AP BIO review packet
1. What is phenotype plasticity? a. Identify two examples of phenotype plasticity, b. What is the evolutionary significance of phenotype plasticity?
the ability of one genotype to produce more than one phenotype when exposed to different environments. winter coats in Arctic foxes, female castes of social insects, predator cued responses (snails, Daphnia) ; evolutionary strategy for adapting to variable environments. To overcome the uncertainty of the environment, juvenile organisms may rely on environmental cues sensed during their development to guide the expression of phenotypes that have a better chance of surviving in the environment that they encounter as adults.
How does the structure of the smooth ER aid in the function?
the absence of ribosomes allows for the creation of lipids
How does a ligand binding to a channel cause a cellular response?
the channel will let ions cross the membrane. changes in ion levels can change the activity of other molecules to produce a response
What is osmoregulation?
the control of solute concentrations and water balance
How does natural selection affect genotypes?
the genotype determines the phenotype, so if the phenotype is connected to the genotype due to a genetic basis, and a specific phenotype is better suited for the environment then that genotype will become more common in the population
How does surface area to volume ratio affect the size of the cell?
the higher the surface area to volume ratio the less time diffusion takes
What occurs when the ligand binds to the receptor that initiated transduction?
the intracellular part of the receptor changes shape that can lead to the activation of many molecules
What is chemiosmosis?
the movement of ions across a semipermeable membrane, down their electrochemical gradient
What is active transport?
the movement of ions or molecules across a cell membrane into a region of higher concentration, assisted by enzymes and requiring energy.
1. What is allele frequency?
the number of times an allele occurs in a gene pool, compared to the total number of alleles in that pool for the same gene
How is evolutionary fitness measured?
the organism's ability to survive and reproduce which will determine the size of its genetic contribution to the next generation
1. What causes apoptosis?
the p53 protein finds DNA damage and it cannot be repaired
1. What is fertilization?
the process by which male and female gametes fuse together to initiate the development of a new organism
What happens in the initiation step of translation?
the ribosome gets together with the mRNA and the first tRNA so translation can begin
How does the level of saturation affect the function of the lipid?
the saturation affects it because it impairs its function because the flexibility is decreased
What occurs during the process of reception?
the target cell's detection of a signaling molecule coming from outside the cell
How does the vacuole provide turgor pressure?
the vacuole will fill up with water that pushes on the cell membrane which then pushes on the cell wall causing turgor pressure
How does natural selection act on and modify different levels of genes?
the weak ones die so only good genes will evolve
How does the fact that viruses and other pathogens change over time support the claim that all species have evolved and continue to evolve?
them changing is what evolving means
1. What would happen if there was a mutation in the receptor protein? a. How would this affect the response of the cell?
there could potentially be misfolding or altered expression that could lead to disease, butsometimes it can lead to increased binding of the ligand which causes higher response
How does a transcription factor change gene expression?
they bind to the DNA near the promoter region and can recruit RNA polymerase to transcribe the gene
How can a chemical interfere with the signaling pathway?
they can bind to the receptor protein and inhibit the ligand from binding
What is the function of an enzyme?
to both increase the rate of a specific reaction and decrease the amount of energy needed to reach the transition state
What is the function of the multiple membranes and sacs found in the Golgi?
to increase surface area to distribute proteins quickly
What is the function of the endoplasmic reticulum's folded membrane?
to increase surface area which increases the processes
What does it mean if an organism is a triploid?
triploid Describing a nucleus, cell, or organism that has three times (3 n) the haploid number (n) of chromosomes
1. Describe the trp operon. a. What happens when tryptophan is present? b. What happens when tryptophan is absent? c. Is this operon repressible or inducible?
tryptophan binds to the repressor protein and enables it to repress gene transcription.; repressible
How can a signal change the phenotype of an organism?
whether or not a specific gene is turned on or off would affect whether that phenotype would be present or not in an organism
Describe six functions of membrane proteins.
~ Attachment to cytoskeleton and extracellular matrix. Maintains cell shape and stabilizes cytoskeleton.~ Intercellular joining. Proteins on adjacent cells hook together, briefly, for cell interaction/sharing.~ Signal transduction.~ Enzymatic activity. ~ Cell-cell recognition.~ Transport.
1. What are the phases of mitosis? a. What occurs in each of these phases?
- Prophase- Chromatin condenses into chromosomes, nuclear envelope disappears,spindle/centrosomes appear- Metaphase- chromosomes line up independently in middle of cell- Anaphase - chromatids separate; chromosomes move to opposite poles in cell- Telophase - chromosomes unwind into chromatin, nuclear membrane returns;spindle/centrosomes disappear
1. Describe the interaction between cyclin and CdK. a. cyclin interacts with CdK to initiate the mitotic phase b. cyclin is the precursor to CdK, when synthesized allow for mitosis proceed c. cyclin acts as an inhibitor to CdK to wait for all DNA to be synthesized d. cyclin binds to CdK to initiate DNA replication
A
1. Describe the orientation of the phospholipids in the membrane. a. Phospholipids orient in bilayer with hydrophilic heads on exterior b. Phospholipids orient in monolayer with hydrophilic head on extracellular c. Phospholipids orient in bilayer with hydrophobic tails on exterior d. Phospholipids orient in monolayer with hydrophobic tails on extracellular
A
1. During transcription, what is the relationship between DNA and RNA? a. Template DNA is the noncoding strand, RNA reads DNA in 3' -> 5' direction b. Template DNA is the coding strand, RNA reads DNA in 3' -> 5' direction c. Template DNA is the noncoding strand, RNA reads DNA in 5' -> 3' direction d. Template DNA is the coding strand, RNA reads DNA in 5' -> 3' direction
A
1. Given that equal amounts of the different mRNAs were injected into fertilized frog eggs, which of the following conclusions is most consistent with the electrophoresis results? a. β-hemoglobin mRNA is translated more efficiently than is α-hemoglobin mRNA. b. α-hemoglobin is present only in cells where β-hemoglobin is absent. c. α-hemoglobin mRNA is more stable than β-hemoglobin mRNA. d. Tubulin inhibits translation of hemoglobin mRNA.
A
1. How do the three types of RNA work together? a. mRNA carries message, tRNA carries amino acids, and rRNA makes ribosome b. mRNA makes ribosomes, tRNA carries amino acids, and rRNA relays information c. mRNA carries amino acids, tRNA transfer message, and rRNA makes ribosome d. mRNA is made, tRNA holds the DNA in place, and rRNA removes the deoxyribose
A
1. How does the DNA in a prokaryote differ from a eukaryote? a. Prokaryote has circular DNA, Eukaryotes has linear DNA b. Prokaryote has single stranded DNA, Eukaryotes has double stranded DNA c. Prokaryote has linear DNA, Eukaryotes has prokaryote DNA d. Prokaryote has double stranded DNA, Eukaryotes has single stranded DNA
A
1. Identify the pairing and number of bonds in DNA double helix a. A pairs with T (2 bonds) & G pairs with C (3 bonds) b. A pairs with G (2 bonds) & T pairs with C (3 bonds) c. A pairs with T (3 bonds) & G pairs with C (2 bonds) d. A pairs with G (3 bonds) & T pairs with C (2 bonds)
A
1. In 1944 Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty performed transformation experiments using live, harmless bacteria and extracts from virulent bacteria treated with various enzymes. Which of the following enzymes were used and why? a. Proteases and RNases to rule out protein and RNA as the transforming factors b. Lipase (an enzyme that facilitates the breakdown of lipids) to rule out lipoproteins as the transforming factor c. Kinase (an enzyme that facilitates transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to a substrate molecule) to show that transformation is phosphorylation dependent ATPasetoshowthattransformationisnotdependentonATP
A
1. In animals, traits determine by the mitochondrial DNA are inherited from the . a. mother b. brother c. father d. sister
A
1. Mitosis results in... a. 2 identical diploid cells b. 4 unique diploid cells c. 2 unique haploid cells d. 4 identical haploid cells
A
1. Plates I and III were included in the experimental design in order to a. demonstrate that the E. coli cultures were viable b. demonstrate that the plasmid can lose its ampr gene c. demonstrate that the plasmid is needed for E. coli growth d. prepare the E. coli for transformation
A
1. Sickle-cell anemia results from a point mutation in the HBB gene. The mutation results in the replacement of an amino acid that has a hydrophilic R-group with an amino acid that has a hydrophobic R-group on the exterior of the hemoglobin protein. Such a mutation would most likely result in altered a. properties of the molecule as a result of abnormal interactions between adjacent hemoglobin molecules b. DNA structure as a result of abnormal hydrogen bonding between nitrogenous bases c. fatty acid structure as a result of changes in ionic interactions between adjacent fatty acid chains d. protein secondary structure as a result of abnormal hydrophobic interactions between R-groups in the backbone of the protein
A
1. This process involves homologous chromatids exchanging genetic material to increase genetic diversity. a. crossing over b. random fertilization c. independent assortment d. gene flow
A
1. What are the three parts of signal transduction pathway? a. reception, transduction, response b. confirmation, transduction, transcription c. reception, amplification, transcription d. confirmation, amplification, response
A
1. What determines the level of effect of a mutation? a. environmental context b. codon-anticodon pairing c. structure of protein d. process of meiosis
A
1. When does the process of crossing over take place? a. prophase I b. metaphase I c. anaphase I d. telophase I
A
1. Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the DNA strands? a. helicase b. DNA polymerase c. topoisomerase d. ligase
A
1. Which feedback mechanism involves amplifying responses and processes in biological organisms? a. Positive Feedback b. Negative Feedback
A
1. Which of the following best describes the phenotypic ratio of 6:3:3:2:1:1? a. Incomplete dominance & complete dominance on dihybrid cross b. Incomplete dominance on dihybrid cross c. Complete dominance on dihybrid cross d. Epistasis on dihybrid cross
A
1. Which of the following best explains the feedback mechanism illustrated in Figure 1? a. This is an example of positive feedback, because the few platelets that initially bind attract more platelets to the damaged area. b. This is an example of positive feedback, because it results from the interactions among collagen, endothelial cells, and platelets. c. This is an example of negative feedback, because a large clump of platelets can block the blood vessel and prevent blood flow through it. a. This is an example of negative feedback, because the accumulation of platelets returns the open blood vessel wall to a closed state.
A
1. Which of the following best explains why there is no growth on plate II? a. The initial E. coli culture was not ampicillin- resistant. b. The transformation procedure killed the bacteria. c. Nutrient agar inhibits E. coli growth. d. The bacteria on the plate were transformed.
A
1. Which of the following is NOT a role of mitosis? a. gametes b. tissue repair c. growth d. asexual reproduction
A
1. Which of the following is a predicted ratio of a dihybrid cross? a. 9:3:3:1 b. 9:3:4 c. 1:2:1 d. 1:1:1:1
A
1. Which of the following is the stage where the cell no longer divides? a. G0 b. G1 c. G2 d. S
A
1. Which protein structure involves the peptide bonds between amino acids? a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary
A
Based on your understanding of the ways in which signal transmission mediates cell function, which of the following predictions is most consistent with the information given above? a. In an environment with low fixed nitrogen, treating the Anabaena cells with a calcium-binding compound should prevent heterocyst differentiation. b. A strain that overexpresses the patS gene should develop many more heterocysts in a low fixed nitrogen environment. c. In an environment with abundant fixed nitrogen, free calcium levels should be high in all cells so that no heterocysts develop. d. In environments with abundant fixed nitrogen, loss of the hetR gene should induce heterocyst development.
A
Which of the following is the most plausible explanation for these findings? a. A cell surface protein on cell 4 signals cell 3 to induce formation of the worm's intestine. b. The plasma membrane of cell 4 interacts with the plasma membrane of the posterior portion of cell 3, causing invaginations that become microvilli. c. Cell 3 passes an electrical signal to cell 4, which induces differentiation in cell 4. d. Cell 4 transfers genetic material to cell 3, which directs the development of intestinal cells.
A
a. As tissue osmolarity rises, more ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted as urine. b. As tissue osmolarity rises, less ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted as urine. c. As tissue osmolarity rises, more ADH is released, causing more water to be excreted as urine. d. As tissue osmolarity rises, less ADH is released, causing more water to be excreted as urine.
A
a. The HbA DNA contains a recognition site for the Mst II restriction enzyme. b. The HbA/HbS DNA contains three recognition sites for the Mst II restriction endonuclease. c. Individual I has only one copy of the hemoglobin gene; therefore there is only one band on the gel. d. The HbS/HbA DNA contains three different alleles for sickle-cell disease.
A
What is an exergonic reaction?
A chemical reaction that releases energy
What occurs to re-enter the cell cycle from G0?
A fix of what was wrong
1. What happens if an insertion or deletion occurs at a nucleotide base pair? a. How does this affect the protein product? b. How does this affect the amount of the protein product?
A frameshift will happen this will create extra proteins
What are the components of a phospholipid?
A glycerol, two fatty acids, and a phosphate group.
What is chlorophyll?
A green pigment found in the chloroplasts of plants, algae, and some bacteria
How are proteins modified during the process of transduction?
A phosphate is added to activate the protein, and that phosphate is removed to deactivate the protein
What is conjugation?
A process in which 2 organisms exchange genetic material
What occurs as electrons are transferred from one cytochrome to the next in the electron transport chain?
A proton gradient is formed by electrons passing through the Complexes.
What is an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?
A reaction that uses an enzyme to catalyze the rate of the reaction
What is a concentration gradient?
A region along which the density of a chemical substance increases or decreases.
How does the repressor interact with the promoter?
A repressor is a protein that turns off the expression of one or more genes. The repressor protein works by binding to the gene's promoter region, preventing the production of messenger RNA (mRNA).
What is the promoter region?
A specific sequence of DNA bases at the start of a gene on the sense strand where RNA polymerase binds.
6. A common laboratory investigation involves putting a solution of starch and glucose into a dialysis bag and suspending the bag in a beaker of water, as shown in the figure below. Which of the following best represents the amount of starch, water, and glucose in the dialysis bag over the course of the investigation?
A.
1. During aerobic cellular respiration, oxygen gas is consumed at the same rate as carbon dioxide gas is produced. In order to provide accurate volumetric measurements of oxygen gas consumption, the experimental setup should include which of the following?
A. A substance that removes carbon dioxide gas
1. Which of the following descriptions of photosynthesis best explains the results of the experiment?
A. Availability of electrons for transfer to DCPIP depends on light energy.
1. What organisms have ribosomes? a. How does that demonstrate common ancestry?
All living cells since they all have ribosomes they must have got it from each other or a similar structure
Based on the location of glycolysis, what statement can be made about evolutionary history?
All organism did glycolysis because they all have cytoplasm
1. How do mutations affect gene products?
Alter the gene expression by changing the proteins that are coded for
What is denaturation?
Alteration of a protein shape through some form of external stress (for example, by applying heat, acid or alkali), in such a way that it will no longer be able to carry out its cellular function.
What is the monomer of a protein? Identify the components of the monomer.
Amino acids which are made up carbon attached by a Amine (NH2) and a Carboxyl (COOH) group
What is the structure of an amino acid?
Amino group (N-terminus), Carboxyl group (right side), Side chain (R-group)
a. For each R group option, describe the polarity and justify your response.
Amino group: polar because of the Nitrogen. Carboxyl: polar because an electronegative oxygen atom double bonded to a carbon atom. R group:
1. What is PCR? a. What is the function of PCR? b. What occurs during a PCR? c. Identify an example of when a PCR should be done.
Polymerase chain reaction, or PCR, is a technique to make many copies of a specific DNA region in vitro (in a test tube rather than an organism). PCR relies on a thermostable DNA polymerase, Taq polymerase, and requires DNA primers designed specifically for the DNA region of interest. In PCR, the reaction is repeatedly cycled through a series of temperature changes, which allow many copies of the target region to be produced. PCR has many research and practical applications. It is routinely used in DNA cloning, medical diagnostics, and forensic analysis of DNA.
1. What is the function of reverse transcriptase?
Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme found in retroviruses that converts the RNA genome carried in the retrovirus particle into double-stranded DNA.
Identify what part of meiosis results in the reduction of chromosome number.
Separation of homologous partners during anaphase I so each daughter cell gets either a maternal or paternal chromosome not both for each of the 46
1. How does the bottleneck effect modify genetic makeup of a population?
The genes of the random organisms that survived would be passed on
What happens to the electrons after absorbing energy from light?
The go to the Electron transport chain
Why would a different cell respond differently to the same chemical signal?
They could have different internal transduction processes
How does the ribosome demonstrate a common ancestry of all known life?
They have had extremely similar structure
How is the photosystem organized to aid in energy capture?
They have pigments which collect light energy which excites the electrons that pass through them
1. How do siRNA and miRNA affect gene expression?
They inhibit gene expression
What is dehydration?
This is when a water molecule is removed to combine to molecules
What is the function of tRNA?
Transfer RNA transfers each amino acid to the ribosome as it is specified by the coded messages in the mRNA.
What is horizontal transfer?
Transmission of DNA between a donor cell and a recipient cell.
How does this variation in types of molecules lead to a selective advantage?
Variation provides organisms a greater ability to survive, or/and reproduce in different environments.
How does a substrate bind to an enzyme?
Via its active site; When the substrate enters the active site, it forms a weak bond with the enzyme, inducing a shape change on the enzyme.
1. Which of the following is the best justification for why the rabbit hemoglobin proteins were found throughout the tadpole? a. Rabbit mRNA is composed of nucleotides that are more stable than those in frog mRNA. b. Rabbit hemoglobin is synthesized more efficiently than frog hemoglobin in frog cells. c. After differentiation, the rabbit hemoglobin proteins move through the circulatory system of the tadpole to every cell. d. The mRNA injected into the newly fertilized frog eggs is distributed in the cytoplasm of every daughter cell during cell division.
D
Which of the following figures correctly depicts the interactions at the lac operon when lactose is NOT being utilized? (The legend below defines the shapes of the molecules illustrated in the options.)
D
Which of the following is supported by the data? a. The alleles for gray body and long wings are dominant. b. The alleles for gray body and long wings are recessive. c. Genes for the two traits are located on two different chromosomes, and independent assortment occurred. d. Genes for the two traits are located close together on the same chromosome and crossing over occurred between the two gene loci.
D
Which of the following questions will best help guide the researchers toward a direct test of their proposal? a. Have mutations in other genes also been associated with hearing loss? b. In what types of cells are the mutant forms of the POU4F3 gene expressed? c. Are mutations in the MYO6 and POU4F3 genes also found in mice? d. Do mutations in the POU4F3 gene affect MYO6 mRNA levels in cells?
D
Which of the following statements best explains the data? a. The appearance of blue in the F1 generation of the pink and white cross demonstrates that flower color is not an inherited trait but is determined by the environment. b. Flower color depends on stages of flower development, and young flowers are white, advancing to pink and then blue. SincetheF1andF2phenotypesofthepinkandwhitecrossdonotfittheexpectedgenotypic
D
a. Residual blood thyroxine, from prior to thyroid gland removal, will bind to cells in the anterior pituitary, signaling more TSH secretion. b. Thyroxine will remain bound to thyroxine receptors on various body cells, and these body cells will secrete additional hormones that stimulate the anterior pituitary to secrete TSH. c. Thyroxine that was stored in the anterior pituitary prior to thyroid gland removal will signal more TSH secretion. d. A decrease in thyroxine levels means a loss of inhibition to the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary, leading to increased TSH secretion.
D
1. Which of the following can be reasonably concluded from the experimental results?
D. Light from a lamp can substitute for sunlight in stimulating chloroplast processes
4. A human kidney filters about 200 liters of blood each day. Approximately two liters of liquid and nutrient waste are excreted as urine. The remaining fluid and dissolved substances are reabsorbed and continue to circulate throughout the body. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is secreted in response to reduced plasma volume. ADH targets the collecting ducts in the kidney, stimulating the insertion of aquaporins into their plasma membranes and an increased reabsorption of water. If ADH secretion is inhibited, which of the following would initially result?
D. The person would produce greater amounts of dilute urine.
11. Which is responsible for storage and release of macromolecules and cellular waste products. In plants, aids in turgor.
D. Vacuoles
14. Which of the following is the location for the ATP synthesis in cellular respiration?
D. cristae
1. Which environmental conditions can cause denaturation of the enzyme?
D. extreme increase in temperature and pH change
1. Which of the following will increase the rate of the reaction?
D. increase enzyme
1. Describe the effect on the free energy of doubling the amount of enzyme.
D. no effect on free energy
Identify differences between DNA and RNA using the following chart:
DNA Pentose Sugar: deoxyribose Nitrogenous Bases: TA GC Directionality: 5' end to 3' RNA: Ribose Pentose Sugar: Nitrogenous Bases: UA CG Directionality: 3' to 5'
Why is DNA a better hereditary material than RNA?
DNA is chemically more stable than RNA. RNA has a hydroxyl group (-OH group) in it which leads to RNA being lesser stable
What is the function of DNA ligase?
DNA ligase joins the Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand together.
How are eukaryotic chromosomes organized?
DNA wrapped around histones organized into nucleosomes that are tightly packed into the nucleus
1. What is the primary source of heritable information?
DNA, and in some cases RNA, is the primary source of heritable information.
1. What is the central dogma? a. How does a retrovirus violate this process? b. Identify two examples of retroviruses.
DNA-->RNA--->Protein Some Viruses can go from RNA to DNA to RNA to Protein HTLV 1 and 2
Compare and contrast DNA and RNA using the following chart:
DNA: Pentose Sugar: Deoxyribose Nitrogenous Bases: TA CG Strandedness: Double stranded RNA: Pentose Sugar: Ribose Nitrogenous Bases: UA CG Strandedness: Single stranded
How are multiple codons able to code for the same amino acids?
Different codons can produce the same amino acid due to the way they bind to transfer RNA (tRNA)
1. How can differential gene expression affect the cellular functions?
Differential gene expression defines the specific structure and function of a cell by making certain genes active and other genes permanently inactive.
1. How can differential gene expression affect the cellular products?
Differential gene expression defines the specific structure and function of a cell by making certain genes active and other genes permanently inactive.
How can fossils be used as evidence of evolution?
Displays changes in the same species
Provide an example of hydrolysis.
Dissolving a salt of a weak acid or base in water
What occurs during cytokinesis?
Division of cytoplasm
1. Which of the following is NOT a process of horizontal acquisition of genetic information by prokaryotes? a. transformation b. transposition c. transduction d. transjugation e. plasmation
E
Describe a linear chromosome.
Each chromosome is made up of 2 arms with a centromere region in the middleTelomeres are protective tips on ends of chromosomes arms Chromosomes are arranged in pairs within the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.
What are the three sites found on a ribosome and what is their function?
Each ribosomal subunit has three binding sites for tRNA: designated the A (aminoacyl) site, which accepts the incoming aminoacylated tRNA; P (peptidyl) site, which holds the tRNA with the nascent peptide chain; and E (exit) site, which holds the deacylated tRNA before it leaves the ribosome.
In a metabolic pathway, how does the product of one reaction relate to the reactants of the subsequent reaction?
Each step in the reaction creates a product or energy that is used in the next step of the metabolic pathway
How does the thylakoid aid in energy storing?
Electron transport proteins are located in thylakoid membranes and transport of H+ ions into the thylakoid space creates the H+ gradient needed for ATP production during the light dependent reactions.
How do electrons move through the electron transport chain?
Electrons move from a less electronegative electron carrier to a more electronegative electron
What happens in the elongation step of translation?
Elongation ("middle"): in this stage, amino acids are brought to the ribosome by tRNAs and linked together to form a chain.
What is the first law of thermodynamics?
Energy cannot be created or destroyed; it can be changed from one form to another.
What type of cells have membrane-bound organelles? EUKARYOTIC or PROKARYOTIC
Eukaryotic
1. How does the location of translation differ between a prokaryote and a eukaryote? a. How does the location of translation affect gene expression in a prokaryote?
Eukaryotic Transcription takes place inside of the Nucleus, while Prokaryotic Transcription takes place in the Cytoplasm.
What are the functional groups found in all amino acids?
Every amino acid contains an amine group (-NH2), a carboxyl group (-COOH) and an R group
How can scientists use genomes to prove that all species continue to evolve?
Everyone has DNA
Identify two functions of plasmids.
F plasmids contain genes that code for the production of sex pili and enzymes required for conjugation. R plasmids contain genes for antibiotic resistance
What are selective pressures?
Factors that affect the organisms chances of survival
1. How does a shared genetic code demonstrate common ancestry?
If we all have shared genetic code we must have came from something with similar genetic code
Identify three differences between meiosis I and meiosis II,
In meiosis 1, homologous chromosomes separate while in Meiosis 2 chromatics separate ; Meiosis II produces 4 haploid daughter cells, whereas meiosis I produces 2 diploid daughter cells. Genetic recombination (crossing over) only occurs in meiosis I.
1. How do negative regulatory molecule inhibit gene expression?
In repressible negative regulation, the default state of gene transcription is "on." The regulatory protein alone cannot bind to the operator site to turn it off, but when the effector is present, it binds to the regulatory protein and the resulting molecular complex binds to the operator, and turns gene transcription
1. What is the effect of mutations on genetic variation?
Increased genetic variation because of new genetic makeup being passed on
How does the concentration of reactants affect the reaction rate?
Increasing the concentration of one or more reactants will often increase the rate of reaction. This occurs because a higher concentration of a reactant will lead to more collisions of that reactant in a specific time period.
What is the hydrolysis? a. Identify inputs and outputs using a specific example.
Inputs is the water and the outputs are the two cells
Identify one example of a protein that is reversible after denaturation.
Insulin
What type of bond is found between nucleic acid monomers? Specifically, where is this bond located?
Phosphodiester bond (Covalent) and it is found in DNA and RNA between the adjacent carbons and phosphate group
What is the relationship between the photosystem and the electron transport chain?
Photosystems have chlorophyll molecules inside, which energize the electrons that move through the ETC.
determine which direction the water will flow and the result to the cell. Intracellular Environment: Hypertonic Extracellular Environment: Hypotonic
Water will rush into the cell making the cell burst
determine which direction the water will flow and the result to the cell. Intracellular Environment: Hypotonic Extracellular Environment: Hypertonic
Water will rush out of the cell making the cell shrink
How do the passage of ions affect the membrane potential?
When an ion passes through the membrane the membrane potential changes the other way around
How do the proto-oncogenes cause cancer?
When mutated proto-oncogenes are upregulated the cell keeps dividing like "car with gas pedal stuck"
What are parts found in all nucleotides?
a five-carbon sugar, a phosphate, and a nitrogen-rich structure called a nitrogenous base.
What is a tumor suppressor gene?
a gene that protects a cell from one step on the path to cancer (p53)
What type of surface area to volume ratio is most favorable for cells?
a high surface area to volume
1. What is carbon-14 decay? a. How can carbon-14 decay be used to date fossils?
a method for determining the age of an object containing organic material by using the properties of radiocarbon. Since the carbon decays exponentially, you can determine how old the fossil is based on how decayed the carbon 14 is
1. What is positive feedback? a. Identify two examples of positive feedback loops.
a process in which the end products amplify the original action; brings the system further from homeostasis. Ex. Childbirth, Osmoregulation
1. What is negative feedback? a. Identify two examples of negative feedback loops.
a process in which the production of a reaction leads to a decrease in that reaction; brings the system closer to homeostasis. Ex. Thermoregulation, and Blood sugar regulation
What is a transcription factor?
a protein that binds to a specific DNA sequence to regulate transcription
What is a repressor?
a protein that binds to the operator and prevents transcription
1. What is complete dominance?
a relationship in which one allele is completely dominant over another
1. What are regulatory sequences?
a segment of a nucleic acid molecule which is capable of increasing or decreasing the expression of specific genes within an organism.
1. What is a codon? a. How many nucleotides make up a codon?
a set of three nucleotides
1. What is the bottleneck effect?
a sudden reduction in population size due to a change in the environment
1. What is a polygenic trait?
a trait whose phenotype is influenced by more than one gene
What is an operon?
a unit made up of linked genes that is thought to regulate other genes responsible for protein synthesis.
How are the food materials brought in by endocytosis digested?
a vesicle called an endosome
What is a hydrogen bond?
a weak bond between two partially charged atoms
1. Simple cuboidal epithelial cells line the ducts of certain human exocrine glands. Various materials are transported into or out of the cells by diffusion. (The formula for the surface area of a cube is 6 x S2, and the formula for the volume of a cube is S3, where S = the length of a side of the cube.) Which of the following cube-shaped cells would be most efficient in removing waste by diffusion?
a. 10um
1. Where does the electron transport chain take place?
a. all of the choices
What is the monomer that makes up an enzyme?
amino acids and proteins
What is the function of an ATPase?
an enzyme that removes a phosphate group from ATP releasing energy
How is a concentration gradient established and maintained?
by biological membranes such as ion pumps
How does the cell wall protect the cell from hypotonic solutions?
by counteracting the outward osmotic pressure
How do membrane-bound organelles allow for compartmentalization of the cell and its functions?
by minimizing competing interactions and by increasing the surface area.
What are the elements found in a protein?
carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen (CHON)
True or False: Once a population of organisms are perfect, they will cease evolving.
false
1. Identify one example of a population that has undergone the founder's effect.
fish in a flash flood that ended up in a different lake
How can a cell increase surface area without increasing the volume?
folding plasma membrane
How is genetic engineering used to analyze DNA?
gel electrophoresis, and recombinant DNA technology, will be used to determine how the gene on the DNA is expressed to cause a specific phenotype in that organism and how we can manipulate that expression in other organisms.
1. How does the genetic code demonstrate common ancestry?
genes carry all of the instructions for building living things
1. What are linked genes? a. How are the predicted ratios different in linked genes?
genes that are inherited together. therefore the ratios are different
How is genetic engineering used to manipulate DNA?
genetic engineering is the process of using recombinant DNA technology to alter the genetic makeup of an organism; therefore, you are directly manipulating one or more genes to obtain a desired phenotype
Identify two molecular features shared across organisms.
genetic material (DNA) and basic process of gene expression (transcription and translation)
How does a genetic change enhance survival?
genetic variation is advantageous because it allows some individuals to adapt to the environment which will allow them to better survive
What does it mean if a population of bacteria is antibiotic resistant?
germs are not killed and continue to grow.
What are the components of a fat molecule?
glycerol and fatty acids
What type of bond is found in starch?
glyosidic bonds
Identify three roles of mitosis.
growth of an organism, repair of damaged tissue, asexual reproduction
What causes Turner syndrome?
having only one X chromosome in females
What is the central dogma?
it is a statement that summarizes how information flows in one direction from DNA to RNA to proteins
Identify one example of a chemical that inhibits a signaling pathway.
many cancer therapeutic drugs that target cell growth and differentiation by inhibiting the signalingpathway
How is the chloroplast organized?
many thylakoid membranes stacked to increase surface area for light reactions in photosynthesis
1. If a trait is found on the DNA in a chloroplast, what is the mode of inheritance?
maternal
Why is a triploid organism usually sterile?
meiosis cannot proceed normally and instead produces mostly aneuploid daughter cells that cannot yield viable zygotes
Identify two examples of a cell responding to its environment. a. What occurs in each of these examples?
metabolic response, cell division; turning on transcription of an operon (lactose) because of lactose being present in its environment or dividing in response to cell signals telling the cell to move through the cell cycle
How does the cell undergo cytokinesis?
microtubules reorganize into an actin-myosin ring and pinch off animal cells
Where is ATP synthesized in cellular respiration?
mitochondria
What is the function of the GTP cap?
modified cap of 20-40 guanines added to the 5' end, this helps ribosomes attach to the 5' end once the mRNA reaches the cytoplasm
Describe the process of endocytosis.
molecules are moved into the cell by the cell membrane surrounding them and pinching off to create a vesicle inside the cell
1. What is gene flow?
movement of alleles between populations
Which macromolecule(s) contain phosphorus?
nucleic acids and lipids
1. What organelles contain DNA? a. How does this support the endosymbiotic theory?
nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts. prokaryotes had their own DNA also, and it was incorporated into another prokaryotic cell, making eukaryotic cells
Which "cell" from question #5 would be the most efficient? Justify.
number 3 because it has the greatest surface area to volume ratio
Identify three possible cellular responses.
opening of an ion channel, contraction of muscles, cell movement, synthesis of new proteins
Identify two ways that the cell complete osmoregulation.
osmoconformers (matching body osmolarity to environment) osmoregulators
Identify two ways that organisms complete osmoregulation.
osmoconformers and osmoregulators
What is the function of the contractile vacuole?
osmoregulation (removing excess water)
1. What is the equation for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? a. Identify all the variables in the equation.
p^2+2pq+q^2=1p+q=1p= frequency of allele 1 in the populationq= frequency of allele 2 in the population
Identify and describe two examples of strategies that organisms use to obtain nutrients and eliminate wastes.
photosynthesis getting water and light and releasing oxygen Cellular respiration is making energy and releasing carbon dioxide
What is phenotype?
physical characteristics of an organism
What types of cells have a cell wall?
plant cells
How do materials pass through the cell wall?
plasmodesmata in plants
What is endocytosis?
process by which the cell takes in materials that are too large to pass through
What is transformation?
process in which one strain of bacteria is changed by a gene or genes from another strain of bacteria
Which macromolecule(s) contain sulfur?
proteins
Which macromolecule(s) contain nitrogen?
proteins and nucleic acids
1. What would happen if there was a mutation in a transduction protein? a. How would this affect the response of the cell?
proteins would be misfolded and would not be active; therefore, they couldn't activatedownstream signaling pathways or amplify signals and the response would most likely nothappen
What are the light-dependent reactions?
reactions that require the direct involvement of light and light-absorbing pigments
What are the components of a signal transduction pathway?
reception, transduction, response
1. What would you look for in a pedigree to identify if the trait is dominant or recessive?
recessive - skipping generations; dominant - there is no way a child can inherit the disorder without a parent being affected also
What is the function of RNA splicing?
removes noncoding introns from pre-mRNA, facilitates export of mRNA to cytoplasm, allows for multiple proteins to be produced through alternative splicing
Where does translation take place?
ribosomes in the cytoplasm
1. What types of materials can easily pass through the membrane? a. Identify two examples. b. Why does this type of material easily pass through the membrane?
small and nonpolar molecules Ex. oxygen and carbon dioxide
1. Identify three causes of cancer. a. How does each affect the cell cycle?
smoking, radiation, virusesthey can damage or mutate DNA that can then cause the cell cycle to not make correct proteins that regulate the cell cycle
What does differential survival mean?
some organisms are more likely to survive due to specific adaptations than others
1. How do homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase?
spindle fibers which attach to the kinectores and pull them apart
Identify three post-transcriptional modifications that alter the pre-mRNA prior to its release from the nucleus.
splicing, 5' capping, and addition of a poly-A tail
Where is ATP synthesized in photosynthesis?
stroma of the chloroplast
What are analogous structures?
structures that perform a similar function but are not similar in origin
What is embryology?
study of embryos and their development
What is evolutionary fitness?
success in passing genes to the next generation
Where are plasma membranes found in a cell?
surrounding the cell and also around many different organelles
Using an external change, describe how an organism responds using feedback loops.
temperature outside decreases, which can cause body temperature to decrease, thermoreceptorssense change, hypothalamus compares against set point and makes your muscles shiver and yourblood vessels constrict
What happens in the termination step of translation?
termination occurs when the ribosome reaches a stop codon (UAA, UAG, and UGA). Since there are no tRNA molecules that can recognize these codons, the ribosome recognizes that translation is complete. The new protein is then released, and the translation complex comes apart.
True or False: All somatic cells have the same DNA.
True
True or False: One codon can code for more than one amino acid.
True
True or False? Denaturation can be reversible.
True
Why does a purine always pair with a pyrimidine?
Two purines bonding together would take up too much space between the two DNA strands, which would affect the structure and not allow the strands to be held together properly and they form hydrogen bonds
What is the function of rRNA?
makes up ribosomes
1. If a trait is mitochondrially linked, what is the mode of inheritance?
maternal (new evidence suggests it can be both maternal and paternal now)
What is the function of transcription factors?
mediate the binding of RNA polymerase and the initiation of transcription
What is an oncogene?
mutated proto-oncogene that causes cancer
What is the cause of new genetic variation?
mutations
What causes errors in DNA replication?
mutations, insertions/deletions
What occurs with an ion channel receptor after binding to a ligand?
acts as a gate, opening to let ions in or out (namely, Na+ and Ca2+)
Which bond can be broken by animals?
starch (glyosidic bonds)
What does biotic and abiotic mean?
Biotic: living Abiotic: nonliving
Where does the electron transport chain in photosynthesis take place?
between the chloroplast stroma and the thylakoid lumen
Where are hydrogen bonds found in water?
between the two hydrogen atoms
What are the four macromolecules?
carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids
What is G0?
cell is simply living and serving its function, not prepping for division
1. Which of the following are electron carriers for the electron transport chain in cellular respiration?
D. NADH & FADH2
What are three functions of lipids in living organisms?
1. Storing long term energy 2. Structure of the cell 3. Cell messengers
True or False: Natural selection acts on genotype.
False
True or False? Any molecule can use any transport protein.
False
How does an enzyme affect the rate of biological reactions?
It increases the rate of biological reactions
What are the three types of RNA involved in the structure or function of the ribosome?
mRNA tRNA rRNA
What is the structure and function of the rough ER?
Synthesizes and stores proteins
Which strand is the template strand?
3' to 5' strand
determine which direction the water will flow and the result to the cell. Intracellular Environment: Isotonic Extracellular Environment: Isotonic
The cell will have dynamic equlibrium
If there is 20% thymine in a DNA strand, how much cytosine is there?
30 percent cytosine
1. What is the expected ratio of a monohybrid cross based on Mendel's laws?
3:1
1. What is differential gene expression?
The expression of different sets of genes by cells with the same genome.
Define the fluid mosaic model.
The fluid mosaic model states that a cell membrane consists of a phospholipid bilayer with proteins embedded throughout.
How does the structure of the mitochondria aid in the function?
The folding increases the surface area and increases metabolism for more energy quicker
1. How can a mutation have a neutral effect on the product produced?
They are neutral because they do not change the amino acids in the proteins they encode
How are simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion similar?
They both don't require energy and go from high to low concentration
Using the properties of water, describe how a water strider can walk on water.
They have hydrophobic legs and they use the high surface tension of water to walk on it
What is natural selection?
The idea that the fittest survive and pass along their traits to their offspring.
What is passive transport?
The movement of materials across the cell membrane without using cellular energy
What is the relationship between the ribosome and the rough ER?
The ribosome is in the rough ER and the rough ER transfers the protein to the Golgi
How does natural selection affect phenotypes?
The stronger phenotypes will survive
1. How can a mutation have a positive effect on the product produced?
They lead to new versions of proteins that help organisms adapt to changes in their environment.
How do ions move across the membrane?
Through ion channels that move down their concentration gradient and create a flow of electrical energy
1. What is the chromosomal basis of inheritance?
Through mendelian genes through segregation and independent assortment
Identify the three locations of the electron transport chains in cells.
Thylakoid membrane (photosynthesis), inner mitochondrial membrane (respiration), prokaryotic plasma membrane (respiration)
True or False: Only specific cells will respond to specific chemical signals because they have a receptor for the chemical signal.
True
Identify two biotechnical uses for plasmids.
Used as a tool to insert genes into bacteria to produce therapeutic proteins such as human insulin
How do viruses recombine genetic information?
When two different strains of a virus infect the same host cell, their genetic material can mix and produce a new, recombinant strain.
An answer to which of the following questions would provide the most information about the association between the CFTR mutation and the viscous mucus? a. Is the mucus also secreted from the cells through the CFTR proteins? b. How does the disrupted chloride movement affect the movement of sodium ions and water by the cell? c. How does the mutation alter the structure of the CFTR proteins? d. What is the change in nucleotide sequence that results in the CFTR mutation?
B
Where are hydrogen bonds found in DNA? a. How many hydrogen bonds are found between each complementary base pairing?
Between the two nucleotides. Ex. AT and CG. AT has two CG has 3
1. What types of materials require a protein to pass through the membrane? a. Identify two examples. b. Why does this type of material require a protein to pass through the membrane?
Big and Polar molecules such as charged ions and Water
What is the role of the receptor in the signal transduction pathway?
Binds with receptor to start signal transduction pathway
1. Identify two examples of organisms that demonstrate convergent evolution.
Birds and bats, fish and dolphins
Identify two examples of a phenotypic variation that increases fitness of an organism in a particular environment.
Black fur in a dark forest, large beak in an area with large flowers
How does the phospholipid bilayer maintain the internal environment of a cell?
By only letting certain nutrients in the cell by use of ligands and active sites
How does the membrane of organelles allow for enzymatic processes to take place?
By separating the organelles from the cytosol
What most likely causes the trends in oxygen concentration shown in the graph below?
D. Photosynthesis produces more oxygen than is consumed by respiration during the day.
1. What substances are the carriers of genetic information?
DNA and RNA
True or False? Enzymes affect the Gibbs Free Energy of a chemical reaction.
False
1. How do daughter cells receive both maternal and paternal chromosomes?
Gametes combine one from father and one from mother
1. What is biogeography?
Geographic distribution of species.
How does the vacuole assist in storage of macromolecules?
It has a lot of space for storage
What is the structure of the inner membrane (cristae) of the mitochondria? a. How does that contribute to the function of the inner membrane (cristae) of the mitochondria?
It has many folds and this increases the surface area and helps produce ATP
How does the lysosome aid in intracellular digestion?
It helps break down food with enzymes
How does the proton gradient result in ATP synthesis?
H+ will go where there is less H+ which gives energy to go through ATP synthase and make ATP
1. What does it mean if the genotype frequency stays the same from one generation to the next?
It is in equilibrium and not evolving
What is the function of the food vacuole?
It is used for storage of nutrients, water or waste.
Which direction would water flow if one solution A is 0.3 M and solution B is 0.6 M?
It would move from A to B
Provide an example of dehydration.
Joining amino acids to make a protein.
Using an example, explain how positive feedback can be used to maintain homeostasis?
Pregnancy has fissures to remove a baby
1. Why is genetic variation important for a population's survivability?
Prevents one disease from wiping out a population
Check question
Primary: amino acid sequence; Covalent, peptide bonds Secondary: alpha beta sheets ; hydrogen bonds Tertiary: three dimensional structure ;hydrogen bonding, disulfide bonds Quaternary: several protein chains or subunits into a closely packed arrangement; noncovalent bonds
1. How does independent assortment lead to genetic variation?
Produces new combinations of alleles
1. What is a plasmid?
Small, double-stranded, extrachromosomal DNA molecules found in bacteria, archaea, and some fungi.
Identify two conditions that affect the structure of an enzyme. a. What happens to the structure of the enzyme in these conditions?
Temperature and pH which can possibly denature the enzyme
Describe how a cytosine to thymine substitution changes the structure and function of DNA. (Note this is a pyrimidine-to-pyrimidine substitution)
because during transcription a different RNA will be coded meaning and different protein
How does this resistance to antibiotics support the claim that all species have evolved and continue to evolve?
because if they didn't evolve they wouldn't be able to be resistant
How do linear chromosomes indicate common ancestry for all eukaryotes?
because it shows evolution
How do genes containing introns indicate common ancestry for all eukaryotes?
because they are unique to eukaryotes
1. Identify one example of a population that has undergone gene flow.
bee carrying pollen from one flower population to another
Where does the electron transport chain in cellular respiration take place?
between the intermembrane space and the matrix
What is a promoter?
binding site for RNA polymerase
What is the function of the promoter?
binding site for RNA polymerase
What composes the cell wall of a plant?
cellulose
1. What is the founder's effect?
change in allele frequencies as a result of the migration of a small subgroup of a population
1. What are mutations?
changes in the genetic material
1. Identify one example of a population that has undergone the bottleneck effect.
cheetahs
What composes the cell wall of a fungi?
chitin (polysaccharides)
Identify an example of a material that would require endocytosis.
cholesterol
What is transduction?
conversion of one form of energy into another
What occurs during the process of transduction?
converts the signal to a form that can bring about a cellular response
1. What is incomplete dominance?
creates a blended phenotype
What is the structure and function of the smooth ER?
creates lipids and metabolism and steroid production hormones
What reproductive processes increase genetic variation?
crossing over, independent assortment and random fertilization
What organism first evolved photosynthesis?
cyanobacteria
Identify two cellular features shared across organisms.
cytoplasm and ribosome
1. How does gene flow modify genetic makeup of a population?
delays the evolution of the populations in different geographical areas into separate species of the pathogen
1. What is genetic variation?
differences that occur in individuals within a species
1. How does a virus incorporate its viral genome into a host genome?
double-stranded linear viral DNA is inserted into the host genome in a process catalyzed by the virus-encoded integrase (IN)
1. How does segregation lead to genetic variation?
each diploid parent passes a random allele for each trait to his/her offspring during fertilization.
What are three properties of water?
high specific heat, cohesion, adhesion
How can an increase in surface area affect heat exchange?
higher amount of heat transfer
How does an abiotic environment affect the rate of evolution?
higher rate
What is involved in the cell's DNA repair mechanisms?
homologous recombination
What are homologous structures?
homologous structures are similar in origin but not function (whale flippers /human arms)
Describe the orientation of the components for the structure of the phospholipid.
hydrophilic heads are facing the water and the hydrophobic tails are not facing the water
Using an internal change, describe how an organism responds using feedback loops.
if blood glucose gets too low, the body releases glucagon, which will release glucose from the cell and if blood glucose gets too high the pancreas releases insulin, which triggers certain tissues to absorb glucose where it is stored
Why would a cell undergo apoptosis?
if the cell fails a checkpoint during the cell cycle, the cell is no longer needed, or if the cell is a threat to the organism
What evolves? INDIVIDUALS or POPULATIONS
individuals do not evolve, populations do
Where is the electron transport chain located?
inner mitochondrial membrane (cristae)
What are the different types of membrane proteins?
integral proteins and peripheral proteins
How do transcription factors affect the binding at the promoter?
it can make it easier or harder
How does chlorophyll aid in energy capture?
it captures the sun's light energy
1. How does independent assortment increase genetic diversity?
it changes the combination of the chromosomes by pairing the chromosomes with others
How does an abiotic environment affect the direction of evolution?
it decreases competition for living organisms
How does the concentration of products affect the reaction rate?
it doesnt
How does a biotic environment affect the direction of evolution?
it increases competition
How can a mutation have a negative effect on the product produced?
it leads to a mutation which a protein can not conduct their function
What is the function of steroids in the plasma membrane?
it modifies the membranes fluidity
What is the function of thylakoid membranes in the chloroplast?
it traps light energy and creates ATP and NADPH
Identify and describe two examples of specialized surfaces for exchanging materials with the surrounding environment.
leaves of plants and root hair cells because they increase absorptions of molecules
Where do the light-dependent and light-independent reactions take place?
light dependent: thylakoid membrane light independent: Stroma
What is reproductive success?
likelihood of an individual contributing fertile offspring to the next generation
1. How is eukaryotic DNA shaped?
linear
1. What would you look for in a pedigree to identify if the trait is due to non-nuclear inheritance?
looking only at female inheritance
1. Practice using a codon chart: a. What amino acid is coded by UAU? b. What codons code for lysine?
lysines UCG
What is the structure and function of the ribosome?
made of RNA and creates proteins
1. What are the five conditions that must be TRUE for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
no mutation, random mating, no gene flow, infinite population size, and no selection
What are the other names of the template strand
noncoding strand, antisense strand
What is a noncompetitive inhibitor?
noncompetitive inhibitors bind to a site other than active site causing an enzyme to change shape (conformational change) Allosteric inhibitors bind to an allosteric site and this makes the enzyme's active site is no longer functional.
What causes Down syndrome/Trisomy 21?
nondisjunction at the 21st chromosome (trisomy = 3 chromosomes
1. How is prokaryotic DNA shaped?
oval shaped
Check Image
p= q= p^2=10 2pq=80 q^2=10
Identify the components of a phospholipid.
polar head (hydrophilic) and nonpolar tail (hydrophobic)
What is exocytosis?
process by which the cell expels materials that are too large to pass through
What is apoptosis?
programmed cell death
1. What is genotypic frequency?
proportion of a particular genotype within a population
What process generates the proton gradient?
proton pumping
How does the cell wall maintain cell structure?
provides a framework for the cell through an interconnected network of cellulose fibers, structural proteins, and other polysaccharides that help maintain the shape
1. What is genetic drift?
random change in allele frequency
1. What is random fertilization?
random gametes combining with random gametes
What is an endergonic reaction?
reaction that requires energy
What is transposition?
segment of DNA gets excised and reincorporated from one location to another- from plasmid to chrom for ex.
What is artificial selection?
selective breeding of plants and animals to promote the occurrence of desirable traits in offspring
How do chromosomes move through the process of mitosis?
spindle fibers
Where does translation start?
start codon (AUG)/ ribosome
1. What is the law of segregation?
states that a parent only passes on one copy of a gene (allele) to their offspring in a haploid gamete.
1. What is Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
states that allele and genotype frequencies in a population will remain constant from generation to generation in the absence of other evolutionary influences.
Identify one example of a chemical that activates a signaling pathway.
steroids such as testosterone or thyroid hormones
Where do the light-dependent reactions take place?
thylakoid membrane
What is the function of DNA polymerase?
to add nucleotides to the end of a growing DNA strand
What is the function of the inner membrane folding in the mitochondria?
to increase the surface area and increase how much ATP is synthesized
How do large polar molecules pass through the membrane?
transport proteins
Where does the ligand bind on the receptor?
active site
Which results from convergent evolution (not representing common ancestry)? HOMOLOGOUS or ANALOGOUS
analogous
1. What process occurs during meiosis I that causes daughter cells to be haploid?
anaphase 1 when the homologous chromosomes are separated
How can scientists use fossil record to prove that all species continue to evolve?
because bone structures change based on environment
1. Identify the phase of mitosis that ensure equal transfer of chromosomes. a. How does this process ensure there is an equal transfer of chromosomes?
anaphase because the microtubules pull them away from each other
How does an increase of surface area affect the increase in volume?
as the length or width increases both surface area and volume increase
How do large amounts of water pass through the membrane?
osmosis with aquaporin
What is required for active transport?
ATP
Check Picture
A. B. C. D. E.
How do the rock layers allow for dating of fossils?
Depth reflects age
How do triploids form?
when a haploid cell is fertilized by a diploid cell
1. How does positive feedback amplify the response? a. Identify one example.
when part of an electronic output signal returns to the input, and is in phase with it, the system gain is increased.
What is the TATA box?
-region of eukaryotic promoters -the first transcription factor binds to the TATA box -they form a transcription complex with RNA polymerase on the promoter -RNA Polymerase runs along the DNA, reads the template strand, and makes the RNA (TATA Binding Protein (TBP) & other transcription factors recruit RNA Polymerase enzyme=all together=Transcription Complex)
1. What are the three phases of the cell cycle? a. What occurs in each of these three phases?
- Interphase- cell growth, replication of DNA- Mitosis - cell/nucleus division- Cytokinesis - cytoplasmic division
1. What is the probability of AaBbCCDd in a tetrahybrid cross?
1/16 chance
Which end is the location of the growing polypeptide strand?
5' because of anticodons
1. What direction is DNA synthesized? a. What direction does the DNA polymerase READ the DNA template?
5'-->3'; 3'-5' direction
1. Describe what occurs when the ligand binds to the receptor. a. confirmational change in shape of receptor b. phosphorylation of ligand c. ligand passes through the membrane d. receptor binds additional ligands
A
1. Snowshoe hares are brown in summer and white in winter, describe this event. a. Hares undergo phenotypic plasticity & environment influences gene express b. Hares are white in winter due to the snow binding to hair follicles c. Hares are brown from exposed dirt in summer d. Hares remain hidden in the winter months inhibiting fur darken from sun
A
Based on the information provided, which of the following best describes the role of insulin in this liver cell signal transduction pathway? a. It acts as a ligand. b. It acts as a receptor. c. It acts as a secondary messenger. d. It acts as a protein kinase.
A
Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the data? a. Bicoid protein inhibits translation of caudal mRNA. b. Bicoid protein stabilizes caudal mRNA. c. Translation of bicoid mRNA produces caudal protein. d. Caudal protein stimulates development of anterior structures.
A
1. How can a mutation be... a. Detrimental? b. Beneficial? c. Neutral?
A mutation can help if it helps a species adapt it can make worse if it stops a bodily function
What is the function of a phosphatase?
A phosphatase removes the phosphate group from phosphorylated amino acid residues in a protein.
What is a phosphorylation cascade?
A type of signal transduction pathway where Protein kinases transfer phosphates from ATP to protein, also known as phosphorylation. Then Protein phosphatases remove the phosphates, in a continuous pattern adding a phosphate and then taking it off.
20. Which of the following requires an input of energy for membrane transport?
A. Charged ion moving against concentration gradient
1. Which structure is unaffected by denaturation?
A. Primary
Predict the three different possible outcomes when there is a change in structure of an enzyme.
Active site will be affected and substrate cannot bind; enzyme's function is impaired; enzyme is denatured
1. What are the nucleotide base pairing rules?
Adenine Uracil Adenine Thymine Cytosine Guanine
How do membrane-bound organelles indicate common ancestry for all eukaryotes?
All cells have plasma membrane, cytoplasm, ribosomes
1. When do homologous chromosomes separate during meiosis?
Anaphase 1
How is cytokinesis different in a plant versus an animal?
Animal cells "pinch" using a cleavage furrow; plants build a cell plate to divide cell
Identify one piece of evidence that supports oxygenation to atmosphere from cyanobacteria.
As the oceans became more oxygenated, the oxygen started entering the atmosphere, which formed rust on iron ore.
1. Identify the primary source of genetic variation a. crossing over b. mutations c. random fertilization d. independent assortment
B
a. Transcription b. An increase in genetic variation c. An increase in the chromosome number d. Horizontal gene transfer
B
Why do you need to get the influenza vaccine every year?
Because they new viruses become resistant to the vaccine
1. Students in a class measured the mass of various living organisms. They then kept the organisms in the dark for 24 hours before remeasuring them. None of the organisms were provided with nutrients during the 24-hour period. The data are as follows. Which of the following is the best explanation for the pattern of change in mass of the organisms over time?
B. Cellular respiration
10. Which is membrane-enclosed sacs that contain hydrolytic
B. Lysosome
1. Which macromolecule(s) have phosphorus? a. Carbohydrates b. Proteins c. Nucleic Acids d. Fats
C
16. Describe the relationship between cell size and SA:V ratios
C. As cells increase in size, the SA:V ratio decreases
1. What are the products of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?
C. NADPH & ATP
What are the elements found in a carbohydrate?
CHO (carbon, hydrogen, oxygen)
1. Why are small populations more susceptible to changes in allele frequency?
Changes in frequencies as a whole can occur more rapidly
Where is chlorophyll located?
Chloroplast in the thylakoid membrane
Identify one example of a protein that is nonreversible after denaturation.
Cooking an egg (the egg white) is nonreversible
1. Identify which molecules bind to the promoter region a. Ligase b. Topoisomerase c. DNA polymerase d. RNA polymerase
D
1. Which of the following is the predicted ratio of a testcross with a dihybrid? a. 9:3:3:1 b. 9:6:1 c. 1:2:1 d. 1:1:1:1
D
Check Image
D. At extremely low pH values, trypsin is denatured and cannot function efficiently
Describe how a deoxyribose to ribose changes the structure and function of a nucleic acid.
DNA function is the blueprint and RNA has different functions such as mRNA and tRNA
1. What are the three types of substitution point mutations? a. How does each affect the protein product? b. How does each affect the amount of the protein product?
Deletion, insertion, and substitution. Deletion removes a protein insertion adds one and substitution keeps it the same
What causes a concentration gradient?
Differences in the amount of substances on either side of a membrane
1. How does crossing over increase genetic diversity?
Different combinations of alleles on the same chromosome
1. Identify two examples of artificial selection due to humans. a. How has this modified the species?
Dogs and livestockThere are tons of different breeds of dogs that would not have existed naturally, and food such as broccoli and cabbage came from mustard
1. Identify two genetic disorder resulting from nondisjunction.
Down syndrome and Turners Syndrome
1. What is the law of independent assortment?
During meiosis, the pairs of homologous chromosomes are divided in half to form haploid cells, and this separation, or assortment, of homologous chromosomes is random.
How did membrane-bound organelles originate?
Endosymbiosis
What is the second law of thermodynamics?
Energy cannot be changed from one form into another without a loss of usable energy.
1. How do environmental factors affect gene expression?
Environment shapes gene expression like diet, amount of oxygen one is getting, temperature organisms are found in, humidity levels, if mutagens are around such as if a person smokes those chemicals can alter gene expression, or amount of UV light one is exposed to, and therefore all of these can affect an organism's phenotype.
1. How does biochemical data support evolution? a. Provide one example of biological data.
Enzymes and chemical processes found in all living organisms Ex: cytochrome c, which is found in all life forms
What type of cells have introns? EUKARYOTIC or PROKARYOTIC
Eukaryotic
1. How are histones modified to initiate transcription (to regulate gene expression)?
Histones can be made looser to make DNA more accessible
1. How are histone modified to inhibit transcription (to regulate gene expression)?
Histones can be made tighter to make DNA less accessible
What chemical process releases the growing polypeptide?
Hydrolysis
What is hydrolysis?
Hydrolysis is the separation of two macromolecules by adding water.
What does it mean if a solution is hypertonic?
Hypertonic means that there is a lot of salt in the solution than in the cell
What does it mean if a solution is hypotonic?
Hypotonic means that there is a lot of salt in the cell than in the solution
Why does the cell undergo the step-wise function to control energy release through cellular respiration?
If energy is released from a fuel all at once, it cannot be harvested efficiently.
1. What is the dehydration? a. Identify inputs and outputs using a specific example.
In the inputs are the two cells combining and the outputs is the water
1. What is DNA? a. How is DNA stored?
Information molecule stored in chromosomes
Using an example, explain how negative feedback can be used to maintain homeostasis?
Insulin lowers blood sugar
How do charged molecules or ions pass through the membrane?
Ion channels
1. What does it mean if a solution is isotonic?
Isotonic means that their is an equal amount of solute in the solution and the cell
What happens after the substrate binds to the enzyme?
It accelerates a chemical reaction
What is the function of mRNA?
Messenger RNA carries copies of the genetic instructions from DNA to other parts of the cell.
1. What occurs during independent assortment in meiosis? a. What phase does it take place in?
Metaphase 1
Describe the process of facilitated diffusion.
Movement of a substance across a cell membrane going from high to low concentration with the help of a carrier protein in the cell membrane
1. Identify two examples of mutations that potentially could affect phenotype.
Mutations in fur color and eye color
1. How do mutations affect genetic makeup of a population?
Mutations in the genes would be passed on
How are electrons transported to the electron transport chain?
NADH and FADH2
How are similar diffusion and facilitated diffusion different?
One requires the use of a transport protein
What is Darwin's theory of natural selection?
Only the strong survive
What are membrane-bound organelles?
Organelles are either separately enclosed within their own lipid bilayers
What are the three components of a DNA or RNA molecule?
Pentose Sugar Nitrogenous Bases Directionality
What type of bond is found between protein monomers? a. Specifically, where is this bond located?
Peptide bonds (Covalent) and they are found between monomers
Describe the three types of endocytosis.
Phagocytosis (cell "eating"), pinocytosis (cell "drinking"), receptor-mediated endocytosis (receptors on cell will allow for only specific molecules to be taken into vesicles.
How is DNA modified to initiate transcription (to regulate gene expression)?
RNA polymerase binds to a particular region of the DNA (the promoter) and starts to make a strand of mRNA complementary to one of the DNA strands.
How does a saturated and unsaturated fatty acid differ?
Saturated fats don't have double bonds and unsaturated fats do have double bonds
How does an environment apply a selective pressure to a population?
Selective pressures drive selection which, in turn, leads to the evolution of a population, or changes in its genetic makeup over time. Importantly, in order for selection to occur, selective pressures must be present before the organism reproduces.
What is the role of meiosis II?
Separate sister chromatids so each daughter cell gets one copy
Identify two genetic disorders resulting from a chromosomal change.
Sickle cell anemia and Cystic fibrosis
What is the role of the ligand in the signal transduction pathway?
Signaling molecule
How does functional evidence support relatedness of organisms?
Similarities may indicate relatedness, but not always
What are the ends of a protein called and what is found at each end?
Start codons AUG and Stop Codons TAA TAG TGA
How does the Na+/K+ ATPase maintain the membrane potential?
The NA+ and the K+ move against the gradient which helps the cell not burst
How does the structure of the lysosome aid in the function?
The acidity allows the breaking down of macromolecules
How is the activation energy of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction and an uncatalyzed reaction different?
The activation energy of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction is lower than of an uncatalyzed reaction
What is the structure and function of a chloroplast?
The chloroplasts is made of chlorophyll and helps perform photosynthesis
What happens if an organism has a loss of energy or energy flow?
The energy lost cannot be used
How does the leading and the lagging strand differ?
The leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing strand, and the lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5' end.
What is transcription?
The process of making RNA from DNA
What is energy coupling?
The use of an exergonic process to drive an endergonic one.
1. How does random fertilization increase genetic diversity?
There are over 64 trillions possible combinations of genes that can occur during fertilization.
How does a cell use negative feedback to return to a target set point after a disturbance?
These loops act to oppose the stimulus, or cue, that triggers them.
Describe how a cytosine to guanine substitution changes the structure and function of DNA. (Note this is a pyrimidine-to-purine substitution)
This changes the structure because it will change the RNA which will change the protein
What is the function of topoisomerase?
To relieve upstream stress during DNA unwinding; it does this by cutting the ds-DNA and unwinding the helix. Single strand DNA are stabilized by single-strand binding proteins (SSBPs)
Describe the process that takes place during transcription.
Transcription is the first step in gene expression. It involves copying a gene's DNA sequence to make an RNA molecule. Transcription is performed by enzymes called RNA polymerases, which link nucleotides to form an RNA strand (using a DNA strand as a template).
How does variation at the molecular level affect the organism's ability to respond to environmental stimuli?
Variation at the molecular level provides organisms with the ability to respond to a verity of environmental stimuli/
How does this variation in number of molecules lead to a selective advantage?
Variation provides organisms a greater ability to survive, or/and reproduce in different environments.
How can geographical data be used to date fossils?
What the fossils are near
Identify two examples of a phenotypic variation that decreases fitness of an organism in a particular environment.
White fur in a dark forest, large beak in an area with small flowers
1. If a male is affected with a sex-linked trait with unaffected parents, what are the genotypes of the parents?
X^H/Y and X^H/X^h (if a sex-linked recessive trait)
1. What type of sex-linked cross would result in a 2 normal females, 1 normal male, and 1 affected male?
X^HY and X^HX^h - a sex-linked recessive trait
How can a researcher overcome a competitive inhibitor?
You can increase the concentration of substrate so that as active sites become available, more substrate molecules than inhibitor molecules are around to gain entry to the sites.
1. Describe the lac operon. a. What happens when lactose is present? b. What happens when lactose is absent? c. Is this operon repressible or inducible?
a gene system whose operator gene and three structural genes control lactose metabolism in E. coli. When lactose is present, Lactose allows repressor to lose its ability to bind to the DNA and allows transcription of genes to metabolize lactose; Inducible b/c requires presence of lactose to spark production.
What is the function of a kinase?
adds a phosphate to activate an enzyme in the transduction cascade, turning the molecular switch on
When are introns removed?
after transcription
1. What occurs during segregation in meiosis? a. What phase does it take place in?
alleles separate randomly; Anaphase 1/2
How can multiple proteins be synthesized from the same mRNA transcript?
alternative splicing
How does horizontal transfer increase variation?
by adding new material, phenotypes will change
How does a population of bacteria become antibiotic resistant?
by being exposed to antibacterial and survive
1. How do new phenotypes originate?
environment
1. What is crossing over?
exchange of genetic information
How are cellular processes powered?
free energy (delta G)
1. What is gel electrophoresis? a. What is the function of gel electrophoresis? b. What occurs during gel electrophoresis? c. What information can be drawn from a gel electrophoresis? d. Identify an example of when a gel electrophoresis should be done.
gel electrophoresis is to visualize, identify and distinguish molecules that have been processed by a previous method such as PCR, enzymatic digestion or an experimental condition.
What is a proto-oncogene?
gene that regulates cell division by cell growth
Identify an example of a material that would require exocytosis.
glucagon to the blood stream
1. What metabolic process do all organisms undergo which demonstrates common ancestry?
glycolysis
1. How are the phenotypic and genotypic ratios of a monohybrid cross different in these different levels of dominance?
nstead of having a 3:1 phenotypic ratio like in complete dominance, they have a 1:2:1 phenotypic ratio in codominance and incomplete dominance
What composes the cell wall of a prokaryote?
peptidoglycan
What are the components of the cell membrane?
phospholipids, proteins, carbohydrates, cholesterol
How are signals amplified after reception?
phosphorylation cascade
What is the enhancer region?
regulatory DNA sequences that, when bound by specific proteins called transcription factors, enhance the transcription of an associated gene
What is the role of meiosis I?
separates homologous chromosomes; called the reduction division
Identify an error in mitosis that leads to a change in phenotype.
separation of chromosomes during anaphase
What is an intron?
sequence of DNA that is not involved in coding for a protein
1. What would you look for in a pedigree to identify if the trait is autosomal or sex-linked?
sex-linked - more males affected than females
How do small amounts of water pass through the membrane?
simple diffusion
What are fossils?
the preserved remains or traces of organisms that lived in the past
1. What is cell differentiation?
the process by which a cell becomes specialized for a specific structure or function.
1. How does the genotype influence the phenotype?
then genotype codes for the phenotype
1. What is convergent evolution?
unrelated species evolve similar traits even though they live in different parts of the world
What is the function of helicase?
unzipping the DNA helix
1. How does a virus form progeny viruses?
viruses must gain entry into target cells and usurp the host cellular machinery to propagate and to produce progeny viruses.
What type of bond is found in cellulose?
β-1,4-glycosidic b`onds
12. Which of the following is the location for the light-dependent reactions?
A. grana/thylakoid membrane
15. Which of the following is the location for the ATP synthesis in photosynthesis?
A. grana/thylakoid membrane
1. Describe why an increase in temperature increases the rate of the reaction.
A. increase in temperature increases the speed/kinetic energy of particles
According to the results of this experiment, germination of tobacco seeds during the first week is
A. increased by exposure to light
1. What is oxidation?
A. loss of electrons
What happens to the pH when the concentration of hydrogen ions a. Increases? b. Decreases?
A. pH decreases (more acidic) B. pH increases (more alkaline)
1. Where did photosynthesis first evolve?
A. prokaryotic organisms
1. Reception a. What occurs during reception? b. Where is the receptor for a steroid hormone? c. Where is the receptor for a protein hormone? d. Why would the receptor be in different locations?
A. signal molecule binds to receptor B. nucleus (steroid is hydrophobic so it can pass through cell membrane and enter cell C. plasma membrane (ligand can't move through membrane because of hydrophobic interior of the membrane) D. differences in polarity of the molecules require receptors on the surface (if the molecule is hydrophilic) or molecules in the nucleus (if the molecule can cross the membrane)
What is oxidative phosphorylation?
ATP is formed by electrons from FADH and NADH to O2
How is ATP synthesized in the light-dependent reactions?
ATP synthase via a proton gradient
What is the function of ATP hydrolysis?
ATP the removal of phosphates releases energy.
1. What are the parent's genotype if the F1 ratio is 1:1?
Aa aa
1. What is codominance?
Both alleles are equally expressed
How does the membrane protein maintain the internal environment of a cell?
By controlling what enters and leaves the cell
1. Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes have plasmids. What are plasmids? a. large extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, linear DNA molecules b. large extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, circular DNA molecules c. small extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, circular DNA molecules d. small extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, linear DNA molecules
C
1. DNA and RNA differ on many qualities, which of the following is NOT a difference? a. Sugar b. Nitrogenous Base c. Phosphate Group d. Strandedness
C
1. Describe the impact of a mutation in any domain of the protein components of the transduction signaling pathway. a. receptor unable to bind to ligand b. no changes in transduction due to initial signal transduction from ligand c. alters response of the cell d. amplification of signaling pathway to bind more ligands
C
1. Describe the process of nondisjunction. a. Homologous chromosomes exchange genetic information b. The alignment of the chromosomes on the metaphase plate c. Homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids remain attached during anaphase d. The process of sperm and egg fusing to create a zygote
C
1. Describe why a male is more likely to be affected by a sex-linked trait? a. Males have only 1 Y chromosome b. Females have only 1 Y chromosome c. Males have only 1 X chromosome d. Females have only 1 X chromosomes
C
1. How do retroviruses violate the central dogma? a. Retroviruses are responsible for using DNA to synthesize more viral RNA b. Retroviruses are pre-historic and existed prior to the central dogma c. Retroviruses use enzymes to make DNA from RNA & integrate into host DNA d. Retroviruses use host DNA to make viral RNA, then incorporate into host DNA
C
1. If chemical signals in the cytoplasm control the progression of a cell to the M phase of the cell cycle, then fusion of a cell in G1 with a cell in early M phase would most likely result in the a. replication of chromosomes only in the G1 cell b. exiting of both cells from the cell cycle and into the G0 phase c. condensation of chromatin in preparation of nuclear division in both cells d. transfer of organelles from the G1 cell to the cell in the M phase
C
1. In a second experiment, the plasmid contained the gene for human insulin as well as the ampr gene. Which of the following plates would have the highest percentage of bacteria that are expected to produce insulin? a. I only b. III only c. IV only d. I and III
C
1. Meiosis results in_____because there is/are___ . a. 2 identical haploid cells, 1 round of division b. 4 identical diploid cells, 2 rounds of division c. 4 unique haploid cells, 2 rounds of division d. 2 unique diploid cells, 1 round of division
C
1. Plates that have only ampicillin-resistant bacteria growing include which of the following? a. I only b. III only c. IV only d. I and II
C
Describe the structure of a carbohydrate polymer.
Carbohydrates are molecules that are made of two or more simple sugars. They are polymers made of a ratio of 1 carbon, 2 hydrogen, and 1 oxygen atom. They also have an hydroxyl group. (Polysaccharide) more than 10 monosaccharides
1. How does geological data support evolution? a. Provide one example of geological data.
Changes in the earth evidently resulted in changes in populations—seen by fossils and geological factors such as volcanos and coral reefs Ex: there are unique groups of plants and animals on northern and southern continents that can be traced to the split of Pangaea into two supercontinents
What are epigenetic changes?
Changes to the chemical groups that associate with DNA that are transmitted to daughter cells after cell division
1. What occurs at the M checkpoint? a. What happens if the cell prematurely bypasses this checkpoint?
Checks that the mitotic spindles/microtubules are properly attached to the kinetochores . If the spindles are not anchored properly, the cell does not continue on through mitosis. ; chromosomes won't be attached to spindle fibers and it could potentially divide with an uneven number of chromosomes present in each cell
What is embedded in the chloroplast and how does it aid in the function of the chloroplast?
Chlorophyll absorbs light an contributes to photosynthesis
How does the thylakoid aid in energy capturing?
Chlorophyll containing photosystems are located in thylakoid membranes and numerous thylakoid sacs create more surface area to collect more light
How are prokaryotic chromosomes organized?
Circular, with no introns.
What happens to an enzyme when the pH a. Increases? b. Decreases?
If it is not in its ideal pH, it will most likely denature.
How do the tumor-suppressor genes cause cancer?
If they are mutated an so cannot detect any mutations or damage
1. Which of the following is NOT a stage of the cell cycle? a. interphase b. cytokinesis c. mitosis d. apoptosis
D
1. Which of the following is NOT in the monomer of a nucleic acid? a. pentose sugar b. nitrogenous bases c. phosphate d. amino acid
D
1. Which of the following is NOT in the monomer of a protein? a. Amine Group b. R Group c. Carboxyl Group d. Nitrogenous Base
D
1. Identify two genetic disorders resulting from a single affected allele.
Phenylketonuria (PKU), Tay Sachs, Sickle cell
1. What are the phases of meiosis? a. What occurs in each of these phases?
- Prophase I - Chromatin condenses into chromosomes, nuclear envelope disappears,spindle/centrosomes appear; synapsis/crossing over of homologous chromosomes- Metaphase I - Homologous chromosomes line up together in middle of cell- Anaphase I - homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles;segregation and independent assortment- Telophase I - chromosomes unwind into chromatin, nuclear membrane returns; spindle/centrosomes disappear- Prophase II - same as mitosis prophase- Metaphase II- same as mitosis metaphase- Anaphase II - same as mitosis anaphase- Telophase II - same as mitosis telophase
What does natural selection act on ... PHENOTYPE or GENOTYPE?
Phenotype
What does natural selection modify ... PHENOTYPE or GENOTYPE?
Phenotype
1. How does genetic variation lead to a variation in phenotypes?
Phenotypes reflect genes
1. Calculate the water potential of the following solutions. ΨP 0.0 MPa Ψs -0.2 MPa What direction will the water flow
-0.2 it will flow the other way
1. Calculate the water potential of the following solutions. ΨP 0.8 MPa Ψs -0.4 MPa What direction will the water flow
0.4 it will flow this way
1. Calculate the volumes for the following "cells": Sphere with a radius of 2 / Cube with a side length of 3 / Rectangular solid with dimensions of 2 x 3 x 4 / Cylinder with a radius of 2 and height of 4
1. 33.5 2. 27 3. 24 4. 50.3
1. What is the Krebs cycle? a. What are the starting materials? b. What are the products? c. Where does it take place in the cell?
1. A sequence of reactions in the living organism in which oxidation of acetyl equivalent provides energy for storage in phosphate bonds (as in ATP). A. acetyl-CoA B. 2FADH 6NADH 2 ATP C. Mitochondrial matrix
1. Identify three similarities between mitosis and meiosis.
1. Both are preceded by a growth period called interphase , in which a cell replicates its genetic material and organelles in preparation for division. 2. Both mitosis and meiosis involve phases: Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase and Telophase 3. Both use same cellular machinery- centrosomes/mitotic spindle/motor proteins to move chromosomes.
1. What is the process of cellular respiration? a. Identify the products of cellular respiration.
1. Cellular respiration is the process of Glycolysis, Krebs Cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation
1. What is fermentation? a. Identify the products of fermentation.
1. Fermentation is the process in which a substance breaks down into a simpler substance A. Ethanol (Alcoholic Fermentation) and lactic acid (Latic Acid Fermentation)
1. How do cells communication over a long distance? a. Identify one example.
1. Hormones A. Blood glucose levels via insulin
What are the three steps of translation?
1. Initiation 2. Elongation 3. Termination
1. Identify a message communicated by chemical signaling. a. What occurs during this process?
1. Neurotransmitters A. exocytosis releases the chemicals; chemicals travel across the synapse and bind to receptors on the surface.
1. What is decoupling oxidative phosphorylation? a. How does it generate heat?
1. Oxidative Phosphorylation without the ETC A. The proton leak via uncoupling proteins makes mitochondria respiration more inefficient, thus generates more heat as by product
What are three functions of proteins in living organisms?
1. Regulate process in cells 2. Create the body's structure 3. Repairs body
What are three functions of carbohydrates in living organisms?
1. They provide energy 2. They store energy 3. They help in the process of dehydration
1. What is the function of fermentation? a. What are the products?
1. To convert NADH back into the coenzyme NAD+ so it can be used again. A. Organic acids, ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxides.
What are three functions of nucleic acids in living organisms?
1. Transcription 2. Translation 3. Expressing Genes
1. What is the process that results in the release of a chemical signal from a cell? a. Where are the chemical signals synthesized? b. Where are the chemical signals processed?
1. exocytosis A. Cell signaling B. Target Cell
Check Question
1. hydrophilic 2. Charged 3. hydrophilic 4. Charged 5. hydrophilic 6. hydrophobic
1. How do cells communication over a short distance? a. Identify two examples.
1. paracrine signaling A. neurotransmitters, quorum sensing
1. What is a second messenger? a. Identify two examples. b. What is the function of a second messenger?
1. small molecule or ion that relays signals received by receptors to proteins. A. cAMP and Ca++ 2. responsible for the proliferation, differentiation, and maturation of nerve cells.
How are the three different types of lipids different?
1. triglycerides: body fat 2. phospholipids: in the cell membrane and prevents unwanted things in the cell 3. steroids: cholesterol and create the cell membrane in Eukaryotes
1. Calculate the surface areas for the following "cells": Sphere with a radius of 2 / Cube with a side length of 3 / Rectangular solid with dimensions of 2 x 3 x 4 / Cylinder with a radius of 2 and height of 4
1.16pi 2. 54 3. 52 4. 75.4
1. Calculate the surface area to volume ratio for the following "cells" Sphere with a radius of 2 / Cube with a side length of 3 / Rectangular solid with dimensions of 2 x 3 x 4 / Cylinder with a radius of 2 and height of 4
1.16pi/33.5 2. 54/27 3. 52/24 4. 75.4/50.3
1. Identify a message communicated by direct cell-to-cell contact. a. What occurs during this process?
1.Immune cell (b-cell activation: b-cells bind to an infected cell). A. Immune cell (b-cell activation: b-cells bind to an infected cell)
1. If the recombination frequency is 15%, how far apart are the two genes?
15 map units
1. Describe the daughter cells resulting from mitosis.
2 diploid daughter cells, genetically same as parent and each other
1. Describe the daughter cells resulting from meiosis.
4 haploid daughter cells, genetically different from parent cell and different from each other
1. What is the expected ratio of a dihybrid cross based on Mendel's laws?
9:3:3:1
1. A new mutation that arose in one copy of gene X in a somatic cell resulted in the formation of a tumor. Which of the following pieces of evidence best describes how the new mutation directly caused the tumor? a. Protein X normally stimulates cell division, and the mutation created an overactive version of protein X. b. Protein X normally activates a growth hormone receptor, and the mutation decreased the stability of protein X. c. Protein X normally prevents passage through the cell cycle, and the mutation created an overactive version of protein X. d. Protein X normally regulates gene expression, and the mutation created an underactive version of protein X that blocked the cell cycle.
A
1. Describe the cause of a cross resulting in greater than 50% parental phenotypes and less then 50% recombinant phenotypes a. Genes are linked on the same chromosome b. Genes are located on different arms of the same chromosome c. Gene are on different chromosomes d. Gene are found in different gametes
A
Many species of bacteria grow in the mouths of animals and can form biofilms on teeth (plaque). Within plaque, the outer layers contain high levels of oxygen and the layers closest to the tooth contain low levels of oxygen. The surface of the tooth is covered in a hard layer of enamel, which can be dissolved under acidic conditions. When the enamel breaks down, the bacteria in plaque can extract nutrients from the tooth and cause cavities. Certain types of bacteria (e.g. Streptococcus mutans) thrive in the innermost anaerobic layers of the plaque and are associated with cavities. Other types of bacteria (Streptococcus sanguinis) compete with S. mutans but are unable to thrive in acidic environments. (a) Identify the biochemical pathway S. mutans uses for metabolizing sugar and describe how the pathway contributes to the low pH in the inner layers of plaque. Normal tooth brushing effectively removes much of the plaque from the flat surfaces of teeth ,but cannot reach the surfaces between teeth. Many commercial toothpastes contain alkaline components, which raise the pH of the mouth. Predict how the population sizes of S.mutans AND S.sanguinis in the bacterial community in the plaque between the teeth are likely to change when these toothpastes are used.
A. Fermentation ; Latic Acid Anaerobic respiration ; Acid Glycolysis ; Pyruvic acid/pyruvate B. S. Mutans decreases and S. Sanguinis increases
1. In the electron transport chain of cellular respiration, where is the electrochemical gradient of protons generated?
A. Glycolysis
1. Which process does NOT require oxygen?
A. Glycolysis
1. Which process releases energy in glucose to form ATP, NADH, and pyruvate?
A. Glycolysis
9. Which organelle is a membrane-bound structure that functions in correct folding/chemical modification of proteins?
A. Golgi complex
(a) Identify the pigment (chlorophyll a or bacteriorhodopsin) used to generate the absorption spectrum in each of the graphs above. Explain and justify your answer. (b) In an experiment, identical organisms containing the pigment from Graph II as the predominant light-capturing pigment are separated into three groups. The organisms in each group are illuminated with light of a single wavelength (650 nm for the first group, 550 nm for the second group, and 430 nm for the third group). The three light sources are of equal intensity, and all organisms are illuminated for equal lengths of time. Predict the relative rate of photosynthesis in each of the three groups. Justify your predictions. (c) Bacteriorhodopsin has been found in aquatic organisms whose ancestors existed before the ancestors of plants evolved in the same environment. Propose a possible evolutionary history of plants that could have resulted in a predominant photosynthetic system that uses only some of the colors of the visible light spectrum.
A. Graph 1 = bacteriorhodopsin Graph 2 = chlorophyoll a Explains that an organism containing bacteriorhodopsin appears purple because green is reflective B. 650nm intermediate rate 550nm lowest rate 430nm Highest rate C. Natural selection favored organism that absorb light and Green light is absorbed by aquatic organism who use bacteriorhodospin
1. Describes the breaking of a bond within a polymer using water. a. Hydrolysis b. Dehydration
A. Hydrolysis
(a) Describe a characteristic of the luciferase enzyme that allows it to catalyze the reaction. (b) Identify the dependent variable in the experiment. (c) State the null hypothesis for the experiment. (d) A student claims that ,as temperature increases ,there will be an increase in the amount of light given off by the reaction in the first three seconds. Support the student's claim.
A. It has an active site which binds to the substrate B. The amount of light emitted C. Temperature has no effect on the amount of light emitted D. Higher temperatures increase the frequency of collisions/interactions between molecules, resulting in an increase in reaction rate
23. Why is a eukaryotic cell able to be larger than a prokaryotic cell?
A. Membrane-bound organelles compartmentalize intracellular processes
Researchers hypothesize that the plant compound resveratrol improves mitochondrial function. To test this hypothesis, researchers dissolve resveratrol in dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO). The solution readily passes through cell membranes. They add resveratrol solution to mammalian muscle cells growing in a nutrient-rich solution (culture medium) that contains glucose. They measure ATP production at several time points after the addition of the resveratrol solution and find an increase in ATP production by the muscle cells. (a) Describe the primary advantage for a mammalian muscle cell in using aerobic respiration over fermentation. (b) Identify an appropriate negative control for this experiment that would allow the researchers to conclude that ATP is produced in response to the resveratrol treatment. (c) Predict the effect on short-term ATP production when resveratrol-treated mammalian muscle cells are grown in a culture medium that lacks glucose or other sugars. (d) The researchers find that resveratrol stimulates the production of components of the electron transport chain. The researchers claim that treatment with resveratrol will also increase oxygen consumption by the cells if glucose is not limiting. Justify this claim.
A. More ATP is produced by aerobic respiration B. Run the experiment without resveratrol or only with DMSO C. Less ATP production D. More electrons can be transferred so that more oxygen is required as the final electron acceptor
1. Identify the final electron acceptor in the following electron transport chains a. Photosynthesis b. Cellular respiration
A. NADPH B. O2
8. Describe the difference between rough ER and smooth ER.
A. Rough ER compartmentalizes cell; Smooth ER functions in detox and lipid synthesis
1. According to the data, the mice at 10°C demonstrated greater oxygen consumption per gram of tissue than did the mice at 25°C. This is most likely explained by which of the following statements?
A. The mice at 10°C had a higher rate of ATP production than the mice at 25°C.
1. Where on an enzyme does the substrate bind?
A. active site
1. What happens to an enzyme when the temperature a. Increases? b. Decreases?
A. an increase in temperature increases the reaction rate but if too high it denatures the enzyme B. a decrease slows down the enzyme
1. In order to maintain order and power cellular processes,
A. energy input must exceed energy loss
1. What is the function of the electron transport chain between Photosystem II and Photosystem I?
A. establish electrochemical gradient of protons
How is the change in free energy of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction and an uncatalyzed reaction different?
An enzyme catalyzed reaction requires less free energy
What is nondisjunction?
An error in cell division that causes homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to move to the same side of the dividing cell
1. What is an endotherm? a. How do they maintain their body temperature?
An organism that makes the temperature of the body the same. A. By converting food into energy
Check question
Aqueous; Aqueous: The normal cell membrane Nonaqueous; Aqueous: only one hydrophilic head and one hydrophobic tail Aqueous; Nonaqueous: only one hydrophilic head and one hydrophobic tail Nonaqueous; Nonaqueous: only hydrophobic tails
Identify an error in meiosis that leads to a change in phenotype.
At anaphase 1 and anaphase 2
1. Based on the data shown in Figure 1, which of the following best describes the genotypes of individual family members in the pedigree? a. All affected individuals possess at least one dominant allele of the hemoglobin beta gene. b. Healthy individuals may possess one mutant allele (HbS) of the hemoglobin beta gene. c. Individuals IV and V must be heterozygous for the HbS (mutant) allele. d. Individuals II and VI possess two copies of the HbA (wild-type) allele.
B
1. Humans have a diploid number ("2n") of 46. Which of the following statements best predicts the consequence if meiosis did not occur during gametogenesis? a. The gametes would get larger from one generation to the next. b. The chromosome number would double with each generation. c. The chromosome number would be halved with each generation. d. The chromosome number would triple with each generation.
B
1. Identify the type of inheritance of the pedigree. a. Sex-Linked b. Mitochondrial c. Autosomal d. Random
B
1. The electrophoresis results best support which of the following conclusions? a. Cell specialization during development results in some cells losing the ability to synthesize proteins. b. Cells from different tissues share a common ability to use genetic material from a foreign source to produce protein. c. In comparison with other cells, nerve cells have a superior ability to produce cytoskeletal proteins. d. Muscle cells produce more β-hemoglobin than do cells from the other tissues in a tadpole.
B
1. The endocrine system incorporates feedback mechanisms that maintain homeostasis. Which of the following demonstrates negative feedback by the endocrine system? a. During labor, the fetus exerts pressure on the uterine wall, inducing the production of oxytocin, which stimulates uterine wall contraction. The contractions cause the fetus to further push on the wall, increasing the production of oxytocin. b. After a meal, blood glucose levels become elevated, stimulating beta cells of the pancreas to release insulin into the blood. Excess glucose is then converted to glycogen in the liver, reducing blood glucose levels. c. At high elevation, atmospheric oxygen is more scarce. In response to signals that oxygen is low, the brain decreases an individual's rate of respiration to compensate for the difference. d. A transcription factor binds to the regulatory region of a gene, blocking the binding of another transcription factor required for expression.
B
1. The human TPM1 gene encodes members of the tropomyosin family of cytoskeletal proteins. Which of the following best explains how different proteins can be made in different cell types from the one TPM1 gene? a. Different introns are selectively converted to exons. b. Different exons are retained or spliced out of the primary transcript. c. The GTP cap is selectively added to and activates different exons. d. Different portions of the primary transcript remain bound to the template DNA.
B
1. The vertebrate forelimb initially develops in the embryo as a solid mass of tissue. As development progresses, the solid mass near the end of the forelimb is remodeled into individual digits. Which of the following best explains the role of apoptosis in remodeling of the forelimb? a. Apoptosis replaces old cells with new ones that are less likely to contain mutations. b. Apoptosis involves the regulated activation of proteins in specific cells of the developing forelimb that leads to the death of those cells. c. Apoptosis involves the destruction of extra cells in the developing forelimb, which provides nutrients for phagocytic cells. d. Apoptosis in the developing forelimb triggers the differentiation of cells whose fate was not already determined.
B
1. What is the sequence of nucleotides on mRNA read in triplets called? a. anticodon b. codon c. triplet box d. wobble
B
1. What phase of meiosis describes the law of segregation? a. telophase I b. anaphase I c. telophase II d. anaphase II
B
1. When does the process of independent assortment take place? a. prophase I b. metaphase I c. anaphase I d. telophase I
B
1. Which enzyme is requires RNA primers to initiate DNA synthesis? a. helicase b. DNA polymerase c. topoisomerase d. ligase
B
1. Which feedback mechanism involves homeostasis of a particular condition by regulating physiological processes? a. Positive Feedback b. Negative Feedback
B
1. Which macromolecule(s) have sulfur? a. Carbohydrates b. Proteins c. Nucleic Acids d. Fats
B
1. Which of the following demonstrates base pairing rules to 5' - CAGGT - 3' a. 3' - TGGAC - 5' b. 3' - GTCCA - 5' c. 5' - GTCCA - 3' d. 5' - CAGGT - 3'
B
1. Which of the following describes the order of the steps in mitosis? a. metaphase, telophase, anaphase, prophase b. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase c. telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase d. prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
B
1. Which of the following statements best explains why there are fewer colonies on plate IV than on plate III? a. Plate IV is the positive control. b. Not all E. coli cells are successfully transformed. c. The bacteria on plate III did not mutate. d. The plasmid inhibits E. coli growth.
B
1. Which of the following provides the best indication that light is required for the activation of electron transfer reactions in chloroplasts?
B. Comparing the observed results for sample 2 and sample 3
1. Describes the forming of a bond between monomers with the removal of a water molecule. a. Hydrolysis b. Dehydration
B. Dehydration
1. The chemical reaction for photosynthesis is 6 CO2 + 12 H2O + light energy è C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O If the input water is labeled with a radioactive isotope of oxygen, 18O, then the oxygen gas released as the reaction proceeds is also labeled with 18O. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
B. During the light reactions of photosynthesis, water is split, removing electrons and protons, and oxygen gas is released.
21. What is the difference between endocytosis and exocytosis?
B. Endocytosis involves phagocytosis or pinocytosis to bring materials in cell
1. Describe the pathway of electrons in the light reactions.
B. H2O è PSII è ETC è PSI è NADPH
Which of the following questions is most relevant to understanding the Calvin cycle?
B. How is ATP used in the formation of 3-carbon carbohydrates?
19. Identify which of the following will bind to a membrane protein (and will not enter the cell).
B. Protein Hormone
5. Paramecia are unicellular protists that have contractile vacuoles to remove excess intracellular water. In an experimental investigation, paramecia were placed in salt solutions of increasing osmolarity. The rate at which the contractile vacuole contracted to pump out excess water was determined and plotted against osmolarity of the solutions, as shown in the graph. Which of the following is the correct explanation for the data?
B. The contraction rate increases as the osmolarity decreases because the amount of water entering the paramecia by osmosis increases.
It is estimated that oxygen production first evolved in photosynthetic prokaryotes approximately 2.7 billion years ago. The first photosynthetic prokaryotes are presumed to be similar to today's cyanobacteria. Which of the following best supports the claim that photosynthetic prokaryotes were responsible for the oxygen in Earth's atmosphere?
B. The light reactions of photosynthesis split water into hydrogen ions and oxygen.
1. Which of the following scientific questions could be investigated using a similar experimental setup?
B. What wavelength of light best activates electron transfer reactions in chloroplasts?
1. Describe the difference between competitive and noncompetitive inhibitors.
B. competitive binds to active site and noncompetitive binds to other site
1. What is the process of an endergonic reaction being fueled by an exergonic reaction called?
B. energy coupling
13. Which of the following is the location for the Krebs cycle?
B. matrix
1. What is bacterial transformation? a. What is the function of bacterial transformation? b. What occurs during a bacterial transformation? c. What information can be drawn from a bacterial transformation? d. Identify an example of when a bacterial transformation should be done.
Bacterial transformation is used: To make multiple copies of DNA, called DNA cloning. To make large amounts of specific human proteins, for example, human insulin
Why do organisms require competition for limited resources to allow for natural selection?
Because if there is no competition then there is no need to be better than others
1. Why can different phenotypes result from different levels of gene expression?
Because some genes can do codominance and or incomplete dominance
1. The figure to the right depicts the DNA-protein complex that is assembled at the transcriptional start site of gene X when the expression of gene X is activated in liver cells. Previous studies have shown that gene X is never expressed in nerve cells. Based on the diagram, which of the following most likely contributes to the specific expression pattern of gene X? a. Expression of gene X produces large amounts of tRNA but undetectable amounts of mRNA. b. The general transcription factors inhibit the activation of gene X in liver cells by blocking the activator from binding to RNA polymerase II. c. The activator is a sequence-specific DNA-binding protein that is present in some tissues but not in other tissues. d. The enhancer is a unique DNA segment that is added to the nuclear DNA of some cells of an organism during the process of mitotic cell division but not other cells.
C
1. What component of the polypeptide is the next amino acid added forming the peptide bond? a. amino group b. hydrogen c. carboxyl group d. R group
C
1. Where does translation take place in prokaryotes & eukaryotes? a. Prokaryotes - cytosol; Eukaryotes - cytosol or nucleus b. Prokaryotes - cytosol or rough ER; Eukaryotes - cytosol c. Prokaryotes - cytosol; Eukaryotes - cytosol or rough ER d. Prokaryotes - cytosol or nucleus; Eukaryotes - cytosol
C
1. Which enzyme is responsible for relaxing supercoiling in front of the replication fork? a. helicase b. DNA polymerase c. topoisomerase d. ligase
C
1. Which of the following conclusions is most consistent with the results of the experiment? a. Rabbit mRNA is composed of nucleotides that are absent from frog mRNA. b. A larger volume of blood circulates through a rabbit than through a frog. c. The subunits of hemoglobin differ in size, shape, or charge. d. Synthesis of β-hemoglobin occurs at a faster rate in muscle cells than in other body cells.
C
1. Which of the following describes epigenetic changes that affect gene expression? a. alternative RNA splicing b. post-transcriptional modification c. DNA methylation or histone acetylation d. operon inhibition
C
1. Which of the following genetic engineering techniques is incorrectly described? a. Electrophoresis separates molecules based on size & charge b. Bacterial transformation introduces DNA to bacterial cells c. PCR allows for DNA fragments to be stabilized for engineering processes d. DNA sequencing determines the order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule
C
1. Which protein involves R group bonding to form the final three-dimensional structure? a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary
C
1. Why is water considered polar? a. Nonpolar covalent bonds in structure b. Ionic bonds in structure c. Polar covalent bonds in structure d. Hydrophobic interaction in structure
C
Scientists examined the folded structure of a purified protein resuspended in water and found that amino acids with nonpolar R groups were primarily buried in the middle of the protein, whereas amino acids with polar R groups were primarily on the surface of the protein. Which of the following best explains the location of the amino acids in the folded protein? a. Polar R groups on the surface of the protein can form ionic bonds with the charged ends of the water molecules. b. Polar R groups are too bulky to fit in the middle of the protein and are pushed toward the protein's surface. c. Nonpolar R groups that cannot form hydrogen bonds with water are pushed into the middle of the protein. d. Nonpolar R groups from different parts of the protein form covalent bonds with each other to maintain the protein's structure.
C
22. Which of the following correctly describe the movement of water?
C. Cell with 1.0M concentration will gain water from the 0.5M exterior solution
17. Describe the characteristics of a membrane-bound protein.
C. Hydrophilic R group exterior cell & hydrophobic R group interior membrane
3. If ATP breakdown (hydrolysis) is inhibited, which of the following types of movement across cell membranes is also inhibited?
C. Passage of a solute against its concentration gradient
18. Identify which of the following will easily pass through the membrane.
C. Steroid Hormone
1. Where does the Calvin cycle take place?
C. Stroma
1. If an additional sample containing the chloroplast/DCPIP solution was placed at a distance of 90 cm from the lamp, which of the following predictions would be most consistent with the experimental results?
C. The change in absorbance over time in the solution will be less than that of the other samples.
7. A student used a microscope to observe a wet-mount slide of red onion epidermal cells that were suspended in a 1% NaCl solution. The student then added a 15% NaCL solution to the slide and observed the changes that occurred. The student's observations are represented in Figure 1. Which of the following most directly explains the changes in the cells?
C. The movement of water from the central vacuoles of the cells into the solution
2. a pathogenic bacterium has been engulfed by a phagocytic cell as part of the nonspecific (innate) immune response. Which of the following illustrations best represents the response?
C. lysosome attach to bacteria
Additional observations were made on day 21, and no yellow-leaved seedlings were found alive in either dish. This is most likely because
C. yellow-leaved seedlings were unable to convert light energy to chemical energy
What are the complementary base pairings found in nucleic acids? a. Identify the number of hydrogen bonds found between these two nitrogenous bases.
CG AU AT 3 hydrogen bonds at CG 2 hydrogen bonds at AU AT
What are the elements found in a lipid?
CHO (carbon, hydrogen, oxygen)
What are the elements found in nucleic acids?
CHONP
1. Describe the difference between the synthesis of the leading and lagging strands. a. directionality: leading = 3' -> 5', lagging = 5' -> 3' b. synthesis continuity: leading = discontinuous & lagging = continuous c. directionality: leading = 5' -> 3', lagging = 3' -> 5' d. synthesis continuity: leading = continuous & lagging = discontinuous
D
1. How is DNA/RNA synthesis directionally oriented? a. new nucleotides are added to 5' phosphate b. new nucleotides are added to 3' phosphate c. new nucleotides are added to 5' hydroxyl d. new nucleotides are added to 3' hydroxyl
D
1. Identify which of the following best describes purines and pyrimidines. a. Purines (C, T, & U) have single ring, Pyrimidines (A & G) have double ring b. Purines (C, T, & U) have double ring, Pyrimidines (A & G) have single ring c. Purines (A & G) have single ring, Pyrimidines (C, T, & U) have double ring d. Purines (A & G) have double ring, Pyrimidines (C, T, & U) have single ring
D
1. Rosalind Franklin's x-ray diffraction images taken in the 1950s most directly support which of the following claims about DNA? a. The ratios of base pairs are constant. b. The nucleotide sequence determines genetic information. c. The two strands of DNA are antiparallel. d. The basic molecular structure is a helix.
D
1. The HbS allele, which causes sickle-cell disease, results from a mutation in the DNA sequence shown in Figure 2 that produces a valine (val) in the place of a glutamic acid (glu) residue in the hemoglobin protein. Which of the following mRNA sequences is derived from the HbS allele? a. 5' GAC TGA GGA CTC CTC TTC AGA 3' b. 5' UCU GAA GAG GAA UCC UCA GUC 3' c. 5' AGA CTT CTC CTC AGG AGT CAG 3' d. 5' CUG ACU CCU GUG GAG AAG UCU 3'
D
1. The figure below shows a model of a ligand precursor being cleaved to produce an active ligand that binds to a specific receptor. Which of the following is most likely to reduce the binding of the active ligand to its receptor? a. A change in the cytoskeletal attachment of transmembrane proteins b. The presence of a large amount of the precursor form of the ligand c. An increase in the ratio of the number of unsaturated to the number of saturated fatty acid tails of the membrane lipids d. A mutation in the receptor gene that causes a substitution of a charged amino acid for a nonpolar amino acid in the ligand binding site of the receptor
D
1. The figure below shows several steps in the process of bacteriophage transduction in bacteria. Which of the following explains how genetic variation in a population of bacteria results from this process? a. Bacterial proteins transferred from the donor bacterium by the phage to the recipient bacterium recombine with genes on the recipient's chromosome. b. The recipient bacterium incorporates the transduced genetic material coding for phage proteins into its chromosome and synthesizes the corresponding proteins. c. The phage infection of the recipient bacterium and the introduction of DNA carried by the phage cause increased random point mutations of the bacterial chromosome. d. DNA of the recipient bacterial chromosome undergoes recombination with DNA introduced by the phage from the donor bacterium, leading to a change in the recipient's genotype.
D
1. The observation that the rabbit mRNA was successfully translated in the frog tissues supports which of the following conclusions? a. Frog cells are able to replace their own hemoglobin with rabbit hemoglobin. b. Undeveloped frog eggs can be induced to form genetically identical copies of a rabbit. c. Rabbit hemoglobin can induce an immune response in frogs. d. Rabbits and frogs share a common genetic code for expressing heritable information.
D
1. Transduction step traditionally amplifies the signal, which of the following are NOT involved with transduction? a. secondary messengers b. protein modification c. phosphorylation cascade d. ligands
D
1. Which checkpoint is responsible for ensuring nondisjunction does not take place? a. G1 checkpoint b. S checkpoint c. G2 checkpoint d. M checkpoint
D
1. Which enzyme is responsible for joining the fragments on the lagging strand? a. helicase b. DNA polymerase c. topoisomerase d. ligase
D
1. Which macromolecule(s) have nitrogen? a. Carbohydrates b. Proteins c. Nucleic Acids d. Nucleic Acids & Proteins
D
1. Which of the following are NOT post-transcriptional modifications? a. 5' cap b. intron removal c. poly-A tail d. TATA box
D
1. Which of the following best describes the inheritance pattern of the shown pedigree? a. Autosomal Dominant b. Sex-Linked Dominant c. Autosomal Recessive d. Sex-Linked Recessive
D
1. Which of the following best supports the hypothesis that the difference in leaf color is genetically controlled? a. The number of yellow-leaved seedlings in dish A on day 7 b. The number of germinated seeds in dish A on days 7 and 14 c. The death of all the yellow-leaved seedlings d. The existence of yellow-leaved seedlings as well as green-leaved ones on day 14 in dish B
D
1. Which of the following does NOT increase variation in gamete formation? a. crossing over b. fertilization of gametes c. random assortment of chromosomes d. condensation of chromatin
D
1. Which of the following does not result from hydrogen bonding in water molecules? a. Cohesion b. Adhesion c. Surface Tension d. Dissolving fats
D
1. Which of the following is NOT a response by the cell from a signal transduction pathway? a. cell growth b. gene expression c. secretion of molecules d. all of the above are responses
D
What is the structure of the vacuole?
Fluid filled membrane sac. In a plant the membrane is called the tonoplast.
What direction do the protons get pumped to generate the proton gradient in cellular respiration?
From the matrix to the intermembrane space
What direction are the protons pumped during the light dependent reactions to generate the proton gradient?
From the stroma into the thylakoid interior
1. Identify two examples of natural selection acting on phenotypes.
Fur color and tail size
Describe the structure of a steroid.
Fused ring structure. Four linked carbon rings
1. What are the phases of interphase? a. What occurs in each of these phases?
G 1 - GrowthS - DNA is copiedG 2 - Growth; cell makes the molecules and organelles needed for cell division
1. What occurs at the G2 checkpoint?
G 2 checkpoint checks for damage after DNA is replicatedIf there is damage, it prevents the cell from going into mitosis.
What occurs with a G-protein coupled receptor after binding to a ligand?
G protein binds GTP (similar to ATP)
1. What is glycolysis? a. What are the starting materials? b. What are the products? c. Where does it take place in the cell?
Glycolysis is the oxidation (loss of electrons) of glucose to pyruvate. A. A molecule of Glucose B. 2 pyruvate 2 NADH 4 ATP C. Cytosol
What type of bond is found in carbohydrates? a. Specifically, where is this bond located?
Glyosidic bonds (Covalent) and they are found in between monosaccharides to form polysaccharide chains
Describe the process of active transport.
Going from a low concentration to a high concentration with the use of ATP
How does the structure of the rough ER aid in the function?
Has many ribosomes which helps with the production and dispatch of proteins
How does natural selection lead to evolution?
Helpful variations accumulate among surviving members of the species.
What is the function of glycoproteins in the plasma membrane?
Helps with cell recognition
How did hydrogen bonding allow for each property?
High heat capacity: When heat is absorbed, hydrogen bonds are broken and water molecules can move freely. Cohesion: holds hydrogen bonds together to create surface tension on water. Adhesion: hydrogen bonds attach to other objects
How does the membrane of organelles allow for specific processes to take place? a. Identify two examples of processes that could not take place without the use of a membrane.
It allows for membrane potentials to exist. An example of this is the ETC in cellular respiration and the ETC is photosynthesis
How does the lysosome aid in recycling the cell's organic materials?
It breaks down macromolecules into there Monomers to make a new macromolecule
How does a change in structure affect the function of an enzyme?
It can denature or possibly not allow the reaction to catalyze
Describe how a nonpolar to polar R group substitution changes the structure and function of a protein.
It changes the properties from hydrophobic to hydrophilic and it changes the tertiary structure and changes the function
How does the endoplasmic reticulum aid in intracellular transport?
It creates transport vacuoles which will send the protein or lipid where it needs to go
How is the thylakoid membrane organized to aid in energy capture?
It helps create the proton gradient using hydrogen atoms and create ATP
How does the structure of the chloroplast aid in the function?
It helps use sunlight and water to create glucose and release carbon dioxide
What is the function of glycolipids in the plasma membrane?
It helps with the signal transduction pathway
What is the structure and function of the lysosome?
It is an acidic environment and it breaks down macromolecules and it has a proton pump
What is the structure and function of the mitochondria? (Note: Mitochondria is the "powerhouse of the cell" is not an appropriate response on the AP exam)
It makes ATP and it is a membrane bound organelle with folding for more metabolism
How does the endoplasmic reticulum aid in protein synthesis?
It rough ER has ribosomes which creates proteins
How does the endoplasmic reticulum provide mechanical support?
It stabilizes the cytoplasmic matrix
How does the structure of the ribosome aid in the function?
It tells what protein the ribosome should make
Which direction would water flow if one solution A is 0.5 M and solution B is 0.2 M?
It would move from B to A
1. How is genetic information transmitted from one generation to the next?
It's passed from parent to offspring is contained in genes carried by chromosomes in the nucleus. Sexual reproduction produces offspring that resemble their parents, but are not identical to them. Asexual reproduction produces offspring - clones - which are genetically identical to their parents.
What types of materials require a vesicle for export or a food vacuole for import? a. Identify two examples. b. Why does this type of material require bulk transport?
Large particles for example a neurotransmitters and macrophages. This material requires bulk transport because they are too large
How does the enzyme complete this function?
Lower the activation energy so that the reactants can absorb enough energy to reach the transition state
1. Identify three differences between mitosis and meiosis.
MITOSISDiploid (2n) parent cell produces TWO genetically identical DIPLOID (2n) daughter cellsProduces body (somatic) cellsAll kinds of body cells can do thisNO genetic recombination, crossing over, segregation, or independent assortmentMEIOSISDiploid (2n) parent cell produces FOUR genetically different HAPLOID (1n) daughter cellsMakes gametes (sperm & eggs)Only ovary & testes cells can do thisGenetic recombination; crossing over; segregation, independent assortment happen
What is homeostasis?
Maintaining a stable internal environment
What occurs at the G1 checkpoint?
Makes sure that the growth happened correctly
How is a concentration gradient maintained?
Many molecules entering cells then pass into organelles and are used for metabolic reactions; this maintains the concentration gradient and keeps more of the molecules entering the cell.
1. When there is a decrease in genetic variation, how does the population compare to other populations of the same species?
May be wiped out more easily, and the individuals of the one population would be much more similar to one another than the other population
How does the mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA all interact?
Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries the genetic information copied from DNA to the cytoplasm Transfer RNA (tRNA) is the key to deciphering the codons in mRNA. Each type of amino acid has its own type of tRNA, which binds it and carries it to the growing end of a polypeptide chain. The correct tRNA with its attached amino acid is selected at each step because each specific tRNA molecule contains a three-base sequence (anticodon) that can base-pair with its complementary codon in the mRNA. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) associates with a set of proteins to form ribosomes. These complex structures, which physically move along an mRNA molecule, catalyze the assembly of amino acids into protein chains. They also bind tRNAs and various accessory molecules necessary for protein synthesis. Ribosomes are composed of a large and small subunit, each of which contains its own rRNA molecule or molecules.
How is DNA modified to inhibit transcription (to regulate gene expression)?
Methylation will bind to DNA and repress expression
1. How does mathematical data support evolution? a. Provide one example of mathematical data.
Migration rate helps show correlations between survival and evolution
Where does the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle) in cellular respiration take place?
Mitochondrial Matrix
1. What process allows for the passage of the M checkpoint?
Mitotic spindle microtubules are properly attached to the kinetochores of all chromosomes
1. What is independent assortment?
Mixing up maternal and paternal chromosomes in different combinations when homologous chromosomes separate in Anaphase I
What is the monomer of a carbohydrate? Identify the components of the monomer.
Monosaccharide which is made of CHO
How does the proton concentration affect the pH of the area?
More H+ ions, more acidic pH
How is NADPH synthesized in the light-dependent reactions?
NADP+ carries two electrons and a H+ which makes NADPH
How does reproductive success lead to natural selection?
Natural selection is a non-random difference in reproductive output among replicating entities, often due indirectly to differences in survival in a particular environment,
What is the monomer of a nucleic acid? Identify the components of the monomer.
Nucleotides and it is made of a Phosphate, Pentose sugar, and Nitrogenous base.
How is order (entropy) maintained in a system?
Organisms create ordered structures from less organized starting materials. As open systems, organisms can increase their order as long as the order of their surroundings decreases, with an overall increase in entropy in the universe.
Describe why water is considered a polar molecule?
Oxygen and hydrogen share atoms unequally, oxygen usually has the atoms which means it has a slight negative charge while hydrogen gets a slight positive charge
Describe the process of passive transport.
Passing through a membrane without the use of energy
What is the function of RNA primers and primase?
Primers are short strands of RNA and must be created (synthesized) by the enzyme primase. Primase is an RNA polymerase. The primers serve as a starting point for DNA synthesis to occur.
Identify two differences between the electron transport chain in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Prokaryotes- ETC in plasma membrane Creates gradient by pumping H+ ions out of cell. Eukaryotes- ETC in cristae membrane Creates gradient by pumping H+ ions into intermembrane space
What are the phases of meiosis I?
Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I, Telophase I
What are the phases of meiosis II?
Prophase II, Metaphase II, Anaphase II, Telophase II
1. What are the phases of mitosis? a. Describe each phase.
Prophase- Chromatin condenses into chromosomes Nuclear membrane disappears Mitotic spindle/centrosomes appear and attach to chromosomesMetaphase- Homologous chromosomes line up independently in middle of cellAnaphase- Chromatid copies separate and chromosomes move to opposite poles of cellTelophase- Chromosomes spread out as chromatin Nuclear membrane reforms Mitotic spindle/centrosomes disappear
Identify the phase of mitosis that ensure identical genetic information is transferred? a. How does this process ensure that identical genetic information is transferred?
Prophase--> If a cell divides without condensing and organizing its DNA, it's likely that each daughter cells will not receive identical copies of DNA
How does the lysosome aid in apoptosis (programmed cell death)?
Proteases are released in the cytosol and contribute to apoptosis
DNA and proteins can be used as evidence of evolution. Which is more accurate to determine most recent common ancestor? DNA or PROTEINS
Proteins
1. What is the structure of a purine? a. Which of the nitrogenous bases are purines?
Purines have a double ringed aromatic structure. Adenine and guanine are examples of purines.
1. What is the structure of a pyrimidine? a. Which of the nitrogenous bases are pyrimidines?
Pyrimidines have a single ringed structure. Cytosine, thymine and uracil are examples of pyrimidine.
How does the R group affect the folding of the protein? (include polar and nonpolar R groups)
R group, or side chain, gives each amino acid proteins specific characteristics, including size, polarity, and pH.
1. What is mrRNA?
RNA Interference molecule that targets specific mRNAs
1. Which direction does transcription take place (which direction is the RNA synthesized)? a. Which direction is the template strand READ?
RNA polymerase synthesizes an RNA strand complementary to a template DNA strand. It synthesizes the RNA strand in the 5' to 3'direction
What occurs with a tyrosine kinase receptor after binding to a ligand?
RTK's bind to each other to form a dimer. Once dimerization occurs, they work to phosphorylate downstream members of the signaling cascade
1. What is DNA sequencing? a. What is the function of DNA sequencing? b. What occurs during the process of DNA sequencing? c. What information can be drawn from DNA sequencing? d. Identify an example of when DNA sequencing should be done.
Sequencing DNA means determining the order of the four chemical building blocks - called "bases" - that make up the DNA molecule. The sequence tells scientists the kind of genetic information that is carried in a particular DNA segment. For example, scientists can use sequence information to determine which stretches of DNA contain genes and which stretches carry regulatory instructions, turning genes on or off. In addition, and importantly, sequence data can highlight changes in a gene that may cause disease.
1. How does physical data support evolution? a. Provide one example of physical data.
Shared features demonstrate a common ancestor Ex: the forelimbs of whales, humans, birds, and dogs
1. How does geographical data support evolution? a. Provide one example geographical data.
Shows changes in the same species based on location. Ex: Darwin's finches
1. How does fertilization lead to genetic variation?
Shuffling of genes
How does structural evidence support relatedness of organisms?
Similarities may indicate relatedness, but not always
Identify two examples of passive transport.
Simple diffusion- movement of oxygen from alveoli into blood stream. Facilitated diffusion - movement of glucose across a cell membrane via a carrier protein. Osmosis- movement of water across a cell membrane with the help of aquaporins
Why are RNA primers required for DNA replication?
Since DNA polymerase can only attach new DNA nucleotides to existing strands of nucleotides the primers serve as a foundation for DNA synthesis.
How does an inhibitor affect the reaction rate?
Slow down or even stop the catalyst.
How does a biotic environment affect the rate of evolution?
Slower rate
1. What is siRNA?
Small interfering RNA. They block expression of a gene with the same sequence as the RNA
1. What are cyclins? What are CdKs? a. How do these two interact to allow passage of the G2 checkpoint?
Small regulatory proteins that work by activating CdK's; Cyclin-dependent Kinases are a family of proteins that regulate passage through the cell cycle by phosphorylating other molecules. ; Levels of CdK's are constant throughout the cell cycle. Levels of cyclins change.As cyclinsincrease they bind and activate CdK's which allow the cell to proceed from G 2 into mitosis.
Identify two examples of active transport.
Sodium-Potassium pump- Uses energy from ATP to move 3 Na+ ions out of cell and 2 K+ ions into cell Used to create membrane potential in animal cells Endo/Exocytosis- Uses energy and membrane vesicles to transport molecules across cell membranes
Describe the process of exocytosis.
Some substances produced by the cell need to be released from the cell. Vesicles containing the substances fuse with the cell membrane and release their contents outside the cell. Uses ATP for energy
1. What are the three types of selection? a. Identify an example of each of type of selection.
Stabilizing selection: the coats of a species of mice in a forest will all be the best color to act as camouflage in their environment Directional selection: fossil records that show that the size of the black bears in Europe decreased during interglacial periods of the ice ages, but increased during each glacial period Disruptive selection: rabbits preferably have either black and white fur genes, rather than a medium
What is the function of the central vacuole?
Storing compounds produced by the cell
What is the pathway of electrons through the process of cellular respiration? (where do the electrons start, what carries the electrons, where do the electrons end)
The electrons come from food and other fuels and then it is carried by NADH and FADH2 and finally O2 accepts the electrons which are used to power the ETC
Describe the structure of the nucleic acid polymer. a. What are the ends called and what is found at each end? b. Which end is the location of the growing nucleic acid strand?
The ends are the 3' and the 5' the growing strand is the 3' and the carboxyl group is the 5' and the hydroxyl is the 3'
What is water potential? How does it explain the direction of water movement?
The energy required to move a certain amount of water. Water moves where there is more water potential
How does a change in temperature affect the molecules in the reaction?
Temperature makes the molecules move faster, increasing the rate of reaction or can slow them down decreasing the rate of reaction
What is the relationship between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle?
The ATP and NADPH produced from the light reactions will provide energy for the Calvin cycle.
How does the structure of the Golgi aid in the function?
The Golgi allows the the modified the proteins or lipids and transfers to the cell membrane
What is the structure and function of the Golgi?
The Golgi apparatus is a central intracellular membrane-bound organelle. Its key function is to traffic, process, and sort newly synthesized membrane and secretory proteins and lipids. Note: any of the names (Golgi Bodies/Apparatus/Complex) could appear on the exam so be knowledgeable about the different ways you might see this structure
Using the properties of water, describe how water can move up a capillary tube to move from the roots to the leaves in a plant.
The adhesive forces and cohesive forces move the water up the root by the forming and breaking of hydrogen bonds.
1. What does it mean if the allele frequency changes from one generation to the next?
The allele either helped or harmed survival
What is the electron transport chain?
The electron transport chain is a series of four protein complexes create an electrochemical gradient that leads to the creation of ATP in a complete system named oxidative phosphorylation.
1. Describe the process of DNA replication using the enzymes described above (helicase, topoisomerase, DNA polymerase, primase, RNA primers, and DNA ligase)
The helicase unwinds the two strands of DNA at the replication fork. The topoisomerase helps by releasing the strain that this untwisting produces further in the strand. The primase adds a small section of RNA complementary nucleotides to the base strand, called the RNA primer, allowing the DNA polymerase to build off of it by adding complementary base nucleotides in the 5' to 3' direction. If it's the leading strand the nucleotides are added the same direction as the helicase is unwinding, but on the lagging strand, since the polymerase can only add in the 5' to 3' direction, it works away from the helicase so it has to have several primers that it works off of doing a section and then jumping backwards to synthesize the next section. This creates Okazaki fragments which are joined together by the DNA Ligase.
1. How do selective pressures result in similar phenotypic adaptations?
The organisms adapt to the same pressure
How does the polarity of the membrane protein affect its orientation in the membrane?
The polar heads are going to face the water all the time
What is the function of the poly-A tail?
The poly A tail increases mRNA stability in eukaryotes.
1. How is the amount of DNA different between a prokaryote and a eukaryote?
The prokaryotic cells have no nucleus, no organelles and a very small amount of DNA. On the other hand, the eukaryotic cells have nuclei and cell organelles, and the amount of DNA present is large.
How is the reaction rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction and an uncatalyzed reaction different?
The reaction rate is quicker of an enzyme catalyzed reaction
What is a competitive inhibitor?
The same shape as a substrate and binds before the real substrate can (Its a competition)
How does artificial selection modify the variation in a species?
The scientists will breed the organisms to increase diversity in that they breed organisms with differing genes which would be passed on to the offspring and so forth
1. How does the founder's effect modify genetic makeup of a population?
The species adapts to the new environment
Where does the energy that fuels photosynthesis come from?
The sun
