Anatomy Exam 1 Question Bank
The number of phalanges in on hand is...
14
Which of the following are true of yellow marrow? 1. It is the main site of blood cell production 2. It is located in the medullary cavities of long bones 3. It is located in hipbones, sternum, ribs, and vertebrae 4. It is a site of energy storage in the form of triglycerides 5. It becomes more abundant relative to red marrow with increasing age due to the conversion of red marrow to yellow marrow
2, 4, 5
Which best describes the palatine bone?
Horizontal plate forms the posterior portion of the hard palate
A transfers plane...
Is also known as a horizontal plane or cross-sectional plane
Contraction of the ____ causes goosebumps. a) Arrector pili muscles b) Capillar loops in the papillary region of the dermis c) Underlying skeletal muscle d) Hair follicle
Arrector pili muscles
A fibrous joint cannot also be _______ a) A diarthrosis b) A suture c) An amphiarthrosis d) A synarthrosis
A diarthrosis. A diarthrosis, or synovial joint, has a lubricated CAVITY within a connective tissue capsule. Fibrous joints are SOLID MASSES of connective tissue. The others are all types of fibrous joints.
A gland may consist of...
A single epithelial cell OR a cluster of epithelial cells
Which of the following is not considered an epidermal derivative? a) Hair b) Sudoriferous glands c) Sebaceous glands d) Lamellated corpuscles
Lamellated corpuscles
Which of the following is an articular feature of the tibia? a) Lateral condyle b) Tibial tuberostiy c) Anterior border
Lateral condyle
Name the two most specific body cavities that would be sectioned if a transverse plane were passed through the umbilicus. a) Pelvic and thoracic b) abdominal and vertebral canal c) abdominal and pelvic d) thoracic and vertebral canal
Abdominal and vertebral
Which of the following cell junctions anchor or connect adjacent cells to one another? a) Hemidesmosomes b) Adherens junctions c) desmosomes d) gap junctions e) tight junctions
Adherens junctions, desmosomes, gap junctions, and tight junctions (NOT hemidesmosomes)
Appearance of the epiphyseal line means... a) All chondrocytes of the epiphyseal plate are dead b) The end of the lengthwise growth of that bone c) Total replacement of the epiphyseal plate by bone d) All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is a true statement about bone surface markings? a) Processes and outgrowths are the result of tension from tendons and ligaments on the periosteum of a bone. b) Surface markings on identical skeletal remains may provide information related to age, sex, race, nutrition, and health. c) Most are not present at birth but develop as forces are exerted on bones and are most prominent during adult life. d) All of the above
All of the above
All three types of fibers (collagen, elastic, and reticular) are found in which of the following tissues? a) Tendons b) Hyaline cartilage c) Reticular connective tissue d) Areolar connective tissue
Areolar connective tissue Tendons (dense regular connective tissue) have collagen fibers; hyaline cartilage has collagen fibers; and reticular connective tissue has reticular fibers (a thin form of collagen fibers).
The rotator cuff tendons enclose the shoulder joint on all sides except ______, which partially explains the nature of most shoulder dislocations. a) Inferiorly b) medially c) Anteriorly d) Superiorly
Anteriorly
Calluses form in areas that... a) Undergo slowed rate of mitosis b) Are subject to friction c) Have excessive blood flow d) Have insufficient nerve supply
Are subject to friction
What word does the letter "B" stand for in the American Cancer Society's ABCD guidelines for detecting malignant melanoma?
Border is irregular
Which of the following statements is/are true: The hardness of bone is due to the mineral salts such as calcium phosphate. The tensile strength of bone is due to organic molecules such as collagen.
Both statements are true.
A tendon sheath is a modified.... a) bursa b) ligament c) meniscus d) joint capsule
Bursa
Orientation of which dermal fibers is responsible for "lines of cleavage" (tension lines) seen in the skin? a) Collagen b) Elastic c) Reticular d) None of the above
Collagen
The tissue that contains erythrocytes, leukocytes, and plasma belongs to which tissue group?
Connective tissue
A major change in bone tissue that occurs with aging and that leads to increased brittleness is _______ a) Demineralization b) Decreased protein synthesis c) Increased bone remodeling d) All of the above
Decreased protein synthesis (i.e., collagen) - leads to loss of tensile strength
Which type of joint has the most movement? a) Diarthrosis b) Gomphosis c) Syndesmosis d) Synarthrosis
Diarthrosis. Diarthroses are freely movable joints. A syndesmosis is only amphithrotic. Gomphoses are a type of syndemosis and are thus amphithrotic. Synarthroses are immoveable joints.
The nutrient artery of a long bone... a) Travels through perforating canals b) Supplies the marrow and bony tissue of the epiphysis c) Divides into branches that supply the marrow and the inner potion of the diaphysis
Divides into branches that supply the marrow and the inner portion of the diaphysis
The ability of skin to stretch and recoil is due to the presence of _____ in the _____. a) Elastic fibers, dermis b) Elastic fibers, epidermis c) Basement membrane, hypodermis d) Adipose tissue, dermis
Elastic fibers, dermis
Which of the following is a false statement about epithelium? a) Epithelial tissue is highly vascular b) Epithelial tissues consist of cells arranged in single or multiple layers c) Cell junctions are plentiful in epithelial tissue d) Epithelial cells are replaced continuously by mitosis
Epithelial tissue is highly vascular
An epithelial membrane consists of: a) Epithelium plus nervous tissue b) Epithelium plus connective tissue c) Epithelium plus blood vessels d) Epithelium only
Epithelium plus connective tissue
The narrow strip of epidermis found on the surface of the proximal border of a nail is called: a) matrix b) lunula c) papilla d) eponychium
Eponychium (cuticle)
Fibrous tissue firmly holds the articular surfaces of bones together in... a) Synovial joints b) Fibrous joins C) Cartilaginous joints d) All of the above
Fibrous joints
Membrane-filled spaces between cranial bones of an infant skull are called:
Fontanels
The flexible connective tissue that joins the anterior extremity of a rib to the sternum is... a) elastic cartilage b) dense regular connective tissue c) fibrocartilage d) hyaline cartilage
Hyaline cartilage
The metaphysis is: a) in a young bone, the site of growth in length b) essentially for growth in diameter of a long bone c) a thin plate of bone in spongy bone d) a structural unit of compact bone
In a young bone, the site of growth in length
The areas between neighboring osteons contain... a) Circumferential lamellae b) Yellow marrow c) Red marrow d) Interstitial lamellae
Interstitial lamellae
Which of the following is NOT true of a periosteum? a) It covers and protects the articular cartilages b) It serves as a point of attachment for tendons and ligaments c) It assists in fracture repair d) It consists of two layers, the inner osteogenic and outer fibrous layers
It covers and protects the articular cartilages
Which feature goes with the knee joint? a) Acetabular labrum b) Medial and lateral menisci c) Zona orbicularis d) Glenoid labrum e) Radial annular ligament
Medial and lateral menisci
Which is the most common type of exocrine gland? a) Merocrine glands b) Apocrine glands c) Holocrine glands d) All of the above
Merocrine glands
The four major families of tissues are...
Muscular, nervous, epithelial, and connective
The frontal bone... a) Articulates with the mandible b) Contributes to the sagittal suture c) Forms part of the floor of the orbit d) None
None of the above
The frontal bone... a) Articulates with the mandible b) Contributes to the sagittal suture c) Forms part of the floor of the orbit d) None of the above
None of the above
The matrix of loose connective tissue is produced by... a) Mast cells b) Plasma cells c) macrophages d) none of the above
None of the above
Osteocytes are the mature bone cells that develop directly from... a) White blood cells b) Osteogenic cells c) Osteoblasts d) Osteoclasts
Osteoblasts
Which of the following is not a characteristic of spongy bone tissue? a) Osteocytes in lacunae b) Lamellae c) Perforating (Volkmann's) canals d) Canaliculi
Perforating (Volkmann's) canals
The heart is located in the...
Pericardial cavity
Which is NOT a feature of osteoarthritis? a) Presence of autoantibodies b) Pain c) Abnormal bone growth inside joint cavity d) Degeneration of articular cartilage e) Restriction of movement
Presence of autoantibodies
Which structure of the pelvis is medial to the ischium, inferior to the ilium, lateral to the pubic symphysis, and medial to the acetabulum?
Pubis
The articular capsule of the hip joint is one of the strongest in the body. It consists partially of: a) Pubofemoral ligament b) Glenoid labrum c) Transverse humeral ligament d) All of the above
Pubofemoral ligament
Which of these is not associated with the shoulder joint? a) Glenoid cavity b) Transverse humeral ligament c) Labrum d) Radial (inguinal) collateral ligament e) Coracohumeral ligament
Radial (inguinal) collateral ligament
Which feature goes with the elbow joint?
Radial annular ligament
A course of study in which you learn about the bones of the forearm along with associated blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerve would most appropriately be called... a) Regional anatomy b) Systemic c) Surface anatomy d) Gross anatomy
Regional anatomy
The membrane covering the outer surface of the heart is a _____ membrane. a) Synovial b) Serous c) Mucous d) Parietal
Serous Serous membranes line body cavities that are not open directly to the exterior. Has two layers: Parietal and visceral. The one the covers the heart is called the pericardium. Synovial membranes line joint cavities. Mucous membranes line other cavities like the gut, respiratory passage, urethra, vagina, and anus.
The foramen ovale is found in which bone?
Sphenoid
Spongy bone is made up of a network of bony spines called... a) Trabeculae b) Perforating canals c) Lamellae d) Canaliculi e) Osteons
Spongy bone does NOT have osteons. Spongy bone is inner bone, porous. Compact bone is outer bone, rigid and makes up the long bones. Spongy bone contains trabeculae instead of osteons. Trabeculae have lamellae, osteocytes, lacunae, and canaliculi. Trabeculae do NOT have perforating canals.
The greatest amount of keratin is found in.... a) stratum corneum b) stratum basale c) reticular region of vermin d) stratum spinosum
Stratum corneum
A ______ is a type of joint in which two bones are held together by a disc of fibrocartilage. a) Synovial joint b) Symphysis c) Synchondrosis d) Suture
Symphysis
What pair of skull bones contribute to the only freely movable joint of the head?
Temporal and manidble
Which skull bone contains the mandibular fossa, mastoid process, styloid process, and zygomatic process?
Temporal bone
The rotator cuff includes tendons of all the following muscles except... a) The biceps brachii b) The subscapularis c) The teres mior d) The infraspinatus e) The supraspinatus
The biceps brachii
Which of these statements are true and false? The inguinal region is proximal to the popliteal region. The axillary region is inferior to the antecubital region.
The first is true, the second is false.
Which of the following statements are true? The girdles attach the limbs to the axial skeleton. The girdles are considered to be part of the axial skeleton.
The first statement is true; the second statement is false. The pectoral girdle connects to the arms, but it is part of the appendicular skeleton. The pelvic girdle connects the bones of the lower limb to the axial skeleton, but it is also a part of the appendicular skeleton.
The ligament teres arises from a) The hamstrings b) The teres major c) The teres minor d) The glenoid labrum e) The fovea capitus
The fovea capitus
As keratinocytes move to the surface a) they divide to produce new skin cells b) they eventually die and are sloughed off c) they become multinucleate d) all
They eventually die and are sloughed off
The gleaned cavity is a point of articulation between...
The scapula and the humerus
All of the following are paranasal sinuses except: a) The maxillary b) The temporal c) The frontal d) The sphenoid e) The ethmoid
The temporal
A(n) ______ section of the body would reveal the location of the heart with respect to the sternum: a) Coronal b) Oblique c) Transverse d) All of the above
Transverse
Which portion of a vertebrae DOES NOT surround the spinal cord to keep it protected from injury? a) Transverse process b) Body c) Pedicle d) Lamina
Transverse process
Melanocytes synthesize melanin from which amino acid?
Tyrosine
Alternating the turning of the palm of the hand toward the ceiling and then turning it toward the floor is a movement of the forearm. This movement.... a) Includes pronation b) Includes supination c) Occurs at the radiocarpal joint d) A and B
a) Includes pronation. Pronation is a movement of the forearm at the proximal and distal radioulnar joints in which the distal end of the radius crosses over the distal end of the ulna and the palm is turned posteriorly. Supination is also a movement of the forearm at the proximal and distal radioulnar joints, but the palm is instead turned anteriorly. It is the opposing movement of pronation. The radiocarpal joints are not involved.
Structures that are most responsible for holding bones together at a synovial joint are: a) Ligaments b) Synovial membranes c) Tendons d) Articular cartilages
a) Ligaments. Ligaments (collagen fibers arranged in parallel bundles (dense regular connective tissue)) attach bone to bone. The synovial membrane is the inner lining of the articular capsule and secretes synovial fluid. Tendons (fibrous cords of dense regular connective tissue) attach muscle to bone - not bone to bone, as in joints. Articular cartilage (thin layers of hyaline cartilage) covers joints, but does not actually attach the bones together like ligaments do.
_______ are common inclusions in the cytosol of fat cells. a) Lipid droplets b) Suspended proteins c) Glycogen granules d) Metabolic enzymes e) Dissolved proteins
a) Lipid droplets Glycogen is in carbohydrates. Proteins are in proteins.
Which of the following statements about the dermis are true? a) The two regions include the superficial papillary region and the deeper reticular region. b) It contains fibroblasts, macrophages, and keratinocytes. c) Dermal papillae, which project superficially into the epidermis, commonly contain capillaries and corpuscles of touch (Meissner's corpuscles).
a) The two regions include the superficial papillary region and the deeper reticular region. c) Dermal papillae, which project superficially into the epidermis, commonly contain capillaries and corpuscles of touch (Meissner's corpuscles). The superficial papillary region makes up the upper 1/5th of the dermis, and consists of loose areolar connective tissue (thin collagen fibers and fine elastic fibers). The deeper reticular region makes up the lower 4/5th of the dermis and consists of dense irregular connective tissue (bundles of thick collagen fibers and coarse elastic fibers). All dermal papillae contain capillary loops (blood capillaries), and many Meissner's corpuscles. While the dermis contains fibroblasts and macrophages, it does not contain keratinocytes - those are limited to the epidermis.
Which of the following pairs consists of anatomical opposites? a) Cephalic, posterior b) Cranial, caudal c) Proximal, lateral d) Distal, coronal e) Medial, ventral
b) Cranial, caudal Cephalic (head) = caudal (tail) Anterior (front) = posterior (back) Cranial (head) = caudal (tail) Proximal (close to axis) = distal (further from axis) Medial (towards midline) = lateral (away from midline) Dorsal (on the back) = ventral (on the underside; ex: belly) Coronal refers to a plane that separates the body into front and back portions (i.e., coronal suture, coronal plane)
The vestibulocochlear nerve passes through which of the following openings? a) Foramen rotundum b) Internal acoustic meatus c) External acoustic meatus d) Foramen ovale e) Carotid canal
b) Internal acoustic meatus The vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) and the facial nerve (CN VII) enter the skull through the internal acoustic meatus. The maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) passes through the foramen rotundum. Nothing passes through the external acoustic meatus because it's your ear hole. The mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) passes through the foramen ovale. The internal carotid artery passes through the carotid canal.
Which of the following statements about skin color is false? a) Three pigments that are responsible for skin color are hemoglobin, carotene, and melanin. b) Melanin is produced in the organelles of epithelial cells and then migrate to the hypodermis. c) Skin color is just one of the features which may vary between human races. d) Carotene contributes a yellow-orange hue to the skin. e) UV exposure leads to increased production of melanin.
b) Melanin is produced in the organelles of epithelial cells and then migrate to the hypodermis. Melanin is produced by melanocytes (which develop from the neural crest of a developing embryo). Once made, melanocytes transfer melanin granules to keratinocytes in the epidermis. There is no melanin in the hypodermis.
If a joint is enclosed in a tough connective tissue capsule and if it contains a joint cavity, it is classified as: a) Cartilaginous b) Synovial c) Fibrous d) All of the above
b) Synovial Synovial joints are the only joints that have synovial cavities/joint cavities. The cavity is surrounded by a connective tissue capsule that attaches the articulating bones. Cartilaginous joints consist of solid connective tissue (no capsule). Fibrous joints are solid masses of connective tissue (no capsule).
The mandible has condylar processes and coronoid processes. a) The condylar process is for muscle attachment; the coronoid process is articular. b) The condylar process is articular, the coronoid process is for muscle attachment. c) Both are articular in function. d) Both are for muscle attachment.
b) The condylar process is articular; the coronoid process is for muscle attachment. Each condylar process (posterior) articulates with the mandibular fossa and articular tubercle of the temporal bone to form the temporomandibular joint (TMJ). Each coronoid process (anterior) is attached to the temporalis muscle.
Which feature contributes to the stability of the hip joint? a) The iliofemoral ligament b) The ligamentum teres c) The pubofemoral ligament d) All of the above e) The shape of the acetabular ligament
b) The ligamentum teres. I think. Not confirmed.
Which of the following is a vascularized tissue? a) Simple cuboidal epithelium b) Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium c) Adipose tissue d) Hyaline cartilage
c) Adipose tissue. Remember - cartilage and epithelial tissues are both avascular. Adipose tissue is a type of connective tissue, and connective tissue is highly vascular.
A plane suture is found in the... a) Occipital and parietal bones b) The right and left maxilla c) First rib and sternum d) In the posterior cranial fossa e) Between the temporal and parietal bones
b) The right and left maxilla A PLANE suture is a suture with no overlap, where the edges of the bones are straight and flush with each other. The maxillary suture is an example of this. The first rib and sternum are not a suture but a synchondrosis (cartilaginous joint). There is no suture in the posterior cranial fossa. The squamous suture (between the temporal and parietal bones) is a LAP suture (overlapping beveled edges). The lambdoid suture (between the occipital and parietal bones), sagittal suture (between the two parietal bones) and coronal suture (between the frontal and parietal bones) are all SERRATED sutures (sutures with interlocking lines).
The central canal of an osteon contains...
blood vessels and nerves
The depression on the distal end of the anterior humerus is the... a) Olecranon fossa b) Intercondylar fossa c) Coronoid fossa d) Intertubercular groove e) None of the above
c) Coronoid fossa The coronoid fossa is on the anteromedial aspect of the distal end of the humerus. It is proximal to the trochlea and medial to the radial fossa, which is proximal to the capitulum. The olecranon fossa is a big, round depression in the posterior aspect of the distal end of the humerus. The intercondylar fossa is a deep depression between the lateral and medial condyles on the posterior face of the distal end of the femur. The intertubercular groove is on the anterior face of the proximal end of the humerus - it is the groove between the greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus.
The articular cartilage... a) Consist of two layers: an outer layer of dense fibrous connective tissue and an inner layer of loose connective tissue. b) Firmly unites the articulating bones. c) Shields the surfaces of the articulating bones at a synovial joint. d) Helps absorb shock and reduces friction at a synovial joint.
c) Shields the surfaces of the articulating bones at a synovial joint; and d) Helps absorb shock and reduces friction at a synovial joint. Articular cartilage is a thin layer (just one) of hyaline cartilage covering the part of the epiphysis of a long bone where the bone articulates with another bone. It reduces friction and absorbs shock at freely moveable (synovial) joints and allows bones to glide smoothly against each other by providing an extremely smooth surface to make movement easier. The articular cartilage does not firmly unite the two bones. Ligaments do this.
Connective tissue and epithelial tissue are similar because: a) They are both vascular and innervated. b) They both line the surface of the body to help resist abrasion. c) They each perform a variety of functions. d) They both contain large amounts of extracellular matrix.
c) They each perform a variety of functions. Both connective and epithelial tissue are innervated, but epithelial tissue is not vascular. Epithelial tissue lines the surface of the body, but connective tissue does not - it lies beneath epithelial tissue (as part of the epithelial membrane). They both perform varieties of functions. Epithelial tissue has the following functions: protection, secretion (glands), absorption (digestion), excretion (kidneys), and synthesis (vitamin D). Connective tissue has the following functions: protection (bone - cranium (protects brain) and thorax (protects lungs and heart)), movement (bones working with muscles - leverage), support (bones, cartilage - e.g., support of face), binding organs (tendons and ligaments), energy storage (adipocytes), immunity (mucous membranes and lymphocytes), heat production (brown fat), and transportation (blood and lymph carry waste, hormones, etc.). Epithelial tissue has a very small amount of extracellular matrix; the cells are all very close together/densely packed.
The facial bone that is not paired either during development or in the adult is the... a) Lacrimal b) Zygomatic c) Vomer d) Palatine e) Maxilla
c) Vomer "Paired" means there are two bilateral parts. There is only one vomer bone. There are two lacrimal bones, posterior and lateral to the nasal bones. There are two zygomatic bones - one in each cheek. There are two L-shaped palatine bones - they form the back part of the hard palate, as well as the floor and walls of the nasal cavity. They also contribute to the floor of the orbit. There are two paired maxillae that unite to form the upper jaw bone, and they articulate with every bone of the face except the mandible.
The joint between the parietal and frontal bones is... a) classified functionally as a synarthrosis b) the sagittal suture c) a cartilaginous joint d) all of the above
classified functionally as a synarthrosis
Which best describes the term spina bifida? a) exaggeration of the thoracic curve b) congenital defect in which the laminae fail to unite at the midline c) exaggeration of the cervical curve d) lateral bending of the vertebral column e) exaggeration of the lumbar curve
congenital defect in which the laminae fail to unite at the midline
Which of the following is found in the stratum basale? a) Keratinocytes b) Melanocytes c) Cuboidal or columnar shaped cells d) All of the above
d) All of the above The stratum basale is composed of a single row of cuboidal or columnar keratinocytes. Melanocytes and tactile epithelial cells are scattered among the keratinocytes.
A fibrous joint may be a: a) Gomphosis b) Syndesmosis c) Suture d) All of the above
d) All of the above. A fibrous joint is a solid mass of of dense irregular connective tissue between neighboring bones. Syndesmoses (ex: distal tibiofibular joint) and sutures (ex: coronal suture) are two of the three types of fibrous joints. A gomphosis (ex: dentoalveolar joint) is a type of syndesmosis.
The male skeleton, as compared to the female skeleton, has... a) Rougher, larger tuberosities and ridges b) Has a heart-shaped pelvic inlet c) Has heavier bones d) All of the above
d) All of the above Males' pelvic inlets/pelvic brims are narrower and heart-shaped. Males have larger, longer, and heavier bones than females - this also means their tuberosities and ridges must be larger.
Epiphyseal plates of growing bones may be classified as: a) Cartilaginous joints b) Synarthrotic joints c) Synchondroses d) All of the above
d) All of the above. An epiphyseal plate (aka epiphyseal cartilage) is the hyaline cartilage plate in the metaphysis (the region of a long bone between the epiphysis (head) and diaphysis (shaft)) of a long bone, and is the site of lengthwise growth of long bones. It is also called the growth plate. It is an immoveable joint, and is therefore synarthrotic. In a cartilaginous joint, the bones are connected by either hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage, and little to no movement is allowed. Synchondroses and epiphyseal cartilages are types of cartilagenous joints. A synchondrosis is a slightly moveable to immoveable cartilaginous joint in which the connecting material is hyaline cartilage. Thus, an epiphyseal plate would qualify as a synchondrosis.
The word that best describes the position of the gallbladder relative to the ascending colon is... a) Inferior b) Contralateral c) Intermediate d) Ipsilateral
d) Ipsilateral They are ipsilateral because they are on the same side (the right side) of the body's midline. They are not contralateral - contralateral means on opposite sides of the body's midline. The gallbladder is superior to the ascending colon, not inferior. To be intermediate is to be between two referenced structures.
A good description of the canaliculus is that... a) It is located in spaces between trabeculae. b) It is a region of bone that contains red marrow. c) It is a region of bone that contains yellow marrow. d) It allows movement of nutrients between osteocytes.
d) It allows movement of nutrients between osteocytes. Canaliculi are networks of minute canals containing the processes of osteocytes; they provide routes for nutrients to reach osteocytes and for wastes to leave them. The spaces between trabeculae (spongy bone) are filled with red bone marrow, not canaliculi. The medullary cavity is the region of bone that contains yellow marrow.
Intramembranous ossification is the process that... a) Produces only flat bones of the cranium b) Results in growth in length of the long bones c) Produces most bones d) None of the above
d) None of the above
The sphenoid bone has all of the following features except: a) Formamen ovale b) Optic foramen c) Foramen spinosum d) Pterygoid canal
d) Pterygoid canal All the others are in the sphenoid bone. The pterygoid canal is not mentioned in the book.
Concerning diarthroses, one may speculate that as mobility increases, _________ decreases. a) Range of motion b) The amount of synovial fluid c) The number of ligaments d) Stability
d) Stability. The more mobile a joint, the less stable it is. For example, the shoulder joint is extremely mobile but also extremely unstable, which is why it is so frequently dislocated. Range of motion typically increases with mobility, and the amount of synovial fluid and number of ligaments are unrelated to mobility.
Which bones form the nasal septum? a) Ethmoid and inferior nasal conchae b) Palatine and Sphenoid c) Vomer and Maxilla d) Ethmoid and vomer e) Sphenoid and vomer
d) The ethmoid bone and the vomer bone. Together with septal cartilage (hyaline), the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone (superior) and the vomer bone (inferior) form the nasal septum. The inferior nasal conchae are scroll-shaped flaps on the lateral side of the inside of each nostril, and they project into the nasal cavity. They are their own structure, and do not belong to a bone. They increase the mucus-covered surface of the nasal cavity and help swirl and filter air before it passes into the lungs. The palatine bones form the back part of the hard palate. The maxilla form the upper jaw bone, including the floors of the orbits, the floors and lateral walls of the nasal cavity, and the hard palate.
Extra bones that develop between the usual (normal) bones of the skull are... a) Endochondral bones b) Sesamoid bones c) Flat bones d) Wormian bones e) None of the above
d) Wormian bones Wormian bones (also called sutural bones) are small bones located within sutures between cranial bones. Endochondral ossification is the formation of bone within hyaline cartilage that develops from mesenchyme. Most bones of the body are endochondral bones - except the flat bones of the skull, most of the facial bones, the mandible, and the medial part of the clavicle (which are intramembranous bones - bone forms directly within condensed mesenchyme). Sesamoid bones (ex: patella) develop in certain tendons where there is a lot of friction, compression, and physical stress. They protect tendons from excessive wear and tear. Flat bones are thin bones composed of two parallel plates of compact bones enclosing a layer of spongy bone (this spongy bone is called diploë in the skull). They include the cranial bones, sternum, ribs, and scapulae.
Which of the following vertebral curvatures is convex anteriorly? a) Thoracic b) Sacral c) Cervical d) Lumbar e) Both cervical and lumbar
e) Both cervical and lumbar The cervical and lumbar curvatures are convex anteriorly - the look like ")"s when viewed from the right. The thoracic and sacral curvatures are concave anteriorly - they look like "C"s when viewed from the right. The cervical and lumbar curvatures are secondary curvatures, and the thoracic and sacral curvatures are primary curvatures - because they were there at birth.
Which type of vertebrae has a transverse foramen? a) Thoracic b) Lumbar c) Coccygeal d) Sacral e) Cervical
e) Cervical
The type of sweat gland with the widest distribution in the body is: a) Apocrine b) Sebaceous c) Ceruminous d) Hellacious e) Merocrine
e) Merocrine (eccrine) Merocrine sweat glands are much more common than apocrine sweat glands, and are distributed throughout the skin of most parts of the body except for the lips, nail beds, glans penis, glans clitoris, labia minora, and eardrums. They are very abundant in the forehead, palms, and soles. They can be as dense as 450/cm2 (palms). They are mostly deep in the dermis (above apocrine). Apocrine glands are found mainly in the axilla (armpit), groin, areolae, and male beards. They are mostly subcutaneous (below eccrine). Sebaceous glands are not sweat glands - they secrete sebum. Ceruminous glands are specialized sweat glands that are only located in the outer ⅓ of the external auditory canal. They produce ear wax by mixing their secretion with sebum and dead epithelial cells. They are classified as apocrine glands. Hellacious is not a thing.
Of the following structures, which is not covered or lined by the integumentary system? a) Anterior surface of the eyelids b) External auditory meatus c) Fingertip d) Vaginal canal e) All of the above
e) Vaginal canal