical impedance c. electroosmosis d. voltammetry
C
The protective fluid found within the membranes that hold and surround an embryo or fetus: a. Pleural fluid b. Peritoneal fluid c. Amniotic fluid d. Synovial fluid
C
What organ is associated with the production of the majority of clotting factors? a. thymus b. duodenum c. liver d. kidney
C
Which analyte should be increased in the presence of pancreatitis? A. uric acid b. aldolase c. amylase d. troponin
C
Which of the following conditions is most likely when an oligoclonal band is seen in CSF electrophoresis without a corresponding serum peak? a. lymphoproliferative disorder b. viral meningitis c. multiple sclerosis d. traumatic lumbar puncture
C
Which of the following describes he Westgard multirule 22s? a. two control data points within + 2SD b. One control data point falls outside +2SD and a second point falls outside -2SD c. two consecutive data points fall outside +2SD and fall outside -2SD d. four consecutive data points fall outside +2SD
C
All of the following life stages of schistosomes are appropriately matched with the host they are found in EXCEPT: Cercaria - cow Sporocysts - snail Adult worm - human Egg - human
Cercaria - cow
In order to avoid repeating pretransfusion on a neonate during one hospital admission, all of the following must be true, EXCEPT: a. received only ABO-compatible blood b. received only Rh-compatible blood c. no unexpected antibodies in the serum or plasma d. has only received formula for nourishment
D
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) is characterized by all of the following immunodeficiencies EXCEPT: a. T-cell reduction or dysfunction b. B-cell reduction or dysfunction c. Natural killer (NK) cell reduction d. A deficiency of stem cells
D
Sudan III will confirm the presence of: a. parasites b. sperm c. mucus d. fat
D
The 50 um ovum in this image was found in a diarrheal stool sample from a 30 year old male. The patient presented to his physician with symptoms of dysentery including abdominal discomfort and low grade diarrhea that began one month following a visit to Puerto Rico. Select the most likely genus/species identification. a. necator americanus b. capillaria philippinensis c. Ascaris lumbricoides d. trichuris trichiura
D
Which analyte should be increased in the presence of acute myocardial infarction? A. uric acid b. aldolase c. amylase d. troponin
D
Which assay, using 24-hour urine, is considered the BEST single screening test for pheochromocytoma? a. Catecholamines b. Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) c. Homovallic acid (HVA) d. Metanephrines
D
Which combination of test/quality control organisms is correct ? (One organism positive for the test and one organism negative for the test) a. coagulase: staphylococcus saprophyticus and staphylococcus epidermidis b. H2S production: proteus mirabilis and salmonella serotype typhi c. Phenylalanine deamination: Escherichia coli and Yersinia enterocolitica d. indole: Escherichia coli and proteus mirabilis
D
Which disorder exhibits a genetic code that is incompatible with life? a. heterozygous alpha thalassemia minor b. homozygous alpha thalassemia minor c. hemoglobin H disease d. alpha thalassemia major
D
Which occurrence is a medical error? a. technologist drops and breaks a bottle of chemistry reagent b. patient is tested and diagnosed with acute leukemia c. analyzer malfunctions and test results are rejected as invalid d. incompatible blood is transfused into a patient during surgery
D
Which of the following are considered two of the positive risk factors for coronary heart disease as determined by the National Cholesterol Education Program (NCEP) ? a. LDL-C concentration < 100 mg/dL; HDL-C concentration = 60 mg/dL b. LDL-C concentration = 100 mg/dL; HDL-C concentration = 60 mg/dL c. LDL-C concentration < 100 mg/dL; HDL-C concentration < 40 mg/dL d. LDL-C concentration = 100 mg/dL; HDL-C concentration < 40 mg/dL
D
A patient with renal failure is seen for blood work. What should you expect the serum calcium and phosphorus levels to be in this patient?
Decreased calcium but increased phosphorus levels
What is the Kleihauer-Betke test used for?
Differentiate between maternal and fetal red cells
This non-hemolytic organism was isolated from the blood culture of a patient. The image shows the organism's reactions in 6.5% NaCl broth and on bile esculin agar. With further testing, this isolate will most likely be identified as:
Enterococcus spp.
A 55-year-old female, who recently returned from an extensive trip to China, presented to her physician complaining of diarrhea and abdominal cramps. The doctor ordered a complete blood count (CBC), comprehensive metabolic panel (CMP), and stool for culture and parasite examination (O & P). The CBC revealed pronounced eosinophilia. The CMP and stool culture were unremarkable. The O & P revealed suspicious forms like the one below that each measured approximately 140 µm by 80 µm. This patient is most likely infected with:
Fasciola/Fasciolopsis eggs
Which of the following terms is used to express the average of a series of numbers or values: Mean Median Mode Standard deviation
Mean
Out of the choices below, what set of cells is arranged from least mature to most mature? Stem cell, Rubriblast, Prorubicyte, Rubricyte, Metarubricyte, Reticulocyte, Erythrocyte Stem cell, Prorubicyte,Metarubricyte, Erythrocyte, Rubriblast, Rubricyte, Reticulocyte
Stem cell, Rubriblast, Prorubicyte, Rubricyte, Metarubricyte, Reticulocyte, Erythrocyte
What are the cells that are indicated by the arrows in this slide?
Stomatocytes
Which of the following represents the best match of cell type with function? Eosinophils - humoral immunity Neutrophils - mediate inflammatory responses T-lymphocytes - cell mediated immunity Monocytes - protect against parasitic infections
T-lymphocytes - cell mediated immunity
Which of the following statements is correct regarding blood bank adverse event reporting to the FDA? All patient deaths while being transfused must be reported to the FDA, even when it has been confirmed that the death was not related to the transfusion. When a transfusion reaction is the result of an error it must be reported to the FDA in writing. A transfusion-related death must be reported to the FDA within 24 hours of the patient's death. The initial notification to the FDA of a transfusion-related death must be made by fax, telephone, express mail, or electronically as soon as possible after the death is confirmed to be associated with the transfusion.
The initial notification to the FDA of a transfusion-related death must be made by fax, telephone, express mail, or electronically as soon as possible after the death is confirmed to be associated with the transfusion.
As defined by CLIA, examples of waived testing include?
dipstick tests, urine pregnancy tests, blood glucose monitoring devices
Identify the urine sediment elements shown by the arrow: * Note that these elements showed a Maltese cross pattern under polarized light a. yeast b. WBCs c. oval fat bodies d. leucine crystals
C
Which amino acid is the precursor for catecholamines as well as thyroid hormones? a. glycine b. proline c. tryptophan d. tyrosine
D
Red Cells Tested With Known Antisera Anti-A - 0 Anti-B - 0 Serum Tested With Known Red Cells A1 Cells 4+ B Cells 4+ Interpretation of ABO Group ? Using the information provided above, what is the correct ABO group? a. Unable to interpret b. O c. AB d. Either A or B
B
Which hematologic condition could be associated with the findings shown in these images? a. disseminated intravascular coagulation b. hereditary spherocytosis c. hereditary elliptocytosis d. sickle cell anemia
B
A complete blood count is performed on a post-surgical, post transfusion patient. The red cell distribution width (RDW) reported with the automated cell count is 16.5%. The reference interval in this laboratory is 11.0-14.5%. What would be demonstrated on the peripheral smear that relates directly to the RDW value? a. anisocytosis b. macrocytosis c. microcytosis d. nucleated red blood cells
A
Which of the following conditions is associated with a positive ketone test on the urine test strip? a. renal calculi b. diabetes mellitus c. hepatitis/cirrhosis d. urinary tract infection
B
Which of the following is considered an indirect hazard of electrical energy? a. Death b. Fire c. Shock d. Burns
B
Which of the following organisms would show as negative for the testing shown in the image? a. Haemophilus parainfluenzae b. Haemophilus influenzae c. Haemophilus parahaemolyticus d. Haemophilus aphrophilus
B
Which of the following statements is true concerning apolipoproteins? a. all lipoprotein particles contain the same apolipoproteins b. apolipoproteins are essential for lipid metabolism c. apolipoproteins are the reason lipoproteins are atherogenic d. apolipoproteins are a type of cholesterol
B
Donated red blood cells that contain the anticoagulant CPDA-1 (citrate-phosphate-dextrose-adenine) may be stored up to how many days? a. 21 days b. 28 days c. 35 days d. 42 days
C
How many microns are equivalent to one ocular micrometer at 40X given the following information?Stage micrometer: 0.4Ocular micrometer: 53 a. 5 µm b. 0.50 µm c. 7.5 µm d. 0.75 µm
C
If CSF tubes numbered #1, #2 and #3 CANNOT be analyzed within one hour, the correct procedure for the microbiology sample tube is to: a. refrigerate it b. freeze it c. leave it at room temperature d. incubate in a 56-degree water bath
C
Which of the following terms could be used to describe an analyzer that each specimen may be subjected t multiple analyses? a. random access b. parallel c. multi-channel d. discrete
C
Which of these procedures should be followed when collecting blood specimens for laboratory testing? a. Shake the tube vigorously after collecting the specimen. b. Refrain from inverting blood collection tubes after collecting the specimen. c. Ensure that blood collection tubes containing anticoagulants are adequately filled. d. Ensure that all collection tubes are no more than half-filled with blood.
C
Which type of kinetic reactions are not used to describe enzyme kinetic reactions used in the clinical laboratory? a. zero order b. first order c. second order d. third order
C & D
Coombs control check cells used to verify negative reactions at the anti-globulin (IAT) phase are coated with: a. anti-P1 b. anti-M c. IgM antibodies d. IgG antibodies
D
Identify the bi-nucleate cell (see arrow) in the pericardial fluid sample shown here. a. macrophage b. tumor cell c. histocyte d. mesothelial
D
Identify the urine sediment elements present in this illustration: a. Cholesterol crystals b. Leucine crystals c. Cystine crystals d. Tyrosine crystals
D
If the red cell count is known, which of the following MUST also be known in order to calculate the mean corpuscular volume (MCV)? a. Hemoglobin b. Leukocyte count c. Reticulocyte count d. Hematocrit
D
The viscous fluid found in the joint cavities is called: a. Pleural fluid b. Peritoneal fluid c. Amniotic fluid d. Synovial fluid
D
Urine test strip positive for blood may indicate all, EXCEPT: a. Hematuria b. Hemoglobinuria c. Myoglobinuria d. Meat diet
D
What protective methods should be used when working with organic solvents? a. Face shield b. Biosafety cabinet c. Goggles d. Fume hood
D
In clinical genetics, the major consequences of chromosomal deletion: a. is the loss of specific genes that are localized to the deleted chromosomal segments b. no change in the copy numbers of genes found in these deleted chromosomal locations c. is the exclusion of large-scale chromosomal deletion d. is the inability to differentiate a chromosomal deletion from a nucleotide sequence abnormality
A
A 55-year old white male had the following lab data: RBC 3.7 X 10'/uL Serum iron 220 ug/dL (N: 60-80 ug/dL) Hgb 10.0 g/dL TIBC 300 ug/dL (N: 260-400 ug/dL) Hct 32% Serum Ferritin 2,800 ng/mL (N: 10-200 ng/mL) WBC 5,800 MCV 86 fl MCH 26 pg MCHC 32% Bone marrow shows shift to left for RBC's Prussian Blue stain indicates markedly elevated iron stores These laboratory results are MOST consistent with which of the following conditions? a. sideroblastic anemia b. anemia of chronic disease c. hemochromatosis d. megaloblastic anemia
C
Alpha thalassemia is defined as: a. the production of an abnormal form of hemoglobin due to the substitution of an amino acid in the alpha chain b. the decrease in the rate of production of Hb A due t a substitution of an amino acid in the alpha chain c. The decrease in the rate of production pf alpha chains due to a partial or total deletion of the genetic code d. the decrease in the rate of production of alpha chains due to a mutation on chromosome 11
C
An aliquot of AS-1 red blood cells is being prepared from an intact packed cell unit using a sterile connection device. During the process of preparing an aliquot, the sterile device fails and blood drips onto the counter from the product tubing. What should be done with the primary unit? a. Destroy the unit. b. Keep the original expiration date c. Change the expiration date to 24 hours d. Change the expiration date to 48 hours
C
Isoenzymes of CK include all of the following EXCEPT: a. MB b. MM c. MBM d. BB
C
Patients who develop severe sepsis or septic shock commonly have _____ plasma lactate values. a. decreased b. normal c. increased d. markedly decreased
C
The value that occurs most frequently in a set of results or values would be termed: a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. Standard deviation
C
Which of the following terms could be used to describe an analyzer that each specimen has its own space? a. random access b. parallel c. multi-channel d. discrete
D
The mediator cell type that binds to IgE antibodies is the: a. basophil b. eosinophil c. polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMN) d. macrophage
A
What is the formula for calculating transferrin saturation (TS) ? (Serum iron/TIBC) X 100 (Serum ferritin/TIBC) X 100 TIBC/serum iron Serum iron/serum ferritin
(Serum iron/TIBC) X 100
The selectivity of an ion-selective electrode is determined by the: a. Properties of the membrane used b. Magnitude of the potential across the membrane c. The size of the membrane used d. Neural potential of the membrane
A
The appropriate magnification for a manual RBC count using a hemocytometer is which of the following ? 10X 100X (Oil) 40X (Dry) 4X
40X (Dry)
A few dark blue staining granular inclusions located near the periphery of an erythrocyte are most likely: a. Pappenheimer bodies b. Howell-Jolly bodies c. Heinz bodies d. Basophilic stippling
A
A representative congenital neutrophil functional disorder is: a. Chédiak-Higashi syndrome b. Gaucher's disease c. Niemann-Pick Disease d. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
A
A tech working in the laboratory receives a VRE screening culture. Which of the following agars should the tech use to set up the VRE screening culture? a. Bile-esculin-azide (BEA) agar with vancomycin b. Columbia Nalidixic acid (CNA) agar c. MacConkey agar d. Buffered Charcoal yeast extract (BYCE) agar
A
Acquired hemophilia A (not class hemophilia A) may result from which of the following conditions? a. anti-factor VII inhibitor b. factor VII deficiency c. Warfarin therapy d. thrombosis complications
A
An absorbance measurement that uses a densitometer to measure the absorbance of stained compounds on a support medium or electrophoretic strip: a. densitometry b. electrical impedance c. electroosmosis d. voltammetry
A
Animal inoculation may be used to identify all of the following conditions except: a. Malaria b. Leishmaniasis c. Toxoplasmosis d. Trypanosomiasis
A
B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes are derived from: a. hematopoietic stem cells b. macrophages or monocytes c. mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) d. granulocytes
A
Estrogen (ERs) and progesterone (PRs) receptors used as tumor markers are most commonly employed to provide prognostic information about: a. Breast cancer b. Uterine cancer c. Menopause d. Cervical cancer
A
In which of the following cells are Auer rods most likely to be seen? a. myeloblast b. lymphoblast c. erythroblast d. megakaryocyte
A
The MOST accurate observation about osmotic pressure is that it is: a. Proportional to concentration of solute particles b. Equal to number of solvent molecules times a factor c. Measurable by how much it raises the freezing point of water d. Directly proportional to the inverse log of solvent molecules
A
The fluid found in the cavity surrounding the lungs: a. Pleural fluid b. Peritoneal fluid c. Amniotic fluid d. Synovial fluid
A
Which of the following analytes would be increased due to delay in centrifugation? a. bicarbonate b. folate c. ionized calcium d. ALT
ALT
The ketone component that is measured by nitroprusside reaction is: Acetoacetic acid Beta-hydroxybutyric acid Acetone C-Reactive Protein
Acetoacetic acid
A 32-year old male was seen in the emergency room with severe gastrointestinal discomfort and occasional vomiting. Upon questioning the patient it was learned that he first began feeling ill after spending a day at the park where he swam and played volleyball barefooted. He first noticed a lesion on his foot. Later, he developed vague respiratory symptoms. Now his largest complaint is severe abdominal pain along with occasional vomiting. This patient is most likely suffering from a parasitic infection with: a. echinococcus granulosus b. necator americanus c. entamoeba histolytica d. trichuria trichuria
B
A CSF sample was cytocentrifuged and the smear was stained. Which of the following statements is true about the type of cell shown in the image? a. increased numbers of this cell is seen in patients with bacterial meningitis b. it lines the arachnoid space (CNS) c. its a monocyte d. its a malignant cell
B
All of the following would be included in a hemolytic transfusion reaction investigation, EXCEPT: a. ABO/Rh check of post-transfusion sample b. Leukocyte antigen studies c. direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on post-transfusion sample d. clerical check
B
"Xanthochromic" CSF means that the color of the CSF can be any of the following EXCEPT: Pale orange Pale pink Yellow Blue
Blue
Match the colors on the NFPA diamond with the appropriate hazard? Blue Yellow White Red Answer choices: - a health hazard - a fire hazard - a reactivity hazard - a special section
Blue = health hazard Yellow = reactivity hazard White = a special section Red = fire hazard
In the condition kernicterus, the abnormal accumulation of bilirubin occurs in what tissue? Brain Liver Kidney Blood
Brain
A 2-year old girl, who had been treated with upper respiratory tract infection a few weeks ago, showed multiple bruises and had the following laboratory findings: Hgb = 13.5 g/dL RBC = 3.9 x 1012/L WBC = 8.0 x 109/L Platelets = 5 x 109/L Bone marrow M:E ratio = 3:1 Megakaryocytes = increased These results are most suggestive of which condition? a. Glanzmann thrombasthenia b. wiskott-aldrich syndrome c. immune (idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura d. thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
C
An automated hematology counter flagged the white blood cell count. Upon reviewing the peripheral blood smear, the technologist viewed many cells that appeared similar to those in this image. What should the technologist report? a. lymphocytes b. lymphoblasts c. Atypical or reactive lymphocytes d. plasma cells
C
8-Hydroxyquinoline and Ortho-Cresolphthalein complexone (CPC) reagent is commonly used in the determination of: Phosphorus Magnesium Chloride Calcium
Calcium
In order to avoid falsely elevated spinal fluid cell counts one should: a. use an aliquot only from the first tube collected b. use only those specimens showing no turbidity c. centrifuge all specimens before counting d. select an aliquot from the last tube collected
D
A patient reported to her doctor that her stools have been ribbon-like over the last few weeks. What is most likely the cause of the patient's stool appearance? a. Diarrhea b. Constipation c. Inflammation of the intestinal wall d. Bowel obstruction
D
A urine culture and sensitivity (C&S) specimen is collected at 8 AM at an outpatient clinic and the courier will not be able to pick it up until 2 PM that same day. If refrigeration is not available, how should the specimen be stored until testing is performed? a. The test results will not be affected by a 6-hour delay in testing if the specimen is kept at room temperature. b. The test results will not be affected by a 6 hour delay if the specimen is kept at 37° C (body temperature). c. The patient should be instructed to wait 6 hours to void the urine specimen because there is no refrigerator or courier available to pick up the specimen. d. The specimen should be placed in a container with the proper preservative.
D
What three hepatitis B virus (HBV) early markers are detectable in serum during the first two months after infection?
HBsAg, HBeAg, anti-HBc
This image depicts a brilliant cresyl blue-stained blood smear. What inclusion bodies are shown in the erythrocyte indicated by the arrow (B)? Howell-Jolly bodies Hb H inclusions Pappenheimer bodies Siderotic granules
Hb H inclusions
Which of the following sites is used most often for CSF collection? Ventricles L1-L2 Suboccipital LS-L4
LS-L4
A college student is treated in the hospital for suspected meningitis. Which cells should be identified in the CSF report for the cytospin field that's shown?
Lymphocytes
This smear shows: No Abnormality Howell-Jolly bodies Basophilic stippling Pappenheimer bodies
No abnormality
Which of the following would be the BEST data source to identify opportunities to improve timeliness? Complaints from physicians Incident reports Outliers in turnaround time studies Surveys of patient satisfaction
Outliers in turnaround time studies
A liquid ion-exchange membrane electrode using the antibiotic valinomycin id MOST selective for: Sodium Glucose Chloride Potassium
Potassium
Which one of the following tests should be used to monitor a patient's response to treatment for syphilis: TP-PA titer RPR titer TP-HA titer FTA-ABS titer
RPR titer
Identify the urine sediment elements present in this image observed using brightfield microscopy
Red blood cells
What molecular technique is appropriate for HIV-1 genotyping? Reverse Transcriptase Polymerase Chain Reaction Multiplex Polymerase Chain Reaction Real-Time polymerase Chain Reaction Strand Displacement Amplification
Reverse Transcriptase Polymerase Chain Reaction
All of the following statements are true regarding the reagent strip test procedure, EXCEPT? Urine should be centrifuged before dipping the reagent strip Urine should be well mixed before dipping the reagent strip When visually reading the reagent strip, the test results should be read at the prescribed time suggested by the manufacturer after dipping the strip in the urine specimen Prolonged immersion may wash out rest reagents
Urine should be centrifuged before dipping the reagent strip
Which of the following urine chemical reagent strip tests is based on the Ehrlich-aldehyde reaction? pH Protein Glucose Urobilinogen
Urobilinogen
Identify the urine sediment elements indicated by the arrow in the illustration: a. cholesterol crystals b. triple phosphate crystals c. amorphous urate crystals d. ammonium biurate crystals
b
Identify the white blood cell in the center of this smear? a. Metamyelocyte b. monocyte c. neutrophilic band d. segmented neutrophil
c
A patient with a documented history of febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions (FNHTRs) should receive ______ blood components. a. leukoreduced b. irradiated c. cytomegalovirus (CMV) negative d. hemoglobin s negative
A
According to the HIV testing algorithm from the CDC, all of the following statements are true, EXCEPT? a. a nonreactive screening test to either HIV-1 or HIV-2 is confirmation that a patient does not have HIV b. as part of the initial screening, an HIV-1/2 antigen/antibody combination immunoassay should be performed c. an HIV-1/2 antibody differentiation immunoassay should be used to differentiate a positive screening test d. HIV-1 NAT testing should be used to resolve any discrepant results between initial reactive testing and nonreactive follow-up testing.
A
All of the following are components of a basic single beam spectrophotometer, except; a. Beam splitter b. Cuvette c. Prism d. Light source
A
The trophozoites indicated by arrows, and the 10 um oval cyst at the middle left in the photomicrograph were observed in a stool specimen from a person with mild intermittent diarrhea. What is the presumptive identification of this organism? a. Iodamoeba butschlii b. chilomastix mesnili c. Entamoeba hartmanni d. endolimax nana
A
Which of the following methods may be employed to definitively identify Bence-Jones proteins? a. immunoelectrophoresis b. sulfosalicylic acid precipitation c. heat precipitation at 40-60 degrees Celsius d. urine dipstick
A
Which of the following organisms is responsible for myonecrosis with gas gangrene, food poisoning as well as necrotizing enteritis, a life threatening that causes ischemic necrosis of the jejunum? a. clostridium perfringens b. prevotella melanogenic c. cutibacterium (Propionibacterium) app. d. fusobacterium necrophorum
A
Which of the following statements concerning Tamm-Horsfall protein is FALSE? a it is the protein that is predominately detected by a urine reagent strip test b. hyaline casts are formed by this protein in the distal tubule c. it acts as a coating and lubricant in the tubules d. it is produced by the tubules
A
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding troponin as a marker of myocardial infarction (IM) ? a. it rises much sooner after a myocardial infarction than CK-MB b. it stays elevated much longer than CK-MB c. it is potentially more specific as a cardiac marker than CK-MB d. troponin T is often elevated in renal failure patients
A
Which of the following types of lymphocytes express CD4? a. only t-helper cells b. only t-suppressor (cytotoxic) cells c. all t cells d. b cells
A
Which type of kinetic reactions are reactions in which the rate of the reaction is independent of the substrate concentration and is directly proportional to the enzyme concentration? a. zero order b. first order c. second order d. third order
A
A technologist is having trouble differentiating between red blood cells, oil droplets, and yeast cells on a urine microscopy. Acetic acid should be added to the sediment to: a. lyse the yeast cells b. lyse the red blood cells c. dissolve the oil droplets d. crenate the red blood cells
B
After reviewing this cytospin from a pleural fluid, identify the cells that would be the appropriate to report? a. Macrophages, neutrophils, and red blood cells b. Mesothelial cells, neutrophils, and red blood cells c. Tumor cells, neutrophils, and red blood cells d. Plasma cells, neutrophils, and red blood cells.
B
Although not endemic in the United States, travelers and hunters in regions of East and Central Africa may acquire this blood infection from the bite of a tsetse fly. Intermittent fever, headache, joint, and muscle pains may be experienced. In chronic cases, central nervous system symptoms such as mental retardation, tremors, and slow gait may lead to somnolence and "sleeping sickness." The invasive curved organisms as shown in this image of a Wright-stained peripheral blood smear, average 20 µm in length. What is the presumptive species identification of the hemo-flagellate related to this infection? a. Brugia malayi b. Trypanosoma rhodesiense c. Leishmania donovani d.Trypanosoma cruzi
B
A variety pf additives are used in blood collection tubes. Which of the following additives prevents clotting by inhibiting thrombin and thromboplastin? a. EDTA b. Gel c. Lithium and sodium heparin d. Sodium fluoride
C
Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar (BCYE) is the nonselective solid culture medium used for the primary recovery of: a. treponema pallidum b. mycoplasma pneumoniae c. legionella pneumophila d. spirillum minus
C
When considering therapeutic drug monitoring, which two organ systems are associated with drug elimination ? a. cardiac and pulmonary b. hepatic and renal c. renal and cardiac d. hepatic and respiratory
B
Which of the following best defines "waste" in Lean thinking? a. what remains from a product after process has been completed b. any activity or process that is unneeded, unwanted, or involves excess effort c. materials that are purchased but not used d. materials or products that have been used to their limit and there are no longer available
B
Which of the following characteristics of CSF is present if blood is due to subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) ? a. sample clots on standing b. blood is evenly distributed in all tubes c. the supernatant is clear when centrifuged within one hour d. blood is more visible in the first tube collected and less and less visible in each subsequent tube thereafter
B
Which of the following terms could be used to describe an analyzer that can test specimens at the same time? a. random access b. parallel c. multi-channel d. discrete
B
The role of the medical laboratory scientist is processing bone marrow aspirates can vary depending on laboratory and clinician protocols. Which of the following statements is true regarding the bone marrow procedures typically performed by an MLS? a. they prepare the patient for the bone marrow procedure b. they perform the bone marrow aspiration and biopsy c. they make and/or stain the bone marrow smear d. they examine and interpret the bone marrow smear
C
How many milliliters of a 5 M solution would be needed to make 250 mL of a 2 M solution? a. 20 mL b. 40 mL c. 62.5 mL d. 100 mL
D
The qualitative difference between A1 and A2 phenotypes includes all of the following EXCEPT: a. the formation of anti-A1 in subgroups b. The amount of transferase enzymes c. The length of the precursor oligosaccharide chains d. the lack of agglutination of a patients red cells with anti-A reagent
D
When a patient has a bile duct obstruction, the bilirubin test portion of the reagent strip is: a. Negative because unconjugated bilirubin is increased and cannot be excreted by the kidneys. b. Positive because unconjugated bilirubin is increased and is excreted by the kidneys. c. Negative because conjugated bilirubin is decreased and cannot be excreted by the kidneys. d. Positive because conjugated bilirubin is present and is excreted by the kidneys. Feedback
D
With the development of fetal lung maturity, which of the following phospholipid concentrations in amniotic fluid increases? a. Sphingomyelin b. phosphatidyl ethanolamine c. phosphatidylinositol d. lecithin
D
How does ion concentration in the urine relate to specific gravity? a. specific gravity increases as ionic concentration increases b. specific gravity decreases as ionic concentration increases c. there is no relationship between SG and ionic concentration d. specific gravity stays the same regardless of the ionic concentration
A
Identify the eye piece and diopter adjustment: a. B, E b. G, D c. A, K d. J, F
A
In order for a cell to be classified as a ring sideroblast, which of the following must be true? a. RBC precursor with at least 5 iron granules circling at east 1/3 of the nucleus b. RBC precursor with at least 4 iron granules circling at east 1/4 of the nucleus c. RBC precursor with at least 3 iron granules circling at east 1/4 of the nucleus d. RBC precursor with at least 8 iron granules circling at east 1/2 of the nucleus
A
Observe the peripheral blood smear image. Several types of poikilocytes are seen. All of the following are seen EXCEPT: a. drepanocytes b. burr cells c. target cells d. spherocyte
A
The fibrinolytic system may be activated by which of the following? a. streptokinase b. streptolysin c. fibrin d. EDTA
A
The hemoglobin electrophoresis patterns that are shown include controls labeled AF and ASC above and below the patient results on the alkaline electrophoresis (on the left), and above the patient results on the acid electrophoresis (on the right). Note that labels AF and ASC are simply labels for the controls and do not indicate order of migration. The patient was tested in duplicate and the results are in lanes 4 and 6. The patient samples displayed in these hemoglobin electrophoresis patterns are consistent with what diagnosis? a. HbAS b. HbSC c. HcSD d. HbS/HPFH
A
Which medication is primarily used in the treatment of bipolar disorder? a. lithium b. imipramine c. amitriptyline d. doxpin
A
Which of the following contributes most to serum osmolality? a. magnesium b. albumin c. potassium d. sodium
D
An India Ink preparation is used to identify: a. crystals in synovial fluid b. Cryptococcus neoformans in CSF c. bacteria in CSF d. WBCs in synovial fluid
B
Carbon dioxide is predominately found in the blood in the form of? a. bound CO2 b. bicarbonate ions c. sodium carbonate d. pCO2
B
Enzyme Multiplied Immunoassay Technique (EMIT) differ from all other types of enzyme immunoassays in that: a. lysozyme is the only enzyme used to label the hapten molecule b. no separation of bound and free antigen is required c. inhibition of the enzyme label is accomplished with polyethylene glycol d. antibody absorption to polystyrene tubes precludes competition to labeled and free antigens
B
On a patient that has a large amount of glucose in their urine, what would be the expected specific gravity (SG) taken from a refractometer in comparison to the dipstick SG? a. refractometer SG would be lower than dipstick SG b. refractometer SG would be higher than dipstick SG c. dipstick SG would be the same as refractometer SG d. unable to determine
B
The process based on the electrical resistance across an aperture when a particle in a conductive liquid passes through this Aperture? a. densitometry b. electrical impedance c. electroosmosis d. voltammetry
B
When three tubes of cerebrospinal fluid are received in the laboratory they should be distributed to the various laboratory sections as follows: a. #1 Hematology, #2 Chemistry, #3 Microbiology b. #1 Chemistry, #2 Microbiology, #3 Hematology c. #1 Microbiology, #2 Hematology, #3 Chemistry d. #1 Chemistry, #2 Hematology, #3 Microbiology
B
Which of the following blood tests can be collected in a serum separation tube (SST)? a. CBC b. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) c. PT d. ABO group and Rh typing
B
All of the following demonstrate safe work habits that should be utilized when using hazardous processing reagents, EXCEPT: a. wearing personal protective equipment (PPE), such as gloves and safety glasses b. working in a fume hood ad having good air quality/ventilation c. being familiar with the safety data sheet (SDS) for each reagent d. recapping a needle
D
All of the following steps should be taken in the IMMEDIATE investigation of a potential hemolytic transfusion reaction EXCEPT: a. DAT on the post-transfusion patient sample b. check for clerical errors c. visual examination of the pot-reaction and pre-reaction plasma for hemolysis d. a gram stain on the patients plasma
D
Each of the following hypothalamic hormones is corr4ectly matched with the anterior pituitary hormone that it releases EXCEPT: a. TRH --> TSH b. GnRH --> LH and FSH c. CRH --> ACTH d. GHRH --> Oxytocin
D
What principle(s) of flow cytometry is employed when performing immuno-phenotyping? a. diffraction grating b. impedance c. diffraction grating and impedance d. fluorescent antibody tagging and light scatter
D
A 42-year-old chain smoker experienced an increase in cough, sputum production, and intermittent shortness of breath for over one week. A diagnosis of chronic bronchitis with acute exacerbation was made. The image shows a gram stain of an early morning, spontaneously expectorated sputum. Based on the pleomorphic coccobacilli shown in the gam stain, what is most likely the cause of the exacerbation? a. Bordetella bronchiseptica b. haemophilus influenzae c. Moraxella catarrhalis d. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B
Identify the urine sediment element shown by the arrow: a.Yeast b. Trichomonas c. Epithelial cells d. Starch crystals
B
Identify the urine sediment elements shown by the arrow: a. Cholesterol crystals b. uric acid crystals c. amorphous urate crystals d. cystine crystals
B
If septic arthritis is suspected, specimens from which of the following normally sterile sites should be collected to detect the microorganism causing the condition? a. Serous fluid b. Synovial fluid c. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) d. Blood
B
Iontophoresis is a technique used in the diagnosis of: a. phenylketonuria b. cystic fibrosis c. pernicious anemia d. Addison's disease
B
These tubes of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) arrive in the laboratory for evaluation. The tubes were numbered in the order of which they were obtained, with #1 being the first tube collected, and #3 being the last tube collected. What may be the indicated by the macroscopic appearance of the CSF? a. normal spinal fluid b. subarachnoid hemorrhage c. traumatic tap d. bacterial meningitis
C
Toxic levels of lithium can cause lethargy, apathy, muscle weakness up to and including seizures and coma. What is the toxic level of lithium? a. 0.5-1.2 mmol/L b. 1.2-1.5 mmol/L c. 1.5-2 mmol/L d. >2 mmol/L
C
VDRL and RPR are examples of which of the following types of test methodologies? a. ELISA b. Immunofluorescence c. Flocculation d. Hemagglutination
C
What is the CORRECT blood-to-anticoagulant ratio in blue top (sodium citrate) tubes used for coagulation tests? a. 4:1 b. 5:1 c. 9:1 d. 10:1
C
What is the mechanism that causes megaloblastic anemia? a. Defective stem cell production b. Interruption of hemoglobin production c. Interruption of DNA Synthesis d. Interruption of development of precursor cells
C
Which of the following is LEAST useful in differentiating hemophilia A form hemophilia B? a factor viii and ix assays b. clinical history c. activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) d. mixing stuides (correction studies)
C
Which of the following is considered a macrocytic anemia? a. Cooley's anemia b. Iron deficiency anemia c. Pernicious anemia d. Polycythemia vera
C
Which of the following medications is known to cause Reye's Syndrome in children? a. Acetaminophen b. Ibuprofen c. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) d. morphine
C
Which of the following organisms is best visualized by use of a darkfield microscope? a. Poxviridae b. Entamoeba c. Borrelia d. Streptococcus
C
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning handling suspected bioterrorism agents received in a typical clinical laboratory a. the agents of bioterrorism can be manipulated on an open bench b. None of the agents of bioterrorism have been known to cause laboratory-acquired infections c. at least a class II biological safety cabinet (BSC) should be used d. agents of bioterrorism are very expensive and need very sophisticated equipment produce
C
The immediate spin phase of an indirect antiglobulin test (antibody screen and antibody identification) could most likely lead to the detection of which of the following? Clinically significant warm antibodies Clinically significant cold antibodies Clinically insignificant warm antibodies Clinically insignificant cold antibodies
Clinically insignificant cold antibodies
An electroanalytical method based on the measurement of a current that develops in an electrochemical cell under conditions of a complete concentration polarization: a. densitometry b. electrical impedance c. electroosmosis d. voltammetry
D
Immunoglobulin M (IgM) is the characteristically overproduced gene product found in: a. multiple myeloma b. plasma cell myeloma c. heavy chain disease d. waldenstrom's disease
D
The illustrated organism is the anamorph stage of Pseudallescheria boydii that ma cause pulmonary fungus ball infection, mycetomas, endocarditis, and other disseminated infections. a. Cryptococcus species b. Trichosporon species c. Aspergillus species d. Scedosporium species
D
The laboratory test used to determine the presence of neural tub defects is: a. L/S ratio b. Amniotic fluid creatinine c. sweat chloride test d. alpha-fetoprotein
D
The most common methods for measuring bilirubin are based on the reaction of bilirubin with: a. Methyl alcohol b. Neural salts c. Bilirubin oxidase d Diazo reagent
D
Which of the following culture media bests supports the growth/identification of Salmonella species? a. chocolate agar b. chopped meat broth c. Columbia CNA agar w/blood d. Hektoen enteric agar
D
Which of the following organisms is both a transient colonizer of skin, as well as the most common cause of bacterial skin infections a. cutibacterium (Propionibacterium) acnes b. streptococcus pyogenes c. Escherichia coli d. staphylococcus aureus
D
Which of the following statements is true regarding primary hemostatic process resulting from vascular damage? a. inhibition of platelet function by interaction with collagen b. platelet adhesion through weibel-palade bodies c. platelet aggregation through interaction of von Willebrand factor and glycoprotein llb/llla d. rapid and immediate vasoconstriction by contraction o smooth muscles
D
Which of the following tests would be positive in the presence of Klebsiella spp? a. methyl-red test b. coagulase test c. CAMP test d. Voges-Proskauer test
D
A 1:100 dilution of a patients peripheral blood was made, and a total of 136 platelets were counted in 5 squares of the RBC area of a Neubauer-ruled hemocytometer. What is the platelet count? Note: The volume correction factor is 50 uL a. 27 x 10^3/uL b. 68 x 10^3/uL c. 136 x 10^3/uL d. 680 x 10^3/uL
D Count = (100*136) x 50 = 680,000 or 680 x 10^3/uL
