A+P 1 final exam

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23) Cross-bridges are portions of A) Actin molecules. B) Myosin molecules. C) Troponin molecules. D) Tropomyosin molecules. E) Calcium ions

B) Myosin molecules.

4) Nerves and blood vessels that service the muscle fibers are located in the connective tissues of the A) Endomysium. B) Perimysium. C) Sarcolemma. D) Sarcomere. E) Myofibrils

B) Perimysium.

13) The functional unit of a skeletal muscle fiber is the A) Sarcolemma. B) Sarcomere. C) Sarcoplasmic reticulum. D) Myofibril. E) Myofilament

B) Sarcomere.

12) The series of membranous channels that surround each myofibril is the A) Sarcolemma. B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum. C) Myolemma. D) Sarcoplasm. E) Transverse tubule.

B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum.

6) The bundle of collagen fibers at the end of a skeletal muscle that attaches the muscle to bone is called a(n) A) Fascicle. B) Tendon. C) Ligament. D) Epimysium. E) Myofibril

B) Tendon.

71) In an isotonic contraction, A) Muscle tension exceeds the resistance and the muscle shortens. B) Tension rises and the skeletal muscle length changes. C) The peak tension developed is less than the resistance. D) The muscle as a whole does not change length. E) all of the above

B) Tension rises and the skeletal muscle length changes.

79) When myosin cross-bridges bind to the active sites on actin, A) ATP is hydrolyzed. B) They pivot toward the M line. C) The sarcomere strengthens. D) Muscle relaxation occurs. E) The I band moves closer to the Z line.

B) They pivot toward the M line.

44) A resting muscle generates most of its ATP by A) Conversion of creatine phosphate. B) Anaerobic respiration. C) Aerobic respiration. D) Glycogenolysis. E) The tricarboxylic acid cycle.

C) Aerobic respiration.

88) Decreased blood flow to a muscle could result in all of the following, except A) Fatigue. B) An oxygen debt. C) An increase in intracellular glycogen. D) A shift to more anaerobic glycolysis in the muscle. E) An increase in intracellular lactate.

C) An increase in intracellular glycogen.

30) Active sites on the actin become available for binding when A) Actin binds to troponin. B) Troponin binds to tropomyosin. C) Calcium binds to troponin. D) Calcium binds to tropomyosin. E) Myosin binds to troponin.

C) Calcium binds to troponin.

73) Large diameter, densely packed myofibrils, large glycogen reserves, and few mitochondria are characteristics of A) Slow fibers. B) Intermediate fibers. C) Fast fibers. D) Red muscles. E) Fatty muscles

C) Fast fibers.

60) Which of the following is not a function of smooth muscle tissue A) Altering the diameter of the respiratory passageway B) Elevating hairs on the arm C) Forcing blood from the heart into the major arteries D) Moving food materials along the digestive tract E) Forcing urine out of the urinary tract

C) Forcing blood from the heart into the major arteries

19) The area in the center of the A band that contains only thick filaments is the A) Z line. B) M line. C) H band. D) I band. E) Zone of overlap.

C) H band.

81) How would blocking the activity of acetylcholinesterase affect skeletal muscle? A) It would make the muscles less excitable. B) It would produce muscle weakness. C) It would cause spastic paralysis (muscles are contracted and unable to relax). D) It would cause flaccid paralysis (muscles are relaxed and unable to contract). E) It would have no effect on skeletal muscles.

C) It would cause spastic paralysis (muscles are contracted and unable to relax).

90) How would an elevated level of thyroid hormone in the body affect skeletal muscles? A) It would stimulate atrophy. B) It would stimulate hypertrophy. C) It would stimulate metabolism. D) It would decrease heat production by muscle tissue. E) It would cause an increase in muscle mass.

C) It would stimulate metabolism.

Acetylcholinesterase is A) a neurotransmitter B) an enzyme that breaks down a neurotransmitter C) a stimulant that triggers an action potential D) a hormone E) none of the above

Efferent neurons carry nerve impulses to the CNS. A) True B) False

66) Neurons that are small and offer no anatomical clues to distinguish axons from dendrites are called a) Anaxonic. b) Unipolar. c) Multipolar. d) Bipolar. e) Tripolar.

a) Anaxonic.

How is excess sugar stored within muscle fibers? A) in ATP B) as glycogen C) as glucose D) as creatinine

How many T-tubules lie within a single skeletal muscle sarcomere? a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

In sensory neurons, stimuli are received by the A) axons B) dendrites C) cell body D) myelin

Light band has which of the following filament protein? a) myosin b) actin c) myosin and actin d) none of these

Muscle fatigue sets in due to non availability of a) calcium b) ATP c) actin binding site d) Mg cofactor

Nerve impulses are carried to another part of the body by a neuron's (nerve cell): A dendrites B axon C neuron cell body D synapse E neurotransmitter

53) The dorsal root ganglia contain a) Cell bodies of sensory neurons. b) Axons of motor neurons. c) Axons of sensory neurons. d) Cell bodies of motor neurons. e) Interneurons.

a) Cell bodies of sensory neurons.

112) Reflexes that occur on the side of the body opposite the side that is stimulated are said to be ________. a) Contralateral b) Ipsilateral

a) Contralateral

Postsynaptic membranes are most likely to be found on A) axons B) dendrites C) neuron cell bodies D) myelin sheaths E) hormones

Since smooth muscle fibers have rhythmicity and can stimulate each other, they contract in a pattern called _____. A) a functional syncytium B) peristalsis C) tetany D) tonus

The Peripheral Nervous System is made up of: A brain and spinal cord. B spinal cord and spinal nerves. C spinal nerves and brain. D All of the above.

The ______________ are an invagination of the muscle cell's sarcolemma. A) sarcoplasmic reticula B) transverse (T) tubules C) cisternae D) microtubules

The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATPase activity is a) actin b) myosin c) troponin d) tropomyosin

The junction between a neuron and its target cell is called a A) neurotransmitter B) synapse C) node of Ranvier D) threshold E) voltage-gated channel

109) The specific region of the skin that is innervated by a specific spinal nerve is called a(n) a) Dermatome b) Segment c) Region d) Area

a) Dermatome

49) The projections of gray matter toward the outer surface of the spinal cord are called a) Horns. b) Wings. c) Pyramids. d) Fibers. e) Tracts.

a) Horns.

The main force of contraction occurs when actin forms a chemical complex with _____ . A) troponin B) myosin C) tropomyosin D) acetylcholine

The midbrain of vertebrates is also called the A) medulla B) mesencephalon C) diencephalon D) hypothalamus E) cerebrum

The myofilaments are comprised of myofibril units. A) True B) False

The part of the brain responsible for coordinating all your movements is the: A cerebrum. B cerebellum. C brain stem. D crainial nerves.

The stiffness of muscle tissue in rigor mortis partially results from: a) excessive acetycholine activity on muscle b) excessive calcium release in muscle c) excessive lactic acid build up d) excessive contraction of the fibers

Troponin is a muscle protein whose chemical activity causes contraction of muscle fibers. A) True B) False

Upon stimulation of skeletal muscles calcium is immediately made available for binding to troponin from a) blood b) sarcoplasmic reticulum c) lymph d) bone

What occurs sequentially when the nerve impulse is transmitted from the synapse of one neuron to the postsynaptic neuron? A) The nerve impulse is transmitted next to the axon of the presynaptic neuron. B) The synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft by exocytosis. C) The nerve impulse is transmitted to the postsynaptic neuron by a direct connection between the two. D) The nerve impulse is transmitted to the axon of the postsynaptic neuron.

When a muscle is at rest, which of the following is not associated chemically with the others? A) actin B) myosin C) troponin D) tropomyosin

When an AP reaches the presynaptic terminal of the motor neuron: a)Calcium is released into the muscle fiber b)ACh is released into the synaptic cleft c)AChase is released into the synpatic cleft d)Calcium is released from the motor neuron nucleus

65) The rabbis virus can travel to the CNS via a) Axoplasmic transport b) Retrograde flow c) Blood vessels d) Connective tissue e) CSF

b) Retrograde flow

97) The anterior(ventral) horns of the spinal cord contain a) Sympathetic nuclei. b) Somatic motor nuclei. c) Nerve tracts. d) Autonomic motor nuclei. e) Sensory nuclei.

b) Somatic motor nuclei.

130) Tetradotoxin is a toxin that blocks the chemically activated sodium channels from opening. What effect would this have on the function of neurons? a) The absolute refractory period would be shorter than normal. b) The neuron would be unable to propagate action potentials. c) Neurons would depolarize more rapidly. d) The toxin would not interfere with neuron function because the voltage-regulated sodium channels would still function. e) Action potentials would lack a repolarization phase.

b) The neuron would be unable to propagate action potentials.

116) How does blocking the ability for retrograde flow in an axon affect the activity of a neuron? a) The neuron is unable to depolarize when stimulated. b) The soma is unable to respond to changes in the distal end of the axon. c) The soma is unable to export products to the synaptic knobs. d) The neuron is unable to produce action potentials. e) The neuron is unable to produce neurotransmitters.

b) The soma is unable to respond to changes in the distal end of the axon.

70) Sensory neurons of the PNS are a) Tripolar. b) Unipolar. c) Bipolar. d) Anaxonic. e) Multipolar

b) Unipolar.

29) A muscle spindle contains mostly a) glial cells. b) muscle fibers. c) fascicles. d) nerves. e) nerve cells.

b) muscle fibers.

102) All of the following are functions of cerebral spinal fluid, except that it a) acts as a cushion for the brain. b) transports oxygen. c) circulates continuously. d) surrounds the brain and spinal cord. e) transports nutrients.

b) transports oxygen.

79) Which of the following does not influence the time necessary for a nerve impulse to be transmitted? a) length of the axon b) whether the axon is sensory or motor c) presence or absence of a myelin sheath d) presence or absence of nodes e) diameter of the axon

b) whether the axon is sensory or motor

9) Which of the following structures is the richest in lipid content? a) gray matter b) white matter c) arachnoid mater d) dura mater e) pia mater

b) white matter

During saltatory conduction, a nerve impulse jumps from one _______________ to another. A) myelin sheath B) synapse C) node of Ranvier D) dendrite E) axon

During the contraction of a sarcomere, calcium ions bind with the protein _____. A) actin B) myosin C) troponin D) tropomyosin

Lack of acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft would result in: a) decrease acetylcholine production by the motor neuron b) relaxation of the muscle fiber c) excessive, continuous stimulation of the muscle fiber d) inability of the motor neuron to stimulate the muscle fiber

Neurons that carry impulses away from the central nervous system are called A) sensory nerves B) afferent nerves C) efferent nerves D) interneurons E) extensors

Sarcoplasmic reticulum is the name given to which of the following? a) Rough endoplasmic reticulum in smooth muscle cells b) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum in cells of the epimysium c) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum in all muscle cells d)Rough endoplasmic reticulum in cardiac muscle cells

The chemical that crosses a neuromuscular gap is _____. A) sodium B) a protein C) a neurotransmitter D) calcium

The combination of a neuron and the muscle fiber it associates with is called a _____ . A) fascicle B) motor end plate C) motor unit D) myoneural junction

The connective tissue layer that bundles skeletal muscle fibers into fascicles is the: a) Perichondrium b) Perineurium c) Perimysium d) Epimysium e) Endomysium

The connective tissue wrapping around a muscle that is continuous with tendons is the: a)Perimysium b)Endomysium c)Epimysium d)Ectomysium

The firing of a neuron is also called A) depolarization B) an action potential C) both of the above D) none of the above

The gap between the muscle and a nerve is the _____. A) synapse B) motor end plate C) myoneural junction D) motor neuron

The layer of connective tissue that separates the muscle tissue into small sections is called the ______________. A) aponeuroses B) epimysium C) perimysium D) endomysium

The most abundant of the muscle proteins is _____ . A) actin B) troponin C) myosin D) tropomyosin

The part of the brain responsible for unconscious bodily functions is the: A cerebrum. B cerebellum. C brain stem. D crainial nerves.

The presence of _____ allow cardiac muscle fibers to transmit impulses faster among themselves. A) cell membranes B) nerve fibers C) intercalated disks D) peristalsis

The thalamus is a primary site of A) motor reflex coordination B) visceral integration C) sensory integration D) hormone production E) none of the above

This process aids in skeletal muscle relaxation after contraction: a) calcium is released from intracellular storage sites b) motor neurons send electrical signal to muscle c) acetylcholinesterease degrades acetylcholine d) troponin binds calcium

Which main factor allows muscle to sustain contraction even during times when the blood supply is low? A) the presence of hemoglobin B) glycogen storage C) myoglobin D) citric acid cycle

Which of the following cell types is responsible for skeletal muscle regeneration? a) Myoepithelial cell b) Myofibril c) Satellite cell d) Myofibroblast e) Fibroblast

Which of the following statements about smooth muscle contraction is correct? a) A Ca2+ -calmodulin complex activates the phosphatase that causes contraction of smooth muscle. b) Unlike striated muscle, contraction of smooth muscle cells occurs when Ca2+ levels fall. c) Phosphorylation of a myosin light chain allows actin-myosin binding in smooth muscle. d) Dephosphorylation of a myosin light chain allows actin-myosin binding in smooth muscle.

14) A ganglion is a a) bundle of axons in the CNS. b) cluster of dendrites in either the CNS or the PNS. c) cluster of neurosomas in the PNS. d) bundle of axons in the PNS. e) cluster of neurosomas in the CNS.

c) cluster of neurosomas in the PNS.

The _____ zone contains only myosin and is in the center of a sarcomere. A) A B) I C) M D) H

The brain is protected by: A the meninges. B a cushion of fluid. C the bony skull. D All of the above.

The fiber cell membrane is termed the _____ . A) myofibril B) myosin C) myofilament D) sarcolemma

The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is a) myofibril b) cross bridges c) Z band d) sarcomere

The job of the Nervous System is: A) to receive stimulus as sensory input. B) intergration of stimulus with reaction. C) to trigger action as a motor response or motor output. D) All of the above.

66) The ventral rami of spinal nerves C5 to T1 form the ________ plexus. a) lumbar b) sacral c) brachial d) thoracic e) cervical

c) brachial

67) The ulnar nerve is found in which plexus? a) lumbar b) cranial c) brachial d) sacral e) cervical

c) brachial

44) The brain and spinal cord comprise the ________ nervous system. a) autonomic b) peripheral c) central d) afferent e) efferent

c) central

The major regulatory proteins in muscle tissue are: a) myosin and tropomyosin b) myosin and actin c) actin and troponin d) troponin and tropomyosin

The myelin sheath is formed by _______________, which wrap around the axons of some neurons. A) nodes of Ranvier B) dendrites C) synapses D) Schwann cells E) cell bodies

The tiny space between neurons or a neuron and its target muscle is the: A dendrite B axon C neuron cell body D synapse E neurotransmitter

Which is true for the autonomic nervous system? A) The sympathetic nervous system always stimulates the organ system. B) The sympathetic nervous system always inhibits the organ system. C) The parasympathetic nervous system always stimulates the organ system. D) It depends on the organ system whether the division stimulates or inhibits it.

Which of the following actions is caused by skeletal muscle: a) constriction of blood vessels b) heartbeat c) dilation of pupil d) eye movements

Which of the following is a component of actin filaments of a sarcomere? a) myosin and troponin b) troponin and actin c) actin and myosin d) troponin, tropomyosin and actin

Which of the following is a part of the peripheral nervous system? A) sensory pathway B) autonomic nervous system C) voluntary nervous system D) all of the above

Which of the following statements about nervous systems is true? A) As nervous systems evolved, there was a trend toward a decreasing number of interneurons. B) As nervous systems evolved, the hindbrain and especially the cerebellum played an increasingly more dominant role. C) The autonomic nervous system stimulates normal internal body functions and inhibits alarm responses, while the somatic nervous system does the opposite. D) Memories appear to be stored in more than one part of the brain. E) The two hemispheres of the brain carry out identical functions.

138) Immediately after an action potential is propagated, which of the following ions diffuses out of the cell: a) Sodium b) Chloride c) Calcium d) Potassium e) Magnesium

d) Potassium

76) Interneurons in the spinal cord prevent muscle antagonists from interfering with an intended movement by a) A crossed extensor reflex. b) A stretch reflex. c) Reverberating circuits. d) Reciprocal inhibition. e) A tendon reflex.

d) Reciprocal inhibition.

100) ________ account for roughly half of the volume of the nervous system. a) Dendrites b) Axons c) Efferent fibers d) Synapses e) Neuroglia

e) Neuroglia

57) Cells responsible for information processing and transfer are the a) Microglia. b) Neuroglia. c) Astrocytes. d) Schwann cells. e) Neurons.

e) Neurons.

85) Adrenergic synapses release the neurotransmitter a) Acetylcholine. b) GABA. c) Serotonin. d) Dopamine. e) Norepinephrine

e) Norepinephrine

58) The cytoplasm surrounding the nucleus of a neuron is called a a) Protoplasm b) Nucleoplasm c) Sarcoplasm d) Cytoplasm e) Perikaryon

e) Perikaryon

94) The layer of the meninges that is tightly bound to the surface of the neural tissue is the a) Filum terminale. b) Denticulate ligament. c) dura mater. d) arachnoid mater. e) Pia mater.

e) Pia mater.

15) ___ has the greatest influence on the resting membrane potential. a) Sodium b) Chloride c) Calcium d) Phosphate e) Potassium

e) Potassium

96) The posterior (dorsal)horns of the spinal cord contain a) Nerve tracts. b) Sympathetic nuclei. c) Somatic motor nuclei. d) Autonomic motor nuclei. e) Sensory nuclei.

e) Sensory nuclei.

28) Receptors for acetylcholine are located on the A) Synaptic knob. B) Motor end plate. C) Sarcomere. D) Synaptic cleft. E) Transverse tubule

B) Motor end plate.

Acetylcholinesterase: a)Produces acetylcholine b)Is the acetylcholine receptor in muscle tissue c)Is responsible for smooth but not skeletal muscle contraction d) Degrades the neurotransmitter which is found in the neuromuscular junction

Action potentials A) are summable B) are amplifiable C) result from facilitated diffusion D) are all-or-nothing events

In muscle tissue, neurotransmitter receptors are located: a)In synaptic vesicles b)On the motor neuron axon terminals c)In the synaptic cleft d)On the motor end plate

Into what does the neuron release its neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction? A) motor end plate B) cytoplasm of the muscle cell C) cisternae D) synaptic cleft

Motor units: a)Are found only in cardiac muscle b)Are largest in muscles responsible for delicate movements c)Consist of a muscle fiber and all the nerves that supply it d)Consist of a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it supplies e)Are the same as neuromuscular junctions

Skeletal muscle is described by all of the following EXCEPT: a) Striated b)Voluntary c)Multinucleate d)Autorhythmic e)Contractile

The I bands in a sarcomere are made of _____ . A) myosin B) actin and myosin C) tropomyosin D) actin

125) While watching Olympic weight lifters on the television, Carl notices that on several occasions an athlete would lift the weight to his chest and then suddenly drop it. Can you offer an explanation for what might be happening? Answer What Carl is observing is an example of the stretch reflex in action. As the weight lifter lifts the weight he is contracting the biceps and brachialis muscles and at the same time stretching the triceps muscle. If the mass is great, the amount of flexion necessary to move the mass could begin to overstretch the triceps, which is being relaxed so as not to interfere with flexion. Stimulation of the muscle spindles in the triceps produces a reflex arc that brings about the relaxation of some of the motor units in the muscles involved in flexion, like the biceps. When the tension produced by the flexing muscles decreases to a point where they can no longer work against the resistance of the mass, the weight lifter will drop the weights involuntarily.

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126) During childbirth, some women are given a local anesthetic that temporarily deadens sensory neurons in the region of the genitals. Which nerve does this anesthetic affect? Answer The genitofemoral nerve

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127) While playing football, Ramon is tackled hard, and as he tries to get up, he finds that he cannot flex his left thigh or extend his left knee. Which nerve innervating the lower limb may be damaged, and how would the damage affect sensory perception in Ramon's left leg? Answer Ramon has a damaged femoral nerve. This nerve also supplies the sensory innervation of the skin on the Anteromedial surface of the thigh and medial surfaces of the leg and foot, so he may also experience numbness in those regions.

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20) Each thin filament consists of A) A pair of protein strands wound together. B) Chains of myosin molecules. C) 6 molecules coiled into a helical structure. D) A rod-shaped structure with "heads" projecting from each end. E) A double strand of myosin molecules.

A) A pair of protein strands wound together.

5) The delicate connective tissue that surrounds the skeletal muscle fibers and ties adjacent muscle fibers together is the A) Endomysium. B) Perimysium. C) Epimysium. D) Superficial fascia. E) Periosteum.

A) Endomysium.

39) A muscle producing peak tension with rapid cycles of contraction and relaxation is said to be in A) Incomplete tetanus. B) Complete tetanus. C) Treppe. D) Wave summation. E) Recruitment

A) Incomplete tetanus.

82) When acetylcholine binds to receptors at the motor end plate, the muscle membrane becomes A) More permeable to sodium ions. B) Less permeable to sodium ions. C) More permeable to potassium ions. D) Less permeable to potassium ions. E) Repolarized

A) More permeable to sodium ions.

10) The cell membrane of skeletal muscle is called the A) Sarcolemma. B) Sarcomere. C) Sarcosome. D) Sarcoplasmic reticulum. E) Sarcoplasm.

A) Sarcolemma.

59) Which of the following is not characteristic of smooth muscle? A) Smooth muscle connective tissue forms tendons and aponeuroses. B) Neurons that innervate smooth muscles are under involuntary control. C) Smooth muscles are uninucleate. D) Smooth muscles do not contain sarcomeres. E) The thin filaments of smooth muscle fibers are attached to dense bodies.

A) Smooth muscle connective tissue forms tendons and aponeuroses.

33) When calcium ion binds to troponin A) Tropomyosin moves out of the groove between the actin molecules B) Actin sites on the myosin are exposed C) Actin heads will bind to myosin D) Muscle relaxation occurs E) Myosin shortens

A) Tropomyosin moves out of the groove between the actin molecules

37) The type of contraction represented by a single stimulus/contraction/relaxation sequence is a(n) A) Twitch. B) Incomplete tetanus. C) Complete tetanus. D) Summation. E) Incomplete summation

A) Twitch.

16) Thin filaments at either end of the sarcomere are attached to the A) Z line. B) M line. C) H band. D) A band. E) I band

A) Z line.

87) Which of the following muscles would produce the greater tension? A) a muscle with 20 motor units active B) a muscle with 10 motor units active

A) a muscle with 20 motor units active

57) Heat energy produced from muscle contraction is released through the ________ system. A) integumentary B) respiratory C) cardiovascular D) urinary E) digestive

A) integumentary

54) fast muscle fibers can develop a larger number of mitochondria in response to A) repeated, exhaustive stimulation B) sustained low levels of muscle a activity C) high amounts of oxygen D) increased levels of testosterone E) prolonged periods of inactivity

A) repeated, exhaustive stimulation

52) contraction that utilize anaerobic ATP production A) require maximal contraction of muscles for short periods of time B) do not use ATP very quickly C) rely on slow muscle fibers D) do not rely on the energy reserve of creatine phosphate

A) require maximal contraction of muscles for short periods of time

62) At each end of the muscle, the collagen fibers of the epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium come together to form either a bundle known as a ________, or a broad sheet called an aponeurosis. A) tendon B) satellite cells C) joint D) fascicle E) none of the above

A) tendon

78) Which of the following is greater? A) the concentration of calcium ion in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of a resting muscle B) the concentration of calcium ion in the sarcoplasm of a resting muscle

A) the concentration of calcium ion in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of a resting muscle

15) In a sarcomere, thick filaments are linked by the A) Z line. B) M line. C) H band. D) A band. E) I band.

B) M line.

76) Because skeletal muscle contractions demand large quantities of ATP, skeletal muscles have A) A rich nerve supply. B) A rich vascular supply. C) Very few mitochondria. D) Little need for oxygen. E) A large concentration of tissue hemoglobin.

B) A rich vascular supply.

22) The skeletal muscle complex known as the triad consists of A) Actin, myosin, and filaments. B) A transverse tubule and terminal cisternae. C) Filaments, myofibrils, and sarcomeres. D) A bands, H bands, and I bands. E) Actin, myosin, and sarcomeres

B) A transverse tubule and terminal cisternae.

34) The most important factor in decreasing the intracellular concentration of calcium ion after contraction is A) Active transport of calcium across the sarcolemma. B) Active transport of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. C) Active transport of calcium into the synaptic cleft. D) Diffusion of calcium out of the cell. E) Diffusion of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

B) Active transport of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

41) A muscle that is stimulated so frequently that the relaxation phase is completely eliminated is said to exhibit A) Incomplete tetanus. B) Complete tetanus. C) Treppe. D) Wave summation. E) Recruitment.

B) Complete tetanus.

74) Physical evidence that supports the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction includes A) Increased width of the H band during contraction. B) Decreased distance between Z lines during contraction. C) Increased width of the I band during contraction. D) Decreased width of the A band during contraction. E) An increased distance between Z lines during contraction.

B) Decreased distance between Z lines during contraction.

3) The dense layer of collagen fibers that surround an entire skeletal muscle is the A) Tendon. B) Epimysium. C) Endomysium. D) Perimysium. E) Fascicle.

B) Epimysium.

7) Muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that muscle fibers A) Lack a cell membrane. B) Have many nuclei. C) Are very small. D) Lack mitochondria. E) both B and C

B) Have many nuclei.

86) Which of the following muscles would contract more forcefully? A) a muscle receiving 5 action potentials per second B) a muscle receiving 10 to 15 action potentials per second

B) a muscle receiving 10 to 15 action potentials per second

99) During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to active sites of: A) myosin filaments B) actin filaments C) Z lines D) thick filaments E) the H zone

B) actin filaments

47) When energy reserves in a muscle are exhausted and lactic acid levels increase, ________ occurs. A) an oxygen debt B) fatigue C) treppe D) tetanus E) atrophy

B) fatigue

51) The type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the ________ fiber. A) fast B) slow C) anaerobic D) intermediate E) high-density

B) slow

49) During the recovery period the body's need for oxygen is increased because A) Muscle cells are producing energy anaerobically. B) The individual is panting. C) Additional oxygen is required to metabolize the lactic acid produced during exercise. D) The liver requires more oxygen to produce lactic acid. E) The muscles are not producing ATP.

C) Additional oxygen is required to metabolize the lactic acid produced during exercise.

17) The area of the sarcomere containing the thick filaments is the A) Z line. B) M line. C) A band. D) I band.

C) A band.

69) In the neurons that innervate skeletal muscles, the cytoplasm of the synaptic terminal contains mitochondria and vesicles filled with molecules of the neurotransmitter A) Epinephrine. B) Norepinephrine. C) Acetylcholine. D) Antidiuretic hormone. E) all of the above

C) Acetylcholine.

45) Creatine phosphate A) Is produced by the process of anaerobic respiration. B) Can replace ATP in binding to myosin molecules during contraction. C) Acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue. D) Is only formed during strenuous exercise. E) Cannot transfer its phosphate group to ADP.

C) Acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue.

14) Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for A) Muscle fatigue. B) The conduction of neural stimulation to the muscle fiber. C) Muscle contraction. D) Muscle relaxation. E) The striped appearance of skeletal muscle.

C) Muscle contraction.

48) During the recovery period following exercise, all of the following are true, except A) Lactic acid is removed from muscle cells. B) The muscle actively produces ATP. C) Muscle fibers remain contracted. D) Oxygen is consumed. E) Heat is generated.

C) Muscle fibers remain contracted.

72) The contraction of a muscle exerts a pull on a bone because A) Muscles are attached to bones by ligaments. B) Muscles are directly attached to bones. C) Muscles are attached to bones by tendons. D) A, B, and C E) none of the above

C) Muscles are attached to bones by tendons.

9) Skeletal muscle fibers are formed from embryonic cells called A) Sarcomeres. B) Myofibrils. C) Myoblasts. D) Fascicles. E) Myomeres

C) Myoblasts.

26) Each skeletal muscle fiber is controlled by a neuron at a single A) Synaptic knob. B) Sarcomere. C) Neuromuscular junction. D) Synaptic cleft. E) Transverse tubule

C) Neuromuscular junction.

35) Which of the following statements is incorrect A) When sarcomeres are fully shortened, contraction cannot occur B) When sarcomeres are slightly less than fully shortened, contraction cannot occur C) Sarcomeres can produce the most tension when stimulated over a relatively wide range of resting lengths D) When the muscle is fully stretched, contraction cannot occur E) All sarcomeres in a muscle fiber contract and relax together

C) Sarcomeres can produce the most tension when stimulated over a relatively wide range of resting lengths

2) Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) The contractions of skeletal muscles pull on tendons and move bones of the skeleton. B) Skeletal muscles are responsible for controlling the openings of the digestive and urinary tracts. C) Skeletal muscles are responsible for the pumping action of the heart. D) Skeletal muscles support the weight of some internal organs. E) Skeletal muscle contractions help maintain body temperature

C) Skeletal muscles are responsible for the pumping action of the heart.

92) If a person was suffering from severe hyperkalemia, you would expect A) The potassium ion concentration of the interstitial fluid to be less than normal. B) The membrane potential of nerves and muscles to be more negative. C) Skeletal muscles to be unresponsive and the heart muscle would undergo cardiac arrest. D) Muscle weakness and increased strength of twitch contractions. E) both A and D

C) Skeletal muscles to be unresponsive and the heart muscle would undergo cardiac arrest.

75) Which of the following hormones directly stimulates growth of muscle tissue and increased muscle mass? A) Epinephrine. B) Thyroid hormone. C) Testosterone. D) Parathyroid hormone. E) Calcitonin.

C) Testosterone.

64) Skeletal muscle contracts only under stimulation from A) The sympathetic nervous system. B) The parasympathetic nervous system. C) The central nervous system. D) all of the above E) none of the above

C) The central nervous system.

29) Action potentials are conducted into a skeletal muscle fiber by A) Motor end plates. B) Neuromuscular junctions. C) Transverse tubules. D) Triads. E) Sarcoplasmic reticulum

C) Transverse tubules.

94) Athletes usually go through a "warm-up" period before engaging in an event. The reason for this "warm-up" period would be to take advantage of A) Incomplete tetanus. B) Complete tetanus. C) Treppe. D) Wave summation. E) Recruitment.

C) Treppe.

24) At rest, active sites on the actin are blocked by A) Myosin molecules. B) Troponin molecules. C) Tropomyosin molecules. D) Calcium ions. E) ATP molecules

C) Tropomyosin molecules.

25) At rest, the tropomyosin molecule is held in place by A) Actin molecules. B) Myosin molecules. C) Troponin molecules. D) ATP molecules. E) Calcium ions.

C) Troponin molecules.

53) during activates requiring aerobic endurance A) glycogen and glycolysis are the primary source of reserve energy B) oxygen debts are common C) most of the muscle's energy is produced in mitochondria D) fatigue occurs in a few minutes E) oxygen is not required

C) most of the muscle's energy is produced in mitochondria

84) In which of the following would the ratio of motor neurons to muscle fibers be the greatest? A) large muscles of the upper arms B) postural muscles of the back C) muscles that control the eye D) leg muscles E) the calf muscle

C) muscles that control the eye

70) ATP metabolism normally provides ________ percent of the ATP demands of a resting cell. A) 25 B) 50 C) 70 D) 95 E) 100

D) 95

85) When contraction occurs, A) The H and I bands get smaller. B) The width of the A band remains constant. C) The Z lines move closer together. D) A, B, and C E) none of the above

D) A, B, and C

68) The pull called tension is a (n) ________ force. A) Passive B) Assertive C) Aggressive D) Active E) all of the above

D) Active

31) In response to action potentials arriving from the transverse tubules, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases A) Acetylcholine. B) Sodium ions. C) Potassium ions. D) Calcium ions E) Hydrogen ions.

D) Calcium ions

21) The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores A) Oxygen. B) Glycogen. C) ATP. D) Calcium ions. E) Glucose.

D) Calcium ions.

89) Increased oxygen consumption would accompany all of the following, except A) Increased heat production. B) Increased conversion of lactate to glucose. C) Increased aerobic respiration by muscle cells. D) Decreased ATP use. E) Increased muscle activity

D) Decreased ATP use.

91) How would a drug that competes with acetylcholine for receptors at the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle? A) It would make the muscles more excitable. B) It would produce uncontrolled muscle spasms. C) It would cause spastic paralysis (muscles are contracted and unable to relax). D) It would cause flaccid paralysis (muscles are relaxed and unable to contract). E) It would have no effect on skeletal muscles.

D) It would cause flaccid paralysis (muscles are relaxed and unable to contract).

93) The bacterium that causes tetanus produces a toxin that affects the central nervous system and skeletal muscles, producing powerful tetanic contractions of the skeletal muscles. The toxin probably acts by A) Increasing the amount of acetylcholinesterase in the synapse. B) Making the cells less permeable to sodium ions. C) Increasing the amount of potassium ion in the intercellular fluid. D) Making the cell membranes more permeable to calcium ion. E) Competing with acetylcholine for receptors at the motor end plate.

D) Making the cell membranes more permeable to calcium ion.

56) Each of the following changes in the skeletal muscles is a consequence of aging except that A) Muscle fibers become smaller in diameter B) Muscles become less elastic. C) Muscles fatigue more rapidly. D) Muscle fibers increase their reserves of glycogen. E) There is a steady decrease in the number of satellite cells.

D) Muscle fibers increase their reserves of glycogen.

61) The ability of smooth muscle to function over a wide range of lengths is called A) Elasticity. B) Contractility. C) Extensibility. D) Plasticity. E) Variability.

D) Plasticity.

80) After death, muscle fibers run out of ATP and calcium begins to leak from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. This results in a condition known as A) Tetany. B) Treppe. C) Depolarization. D) Rigor mortis. E) Oxygen debt.

D) Rigor mortis.

27) The space between the neuron and the muscle is the A) Synaptic knob. B) Motor end plate. C) Motor unit. D) Synaptic cleft. E) M line

D) Synaptic cleft.

8) The advantage of having many nuclei in a skeletal muscle fiber is A) The ability to contract. B) The ability to produce more ATP with little oxygen. C) The ability to repair the fiber after an injury. D) The ability to produce large amounts of the enzymes and structural proteins needed for contraction. E) both B and C

D) The ability to produce large amounts of the enzymes and structural proteins needed for contraction.

38) When a muscle is stimulated repeatedly for several seconds with a constant stimulus, the amount of tension gradually increases to a maximum. This phenomenon is called A) Incomplete tetanus. B) Complete tetanus. C) A twitch. D) Wave summation. E) Recruitment

D) Wave summation.

40) If a second stimulus arrives before the relaxation phase has ended, a second, more powerful contraction occurs. This is called A) Incomplete tetanus. B) Complete tetanus. C) Treppe. D) Wave summation. E) Recruitment.

D) Wave summation.

102) Muscle tone is: A) the feeling of well-being following exercise B) the ability of a muscle to maintain a contraction against an outside force C) the condition of athletes after intensive training D) a state of sustained partial muscular contraction that is vital for the health of muscles E) the result of increased neuromuscular system coordination and increased metabolic rate

D) a state of sustained partial muscular contraction that is vital for the health of muscles

46) During anaerobic glycolysis A) ATP is produced. B) Pyruvic acid is produced. C) Lactic acid is produced if pyruvic acid accumulates. D) all of the above E) A and B only

D) all of the above

1) Which of the following is not a function of skeletal muscle? A) produce movement B) maintain posture C) maintain body temperature D) all of the above are functions of the skeletal muscle E) A and B only

D) all of the above are functions of the skeletal muscle

65) Differences between skeletal muscle cells and typical cells include which of the following? A) Skeletal muscle cells are larger than normal cells. B) Skeletal muscle cells are multinucleate. C) Skeletal muscle cells have one nucleus and typical cells have more than one. D) both A and B E) both A and C

D) both A and B

95) Muscle tissue that is involuntary: A) cardiac muscle only B) smooth muscle only C) skeletal muscle only D) cardiac muscle and smooth muscle E) cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle

D) cardiac muscle and smooth muscle

58) which of the following is false A) cardiac muscle contraction cannot be summated B) skeletal muscle contraction may be summated C) skeletal muscle control is neural D) cardiac muscle control is neural only E) Cardiocytes are interconnected through intercalated discs

D) cardiac muscle control is neural only

83) Each of the following factors would increase the probability of skeletal muscles contracting, except one. Identify the exception. A) increased permeability of the muscle membrane to calcium ions B) increased amounts of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft C) increased permeability of the muscle membrane to sodium ion D) increased permeability of the muscle membrane to potassium ion E) increased numbers of acetylcholine receptors at the motor end plate

D) increased permeability of the muscle membrane to potassium ion

32) Which of the following acts as an ATPase during the contraction cycle of muscle? A) actin molecules B) troponin molecules C) tropomyosin molecules D) myosin cross-bridges E) the tail portion of the myosin molecule

D) myosin cross-bridges

101) Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by: A) forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin B) forming a chemical compound with actin C) inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments D) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP as needed E) storing energy that will be transferred to ATP to resynthesize ADP as needed

D) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP as needed

36) Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum during the ________ of contraction. A) latent period B) contraction phase C) recovery phase D) relaxation phase E) A and B

E) A and B

50) Fast fibers A) Have high resistance to fatigue B) Have a low concentration of myoglobin C) Have many mitochondria D) Produce powerful contraction E) Both B and D

E) Both B and D

77) During muscle contraction, all of the following occur, except A) ATP is hydrolyzed. B) Myosin heads bind to actin. C) The H band becomes shorter. D) Calcium concentration in the sarcomere increases. E) Hemoglobin concentration in muscle fibers increases.

E) Hemoglobin concentration in muscle fibers increases.

18) The area of the sarcomere that contains only thin filaments is the A) Z line. B) M line. C) H band. D) A band. E) I band

E) I band

43) The type of contraction in which the muscle fibers produce increased tension but do not shorten is called A) Tetany. B) Treppe. C) Concentric D) Isotonic. E) Isometric

E) Isometric

42) The increase in muscle tension that is produced by increasing the number of active motor units is called A) Incomplete tetanus. B) Complete tetanus. C) Treppe. D) Wave summation. E) Recruitment

E) Recruitment

11) The cytoplasm of a skeletal muscle fiber is called the A) Sarcolemma. B) Sarcomere. C) Sarcosome. D) Sarcoplasmic reticulum. E) Sarcoplasm

E) Sarcoplasm

97) A motor unit consists of: A) a skeletal muscle and all the neurons that supply it B) a nerve and all of the skeletal muscles supplied by it C) all of the neurons that stimulate a single action D) all of the skeletal muscles that accomplish a single movement E) a neuron and all of the skeletal muscle fibers that it stimulates

E) a neuron and all of the skeletal muscle fibers that it stimulates

98) Acetylcholine is: A) an ion pump B) a source of energy for muscle contraction C) a component of thick myofilaments D) an oxygen binding protein E) a neurotransmjtter

E) a neurotransmjtter

63) In order for a muscle to contract properly, it requires A) Energy. B) Oxygen. C) Nutrients. D) An adequate blood supply. E) all of the above

E) all of the above

67) When a skeletal muscle fiber contracts, A) The H zones and I bands get smaller. B) The zones of overlap get larger. C) The Z lines get closer together. D) The width of the A band gets constant. E) all of the above

E) all of the above

55) Which of the following statements are true regarding human muscles? A) All human muscles have both slow and fast fibers. B) Fast fibers are found in the calf muscles. C) Eye and hand muscles are composed of fast fibers. D) Back muscles are mostly composed of endurance fibers. E) both C and D

E) both C and D

96) Which of the following is NOT a function of the muscular system: A) producing movement B) maintaining posture C) stabilizing joints D) generating heat E) hematopoiesis

E) hematopoiesis

66) Each skeletal muscle fiber contains ________ myofibrils. A) 50 to 100 B) 100 to 150 C) 150 to 200 D) 200 to 500 E) hundreds to thousands

E) hundreds to thousands

100) A muscle twitch differs from a tetanic contraction in that: A) the tetanic contraction is considered abnormal, while the twitch is a normal muscle response B) the tetanic contraction is caused by a single stimulus, while the twitch is caused by very rapid multiple stimuli C) the muscle twitch is prolonged and continuous while a tetanic contraction is brief and jerky D) the muscle twitch occurs only in small muscles while a tetanic contraction occurs in large muscle groups E) the muscle twitch is a brief and jerky movement, while the tetanic contraction is prolonged and continuous

E) the muscle twitch is a brief and jerky movement, while the tetanic contraction is prolonged and continuous

Acetylcholine causes the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. A) True B) False

Afferent neurons are sensory neurons. A) True B) False

All muscle cells contain actin and myosin. True or false? a) True b) False

An action potential is: a)A migrating region of membrane potential reversal b)A flow of electrons along the sarcolemma c)A nucleophilic reaction between Na and K ions d)Something that is only caused by acetylcholine

An overlap of actin and myosin filaments occurs in the: a)A Band b)I Band c)Z Line d)H Band e)M Line

As long as ATP is available, the sodium/potassium pump of neurons will operate whether the neuron is resting, transmitting a nerve impulse, or returning to the resting state. a) true b) false

During the resting potential of a neuron, which of the following is least likely to be found in large quantities inside the neuron? A) Na+ B) K+ C) negatively charged anions D) none of the above would be found in large quantities inside the neuron

Ganglia are clusters of neuron cell bodies which are located outside the CNS. A) True B) False

Graded potentials may become action potential by A) summation B) multiplication C) hypopolarization D) decreasing frequency

In a polarized neuron at rest A) the inside of the neuron is more negatively charged than the outside B) outside of the neuron is more negatively charged than the inside C) either of the above can be true D) the inside and the outside of the neuron have the same electrical charge

In skeletal muscle, a triad refers to which of the following? a)A T tubule sandwiched between 2 dilated cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum b)A Z line flanked by 2 A bands c)An A band flanked by 2 I bands d)An H zone flanked by 2 A bands e)A Z line flanked by 2 sarcomeres

Lack of AChase in the synaptic cleft would result in: a)Excessive, continuous stimulation of the muscle fiber b)Relaxation of the muscle fiber c)Increased Na+ synthesis by the muscle fiber d)Inability of the motor neuron to conduct further action potentials

Muscles get fatigue due to accumulation of a) lactic acid b) ATP c) phosphate molecules d) carbon dioxide

Nerve impulses are picked up by a neuron's (nerve cell): A dendrites B axon C neuron cell body D synapse E neurotransmitter

Skeletal muscle has a system of T-tubules while smooth muscle does not. True or false? a) True b) False

The Central Nervous System is made up of the: A brain and spinal cord. B spinal cord and spinal nerves. C spinal nerves and cranial nerves. D All of the above.

The crossbridges involved in muscle contraction are located on the ____________. A) myosin myofilaments B) actin myofilaments C) tropomyosin D) dystrophin

The myelin sheaths surrounding myelinated neurons are manufactured by Schwann cells. A) True B) False

The role of the Na+/K+ pump in the nervous system is to A) maintain proper ionic concentration gradients across the neuron membrane B) generate the nerve impulse when the neuron is stimulated C) transmit the nerve impulse across the synaptic cleft between neurons D) provide a source of Na+ and K+ by splitting NaCl and other appropriate molecules E) none of the above - it plays no role

The segment of a myofibril that is called a sarcomere runs from ____________. A) one Z line to the next Z line B) one H zone to the next H zone C) one A band to the next A band D) one end of a skeletal muscle to the opposite end

The smallest contractile unit of skeletal muscle is a: a) sarcomere b) motor unit c) synapse d) thin filament

The tropomyosin-troponin complexes block the active sites on the actin preventing the contraction. A) True B) False

Training excersizes such as jogging, swimming and aerobics have this effect on skeletal muscle tissue: a) increase number of mitochondria per muscle fiber b) increase number of muscle fibers c) increase number of motor units d) increase number of skeletal muscles

What is primarily responsible for establishing the uneven Na+ ion concentrations inside and outside a neuron during its resting potential? A) active transport B) simple diffusion C) facilitated diffusion D) all of the above E) none of the above

Which of the following should have the slowest conduction velocity? A) an unmyelinated, small-diameter nerve B) an unmyelinated, large-diameter nerve C) a myelinated, small-diameter nerve D) a myelinated, large-diameter nerve E) they would all have the same conduction velocity

Which of the following statements concerning cardiac muscle is correct? a) The force of contraction is increased by circulating adrenaline b) Heart muscle contracts in response to action potentials in the autonomic nerve fibres c) The action potential has the same duration as that of skeletal muscle d) All of the Ca2+required for contraction enters a myocyte during the plateau phase of the action potential

99) If the dorsal root of a spinal nerve is severed, a) Incoming sensory information would be disrupted. b) Motor control of skeletal muscles would be impaired. c) Motor control of visceral organs would be impaired. d) The spinal cord would not be able to process information at that level. e) The brain would not be able to communicate with that level of the spinal cord

a) Incoming sensory information would be disrupted.

110) The most complicated spinal reflexes are called ________. a) Intersegmental reflexes b) Monosynaptoc c) All reflexes are complicated

a) Intersegmental reflexes

111) Reflexes that occur on the same side of the body as the stimulus that produces the reflex are said to be ________. a) Ipsilateral b) Contralateral

a) Ipsilateral

107) ________ channels open or close in response to physical distortion of the membrane surface. a) Mechanically regulated b) Active c) Gated d) Passive e) Chemically regulated

a) Mechanically regulated

113) In a (n) ________ reflex, a sensory neuron synapses directly on a motor neuron. a) Monosynaptic b) polysynaptic

a) Monosynaptic

98) ________ neurons are the most common neuron in the CNS. a) Multipolar b) Anaxonic c) Unipolar d) Bipolar e) none of the above

a) Multipolar

6) ___ neurons are the most common type of neurons. a) Multipolar b) Bipolar c) Unipolar d) Anaxonic e) Dendritic

a) Multipolar {internuerons or association)?

102) When there is a resistance to the movement produced by a given limb muscle, a) Muscle tone is increased and more motor units are recruited to the contraction. b) Gamma motor neurons are inhibited by higher brain centers. c) There is a decrease in the amount of force generated by extrafusal muscle fibers. d) The muscle involved in the movement immediately shortens when stimulated. e) Intrafusal fibers receive fewer action potentials from the gamma motor neurons.

a) Muscle tone is increased and more motor units are recruited to the contraction.

59) Aggregations of fixed and free ribosomes in neurons are referred to as a) Nissl bodies. b) Neurofibrils. c) Perikaryon. d) Microglia. e) Neurofilaments.

a) Nissl bodies.

116) The loss of motor control of the legs is termed ________. a) Paraplegia b) Quadriplegia

a) Paraplegia

86) The middle layer of the spinal nerve is termed the a) Perineurium. b) Epineurium. c) Posterneurium. d) Ectoneurium. e) Endoneurium.

a) Perineurium.

114) A (n) ________ reflex has at least one interneuron placed between the sensory and motor neuron. a) Polysynaptic b) monosynaptic

a) Polysynaptic

105) ________ ions leave the cytoplasm rapidly. a) Potassium b) Calcium c) Sodium d) both A and C e) none of the above

a) Potassium

115) The condition in which a person loses sensation and motor control of the arms and legs is termed ________ a) Quadriplegia b) Paraplegia c) Hemiplegia

a) Quadriplegia

75) The sodium-potassium exchange pump a) Requires ATP to function. b) Transports sodium ions into the cell during depolarization. c) Transports potassium ions out of the cell during repolarization. d) Moves sodium and potassium in the direction of their chemical gradients. e) Must reestablish ion concentrations after each action potential.

a) Requires ATP to function.

117) In ________, collateral branches of axons along the circuit extend back toward the source of the impulse and further stimulate the presynaptic neurons. a) Reverberation b) Convergence c) divergence

a) Reverberation

99) ________ neurons form the afferent division of the PNS. a) Sensory b) Neural sensory c) Somatic sensory d) Visceral sensory e) none of the above

a) Sensory

68) All of the following are true of neural reflexes, except that they a) Show wide variability in response. b) Help preserve homeostasis. c) Is the simplest type of nervous response? d) Are automatic motor responses. e) both B and D

a) Show wide variability in response.

47) The specialized membranes that protect the spinal cord are termed a) Spinal meninges. b) Spinal mater. c) Epidural membranes. d) Cranial meninges. e) Cranial mater

a) Spinal meninges.

57) The dorsal and ventral roots of each spinal segment unite to form a a) Spinal nerve. b) Cervical enlargement. c) Spinal meninx. d) Spinal ganglion. e) Lumbar enlargement

a) Spinal nerve.

11) Most of the myelin sheath is composed of a) lipids. b) carbohydrates. c) glycoproteins. d) proteins. e) polysaccharides

a) lipids.

101) In which of the following would the delay between stimulus and response be greater? a) a polysynaptic reflex b) a monosynaptic reflex

a) a polysynaptic reflex

80) in which of the following would the rate of impulse conduction be the greatest a) a type A fiber b) a type B fiber c) a type C fiber d) a type D fiber e) a type E fiber

a) a type A fiber

93) neurons normally derive ATP solely through a) aerobic glycolysis b) anaerobic glycolysis c) formation of certain phosphate d) use of stored glycogen e) catabolism of DNA

a) aerobic glycolysis

30) ___ binds to ligand-regulated gates, and is the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. a) aminobutyric acid (GABA). b) Noradrenaline c) Epinephrine d) Acetylcholine e) Norepinephrine

a) aminobutyric acid (GABA).

49) The most numerous glial cells in the central nervous system are the a) astrocytes. b) satellite cells. c) ependymal cells. d) microglia. e) oligodendrocytes.

a) astrocytes.

128) Presynaptic facilitation occurs when a) calcium channels in the presynaptic membrane remain open longer. b) extracellular concentration of potassium increases. c) temporal summation occurs. d) calcium channels in the presynaptic membrane are inhibited. e) extracellular concentration of sodium increases.

a) calcium channels in the presynaptic membrane remain open longer.

37) Opening of __ gates produces an ___. a) chloride; IPSP b) sodium; IPSP c) calcium; IPSP d) potassium; EPSP e) calcium and sodium; IPSP

a) chloride; IPSP

37) In the patellar tendon reflex arc, the patellar ligament is stretched, which stretches the quadriceps femoris muscle of the thigh. This reflex will cause the quadriceps femoris to a) contract and the antagonist muscles, the hamstrings, to relax. b) contract and the hamstrings also to contract. c) relax and the hamstrings to contract. d) relax and the hamstrings also to relax. e) relax without any effect on the hamstrings.

a) contract and the antagonist muscles, the hamstrings, to relax.

16) Most local potentials happen at the a) dendrites. b) axon hillock. c) trigger zone. d) Schwann cells.

a) dendrites.

133) Ciliated CNS neuroglia that play an active role in moving the cerebrospinal fluid are: a) ependymal cells b) Schwann cells c) Oligodendrocytes d) Astrocytes e) Microglia

a) ependymal cells

108) Any stimulus that opens a (n) ________ channel will produce a graded potential. a) gated b) chemically regulated c) passive d) active e) mechanically regulated

a) gated(not on test)

101) Following a motor vehicle accident, your patient has a suspected head injury. The patient is placed in the semi-Fowler's position. You notice a clear fluid running out of the patient's nose. You should test the fluid for a presence of what? a) glucose b) potassium c) sodium d) blood e) bacteria

a) glucose

70) Reflexes that result from the connections that form between neurons during development are ________ reflexes. a) innate b) visceral c) somatic d) autonomic e) acquired

a) innate

13) Conduction speed of a nerve fiber would be the fastest in a a) large myelinated fiber. b) small myelinated fiber. c) large unmyelinated fiber. d) small unmyelinated fiber. e) small fiber with multiple Schwann cells.

a) large myelinated fiber

104) The least numerous neuroglia of the CNS are the a) microglia. b) ependymal cells. c) oligodendrocytes. d) astrocytes. e) none of the above

a) microglia.

27) Which of the following groups of muscles have the most muscle spindles? a) muscles of the hand b) muscles of the back c) muscles of the thigh d) muscles of the middle-ear e) muscles of the torso

a) muscles of the hand

51) The myelin sheaths that surround the axons of some of the neurons in the CNS are formed by a) oligodendrocytes. b) microglia. c) astrocytes. d) satellite cells. e) ependymal cells.

a) oligodendrocytes.

3) Nerves are ___ of the nervous system. a) organs b) tissues c) organ systems d) organelles e) cells

a) organs

32) The flexor (withdrawal) reflex employs a ____, which maintains a sustained contraction. a) parallel after-discharge circuit b) diverging circuit c) converging circuit d) closed circuit e) reverberating circuit

a) parallel after-discharge circuit

21) Which of the following branches of a spinal nerve have somas of solely sensory neurons? a) posterior (dorsal) root b) anterior (ventral) root c) posterior ramus d) anterior ramus e) meningeal branch

a) posterior (dorsal) root

24) Neurosomas of the posterior root are located in the ___, whereas neurosomas of the anterior root are located in the ___. a) posterior root ganglion; gray matter b) posterior root ganglion; white matter c) gray matter; white matter d) posterior root; anterior root e) white matter; gray matter

a) posterior root ganglion; gray matter

91) IPSPs (inhibitory postsynaptic potentials) a) result in local hyperpolarizations. b) prevent the efflux of potassium ions. c) prevent the efflux of calcium ions. d) increase membrane permeability to sodium ions. e) result in local depolarizations.

a) result in local hyperpolarizations.

81) The spinal cord itself is ________ in relation to the vertebral column. a) shorter b) the same size c) longer d) none of the above e) both A and C

a) shorter

135) Which of the following is NOT a structural feature of a neuron: a) synaptic cleft b) cell body c) dendrites d) axon e) node of Ranvier

a) synaptic cleft

34) All of these contribute to the cessation of the signal in a synaptic transmission except a) synaptic vesicles secrete neurotransmitter by exocytosis. b) neurotransmitter escapes from the synapse into the nearby extracellular fluid. c) neurotransmitters stop being released. d) the synaptic knob reabsorbs some neurotransmitters by endocytosis. e) enzymes in the postsynaptic cell break down some neurotransmitters.

a) synaptic vesicles secrete neurotransmitter by exocytosis.

73) The reflex that prevents a muscle from exerting too much tension is the ________ reflex. a) tendon b) reciprocal c) flexor d) crossed extensor e) stretch

a) tendon

12) Second-order neurons synapse with third-order neurons in the a) thalamus. b) dorsal root ganglion. c) spinal cord. d) cerebral cortex. e) medulla oblongata. f) not on test

a) thalamus. ( not on test)

111) When pressure is applied to neural tissue, a) the membrane becomes inexcitable. b) glial cells degenerate. c) action potentials are generated constantly. d) neurons divide. e) there is an increase in the available blood supply.

a) the membrane becomes inexcitable.

16) The ventral rami of the spinal nerves form nerve plexuses in all regions except a) the thoracic region. b) the brachial region. c) the cervical region. d) the lumbar region. e) the sacral region.

a) the thoracic region.

5) The following are all functions associated with the spinal cord except a) to protect neurons in both the ascending and descending tracts. b) to mediate a reflex such as the withdrawal of a hand from pain. c) to conduct sensory information up to the brain. d) to conduct motor information down the cord. e) to coordinate the alternating contraction of several muscle groups associated with locomotion.

a) to protect neurons in both the ascending and descending tracts.

110) Sensory information concerning position and balance and motor information concerning skeletal muscles travel over ________ fibers. a) type A b) type B c) type C d) type D e) type E

a) type A

When an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal of the motor neuron: a) calcium is released inside of the muscle fiber b) acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft c) acetylcholinesterease is released into the synaptic cleft d) physical contact between the motor neuron and the muscle fiber occurs

Which of the following does NOT occur in a muscle during contraction: a) thick and thin filaments bind to each other b) muscle fibers stretch c) thick and thin filaments "slide" past each other d) muscle fibers shorten

Which of the following muscles always requires nerve impulses in order to contract? A) multi-unit smooth B) skeletal C) visceral smooth D) cardiac

Which of the following statements about skeletal muscle is correct? a) Skeletal muscle contracts slowly. b) Skeletal muscle has a striated appearance under the microscope. c) Skeletal muscle can maintain its contraction for long periods. d) Skeletal muscle is controlled by involuntary nervous action.

Which of the following statements about the structure of skeletal muscle is correct? a) Individual myofibrils of skeletal muscle cells contain numerous myofibres. b) The arrangement of thick myosin and thin actin filaments give the sarcomeres of skeletal muscle a striated appearance under the microscope. c) In skeletal muscle Z discs of proteins at each end of the sarcomeres have the myosin filaments attached to them. d) During contraction thick myosin filaments are pulled towards the centre of the sarcomere.

Which of the following statements about the structure of the thick myosin and thin actin filaments in skeletal muscle is correct? a) Thick myosin filaments of skeletal muscle have plus and minus ends. b) Thin actin filaments of skeletal muscle have plus and minus ends. c) Thin actin filaments of skeletal muscle have globular heads. d) Thin actin filaments of skeletal muscle are held in the correct orientation by the protein titin.

Which one of the following sets of ions are necessary in the chemical events for muscle contraction? a) Na+ and K+ b) Ca+ and Mg++ ions c) Na+ and Ca++ ions d) Na+ and Mg++ ions

82) After age ________ the vertebral column continues to elongate, but the spinal cord does not. a) 7 b) 4 c) 10 d) 13 e) none of the above

b) 4

78) During saltatory conduction, a) Action potentials move in all directions along an axon. b) Action potentials occur at successive nodes along the length of the stimulated axon. c) Local currents depolarize adjacent areas of membrane so that action potentials continue to form along the membrane. d) Local potentials produce a continuous outward flow of potassium ions. e) Action potentials produce a local current that is strong enough to spread along the length of the axon.

b) Action potentials occur at successive nodes along the length of the stimulated axon.

55) The ventral root of a spinal nerve contains a) Interneurons. b) Axons of motor neurons. c) Cell bodies of sensory neurons. d) Axons of sensory neurons. e) Cell bodies of motor neurons

b) Axons of motor neurons.

54) The dorsal root of a spinal nerve contains a) Cell bodies of sensory neurons. b) Axons of sensory neurons. c) Axons of motor neurons. d) Cell bodies of motor neurons. e) Interneurons.

b) Axons of sensory neurons.

51) The white matter of the spinal cord contains a) Interneurons. b) Bundles of axons that share common origins, destinations, and functions. c) Both axons and dendrites. d) Sensory and motor nuclei. e) Bundles of dendrites that share common origins, destinations, and functions.

b) Bundles of axons that share common origins, destinations, and functions.

82) The ion needed to initiate the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft is a) Chloride. b) Calcium. c) Sodium. d) Potassium. e) Zinc.

b) Calcium.

61) Branches that sometimes occur along the length of an axon are called a) Synapses. b) Collaterals. c) Hillocks. d) Synaptic knobs. e) Telodendria.

b) Collaterals.

136) The part of the neuron that normally receives stimuli is called a(n): a) Axon b) Dendrite c) Neurolemma d) Schwann cell e) satellite cell

b) Dendrite

73) Opening of sodium channels in the membrane of a neuron results in a) Hyperpolarization. b) Depolarization. c) Reestablishing the resting potential. d) Increased negative charge inside the membrane. e) Repolarization.

b) Depolarization.

13) ___ keep(s) nerve fibers insulated from one another. a) Perineurium b) Endoneurium c) Fascicles d) Epineurium e) Blood vessels

b) Endoneurium

118) Visceral reflexes provide a mechanism for the involuntary control of the muscular system. a) True b) False

b) False

119) The sensory neuron is not always active. Sometimes it lies dormant and does not conduct impulses to the CNS. a) True b) False

b) False

60) The axon is connected to the soma by the a) Collaterals. b) Hillock. c) Synaptic knobs. d) Telodendria. e) Synapse

b) Hillock.

71) The stretch reflex a) Is an example of a polysynaptic reflex? b) Is important in regulating posture. c) Is activated when a skeletal muscle shortens. d) Involves a receptor called the Golgi tendon organ. e) both C and D

b) Is important in regulating posture.

83) ________ is an inflammation of the meningeal membranes. a) Membranitis b) Meningitis c) Meningealitis d) Hepatitis e) none of the above

b) Meningitis

74) The flexor reflex a) Prevents a muscle from generating damaging tension. b) Moves a limb away from a painful stimulus. c) Prevents a muscle from overstretching. d) Is an example of a monosynaptic reflex? e) Makes adjustments in other parts of the body in response to a particular stimulus.

b) Moves a limb away from a painful stimulus.

48) Blood vessels directly supplying the spinal cord are found in the a) Arachnoid mater b) Pia mater. c) Epidural space. d) Subdural space. e) Dura mater

b) Pia mater.

63) The joining of the ventral rami of adjacent spinal nerves is termed a(n) a) Lateral nerve. b) Plexus. c) Tract. d) Autonomic nerve. e) Dermatome.

b) Plexus.

95) Deteriorating changes at the distal segment of an axon as a result of a break between it and the soma is called ________ degeneration. a) Central b) Wallerian c) Peripheral d) Neural e) Conduction

b) Wallerian

38) Which of these is an example of an EPSP in a typical neuron? a) a voltage change from 0 mV to +0.35 mV b) a voltage change from -70 mV to -69.5 mV c) a voltage change from -69.5 mV to -70 mV d) a voltage change from +35 mV to 0 mV e) a voltage change from -70 mV to -70.5 mV

b) a voltage change from -70 mV to -69.5 mV

29) A cholinergic synapse employs ___ as its neurotransmitter. a) monoamine b) acetylcholine c) epinephrine d) norepinephrine e) catecholamine

b) acetylcholine

46) The part of the peripheral nervous system that brings information to the central nervous system is a) autonomic. b) afferent. c) somatic. d) motor. e) efferent

b) afferent.

4) Some ___ neurons are specialized to detect stimuli, whereas ____ neurons send signals to the effectors of the nervous system. a) efferent; afferent b) afferent; efferent c) motor; sensory d) efferent; association e) afferent; association

b) afferent; efferent

33) If a bee sting on the right thigh causes a quick involuntary reaction of the right arm, this would be an example of a) an ipsilateral reflex. b) an intersegmental reflex. c) a withdrawal reflex. d) a crossed extensor reflex. e) a contralateral reflex.

b) an intersegmental reflex.

120) Changes in transmembrane potentials a) can only produce a local potential. b) can open voltage-regulated channels. c) can open chemically regulated channels. d) can only produce an action potential. e) cannot alter the resting membrane potential

b) can open voltage-regulated channels.

22) The bundle of nerve roots that occupy the vertebral canal from L2 to S5 is called the a) medullary cone. b) cauda equina. c) lumbar enlargement. d) cervical enlargement. e) spinal cord.

b) cauda equina.

12) The myelin sheath is formed by a) fibers. b) cells. c) macromolecules. d) polymers. e) organelles

b) cells.

60) Muscles of the neck and shoulder are innervated by spinal nerves from the ________ region. a) lumbar b) cervical c) coccygeal d) sacral e) thoracic

b) cervical

38) A reflex where the sensory input and motor output are on opposite sides of the spinal cord is called a(n) _____ reflex arc. a) intersegmental b) contralateral c) ipsilateral d) polysynaptic e) monosynaptic

b) contralateral

42) Parkinson disease is a progressive loss of motor function due to the degeneration of specific neurons. These neurons secrete an inhibitory neurotransmitter that prevents excessive activity in motor centers of the brain. This neurotransmitter is a) serotonin. b) dopamine. c) acetylcholine. d) GABA (.-aminobutyric acid). e) glutamate (glutamic acid

b) dopamine.

7) Epidural anesthesia is introduced in the epidural space between the ___ to block pain signals during pregnancy. a) dural sheath and dura mater b) dural sheath and vertebral bones c) dura mater and arachnoid mater d) arachnoid mater and pia mater e) dura mater and pia mater

b) dural sheath and vertebral bones

143) Which of the following is the correct sequence in connective tissue sheaths, going from outermost to innermost layer: a) epineurium, endoneurium, perineurium b) epineurium, perineurium, endoneurium c) perineurium, epineurium, endoneurium d) perineurium, endoneurium, epineurium e) endoneurium, epineurium, perineurium

b) epineurium, perineurium, endoneurium

20) An inhibitory local potential a) depolarizes the plasma membrane. b) hyperpolarizes the plasma membrane. c) repolarizes the plasma membrane. d) neutralizes the plasma membrane. e) drifts the membrane potential towards the resting membrane potential.

b) hyperpolarizes the plasma membrane.

47) Which of the following is not a function of the neuroglia? a) support b) information processing c) isolation of neurons d) phagocytosis e) secretion of cerebrospinal fluid

b) information processing

120) The spinal cord has gray matter on the: a) outside, white matter on the inside, and a dorsal motor root b) inside, white matter on the outside, and a ventral motor root c) inside, white matter on the outside, and a dorsal motor root d) outside, white matter on the inside, and a ventral motor root e) outside and inside, and dorsal and ventral motor roots

b) inside, white matter on the outside, and a ventral motor root

105) Injuries that cause edema (accumulation of fluid in the tissue space) in the carpal tunnel can impair the function of the flexors of the hand due to compression of a nerve. Which nerve would be affected? a) radial nerve b) median nerve c) ulnar nerve d) axillary nerve e) musculocutaneous nerve

b) median nerve

129) Tom's father suffers a stroke that leaves him partially paralyzed on his right side. What type of glial cell would you expect to find in increased numbers in the area of the brain that is affected by the stroke? a) satellite cells b) microglia c) astrocytes d) ependymal cells e) oligodendrocytes

b) microglia

53) Small phagocytic cells that are especially obvious in damaged tissue in the CNS are the a) ependymal cells. b) microglia. c) oligodendrocytes. d) astrocytes. e) satellite cells.

b) microglia.

139) In what way does the interior surface of a cell membrane of a polarized neuron differ from the external environment? The interior is: a) positively charged and contains less sodium b) negatively charged and contains less sodium c) negatively charged and contains more sodium d) positively charged and contains more sodium e) neutral and contains the same amount of sodium

b) negatively charged and contains less sodium

115) Each of the following is an example of a neuroeffector junction, except the junction between a neuron and a(n) a) endocrine gland. b) neuron. c) skeletal muscle. d) smooth muscle. e) exocrine gland.

b) neuron.

56) Which of the following is not a glial cell of the nervous system? a) ependymal cells b) neurons c) Schwann cells d) satellite cells e) microglia

b) neurons

65) A nerve of the cervical plexus that innervates the diaphragm is the ________ nerve. a) lesser occipital b) phrenic c) radial d) ansa cervicalis e) sciatic

b) phrenic

24) When the voltage of a plasma membrane shifts from +35mV towards 0 mV, we say the cell is a) depolarizing. b) repolarizing. c) hyperpolarizing. d) reaching the threshold. e) exiting the threshold.

b) repolarizing.

48) Each of the following is a type of glial cell found in the central nervous system, except a) ependymal cells. b) satellite cells. c) microglia. d) astrocytes. e) oligodendrocytes.

b) satellite cells.

55) Glial cells found surrounding the cell bodies of peripheral neurons are a) oligodendrocytes. b) satellite cells. c) ependymal cells. d) microglia. e) astrocytes

b) satellite cells.

18) Which of the following nerves originates in the lumbosacral plexus? a) axillary b) sciatic c) phrenic d) ilioinguinal e) obturator

b) sciatic

64) Each of the following nerves is found in the lumbar plexus, except the ________ nerve. a) obturator b) sciatic c) saphenous d) genitofemoral e) femoral

b) sciatic

87) In the condition ________, a virus infects dorsal root ganglia, causing a painful rash whose distribution corresponds to that of the affected sensory nerve. a) Hodgkin's disease b) shingles c) chickenpox d) neuronal damage e) myasthenia gravis

b) shingles

90) EPSPs (excitatory postsynaptic potentials) occur when a) more potassium ions than usual leak out of a cell. b) sodium channels are opened. c) hyperpolarizations occur. d) more calcium ions than usual leak out of a cell. e) chloride ions enter a cell.

b) sodium channels are opened.

126) When cholinergic receptors are stimulated, a) potassium ions enter the postsynaptic neuron. b) sodium ions enter the postsynaptic neuron. c) sodium ions leave the postsynaptic neuron. d) chloride ions enter the postsynaptic neuron. e) potassium ions leave the postsynaptic neuron

b) sodium ions enter the postsynaptic neuron.

8) Most metabolic and regulatory functions in a neuron happen at the a) axon. b) soma. c) dendrites. d) axon hillock. e) Schwann cell

b) soma.

33) Some antidepressant drugs act by inhibiting monoamine oxidase (MAO), which is an enzyme a) that binds to chloride gates. b) that breaks down monoamines. c) that blocks sodium channels. d) that converts ATP to cyclic AMP. e) that degrades acetylcholine.

b) that breaks down monoamines.

2) Many upper motor neurons synapse with lower motor neurons in a) the posterior horns. b) the anterior horns. c) the posterior column. d) the anterior column. e) the posterior root ganglion

b) the anterior horns.

1) The signals that control your handwriting travel down the spinal cord in a) the tectospinal tracts. b) the corticospinal tracts. c) the lateral vestibulospinal tracts. d) the medial vestibulospinal tracts. e) the spinocerebellar tracts

b) the corticospinal tracts.

127) If the presynaptic membrane of a motor neuron suddenly became permeable to calcium ion, a) the neuron would not be able to stimulate the muscle. b) the motor end plate would be stimulated. c) the neuron would fatigue. d) the motor end plate would be inhibited. e) no neurotransmitter would be released.

b) the motor end plate would be stimulated.

Which of the following statements concerning the role of Ca2+ in the contraction of skeletal muscle is correct? a) The mitochondria act as a store of Ca2+ for the contractile process b) Ca2+ entry across the plasma membrane is important in sustaining the contraction of skeletal muscle c) A rise in intracellular Ca2+allows actin to interact with myosin d) The tension of a skeletal muscle fibre is partly regulated by G proteins.

Which of these statements is correct regarding muscle contraction? A) All motor units act together. B) Muscle contraction continues for long periods after nervous stimulation ceases. C) The crossbridges bind to the actin and shorten the sarcomeres. D) Dystrophin is not needed to strengthen the contracting muscle cell.

15) There are __ pairs of spinal nerves. a) 12 b) 24 c) 31 d) 35 e) 62

c) 31

109) Type ________ fibers have the longest axons. a) 1 b) 2 c) A d) B e) C

c) A

98) Nerve tracts, or fasciculi, would be found in the a) Posterior gray horns. b) Central canal. c) Anterior white columns. d) Gray commissures. e) both B and C

c) Anterior white columns.

42) In the spinal cord, white matter is organized into ascending and descending tracts grouping into a) Ganglia. b) Nuclei. c) Columns. d) Nerves. e) Horns

c) Columns.

79) The tough, fibrous outermost covering of the spinal cord is the a) Pia mater. b) Arachnoid. c) Dura mater. d) Periosteum. e) Epidural block

c) Dura mater.

32) Which of these happens first in an adrenergic synaptic transmission? a) ATP is converted to cyclic AMP b) adenylate cyclase is activated c) G protein dissociates from the NE receptor d) G protein binds to adenylate cyclase e) cyclic AMP induces several effects in the cell

c) G protein dissociates from the NE receptor

74) Voltage-regulated channels can be found a) On the soma of neurons. b) On the surface of dendrites. c) In the membrane that covers axons. d) At the motor end plate. e) Along the perikaryon of neurons

c) In the membrane that covers axons.

124) How would the absolute refractory period be affected if voltage-regulated sodium channels failed to become inactivated? a) It would be the same. b) It would be shorter. c) It would be longer.

c) It would be longer.

132) In a condition known as hypocalcemia, the level of calcium ions in the blood and interstitial fluid is lower than normal. How would this condition affect the function of the nervous system? a) Potassium channels would fail to open. b) Neurons would generate action potentials spontaneously. c) Less neurotransmitter would be released from a presynaptic membrane in response to an action potential. d) Depolarizing events would occur more frequently at the postsynaptic membrane. e) Cholinergic synapses would be more active.

c) Less neurotransmitter would be released from a presynaptic membrane in response to an action potential.

85) Somatic motor nuclei are located on each side of the spinal cord and control all of the following, except muscles that a) Move the forearm and hand. b) Move the hand and fingers. c) Move the head and neck. d) Move the arm. e) Position the pectoral girdle

c) Move the head and neck.

95) The horns of the spinal cord contain a) Columns. b) Meninges. c) Nerve cell bodies. d) Funiculi. e) Nerve tracts

c) Nerve cell bodies.

134) The part of the cell (mostly cytoplasm) that is external to the myelin sheath: a) Nissl substance b) Axolemma c) Neurilemma d) white matter e) gray matter

c) Neurilemma

54) The neurilemma of axons in the peripheral nervous system is formed by a) astrocytes. b) microglia. c) Schwann cells. d) oligodendrocytes. e) satellite cells.

c) Schwann cells.

93) The Subdural space a) Separates the arachnoid mater from the pia mater. b) Is between the vertebrae and the dura mater. c) Separates the dura mater from the arachnoid mater. d) Contains cerebrospinal fluid. e) Separates the pia mater from the dura mater.

c) Separates the dura mater from the arachnoid mater.

64) The site of intercellular communication between neurons is the a) Collateral. b) Hillock. c) Synapse. d) Synaptic knob. e) Telodendria.

c) Synapse.

62) Axons terminate in a series of fine extensions known as a) Synapses. b) Collaterals. c) Telodendria. d) Synaptic knobs. e) Hillocks.

c) Telodendria.

113) Bundles of axons in the spinal cord are called a) centers. b) ganglia. c) Tracts d) nuclei. e) nerves.

c) Tracts

1) ____ division carries signals to the smooth muscle in the large intestine. a) Visceral sensory b) Somatic sensory c) Visceral motor d) Somatic motor e) Afferent

c) Visceral motor

40) The best type of neural pool for producing a prolonged output is a) a converging circuit. b) a diverging circuit. c) a reverberating circuit. d) a presynaptic pool. e) an autonomic pool

c) a reverberating circuit.

20) A mixed nerve consists of both a) myelinated and unmyelinated fibers. b) glial cells and nerve cells. c) afferent and efferent fibers. d) association and integration neurons. e) spinal and cranial fibers

c) afferent and efferent fibers.

19) Local potentials are _____, meaning they vary in magnitude according to the strength of the stimulus. a) graded b) reversible c) decremental d) excitatory e) inhibitory

c) decremental

108) Select the correct match a) Diaphragm-- sacral plexus; b) gluteus maximus --- cervical plexus c) deltoid --- brachial plexus. d) tibialis anterior --- lumbar plexus e) abdominal muscles -- sacral plexus

c) deltoid --- brachial plexus.

17) Opening of sodium gates typically leads to a) repolarization of the plasma membrane. b) hyperpolarization of the plasma membrane. c) depolarization of the plasma membrane. d) drifting of plasma membrane voltage toward a more negative value. e) plasma membrane voltage returning to the resting membrane potential.

c) depolarization of the plasma membrane.

44) The ________ is a strand of fibrous tissue that provides longitudinal support as a component of the coccygeal ligament. a) conus medullaris b) cauda equina c) filum terminale d) ventral root e) dorsal root

c) filum terminale

30) A nurse pricks your finger to type your blood. You flinch at the pain, pulling your hand back. This is called the a) painful reflex. b) stretch (myotatic) reflex. c) flexor (withdrawal) reflex. d) tendon reflex. e) crossed extension reflex.

c) flexor (withdrawal) reflex.

34) The sensitivity of the muscle spindle is maintained by a) a stretch reflex. b) alpha motor neurons. c) gamma motor neurons. d) anulospiral endings. e) secondary afferent (group II) fibers

c) gamma motor neurons.

22) Local potentials are ___, whereas action potentials are ___. a) irreversible; reversible b) self-propagating; local c) graded; all or none d) nondecremental; decremental e) produced by voltage-regulated channels; produced by gated channels

c) graded; all or none

36) Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) are associated with a) depolarization of the cell membrane. b) repolarization of the cell membrane. c) hyperpolarization of the cell membrane. d) no change of the cell membrane potential. e) no change of the threshold.

c) hyperpolarization of the cell membrane.

58) Which of the following pairs is not properly matched? a) thoracic spinal nerves: 12 b) coccygeal spinal nerves: 1 c) lumbar spinal nerves: 4 d) sacral spinal nerves: 5 e) cervical spinal nerves: 8

c) lumbar spinal nerves: 4

56) Spinal nerves are ________ nerves. a) involuntary b) purely sensory c) mixed d) purely motor e) interneuronal

c) mixed

25) A ___ is a cordlike organ composed of numerous ___. a) nerve fiber; nerves b) nerve fiber; axons c) nerve; axons d) nerve fiber; neurosomas e) nerve; neurosomas

c) nerve; axons

10) Gray matter contains a) glial cells, axons of motor neurons, and Schwann cells. b) glial cells and myelinated fibers. c) neurosomas, dendrites, and proximal parts of axons of neurons. d) the distal part of axons of lower order motor neurons. e) glial cells only.

c) neurosomas, dendrites, and proximal parts of axons of neurons.

131) A molecule that interferes with the formation of cAMP would a) cause spasms in muscles regulated by acetylcholine. b) prevent acetylcholine from stimulating a postsynaptic membrane. c) prevent norepinephrine from stimulating a postsynaptic membrane. d) have no effect on an adrenergic synapse. e) result in increased breakdown of norepinephrine.

c) prevent norepinephrine from stimulating a postsynaptic membrane..(not on test)

41) Tendon organs are a) chemoreceptors. b) visceral receptors. c) proprioceptors. d) pain receptors. e) nociceptors.

c) proprioceptors.

122) Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the: a) lumbar plexus b) femoral plexus c) sacral plexus d) thoracic plexus e) obturator plexus

c) sacral plexus

90) As the ________ nerve approaches the knee, it divides into two branches, the fibular nerve and the tibial nerve. a) Brachial b) femoral c) sciatic d) pudendal e) perineal

c) sciatic

45) Voluntary control of skeletal muscles is provided by the ________ nervous system. a) sympathetic b) parasympathetic c) somatic d) autonomic e) afferent

c) somatic

26) Which one of the following best describes the order of a somatic reflex? a) somatic receptor, interneuron, afferent nerve fiber, efferent nerve fiber, skeletal muscle b) somatic receptor, efferent nerve fiber, interneuron, afferent nerve fiber, skeletal muscle c) somatic receptor, afferent nerve fiber, interneuron, efferent nerve fiber, skeletal muscle d) somatic receptor, efferent nerve fiber, afferent nerve fiber, interneuron, skeletal muscle e) somatic receptor, afferent nerve fiber, interneuron, efferent nerve fiber, smooth muscle

c) somatic receptor, afferent nerve fiber, interneuron, efferent nerve fiber, skeletal muscle

39) A neuron can receive thousands of EPSPs from different neurons, and responds by triggering or not triggering an action potential. This addition and response to the net effect of postsynaptic potentials is called a) temporal summation. b) neural summation. c) spatial summation. d) neuronal coding. e) recruitment.

c) spatial summation.

28) All of the following are typical characteristics of neurotransmitters except a) they are synthesized by a presynaptic neuron. b) they are released in response to stimulation. c) they are released into the bloodstream before reaching the postsynaptic cell. d) they bind to specific receptors on the postsynaptic cell. e) they alter the physiology of the postsynaptic cell

c) they are released into the bloodstream before reaching the postsynaptic cell.

123) The posterior side of the leg and foot is served by which nerve: a) obturator b) peroneal c) tibial d) femoral e) median

c) tibial

3) Which of the following sensory functions involves neurons in the posterior root ganglia? a) Smell. b) hearing . c) touch . d) taste . e) vision .

c) touch .

114) Most neurons lack centrioles. This observation explains a) why neurons grow such long axons. b) the conducting ability of neurons. c) why neurons cannot divide d) the ability of neurons to communicate with each other. e) the ability of neurons to produce an axoplasmic flow.

c) why neurons cannot divide

Which of the following statements about the contraction of skeletal muscle is correct? a) The power stroke of skeletal muscle contraction occurs when the myosin head hydrolyses ATP. b) The power stroke of skeletal muscle contraction occurs when the myosin head binds ATP. c) The power stroke of skeletal muscle contraction occurs when the myosin head releases ATP. d) The power stroke of skeletal muscle contraction occurs when the myosin head releases ADP and Pi.

Which of the following statements about the control of contraction in skeletal muscles is correct? a) In skeletal muscles, contraction is initiated by a nerve impulse closing voltage-gated Ca 2+ channels in the plasma membrane. b) In skeletal muscles, contraction is initiated by a nerve impulse opening voltage-gated Ca2+ channels in the plasma membrane. c) In skeletal muscles, contraction is initiated by a nerve impulse closing voltage-gated Ca 2+ channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane. d) In skeletal muscles, contraction is initiated by a nerve impulse opening voltage-gated Ca2+ channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane.

Which of the following statements about the role of calcium (Ca2+) during skeletal muscle contraction is correct? a) Ca2+ released into a myofibril by the action of a nerve impulse binds to a site on the myosin head to initiate contraction. b) Ca2+ released into a myofibril by the action of a nerve impulse binds to a site on tropomyosin to initiate contraction. c) Ca2+ released into a myofibril by the action of a nerve impulse binds to a site on the actin to initiate contraction. d) Ca2+ released into a myofibril by the action of a nerve impulse binds to a site on troponin to initiate contraction.

Which of the following statements about the thick filaments of striated skeletal muscle is correct? a) A thick filament is made up of two fibres with the same polarity wound around each other. b) A thick filament is made up of two heavy polypeptide chains arranged in a coiled-coil around each other. c) A thick filament contains hundreds of myosin molecules with the heads pointing towards the centre of a sarcomere. d) A thick filament contains hundreds of myosin molecules arranged in a bipolar fashion.

Which of the following statements concerning the structure of muscle tissue is correct? a) Skeletal muscle has the same structure as cardiac muscle b) Smooth muscle cells have no striations as they lack myosin filaments c) Smooth muscle has a system of T-tubules. d) The myofibrils of skeletal muscle are surrounded by the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Which statement best defines saltatory conduction? A) Saltatory conduction is a mechanism of endocrine system regulation. B) Saltatory conduction is signal transduction of incoming messages through the membrane. C) Saltatory conduction is the influx of sodium ions during neuron impulse conduction. D) Saltatory conduction is transmission of nerve impulses along myelinated fibers. E) Saltatory conduction is the transmission of nerve impulses to the endocrine glands.

45) The entire spinal cord is divided into ________ segments. a) 5 b) 12 c) 25 d) 31 e) 35

d) 31

84) The following are the steps involved in transmission at a cholinergic synapse. 1. Chemically regulated sodium channels on the postsynaptic membrane are activated. 2. Calcium ions enter the synaptic knob. 3. Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase. 4. An action potential depolarizes the synaptic knob at the presynaptic membrane. 5. The synaptic knob reabsorbs choline. 6. Acetylcholine is released from storage vesicles by exocytosis. 7. Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. 8. Calcium ions are removed from the cytoplasm of the synaptic knob. The correct sequence for these events is a) 4, 2, 6, 7, 8, 5, 3, 1. b) 2, 4, 6, 7, 1, 8, 3, 5. c) 2, 5, 4, 6, 7, 1, 8, 3. d) 4, 2, 6, 7, 1, 8, 3, 5. e) 6, 4, 2, 7, 1, 8, 3, 5.

d) 4, 2, 6, 7, 1, 8, 3, 5.

88) Each peripheral nerve provides ________ innervation to specific structures. a) motor b) sensory c) tactile d) A and/or B e) B and/or C

d) A and/or B

35) ___ excites skeletal muscle and inhibits cardiac muscle. a) Norepinephrine b) Dopamine c) Histamine d) Acetylcholine e) ß-endorphin

d) Acetylcholine

91) The obturator nerve is distributed to the a) Biceps. b) Skin over the perineum. c) Posterior surface of the thigh. d) Adductors of the hip. e) Extensors of the hip.

d) Adductors of the hip.

97) ________ neurons are rare, but occur in special sense organs. a) Multipolar b) Anaxonic c) Unipolar d) Bipolar e) none of the above

d) Bipolar

68) Neurons that have one axon and one dendrite are called a) Anaxonic. b) Tripolar. c) Unipolar. d) Bipolar. e) Multipolar

d) Bipolar.

92) The epidural space contains a) Denticulate ligaments. b) Air. c) Lymph. d) Connective tissue and blood vessels. e) Cerebrospinal fluid.

d) Connective tissue and blood vessels.

2) _______ are examples of effectors of the nervous system. a) Receptors b) Stimuli c) Reflexes d) Glands e) Sense organs

d) Glands

50) Axons crossing from one side of the spinal cord to the other within the gray matter are found in the a) White commissures. b) Lateral gray horns. c) Posterior gray horns. d) Gray commissures. e) Anterior gray horns

d) Gray commissures.

69) Neurons that have several dendrites and a single axon are called a) Unipolar. b) Anaxonic. c) Bipolar. d) Multipolar. e) Tripolar.

d) Multipolar.

10) ___ form myelin in the spinal cord. a) Schwann cells b) Astrocytes c) Satellite cells d) Oligodendrocytes e) Microglia

d) Oligodendrocytes

107) Ten-year-old Tina falls while climbing a tree and lands on her back. Her frightened parents take her to the local emergency room where she is examined. Her knee-jerk reflex is normal and she exhibits a plantar reflex (negative Babinski reflex). These results suggest that a) Tina has a spinal injury in the cervical region. b) Tina has injured one of her ascending nerve tracts. c) Tina has injured one of her descending nerve tracts. d) Tina suffered no damage to her spinal cord. e) Tina has a spinal injury in the lumbar region.

d) Tina suffered no damage to her spinal cord

67) Neurons in which dendritic and axonal processes are continuous and the soma lies off to one side are called a) Anaxonic. b) Tripolar. c) Multipolar. d) Unipolar. e) Bipolar

d) Unipolar.

89) If a person has an injury at C4, you would expect that he a) Would be in a coma. b) Would have full range of motion in all extremities. c) Could walk without difficulty. d) Would be unable to breathe on his own. e) Would exhibit none of the above

d) Would be unable to breathe on his own.

137) Myelin is defined as: a) an outer membrane on a neuroglia cell b) a lipid-protein (lipoprotein) cell membrane on the outside of axons c) a mass of white lipid material that surrounds the cell body of a neuron d) a mass of white lipid material that insulates the axon of a neuron e) a mass of white lipid material that surrounds the dendrites of a neuron

d) a mass of white lipid material that insulates the axon of a neuron

125) In which of the following would the rate of impulse conduction be the greatest? a) a nonmyelinated fiber 20 microns in diameter b) a nonmyelinated fiber 2 microns in diameter c) a nonmyelinated fiber 25 cm long d) a myelinated fiber 20 microns in diameter e) a myelinated fiber 2 microns in diameter

d) a myelinated fiber 20 microns in diameter

26) A traveling wave of excitation is what we know as a) a local potential. b) a graded potential. c) an action potential. d) a nerve signal. e) a depolarizing signal.

d) a nerve signal.

104) Mary is in an automobile accident and injures her spinal cord. She has lost feeling in her right hand and her doctor tells her that it is the result of swelling compressing a portion of her spinal cord. Which part of her cord is likely to be compressed? a) the anterior white commissure b) the gray commissure c) the anterior gray horns d) an ascending tract e) a descending tract

d) an ascending tract

7) Nerve fiber refers to a) a nerve cell. b) an organelle in nerve cells. c) an organ. d) an axon. e) a bundle of macromolecules in nerve cells

d) an axon.

8) Cerebrospinal fluid fills in the space between the a) dural sheath and dura mater. b) dural sheath and vertebral bones. c) dura mater and arachnoid mater. d) arachnoid mater and pia mater. e) dura mater and pia mater.

d) arachnoid mater and pia mater.

94) Interneurons a) carry only sensory impulses. b) carry only motor impulses. c) only connect motor neurons to other motor neurons. d) are found only in the central nervous system. e) are found between neurons and their effectors.

d) are found only in the central nervous system.

81) Which type of synapse dominates the nervous system? a) mechanical b) radioactive c) processing d) chemical e) electrical

d) chemical

124) The sciatic nerve is a combination of which two nerves: a) pudendal and femoral nerves b) femoral and tibial nerves c) pudendal and common peroneal nerves d) common fibular and tibial nerves e) pudendal and tibial nerves

d) common fibular and tibial nerves

106) Bill suffers a blow to the neck that causes edema that compresses the ventral roots of spinal nerves C2 to C4 on the right side of his body. What symptoms would you expect to observe as a result of the injury? a) impaired function of the right arm b) erratic heart beat c) loss of sympathetic motor function above C2 d) difficulty breathing e) loss of parasympathetic motor function below C2

d) difficulty breathing

43) Each of the following is a function of the nervous system, except a) coordinating voluntary and involuntary activities. b) integrating sensory information. c) providing sensation of the internal and external environments. d) directing activities that continue for extended periods, such as growth and pregnancy. e) regulating or controlling peripheral structures and systems.

d) directing activities that continue for extended periods, such as growth and pregnancy.

59) The ________ of each spinal nerve provides sensory and motor innervation to the skin and muscles of the back. a) white ramus communicantes b) gray ramus communicantes c) dermatomes d) dorsal ramus e) ventral ramus

d) dorsal ramus

Which of the following is true for nerve impulses? A) They are electrochemical in nature. B) They are self-propagating. C) They are incremental. D) They are transmitted rapidly. E) All of these are true.

112) In the peripheral nervous system, Schwann cells participate in the repair of damaged nerves by a) clearing away cellular debris. b) regenerating cell bodies for the neurons. c) producing new axons. d) forming a cellular tube that can direct the growth of new axons. e) producing more satellite cells that accomplish the actual repair.

d) forming a cellular tube that can direct the growth of new axons.

18) Which of the following will cause the plasma membrane to hyperpolarize when at its RMP? a) inflow of sodium b) inflow of potassium c) inflow of calcium d) inflow of chloride e) outflow of chloride

d) inflow of chloride

142) Saltatory conduction: a) occurs only if the myelin sheath is continuous b) occurs only if nodes of Ranvier are lacking c) occurs only in the absence of axon hillocks d) is faster than conduction on an unmyelinated fiber e) is slower than conduction on an unmyelinated fiber

d) is faster than conduction on an unmyelinated fiber

122) If the axolemma becomes more permeable to potassium ion, a) the membrane will depolarize more rapidly. b) the hyperpolarization at the end of the action potential will not occur. c) the membrane will become hypopolarized. d) it will take a stimulus of larger magnitude to initiate an action potential. e) the inside of the membrane will become more positively charged.

d) it will take a stimulus of larger magnitude to initiate an action potential.

61) Spinal nerves from the sacral region of the cord innervate the ________ muscles. a) shoulder b) facial c) abdominal d) leg e) intercostal

d) leg

121) Graded potentials a) produce an effect that spreads actively across the membrane surface. b) produce an effect that increases with distance from the point of stimulation. c) are all-or-none. d) may involve either depolarization or hyperpolarization. e) involve repolarization.

d) may involve either depolarization or hyperpolarization.

31) The quickest reflex arcs involve only two neurons, thus forming __ reflex arcs. a) ipsilateral b) contralateral c) polysynaptic d) monosynaptic e) autonomic

d) monosynaptic

72) Membrane channels that are always open are called ________ channels. a) local b) regulated c) gated d) passive e) active

d) passive (leak)

4) The spinal cord is divided into all of the following regions except a) cervical. b) thoracic. c) lumbar. d) pelvic. e) sacral.

d) pelvic.

140) In what way does the interior surface of a cell membrane of a depolarized neuron differ from the external environment? The interior is: a) positively charged and contains less sodium b) negatively charged and contains less sodium c) negatively charged and contains more sodium d) positively charged and contains more sodium e) neutral and contains the same amount of sodium

d) positively charged and contains more sodium

23) During hyperpolarization; a) sodium ions are entering the cells. b) sodium ions are leaving the cell. c) potassium ions are entering the cell. d) potassium ions are leaving the cell. e) both sodium and potassium ions are leaving the cell.

d) potassium ions are leaving the cell.

39) The tendon reflex a) causes a muscle that is being stretched to contract. b) makes the contralateral motor neurons contract. c) makes the ipsilateral motor neurons relax. d) prevents overcontraction of a muscle. e) causes a tendon to contract.

d) prevents overcontraction of a muscle.

144) Afferent nerves are also called: a) motor nerves. b) efferent nerves. c) mixed nerves. d) sensory nerves. e) cranial nerves

d) sensory nerves.

141) When a nerve fiber is polarized, the concentration of: a) sodium and potassium ions is higher on the inside of its membrane b) sodium and potassium ions is higher on the outside of its membrane c) sodium ions is higher on the inside of its membrane and potassium is higher on the outside d) sodium ions is higher on the outside of its membrane and potassium is higher on the inside e) sodium and potassium ions are in equal concentrations on the inside and outside of the membrane

d) sodium ions is higher on the outside of its membrane and potassium is higher on the inside

36) You go to the movies after a long day and you begin to nod off as soon as the movie starts. Your head starts to lower a little but this reflex causes your head to rise. This is called the a) tendon reflex. b) crossed extension reflex. c) withdrawal reflex. d) stretch (myotatic) reflex. e) flexor (withdrawal) reflex.

d) stretch (myotatic) reflex.

31) Which of these happens first in an cholinergic synaptic transmission? a) acetylcholine diffuses across the synaptic cleft b) postsynaptic potential is produced c) sodium enters the postsynaptic cell d) synaptic vesicles release acetylcholine e) acetylcholine binds to ligand-regulated gates

d) synaptic vesicles release acetylcholine

87) The effect that a neurotransmitter has on the postsynaptic membrane depends on a) the quantity of neurotransmitters released. b) the nature of the neurotransmitter. c) the frequency of neurotransmitter release. d) the characteristics of the receptors. e) both A and B

d) the characteristics of the receptors.

This process aids in skeletal muscle relaxation after contraction. a)Ca2+ is released from intracellular storage sites b)Motor neurons send electrical signals to muscle fibers c)Acetylcholinesterase synthesizes acetylcholine d)Troponin binds Ca2+ e)None of the above

117) Many medications introduced into the bloodstream cannot directly affect the neurons of the CNS because a) oligodendrocytes form a continuous myelin sheath around the axons. b) the ependymal cells restrict the flow of interstitial fluid between the capillaries and the neurons. c) the neurolemma is impermeable to all types of molecules. d) the lining of the capillaries in the CNS forms a blood-brain barrier. e) glial cells (like the astrocytes) form a physical barrier between the blood vessels and the neuron's membrane.

d) the lining of the capillaries in the CNS forms a blood-brain barrier.

14) In order for a peripheral nerve fiber to regenerate it must have a) all dendrites intact. b) at least half the length of the fiber intact. c) at least the entire axon and neurilemma intact. d) the soma and at least some neurilemma intact. e) at least part of the soma intact.

d) the soma and at least some neurilemma intact.

23) Somatosensory refers to these sensory signals except the sensory signals from a) bones and muscles. b) joints. c) proprioceptors. d) the viscera. e) the skin.

d) the viscera.

During depolarization A) Na+ moves out of the neuron B) K+ moves into the neuron C) organic ions move out of the neuron D) all of the above E) none of the above

In humans and other primates, the hemispheres of the cerebrum are connected by a nerve tract called the A) pons B) nerve net C) thalamus D) cerebral cortex E) corpus callosum

Nerve impulses are normally carried toward a neuron cell body by the neuron's A) synaptic cleft B) axon C) myelin sheaths D) hormones E) dendrites

Neurotransmitters are released from vesicles at the A) cell body B) dendrite C) cell nucleus D) postsynaptic membrane E) presynaptic membrane

The chemical messenger between neurons or a neuron and its target muscle is: A dendrites B axon C neuron cell body D synapse E neurotransmitter

The walls of hollow organs and some blood vessels contain this type of muscle tissue. a)Striated b)Skeletal c)Cardiac d)Voluntary e)Smooth

71) At the normal resting potential of a typical neuron, its ion exchange pump transports a) 3 intracellular sodium ions for 1 extracellular potassium ion. b) 1 intracellular sodium ion for 2 extracellular potassium ions. c) 3 extracellular sodium ions for 2 intracellular potassium ions. d) 2 intracellular sodium ions for 1 extracellular potassium ion. e) 3 intracellular sodium ions for 2 extracellular potassium ions

e) 3 intracellular sodium ions for 2 extracellular potassium ions

46) The spinal cord continues to elongate and enlarge until about age a) 20 years. b) 6 months. c) 10 years. d) 2 months. e) 4 years.

e) 4 years.

86) The following is a list of the steps that occur during transmission at an adrenergic synapse. 1. cAMP activates an enzyme that opens the chemically regulated sodium channels. 2. Norepinephrine is inactivated by the enzyme COMT. 3. Norepinephrine binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. 4. An action potential depolarizes the synaptic knob. 5. Calcium ions enter the synaptic knob. 6. cAMP is activated. 7. Norepinephrine is released from the presynaptic membrane. The proper sequence of these events is a) 4, 7, 3, 6, 5, 1, 2. b) 6, 1, 4, 5, 7, 3, 2. c) 7, 3, 4, 5, 6, 1, 2. d) 5, 7, 3, 6, 1, 2, 4. e) 4, 5, 7, 3, 6, 1, 2

e) 4, 5, 7, 3, 6, 1, 2

78) Control of spinal reflexes by the brain involves all of the following, except a) Modulation by neurons of the brain. b) The production of EPSPs at synapses with interneurons. c) Descending tracts of the spinal cord. d) The production of IPSPs at synapses with interneurons. e) A pathway of 4 to 6 neurons.

e) A pathway of 4 to 6 neurons.

83) Cholinergic synapses release the neurotransmitter a) Serotonin. b) GABA. c) Norepinephrine. d) Adrenalin. e) Acetylcholine

e) Acetylcholine

96) The axoplasm of the axon contains which of the following a) Neurotubules b) Mitochondria c) Lysosomes d) Neurofibrils e) All of the above

e) All of the above

76) The all-or-none principle states that a) Only motor stimuli can activate action potentials. b) The greater the magnitude of the stimuli, the greater the intensity of the action potential. c) Only sensory stimuli can activate action potentials. d) All stimuli will produce identical action potentials. e) All stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials.

e) All stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials.

77) All of the following are true of polysynaptic reflexes, except that they a) Involve reciprocal innervation. b) Have reverberating circuits that prolong the reflexive motor response. c) Are intersegmental in distribution. d) Involve pools of interneurons. e) Are arranged according to dermatomes

e) Are arranged according to dermatomes

72) All of the following are true of muscle spindles, except that they a) Help prevent muscle damage that would result from overstretching. b) Consist of specialized fibers called intrafusal fibers. c) Are regulated by gamma motor neurons. d) Are found in skeletal muscle. e) Are found in skeletal muscles and their tendons.

e) Are found in skeletal muscles and their tendons.

9) ____ are the primary site for receiving signals from other neurons. a) Synaptic knobs b) Axons c) Axon collaterals d) Somas e) Dendrites

e) Dendrites

___ carry motor commands from the brain along the spinal cord. a) Both anterior and posterior roots b) Ascending tracts c) Spinal nerves d) Cranial nerves e) Descending tracts

e) Descending tracts

27) What would be the best explanation for why myelinated fibers conduct signals faster than unmyelinated fibers? a) There are no internodes in unmyelinated fibers. b) There are more internodes in unmyelinated fibers. c) Facilitated diffusion of sodium and potassium is faster in myelinated fibers. d) Active transport of sodium and potassium is faster in myelinated fibers. e) Diffusion of ions along the axoplasm is faster.

e) Diffusion of ions along the axoplasm is faster.

52) The outermost connective tissue covering of spinal nerves is the a) Perineurium. b) Endomysium. c) Endoneurium. d) Epimysium. e) Epineurium.

e) Epineurium.

43) Enlargements of the spinal cord occur a) Adjacent to the anterior median fissure. b) Near the posterior median sulcus. c) In the filum terminale. d) In the thoracic region of the spinal cord. e) In segments of the spinal cord that control the limbs

e) In segments of the spinal cord that control the limbs

77) During continuous conduction, a) Action potentials move in all directions along an axon. b) Action potentials produce a local current that is strong enough to spread along the length of the axon. c) Local potentials produce a continuous outward flow of potassium ions. d) Action potentials occur at successive nodes along the length of the stimulated axon. e) Local currents depolarize adjacent areas of membrane so that action potentials continue to form along the membrane.

e) Local currents depolarize adjacent areas of membrane so that action potentials continue to form along the membrane

80) The white matter of the spinal cord is dominated by a) Cell bodies of neurons, neuroglia, and unmyelinated axons. b) Unmyelinated axons. c) Schwann cells and satellite cells. d) Nodes of Ranvier. e) Myelinated axons.

e) Myelinated axons.

100) In diagnosing bacterial and viral infections of the nervous system, samples of cerebrospinal fluid are extracted for analysis. This procedure would logically withdraw fluid for analysis from the a) Arachnoid mater. b) Epidural space. c) dura mater. d) cerebral ventricles. e) Subarachnoid space.

e) Subarachnoid space.

63) Neurotransmitters are released from the a) Hillock. b) Collaterals. c) Telodendria. d) Synapse. e) Synaptic knobs

e) Synaptic knobs

69) Reflexes can be classified according to all of the following, except a) The site where information processing occurs. b) The complexity of the neural circuit involved. c) The nature of the resulting motor response. d) Their development. e) Whether they are sensory or motor.

e) Whether they are sensory or motor.

6) Which of the following fractures would be the least likely to cause a spinal cord injury? a) a fracture of vertebra C2 b) a fracture of vertebra C6 c) a fracture of vertebra T5 d) a fracture of vertebra T12 e) a fracture of vertebra L4

e) a fracture of vertebra L4

103) The function of the astrocytes in the CNS includes which of the following? a) repairing damaged neural tissue b) maintaining the blood-brain barrier c) controlling the interstitial environment d) guiding neuron development e) all of the above

e) all of the above

84) Which of the following is true regarding an epidural block? a) It provides mainly sensory anesthesia. b) It is commonly used as a method of pain control during labor and delivery. c) It can be difficult to achieve in the upper cervical and midthoracic region. d) It affects only the spinal nerves in the immediate area of the injection. e) all of the above

e) all of the above

35) The fibers that carry action potentials to cause skeletal muscle to contract are a) gamma motor neurons. b) anulospiral endings. c) intrafusal fibers. d) extrafusal fibers. e) alpha motor neurons

e) alpha motor neurons

5) About 90% of the neurons in the nervous system are ___ neurons. a) sensory b) motor c) afferent d) efferent e) association

e) association (interneurons)

106) ________ open or close in response to specific stimuli. a) Passive channels b) Gated channels c) Chemically regulated channels d) Active channels e) both B and D

e) both B and D(not on test)

121) Which of the following is the correct sequence of nerves that exit the spinal cord, going from superior to inferior: a) thoracic spinal nerves, cervical spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves b) cervical spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves c) thoracic spinal nerves, cervical spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves d) cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves e) cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves

e) cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves

89) which of the following is not a possible drug effect on synaptic function a) interfere with neurotransmitter synthesis b) alter the rate of neurotransmitter release c) prevent neurotransmitter inactivation d) prevent neurotransmitter binding to receptors e) change the type of neurotransmitter found in the synaptic vesicle

e) change the type of neurotransmitter found in the synaptic vesicle

41) Even though all action potentials are the same, the brain can differentiate a variety of stimuli by source and intensity. The mechanism by which the nervous system converts these action potentials into meaningful information is called neural a) recruitment. b) pooling. c) integration. d) facilitation. e) coding.

e) coding.

75) The reflex that complements a withdrawal reflex by making compensatory adjustments on the opposite side of the body receiving the stimulus is the ________ reflex. a) tendon b) reciprocal c) flexor d) stretch e) crossed extensor

e) crossed extensor

118) Damage to large numbers of oligodendrocytes in the CNS would result in a) a breakdown of the blood-brain barrier. b) loss of the structural framework of the brain. c) decreased production of cerebrospinal fluid. d) inability to produce scar tissue at the site of an injury. e) decreased speed of action potential conduction

e) decreased speed of action potential conduction

52) The type of glial cell that is found lining the ventricles and spinal canal are the a) oligodendrocytes. b) microglia. c) satellite cells. d) astrocytes. e) ependymal cells.

e) ependymal cells.

119) Damage to ependymal cells would affect the a) formation of ganglia. b) formation of myelin sheaths. c) repair of axons. d) transport of neurotransmitters within axons. e) formation of cerebrospinal fluid

e) formation of cerebrospinal fluid

50) Functions of astrocytes include all of the following, except a) maintaining the blood-brain barrier. b) performing repairs in damaged neural tissue. c) creating a three-dimensional framework for the CNS. d) guiding neuron development. e) functioning in action potential transmission.

e) functioning in action potential transmission.

25) During the absolute refractory period a) if a neuron reaches threshold, the action potential goes to completion. b) the neuron fires at its maximum voltage if a stimulus depolarizes the neuron to threshold. c) the signal grows weaker with distance. d) it is possible to trigger a new action potential, but only with an unusually strong stimulus. e) no stimulus of any strength will trigger a new action potential

e) no stimulus of any strength will trigger a new action potential

88) Which of the following is usually an excitatory neurotransmitter? a) DOPA b) gamma aminobutyric acid c) serotonin d) dopamine e) noradrenaline

e) noradrenaline

17) Which of the following nerves originates in the cervical plexus? a) oculomotor b) sciatic c) musculocutaneous d) radial e) phrenic

e) phrenic

103) Bill contracts a viral disease that destroys some of the cells in the anterior gray horns in the lumbar region of his spinal cord. As a result of the disease which of the following would you expect? a) inability to breathe b) lack of feeling in his hands c) lack of sensation from his right leg d) an inability to move his arm e) problems with walking

e) problems with walking

28) These are all properties of reflexes except a) reflex responses are very predictable. b) reflexes are responses to sensory inputs. c) reflexes are quick responses of the nervous system. d) reflexes are not voluntary. e) reflexes are spontaneous actions of the nervous system.

e) reflexes are spontaneous actions of the nervous system.

21) While the membrane is depolarizing its a) chloride gates are partially open. b) chloride gates are fully open. c) potassium gates are fully open. d) sodium gates are partially open. e) sodium gates are fully open.

e) sodium gates are fully open.

92) When a second EPSP arrives at a single synapse before the effects of the first have disappeared, what occurs? a) decrease in speed of impulse transmission b) inhibition of the impulse c) spatial summation d) hyperpolarization e) temporal summation

e) temporal summation

40) This reflex shows the least synaptic delay. a) polysynaptic reflex b) cross extension reflex c) withdrawal reflex d) flexor reflex e) tendon reflex

e) tendon reflex

19) Which of these is an ascending tract of the spinal cord? a) the lateral tectospinal tract b) the medial reticulospinal tract c) the ventral corticospinal tract d) the vestibulospinal tract e) the gracile fasciculus

e) the gracile fasciculus (not on test)

123) If the sodium-potassium pumps in the cell membrane fail to function, all of the following occur, except a) the extracellular concentration of potassium ions will increase. b) the inside of the membrane will have a resting potential that is more positive than normal. c) the intracellular concentration of sodium ions will increase. d) the membrane will lose its capacity to generate action potentials. e) the neuron will lose its ability to regenerate.

e) the neuron will lose its ability to regenerate.

62) Sensory and motor innervations of the skin of the sides and front of the body are provided by the a) White ramus communicantes. b) dermatomes. c) gray ramus communicantes. d) dorsal ramus. e) ventral ramus.

e) ventral ramus.

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