AP Government Fall Final

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In cooperative federalism, in order to qualify for federal grant money, cities and states must A) match federal funding dollar for dollar. B) propose standard operating procedures. C) allow federal agencies to administer the funds. D) follow federal guidelines for adopting and enforcing federal laws. E) all of the above

In dealing with First Amendment cases involving religion, the Supreme Court has ruled that A) the Constitution does not protect anti-religious beliefs and practices. B) such questions should be resolved at the state and local levels of government. C) while all religious beliefs are constitutionally protected, all religious practices are not. D) government must not interfere with any expression of religious faith. E) none of the above.

In deciding to incorporate parts of the Bill of Rights into state laws since 1925, the Supreme Court has relied on the due process clause of the A) First Amendment. B) Twenty-sixth Amendment. C) Fourteenth Amendment. D) Fifth Amendment. E) Eighteenth Amendment.

In determining congressional representation and taxation, the Constitution A) counted slaves as three-fifths of a person. B) did not count slaves. C) counted slaves the same as free persons. D) was silent on the issue of how slaves would be counted, instead leaving the issue to each state to decide. E) counted slaves as one-half of a person.

In determining the power of Congress to regulate commerce in the case of Gibbons v. Ogden (1824), the Supreme Court A) prohibited Congress from regulating business activity on the grounds it violated private property rights. B) listed the implied powers of Congress and the national government. C) defined commerce very narrowly in considering the right of Congress to regulate it. D) listed the enumerated powers of Congress and the national government. E) defined commerce very broadly, encompassing virtually every form of commercial activity.

In dual federalism, A) the state governments assume greater fiscal responsibility. B) there are only two branches of government. C) the federal government assumes greater fiscal responsibility. D) powers are shared between states and the federal government. E) states and the national government each remain supreme within their own spheres.

In evaluating American democracy, hyperpluralists A) claim that competing groups vying for power make for generally efficient, honest government. B) claim that society is governed solely by an upper-class elite. C) claim that too many influential groups cripple governmentʹs ability to govern. D) believe that the public interest is nearly always translated into public policy in the United States. E) none of the above

In free exercise cases, the Supreme Court A) allows the government to interfere with religious practices as long as it is not specifically aimed at religion. B) permits the government to interfere with religious practices. C) prohibits prayer in public schools but permits government aid to religious schools. D) prohibits the government from interfering with religious practices. E) never allows the government to interfere with religious practices.

In its McCulloch v. Maryland decision, the Supreme Court ruled in favor of A) judicial restraint. B) judicial review. C) the supremacy of the national government over the states. D) the supremacy of the states over the national government. E) Maryland in a dispute with the national government.

In its Near v. Minnesota decision of 1931, the Supreme Court ruled that A) the state government could not use prior restraint to shut down an outspoken newspaper. B) a school newspaper was not a public forum and could be regulated "in any reasonable manner" by school officials. C) states had the power to use prior restraint broadly, but the national government did not. D) a CIA agent could not publish a personal memoir without clearing it through the agency. E) states were prohibited from publishing newspapers because that amounted to government censorship of the press and constituted the establishment of a government monopoly.

In order to put the national economy on sound footing, the Constitution obligated the new government to ________ all the government debts incurred under the Continental Congress. A) forgive B) renegotiate at lower interest rates C) renegotiate at higher interest rates D) repay E) negate

In our federal system, the powers of the state governments are ultimately granted by A) their stateʹs Supreme Court. B) the people of their state. C) their state legislature. D) the United States Constitution. E) the United States government.

In post-Revolutionary America, state governors were often selected by A) judges. B) the president. C) heredity. D) the people directly. E) state legislatures.

In recent years, the Supreme Court has A) increased protection of women's physical access to abortion clinics. B) restricted women's physical access to abortion clinics. C) permitted states to close down increasing numbers of abortion clinics. D) prohibited demonstrations within sight of abortion clinics. E) done nothing to protect women's physical access to abortion clinics despite the calls of many women's groups.

In regard to the free exercise clause, the Supreme Court has made each of the following rulings EXCEPT A) polygamy may be justified for Mormons on religious grounds. B) the Air Force can enforce its dress code even against religiously based dress choices. C) Amish parents may take their children out of school after the eighth grade. D) people could become conscientious objectors to war on religious grounds. E) public schools cannot require Jehovah's Witnesses to attend flag saluting ceremonies

10) An entitlement program is one A) to which only a small group of people are entitled. B) which requires a means test to qualify. C) guaranteed in the Constitution. D) which provides benefits regardless of financial need. E) none of the above

10) The Republican party is more concerned than the Democrats about A) crime and health problems that are linked to unemployment. B) high interest rates. C) inflation than unemployment. D) staving off a recession. E) raising the consumer price index.

In response to complaints from state and local governments about the paperwork and requirements attached to most grants, Congress has established ________ to support programs in areas like community development and social services. A) formula grants B) block grants C) project grants D) categorical grants E) computerized grant applications

32) The enforcement of the Clean Air Act and other anti-pollution legislation is administered by what regulatory body? A) Department of Interior B) Environmental Protection Agency C) Department of Justice D) Occupational Safety and Health Administration E) Federal Pollution Board

33) According to monetarists, making too much money available to borrow may lead to A) widespread bankruptcies. B) economic belt-tightening. C) inflation. D) recession. E) too little credit.

33) The ________ of poverty refers to the increased concentration of poverty among women. A) feminization B) gender-enhancement C) female-orientation D) ʺpinkʺening E) sexualization

40) Governmentʹs main tools for influencing the distribution of income and wealth are A) equal opportunity and affirmative action programs. B) income taxation and expenditure policies. C) extending eligibility for welfare and Medicare benefits. D) legislating and enforcing economic policies. E) monetary policy and wage and price controls.

40) Half of the designated wilderness area in the United States is located in A) Alaska. B) New England. C) Texas. D) California. E) the Rocky Mountains.

40) The most important political action in setting monetary policy is A) Congress. B) secretary of the treasury. C) the president. D) the Federal Reserve. E) International Monetary Fund.

41) An important tool in fiscal policy is the A) control of interest rates. B) level of government spending as indicated in the budget. C) use of price supports. D) amount of money banks must keep on deposit. E) all of the above

41) If the government takes a bigger bite from the income of a rich family than from the income of a poor family, then the tax system is A) progressive. B) proportional. C) regressive. D) redistributive. E) retrogressive.

41) Perhaps the most consistently successful environmental campaigns in the post-war era have been those aimed at A) air pollution. B) wilderness preservation. C) water pollution. D) energy conservation. E) toxic waste cleanup.

42) If one person earns twice as much as another, but each pays 15 percent of their income in taxes, then the tax system is A) progressive. B) proportional. C) regressive. D) redistributive. E) egalitarian.

42) Taxing, spending, and borrowing policies of the federal government are called A) fiscal policy. B) tax expenditure policy. C) apportionment policy. D) supply-side economics. E) monetarism.

42) The Endangered Species Act of 1973, as originally passed, required that the government A) choose which species were significant enough to protect from extinction, while others would be allowed to die off. B) merely acknowledge that some species were likely to go extinct. C) actively protect each of the hundreds of species listed as endangered, regardless of the economic effect on the surrounding region. D) actively protect each of the hundreds of species listed as endangered unless that protection would cause severe economic harm to the local region. E) none of the above

43) Keynesian economic theory argues for A) the government keeping its hands off the economy. B) stimulating the economy through manipulating the nationʹs money supply. C) stimulating the economy through massive tax cuts and reducing the size of the national government. D) stimulating the economy through government spending programs. E) government wage and price controls to control inflation.

43) The Superfund is paid for by A) a voluntary check-off system on federal income tax forms. B) taxes on chemical products. C) a special tax on automobiles, trucks, snowmobiles, and motorized farm vehicles. D) the federal gasoline tax. E) aviation fuel taxes.

44) The poor are disadvantaged by regressive taxation, which A) does not occur in the United States. B) occurs in states with a sales tax. C) results from low welfare payments. D) results from the federal income tax. E) requires income withholding even though the wage earner will owe little or no tax in the end.

A tuition difference between in-state and out-of-state students is an example of A) dual federalism. B) federal exceptions to the full faith and credit provision. C) full faith and credit being extended to all students. D) how states make exceptions to the privileges and immunities clause. E) project grants to the states.

A unitary system is a way of organizing government so that A) power is concentrated in state and local governments. B) national and state governments have separate powers over different areas and people. C) power is concentrated in a central government. D) both national and state levels of government have authority over the same land and people. E) every single government is independent of the others and possesses its own specialized power and authority.

About ________ of the funds state and local governments spend comes from the federal government. A) 33 percent B) 25 percent C) 50 percent D) 75 percent E) 90 percent

Abraham Lincoln announced in his 1861 inaugural address that he would willingly support a constitutional amendment to A) prohibit states from seceding from the Union. B) return the United States to a confederation, with greater powers given to the states. C) establish the United States as a unitary system, where states would have to obey all national government decisions. D) outlaw slavery. E) guarantee slavery.

According to Frederick Jackson Turner, the existence of the frontier in American history most directly resulted in A) the abolition of slavery. B) a strong preference for limited government. C) the environmental movement. D) the space program. E) the civil rights movement.

According to G.K. Chesterston, the United States is the only country in the world that is founded on A) heredity. B) a creed. C) isolationism. D) civic virtue. E) religious principles.

According to James Madison and many of the delegates at the Constitutional Convention, what is the primary source of political conflict? A) ignorance B) stupidity C) emotions D) religious beliefs E) unequal distribution of wealth

According to Thomas Jefferson, which of the following is an inalienable right? A) Liberty B) Taxes C) Justice D) Jurisprudence E) Incontinence

According to the Constitution and the Bill of Rights, how many members should there be on a jury? A) a minimum of six B) a minimum of twelve C) between six and twelve D) a maximum of twelve E) no specifications are made as to jury size

According to the Constitution, each state was entitled to how many senators? A) as many as it wanted to send B) none C) one D) It depended on the stateʹs population. E) two

According to the text, the diversity of political interests in America is resulting in A) a decrease in political participation. B) policy gridlock. C) the breakdown of the educational system. D) an increase in political participation. E) a cultural renaissance.

Advertising is considered a form of ________, and, according to the decisions of the Supreme Court, is subject to greater restrictions on free speech than religious or political speech . A) symbolic speech B) paid speech C) imaged expression D) propaganda E) commercial speech

After Brown v. Board of Education (1954), school integration in the South A) was unaffected by the decision. B) ended abruptly. C) was completed within three years. D) never changed. E) proceeded very slowly.

Civil liberties A) reflect the wishes of the majority. B) never conflict with each other. C) make government less democratic. D) limit what the majority can ask the government to do. E) were established in the 1960s.

Civil liberties are A) freedoms that are not specified in the Constitution or in statutory laws, but make up the Unwritten Constitution. B) the rights to vote and participate in the political process in a democracy. C) laws that provide and set limits on oneʹs freedoms. D) citizensʹ rights to equal treatment under the law. E) individual legal and constitutional protections against the government.

Civil liberties consist of A) legal and constitutional protections against the government. B) the right to be treated equally under the law. C) the cumulative decisions of the Supreme Court. D) the right of citizens to sue government.

Civil liberties relating to defendants' rights have often been used to A) break up factions. B) enhance the power of the courts C) enhance diversity. D) protect individual rights. E) gain a plea bargain.

Civil rights A) is the other term for civil liberties. B) are policies that extend basic rights to groups historically subject to discrimination. C) involve the principles of criminal justice. D) consist of legal and constitutional protections against the government. E) can be divided into the great political freedoms and protections at the bar of justice.

Classifications based on gender have been ruled to be ________ by the decisions of the Court in the past several years. A) reasonable B) strictly unconstitutional C) sexist D) inherently suspect E) somewhere between inherently suspect and reasonable

Classifications by race and ethnicity have now been ruled by the Court to be acceptable only in A) matters wherein certain races or ethnic groups show greater talent or less aptitude. B) laws passed by Congress, not those passed by the individual states. C) regard to rules and regulations of the armed forces. D) laws seeking to remedy previous discrimination. E) matters involving national security.

Commercial speech on radio and television is regulated by A) state and local governments. B) no government agency, as such would be a violation of the freedom of speech. C) the Federal Communications Commission. D) the Federal Trade Commission. E) the Bureau of Consumer Affairs.

Compared to the government under the Articles of Confederation, the Constitution gave the central government A) far fewer powers. B) total control of the economy. C) about the same economic powers. D) more economic powers. E) almost no economic powers.

Constitutional amendments are usually ratified by A) state conventions called by two-thirds vote in Congress. B) a national convention. C) a majority of the Supreme Court. D) a two-thirds vote in each house of Congress. E) legislatures of three-fourths of the states.

Constitutional protections of free speech are ________ on private property . A) completely invalidated B) fully protected C) diminished D) untested E) unchanged.

Contracts between business firms can be enforced across state boundaries as part of the constitutional provision of A) interstate compacts. B) privileges and immunities. C) implied powers of the states. D) extradition. E) full faith and credit.

Cruel and unusual punishment is forbidden by the A) self-incrimination clause. B) Sixth Amendment. C) Eighth Amendment. D) exclusionary clause. E) Fifth Amendment.

) The Democratic and Republican candidates for president are formally nominated by the A) presidential caucuses. B) presidential primaries. C) electoral college. D) national party conventions. E) national committees.

41) Iowa and New Hampshire have been especially important in the nomination process over the past several decades because they help candidates to A) build momentum. B) generate media attention. C) generate money. D) all of the above E) none of the above

In setting the broad rules of the game of politics, constitutions A) are never neutral; they give some participants advantages over others. B) are fair and impartial. C) allow all participants the same political opportunities. D) have no effect on the distribution of power in society. E) are constantly changing.

In the 1950s and 1960s, the proclamation of statesʹ rights was usually made by those opposing the national governmentʹs efforts in the area of A) the Vietnam War. B) abortion rights. C) civil rights for African Americans. D) the interstate highway system. E) the Korean War.

In the 1963 case of ________, the Supreme Court ruled that defendants in all felony cases had a right to counsel, and if they could not afford to hire a lawyer, one must be provided. A) Mapp v. Ohio B) Engel v. Vitale C) Gideon v. Wainwright D) Miranda v. Arizona E) National Bar Association v. United States

In the 1992 case of Planned Parenthood v. Casey, the Supreme Court ruled that abortion A) could be completely outlawed by individual states. B) must be funded by state governments when the mother cannot afford it, or it would be a violation of the Equal Protection Clause. C) restrictions could be imposed by states if they did not involve "undue burdens" on the women seeking abortions. D) funding by any level of government was unconstitutional. E) was a fundamental right, and any restrictions on such a right had to be judged by a "strict scrutiny".

In the Constitution, the powers to coin money, to enter into treaties, and to regulate commerce with foreign nations and among the states were given to A) neither the individual states nor the national government. B) the national government. C) the individual states. D) the Senate only. E) both the individual states and the national government.

42) Which of the following ideas is NOT associated with hyperpluralism? A) Groups have become too powerful in the political process. B) Interest group liberalism is aggravated by numerous subgovernments. C) Trying to please every group results in contradictory and confusing policy. D) Political power is highly concentrated. E) The dominance of an economic elite.

In the Engel v. Vitale case of 1962, the Supreme Court ruled that ________ was (were) unconstitutional. A) prayers done as classroom exercises in public schools B) the Connecticut statute barring the distribution of birth control information C) segregation D) prior restraint E) police search or seizure without an authorized warrant

Representation refers to A) majority rule. B) all policy views being included in political debate. C) the protection of minority rights in a pluralist system. D) electing office-holders in fair and free elections. E) the correspondence between the few leaders and the many followers in a democracy.

Right after the Revolutionary War, a dramatic change swept through the new country resulting in A) a dramatic increase in democracy and freedom. B) a population shift from the cities to the country. C) a population shift from country to city. D) an explosion in prosperity. E) full-scale industrialization.

Robert Putnamʹs claim that Americans are now ʺbowling aloneʺ is a criticism of A) pluralism. B) elite theory. C) hyperpluralism. D) social network theory. E) none of the above

Shaysʹ Rebellion was A) the most decisive battle of the Revolution, after which British troops were never again able to mount a major offensive against American troops. B) a slave uprising in Virginia. C) an uprising by small merchants demanding credit. D) an uprising by Revolutionary War veterans demanding pensions. E) an uprising by farmers to prevent judges from foreclosing on farms.

Since 1929, the national governmentʹs share of American governmental expenditures has A) dropped. B) remained the same. C) approached nearly 100 percent. D) grown rapidly. E) grown at a slower rate than the statesʹ share.

Since its Roe v. Wade decision, the Supreme Court has A) generally moved to allow states more room to regulate abortions (e.g., waiting periods) than was true in Roe. B) not moved an inch from its dramatic original ruling. C) greatly extended the right of a woman to make her own decision about terminating her pregnancy. D) reversed itself within the last few years, and has now overturned the Roe decision. E) been silent on the politically divisive issue of abortion.

Since the ratification of the Constitution, American federalism has gradually changed from A) cooperative to dual federalism. B) state domination to national domination. C) dual to cooperative federalism. D) a unitary to a federal system. E) a federal system to a unitary one.

Single-issue groups A) are rapidly losing prominence in American politics. B) usually run their own candidates for public office. C) have little sympathy for compromising. D) help facilitate the construction of a cohesive national public policy. E) are highly regarded by political scientists for their contributions to democracy.

Slavery was declared unconstitutional by the A) Thirteenth Amendment. B) Fourteenth Amendment. C) Jim Crow laws. D) Bill of Rights. E) Dred Scott v. Sandford Supreme Court case.

Government aid to religious schools has been a major issue A) since the Civil War. B) since the colonial era. C) since the mid 1960s. D) since ratification of the Bill of Rights. E) since the growth of the fundamentalist movement in the 1980s.

In Annapolis, Maryland, in 1786, delegates from five states met to discuss A) the problems of the national government under the Articles of Confederation. B) the need to declare independence from England. C) the need for a Bill of Rights. D) the issue of slavery. E) all of the above

In Brown v. Board of Education (1954), the Supreme Court A) ordered the Topeka school district to spend more money on black schools. B) enunciated the principle of equal but separate. C) ruled that the visible signs of education were substantially equal between black schools and white ones. D) enunciated the principle of separate but equal. E) ruled that school segregation was inherently unequal.

In Dred Scott v. Sandford (1857), Chief Justice Taney declared that A) the importation of slaves into the United States was illegal, but slavery itself was not. B) Congress had no authority to ban slavery in the territories. C) a slave who had escaped to a free state became a free man. D) slavery is inherently unconstitutional. E) slavery can be practiced in the so-called free states.

In Gitlow v. New York (1925), the decision that states could not abridge the freedoms of expression protected by the First Amendment was based on the A) Fifth Amendment. B) New York State Constitution. C) Fourteenth Amendment. D) First Amendment. E) exclusionary rule of the judiciary.

The Civil Rights Act of 1964 A) established the first affirmative action programs. B) ended discrimination in the purchase or rental of housing. C) ended the white primary. D) guaranteed minority groups the right to vote. E) guaranteed equal access to hotels, restaurants, and other public accommodations.

The Civil Rights Act of 1964 A) made racial discrimination illegal in places of public accommodation. B) forbade discrimination in employment on the basis of race, color, national origin, religion, or gender. C) prohibited gender discrimination in the work place. D) both A and B E) neither A nor B

The Civil Rights Act of ________, the most important law since the Emancipation Proclamation, made racial discrimination illegal in public accommodations throughout America. A) 1947 B) 1964 C) 1984 D) 1974 E) 1954

The Communications Decency Act banning obscene material and criminalizing the transmission of indecent speech or images to anyone under the age of 18 was A) affirmed by the Court. B) opposed by Christian groups. C) overturned by the Supreme Court. D) the first regulation of obscenity affirmed by the Court. E) none of the above.

The Connecticut Compromise at the Constitutional Convention A) resolved the impasse between those who favored the New Jersey Plan and those who preferred the Virginia Plan. B) added the Bill of Rights to the Constitution in order to lessen concerns about too much power for the new government. C) settled the dispute over whether slavery should be allowed in the final constitution. D) threw out the idea of having a monarchy in the United States, opting instead for an indirectly elected president. E) involved all of these elements.

The Constitution prohibited the states from doing each of the following EXCEPT A) harboring runaway slaves. B) placing duties on imports from other states. C) printing paper money. D) establishing a republican form of government. E) interfering with lawfully contracted debts.

The Constitution requires that states give ________ to the public acts, records, and civil judicial proceedings of every other state. A) privileges and immunities B) due process C) full faith and credit D) some consideration E) extradition

The Constitution states that Congress has the power to establish post offices. This is an example of A) enumerated powers. B) delegated powers. C) implied powers. D) reserved powers. E) shared powers.

The Constitution was ratified by A) popular vote in each of the states. B) special conventions in each of the states. C) the electoral college. D) state representatives to the Constitutional Convention. E) the state legislatures.

The Constitutional Convention dealt with slavery by A) prohibiting it only north of the Mason-Dixon line. B) recognizing it by providing for the return of escaped slaves. C) prohibiting it after twenty years. D) counting the slaves as a full part of the population for the purposes of representation in the House. E) emancipating slaves on the principle of equality.

The Constitutionʹs provision that Congress has the right to ʺmake all laws necessary and proper for carrying into executionʺ its powers is often referred to as the A) enumerated powers. B) heart of fiscal federalism. C) Unwritten Amendment. D) elastic clause. E) privileges and immunities.

The Constitutionʹs supremacy clause A) does not apply to state and local matters. B) gives the states superiority over the national governmentʹs Constitution and laws. C) made the Constitution, the laws of the national government, and the national governmentʹs treaties the supreme law of the land. D) is vague about which level of government should prevail in a dispute involving federalism. E) makes the president supreme in any constitutional conflicts with the other two branches.

The Declaration of Independence A) contained completely new ideas on political philosophy. B) became one of the most important statements of American political philosophy. C) took several months to write. D) blamed the British parliament for abuses on the colonies. E) all of the above

The Supreme Court case of McCulloch v. Maryland (1819) A) established Baltimore as the capital of Maryland. B) stated that the Constitution gave Congress implied powers. C) established the principle of judicial review. D) established the supremacy of state governments. E) recognized that Congress was limited to its enumerated powers.

The Supreme Court case of Printz v. United States A) enhanced the powers of Congress by expanding its interpretation of commerce. B) denied Congress the power of regulating guns in school zones. C) voided the congressional mandate in the Brady Handgun Violence Prevention Act requiring local community officials to conduct background checks on prospective gun purchasers. D) affirmed the provisions of the Brady Handgun Violence Prevention Act. E) none of the above

The Supreme Court case of Roe v. Wade (1973) ruled that A) abortions are not protected under the Constitution. B) a state cannot forbid abortions during the first trimester of pregnancy. C) a state cannot regulate abortions under any circumstances. D) family planning services cannot provide women any abortion counseling. E) states must permit abortions on demand during all nine months of pregnancy.

The Supreme Court decision in Barron v. Baltimore (1833) maintained that the Bill of Rights intended to prevent A) both the national and state governments from violating civil rights. B) cities from taking private property without due process. C) only the national government from abridging civil liberties. D) the states from infringing on individual rights. E) the United States government from granting titles of royalty.

The Supreme Court has interpreted the establishment clause of the First Amendment as A) grounds for denying federal aid to children attending parochial schools. B) merely preventing the establishment of a national church. C) prohibiting school-organized Bible-reading and prayer in public schools. D) allowing nondenominational school prayer. E) all of the above

The Supreme Court has permitted prior restraint of which of the following? A) high school newspapers B) compact discs by 2 Live Crew C) the Pentagon Papers D) a newspaper that called local officials "Jewish gangsters" E) It has permitted prior restraint of all of these.

The Supreme Court has ruled that government aid to church-related schools A) is acceptable for things such as field trips and teacher salaries, but not for textbooks or transportation to school. B) is permitted when the aid is for a non-religious purpose. C) is acceptable if the school is affiliated with a major religion but not for small, fringe religious sects. D) violates the Establishment Clause. E) does not constitute an establishment of religion.

The Supreme Court has ruled that racial and ethnic classifications are A) legal if they are reasonable. B) not covered by the Fourteenth Amendment. C) inherently suspect. D) never permissible. E) exempt from the constitutional penumbras of the Bill of Rights.

The Supreme Court in Marbury v. Madison (1803) asserted the power of the Court to A) check the actions of the other branches through judicial review. B) nullify constitutional amendments. C) confirm presidential appointments. D) determine its own size and makeup. E) impeach the president.

The Supreme Court ruled in Branzburg v. Hayes (1972) that in the absence of shield laws, A) the right of a free trial preempts the reporter's right to protect sources. B) that newspaper files are protected by the First Amendment. C) that reporters have more rights than other citizens. D) judges can bar cameras from the courtroom. E) none of the above.

The Supreme Court ruled in its Roe v. Wade decision that A) each state and not the federal government has authority to determine whether to permit or prohibit abortion in that state. B) all restrictions on abortions at any stage of a pregnancy were a violation of a woman's right to privacy. C) abortion was murder. D) abortion was to be allowed only in cases of rape or incest, or when the life of the pregnant woman was in danger. E) abortion could not be prohibited by any state during the first trimester of pregnancy.

The Supreme Court ruled that freedom of religious practice was more important than the right of the government to interfere in deciding in favor of A) a Mormon who justified polygamy on religious grounds. B) the right of Amish parents in Wisconsin to take their children out of public school after the eighth grade. C) the right of an orthodox Jewish Air Force captain to wear his yarmulke despite the strict military dress code. D) the Louisiana law requiring schools that taught Darwinian theory to teach the Bible's version of creation as well. E) Christian Scientists' religious opposition to scientific medical treatment for themselves or their children.

The Supreme Court's Roe v. Wade decision was issued in A) 1979. B) 1954. C) 1973. D) 1991. E) 1985.

The Supreme Court's decision in the case of Plessy v. Ferguson A) for the first time established race as a suspect classification and ruled that former slaves must be granted land or otherwise compensated for their years of forced labor. B) outlawed slavery. C) stated that the principle of separate but equal public facilities for African Americans was constitutional. D) stated that the principle of separate but equal public facilities for African Americans was unconstitutional. E) ruled that slaves were chattel property and entitled to no rights under the Constitution.

The Supreme Court's ruling in Brown v. Board of Education was based on the legal argument that segregation violated the ________ Amendment. A) Fourteenth B) First C) Twenty-sixth D) Nineteenth E) Equal Rights

The Tenth Amendment A) declares that the national government is superior to the states in every concern. B) establishes the Constitution, laws of the national government, and treaties as the supreme law of the land. C) establishes the Supreme Court as the final arbiter in all civil and criminal disputes. D) establishes the number of electoral votes each state can cast in the electoral college. E) states that powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by the states, are reserved for the states.

The Thirteenth Amendment A) forbade slavery and involuntary servitude. B) gave African Americans the right to vote. C) repealed the Twelfth Amendment. D) established the principle of separate but equal. E) repealed Prohibition.

The Thirteenth Amendment was passed A) in 1920. B) in 1850. C) in the 1960s. D) as one of the original Bill of Rights. E) at the end of the Civil War.

The Twenty-fourth Amendment, ratified in 1964, A) prohibited discrimination in employment or public accommodations based on race. B) granted Negroes the right to vote. C) outlawed the use of literacy tests in order to register to vote. D) outlawed the grandfather clause and the white primary. E) prohibited the use of poll taxes in federal elections.

The United States Constitution A) lists the executive departments that are required to advise the president. B) does not prescribe the function and structure of government in detail. C) is one of the oldest and longest constitutions in the world. D) gives particular detail to the function of the judiciary. E) was modeled on the British Constitution.

The United States government owns ________ of the land in the United States A) all B) 5 percent C) one-third D) 2 percent E) none

The United States government under the Articles of Confederation can best be described as A) weak and ineffective. B) overly prone to intervention in foreign affairs. C) overly bureaucratic. D) dictatorial. E) a personal tool of George Washington.

The United States national government spends about ________ a year. A) $4 billion B) $250 billion C) $1,000,000,000,000 D) $500 billion E) $2.8 trillion

The Virginia and New Jersey Plans introduced at the Constitutional Convention differed mainly over whether A) states should send equal numbers of representatives to Congress. B) there should be a president. C) the states or the national government should regulate interstate commerce. D) there should be a legislative branch at the national level. E) slavery should be permitted in the country.

The ________ Amendment forbids forced self-incrimination, stating that no person "shall be compelled to be a witness against himself." A) First B) Twenty-sixth C) Fifth D) Fourth E) Ninth

The ________ Amendment outlawed slavery in the United States. A) Thirteenth B) Nineteenth C) Tenth D) First E) Equal Rights

The ________ Amendment, adopted in 1870, guaranteed the right of African Americans to vote at least in principle. A) Nineteenth B) Thirteenth C) First D) Fifteenth E) Fifth.

The ________ includes the clause "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion" A) Fifth Amendment B) First Amendment C) Second Amendment D) Religious Rights Amendment E) Fourteenth Amendment

The ________ is the final interpreter of the content and scope of Americans' civil liberties. A) president B) Congress C) Supreme Court D) American Civil Liberties Union E) Constitution

The ________, offered as a proposal at the Constitutional Convention, called for each state to be equally represented in Congress. A) Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) B) New Jersey Plan C) Connecticut Compromise D) three-fifths compromise E) Virginia Plan

The ability of groups to prevent the government from taking actions adverse to their interests leads to what the text calls A) Dahlʹs ʺideal democratic process.ʺ B) elite dominance. C) budget deficits. D) enlightened understanding. E) policy gridlock.

The abortion decision in Roe v. Wade (1973) was justified by the Supreme Court largely on the grounds of A) the freedom of religion clause of the First Amendment. B) the free exercise clause of the First Amendment. C) the right of privacy implied in the Bill of Rights. D) our constitutional right to life. E) new advances in medical technology.

The abridgment of citizensʹ freedom to worship, or not to worship, as they please is prohibited by the A) due process clause. B) establishment clause. C) free exercise clause. D) freedom of religion. E) Second Amendment.

The amendments that have been added to the Constitution have made it A) more egalitarian and democratic. B) more elitist and undemocratic. C) more protective of property rights. D) weaker and less significant to American society. E) much more like the European constitutions it originally condemned.

The case of Near v. Minnesota (1931) A) ruled that newspapers could not publish secret information that threatens national security. B) ruled that states cannot prohibit animal sacrifice. C) held that government had illegally issued a prior restraint. D) identified an exception to the Constitutional guarantees barring government censorship of the press. E) upheld Minnesota's right to close down a newspaper making slanderous remarks.

The case of Swann v. Charlotte-Mecklenberg County Schools (1971) A) prohibited busing for school integration. B) permitted judges to achieve racially balanced schools through busing. C) ruled that schools must set aside a federal judge-determined number of spots for blacks before they would be considered desegregated. D) gave state legislatures the power to determine school desegregation procedures in each state. E) ruled that schools could not limit the number of black students enrolled in an effort to minimize desegregation.v

The concept of equality before the law was introduced to the Constitution in the A) Fourteenth Amendment. B) Preamble. C) Fifteenth Amendment. D) Sixteenth Amendment. E) Thirteenth Amendment.

The concept that everyone should have the same chance is called equality of A) distribution. B) fate. C) rewards. D) results. E) opportunity.

The constitutional requirement that the states return a person charged with a crime in another state to that state for trial or imprisonment is known as A) forfeiture. B) extradition. C) privileges and immunities. D) full faith and credit. E) the elastic clause.

The constitutional trail for securing equal rights for all Americans was blazed primarily by A) women. B) Hispanic Americans. C) Asian Americans. D) the American Indians. E) African Americans.

The content and nature of radio and television broadcasting are regulated by A) the Public Broadcasting System. B) the Federal Communications Commission. C) the Federal Trade Commission. D) the Department of Commerce. E) no government agency, as any such regulation would be a violation of the freedoms of speech and the press.

The content, nature, and existence of radio and television broadcasting is regulated by A) the National Broadcasting Board. B) the states. C) Congress. D) the Federal Communications Commission. E) no one, because to do so would violate the freedom of the press as applied to broadcasters.

The courts have recently ruled that, under the Fourteenth Amendment, racial and ethnic classifications by states in regard to any matter A) are reasonable. B) are unconstitutional. C) are inherently suspect. D) are not the proper business of the federal courts to consider, but are up to the states individually. E) are arbitrary, but usually reasonable.

The debate at the Philadelphia Convention over eligibility to vote was resolved by A) allowing all males, but no females to vote. B) requiring voter registration before one would be eligible to vote. C) requiring universal manhood suffrage. D) leaving it up to the individual states. E) permitting all citizens over 21 to vote.

The delegates to the Constitutional Convention did not worry about preserving individual rights for all of the following reasons EXCEPT A) every state had its own bill of rights. B) they were constructing a limited government that could not threaten personal freedoms. C) they included a bill of rights in Article V. D) they dispersed power so that each branch or level could constrain the other. E) the various states were already doing a sufficient job of protecting individual rights.

The development of the two-party system is an example of informal constitutional change through A) political practice. B) technology. C) judicial interpretation. D) increasing demands on policymakers. E) all of the above

The effects a policy has on people and problems is called A) policy outputs. B) policy implementation. C) policy issues. D) policy impacts. E) policy agenda.

The efforts of Candy Lightner and Mothers Against Drunk Driving (MADD) to raise the legal drinking age to 21 are an example of A) the supremacy of state government to regulate its own affairs. B) the constitutional authority of the national government to impose policies on state governments. C) states acting as policy innovators. D) the unconstitutionality of age discrimination. E) the ability of the national government to influence state policy.

The enumerated powers of Congress and the national government are those A) specifically spelled out in the Constitution. B) set out in the first ten amendments. C) involving taxes, spending, and fiscal policy. D) not specifically spelled out in the Constitution, but nonetheless acknowledged. E) requiring ratification by the states.

Viewing the stages of the criminal justice system as a series of funnels of decreasing size tells us that A) most arrests result in a trial. B) most trials result in a guilty verdict. C) many more trials are held than prosecutions. D) the likelihood of being punished decreases as one moves through the system. E) many more arrests occur than trials.

Voter turnout matters because A) federal funds are allocated on the basis of the number of voters in a congressional district. B) better candidates are selected when more people vote. C) politicians pay more attention to those who vote than to those who do not vote. D) it makes citizens feel better. E) it makes our country look better.

Wearing an arm band and burning a United States flag are examples of ________: actions that do not consist of speaking or writing but that express an opinion. A) commercial speech B) symbolic speech C) obscenity D) the free exercise clause E) unspoken speech

What happened when Jacksonville, Florida, tried to ban movies with nudity in them from being shown at drive-in theaters on grounds of obscenity? A) The Court upheld the ban to protect citizens' rights to privacy. B) The Supreme Court ruled that all nudity cannot be deemed obscene. C) The ban was upheld to help the community rid itself of a public nuisance and potential traffic hazard. D) The Court ruled that X-rated movies were protected under the First Amendment. E) a riot

What view of human nature did the delegates at the Constitutional Convention have? A) Humans are basically good. B) Cynical view: human beings are selfish and greedy. C) There is no human nature and humans are the product of their environment. D) Human nature is basically evil. E) Altruistic view: humans are deeply concerned about each othersʹ welfare, apart from their own self-interests.

What was the Supreme Court's decision in Hamdam v. Rumsfeld? A) Terrorists are not entitled to protection by the Bill of Rights. B) The procedures for trying prisoners at Guantanamo Bay, Cuba were insufficient for ensuring a fair trial. C) The Geneva Convention does not apply because the "enemy combatants" are not soldiers in a recognized army. D) The president has "inherent power" to fight the war on terror as he sees fit. Therefore, the president can establish judicial procedures on his own. E) all of the above

________ arise when people disagree about a problem or a public policy choice made to combat a problem. A) Revolutions B) Political issues C) Social crises D) Governments E) Wars

________ have usually found the individual state governments to be more sympathetic than the national government to their demands. A) Feminists B) Civil rights advocates C) Business interests D) Those favoring the closing of military bases E) Supporters of organized labor

________ refers to a governmentʹs censorship of material before it is published. A) The exclusionary rule B) Probable cause C) Equal protection D) Prior restraint E) Just cause

"Comparable worth: refers to the issue of A) paying men and women equivalent salaries for jobs requiring similar skills. B) government subsidization of women who choose to work at home. C) the inherent dignity and equality of women with men. D) reduced work responsibilities for women workers with children. E) equal voting rights and access to public office for women.

1) High-tech politics refers to A) a politics in which the behavior of citizens and policymakers is shaped by technology. B) a proposal for direct democracy through the use of telephone voting. C) a futuristic society in which politics is controlled by computers, freeing people for more honorable pursuits. D) the use of cable television to broadcast the workings of the government. E) the ability of government to observe the behavior of citizens through electronic means.

104) One of the reasons that ʺbusinessʺ does not always get what it wants is A) business groups often have different interests and want different things. B) it has limited resources to spend on influencing government policy. C) it has often used ineffective lobbying techniques. D) it is a relatively ʺweakʺ cluster of interest groups. E) none of the above

105) The first ________ in April 1970 helped to spur on a number of environmental groups. A) Earth Day B) smog alert C) serious oil spill D) nuclear power plant accident E) nuclear plant explosion

105) The watchdog orientation of the press can be characterized as A) reformist. B) liberal. C) libertarian. D) conservative. E) partisan.

11) ________ was widely regarded to be the worst and most ineffective president. A) Warren Harding B) Richard Nixon C) Ronald Reagan D) Bill Clinton E) Andrew Johnson

113) In addition to fighting segregation and discrimination, civil rights interest groups have also focused on A) broader economic problems. B) the environment. C) transportation. D) housing quality. E) gender equality.

The public policy paths for women and minorities converged in the debate about A) affirmative action. B) the Equal Rights Amendment. C) military service. D) gay rights. E) comparable worth.

The relaxation of tensions between the United States and the Soviet Union throughout the 1970s was known as A) detente. B) containment. C) the Strategic Defense Initiative. D) glasnost. E) New Thinking.

The threat posed by terrorist groups and the hostile states supporting them has caused America to A) reconsider basic principles of its foreign policy. B) recall many of its senior diplomats from the Middle East. C) emphasize the principles of deterrence and containment in foreign policy. D) make dramatic cuts in domestic expenditures to pay for the new war on terrorism. E) shift back to isolationism.

Throughout most of American history, American foreign policy has centered on the concept of A) isolationism. B) brinkmanship. C) containment. D) McCarthyism. E) internationalism.

Throughout most of its history up to the early twentieth century, the United States followed a foreign policy course of ________, particularly with regard to Europe. A) isolationism B) internationalism C) intervention D) collective security E) laissez faire

Whatever their ideology, members of Congress tend to support military spending most consistently A) when it means jobs for their constituents. B) when the Pentagon argues that such programs are necessary. C) if they are asked to do so by the president. D) once a project has already begun and needs additional funding. E) during election years.

When proposition 209 was passed in California in 1996, it banned A) affirmative action in public hiring, contracting, and educational admissions. B) affirmative action in federal hiring. C) affirmative action on behalf of homosexuals. D) affirmative action in the private sector. E) affirmative action on behalf of women.

Which instrument of foreign policy used to guarantee world dominance but no longer does so? A) military strength B) economic sanctions C) diplomacy D) none of the above E) all of the above

Which of the following is NOT a permanent member country on the United Nations Security Council? A) Japan B) Great Britain C) China D) France E) Russia

Which of the following is NOT part of America's triad of nuclear weapons delivery systems? A) Strategic Defense Initiative B) intercontinental ballistic missiles C) strategic bombers D) submarine-launched ballistic missiles E) both A and C

The supremacy clause of the Constitution states that all of the following are the supreme law of the land, EXCEPT A) laws of the national government (when consistent with the Constitution). B) the United States Constitution. C) state constitutions. D) treaties of the national government (when consistent with the Constitution). E) both C and D

Today, courts must provide a lawyer for a defendant A) whenever imprisonment could be imposed. B) only in felony cases or where civil fines exceeding $10,000 could be levied. C) whenever they plead not guilty. D) only in capital cases where the punishment would be execution. E) immediately after being arrested.

Today, roughly ________ of the gross domestic product is spent by state and local governments. A) 7.5 percent B) 25 percent C) 10 percent D) 15 percent E) 1 percent

Today, the national government spends about A) a tenth of our gross domestic product. B) a half of our gross domestic product. C) 100 percent of our gross domestic product. D) a fifth of our gross domestic product. E) a third of our gross domestic product.

Today, the national government spends roughly ________ of the gross domestic product. A) 15 percent B) 20 percent C) 2.5 percent D) 9 percent E) 44 percent

Two key elements of the Madisonian model were to A) keep most of the government beyond the control of a popular majority and separate the powers of different institutions. B) promote state power while separating the powers of different national institutions. C) keep as much of the government as possible beyond the control of a popular majority and extend the right to vote to everyone. D) combine the powers of different institutions and create a powerful presidency. E) require a system of checks and balances and extend democracy.

Two of the most important principles of democratic theory are majority rule and A) the plurality rule. B) judicial review. C) minority rights. D) majority restraint. E) Robertsʹ Rules of Order.

Under the Articles of Confederation most governmental power rested in A) the state governments. B) the national government. C) the president. D) the Congress. E) all of the above

Under the Articles of Confederation, Congress had the power to A) levy taxes. B) overturn state laws. C) regulate commerce. D) maintain an army and navy. E) all of the above

Under the Articles of Confederation, most power rested with the A) the British Parliament. B) president. C) United States Senate. D) state legislatures. E) Continental Congress.

Under the Articles of Confederation, power in the states began to shift to the hands of A) merchants and lawyers. B) middle-class farmers and craft workers. C) governors. D) low-income landowners. E) new industrialists.

Under the Madisonian model, people desiring change A) find a government that is highly responsive and acts quickly and decisively. B) must usually have a sizable majority. C) have no chance of victory. D) need only win at one point in the policymaking process. E) need just a simple majority over 50 percent.

Unless they witness a crime, police officers cannot arrest a suspect without A) due process. B) a search warrant. C) informing them of their Miranda rights. D) probable cause. E) a writ of habeas corpus.

Unlike Great Britain and many other nations, the United States does not have an ________ church that is fficially supported by the government and recognized as a national institution. A) ecclesiastical B) adjudicated C) imperial D) incorporated E) established.

Unreasonable searches and seizures are specifically forbidden in the A) Sixteenth Amendment. B) Fifth Amendment. C) Second Amendment. D) Tenth Amendment. E) Fourth Amendment.

Which of the following is TRUE? A) Many sex discrimination cases have involved men seeking equality with women. B) The Supreme Court first struck down a law on the basis of sex discrimination in 1920. C) The Supreme Court has so far struck down only a handful of laws for discriminating on the basis of gender. D) All of these are true. E) None of these are true.

The foreign-policy powers of Congress A) have no constitutional basis. B) include raising and organizing the armed forces. C) include making treaties. D) are negligible when compared with the president's. E) appoint the top military officials including the Joint Chiefs of Staff.

The ratio of what a country pays for imports to what it earns in exports is known as its A) federal deficit. B) balance of trade. C) international productivity quotient. D) tariff. E) trade gap.

The seat of real power in the United Nations is the A) General Assembly. B) Security Council. C) World Bank. D) Superpower Caucus. E) Secretariat.

1) The principal reason that presidents have trouble getting things done is that A) most are weak and indecisive and do not try to do much. B) they are often upstaged or undermined by their own vice presidents. C) other policymakers with whom they deal have their own agendas, interests, and sources of power. D) they are frequently overruled by the Supreme Court. E) the presidency is mostly a ceremonial job and the president is not expected to do much.

100) The union shop A) outlaws union membership as a condition of employment. B) offers low-cost consumer goods to union members. C) requires new employees to join the union representing them. D) is supported by business groups. E) is a business owned by a union, has a tax-exempt status, and is not allowed to collect profits.

102) Business PACs A) have so far been associated only with multinational corporations. B) are the most visible of Washington lobbies. C) have increased more dramatically than any other category of PACs. D) have not been as effective as labor and consumer PACs. E) contribute more to Democrats than to Republicans.

106) Among recent presidents, the average approval ratings in the public opinion polls have been A) higher at the end of the presidentʹs term than at the beginning. B) over 75 percent. C) higher at the beginning of the presidentʹs term than at the end. D) below 40 percent. E) slowly rising over the course of a presidentʹs term(s).

107) Environmental groups have been most successful at A) stopping strip mining. B) halting the trans-Alaskan pipeline. C) thwarting the expansion of the nuclear power industry. D) stopping the development of commercial supersonic aircraft. E) protecting the reefer toad and other endangered species.

107) On average, those who identify with the presidentʹs party give approval more than ________ percentage points higher than do those who identify with the opposition party. A) 10 B) 20 C) 40 D) 30 E) 50

109) Organizations seeking a collective good that may not benefit them directly are called A) commodity associations. B) protest groups. C) public interest lobbies. D) single-issue groups. E) altruistic lobbies.

110) The ________ is the oldest and largest of the African-American groups which have fought for equality at the polls, in housing, on the job, in education, and in all other facets of American life. A) Urban League B) Congress of Racial Equality C) National Association for the Advancement of Colored People D) Rainbow Coalition E) National African-American Organization

110) The basic underpinning of approval or disapproval of a president is A) the presidentʹs ability to get her/his program passed by Congress. B) personality characteristics. C) political party identification. D) the state of the economy. E) the behavior of the media.

111) According to public opinion polls, presidents seem to be most popular A) just before they leave office. B) after they have introduced their first legislative package to Congress. C) when they first enter office. D) after they leave office. E) during mid-term elections.

114) The ________ movement was spurred by a single person: Ralph Nader. A) American labor B) modern civil rights movement C) consumer D) anti-Vietnam War E) gay rights

117) According to Robert Salisbury, the increase in lobbying activity has resulted in A) greater clout for business and industry groups. B) less democracy. C) less clout overall for interest groups. D) government by minority interests. E) elitist policymaking.

118) The growth of both interest groups and the scope of government over the past several decades represents A) the former increasing the latter. B) the latter increasing the former. C) both A and B D) the latter decreasing the former. E) Neither A nor B; there is no relationship between the two.

13) The Twenty-second Amendment, passed in 1951, A) provided for the presidential and vice presidential candidates to run as a team. B) gave impeachment powers to Congress. C) limited presidents to two terms of office. D) provided for the direct election of the president by the people. E) granted 18-year-olds the right to vote.

15) ________ took over as president upon the death of Franklin Roosevelt in 1945, and eventually ordered the dropping of the atomic bombs on Japanese cities. A) Theodore Roosevelt B) Dwight Eisenhower C) Harry Truman D) Lyndon Johnson E) John F. Kennedy

22) Impeachment is roughly the political equivalent of a(n) A) exoneration. B) admission of guilt. C) indictment in criminal law. D) guilty verdict. E) firing.

23) In order to impeach a president, it takes A) a unanimous vote of the Supreme Court. B) a two-thirds vote in the Senate. C) a majority vote in the House of Representatives. D) a two-thirds vote in the House of Representatives. E) a majority vote in the Senate.

23) The first daily newspaper in America was A) the Associated Press established in 1841. B) The New York Times established in 1800. C) printed in Philadelphia in 1783. D) the Colonial Gazette printed in 1607. E) Common Sense printed in 1776.

27) The scandal surrounding Richard Nixonʹs administration that led to impeachment hearings was known as A) Iran-Contra. B) the Camp David Affair. C) Watergate. D) Checkers. E) Teapot Dome.

28) The order of succession to the presidency, should the president be unable to fulfill his or her duties is A) Vice President, President Pro Tem of the Senate, Speaker of the House, cabinet members in order that their department was created. B) Vice President, Speaker of the House, President Pro Tem of the Senate, Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, Cabinet members in order that their department was created. C) Vice President, Speaker of the House, President Pro Tem of the Senate, Cabinet members in the order that their department was created. D) Vice President, Chief Justice of Supreme Court, President Pro tem of the Senate, Speaker of the House. E) Vice President, Speaker of the House, President Pro Tem, Cabinet members in the order that their department created.

64) One of the major inducements of the American interest group system is that it A) provides too much representation. B) distracts government officials. C) is biased toward the wealthy. D) stifles the expression of new interests. E) is dominated by single-issue groups.

"The Pentagon" refers to the A) State Department. B) Foreign Service. C) Joint Chiefs of Staff. D) Department of Defense. E) Department of Homeland Security.

103) Which of the following statements about presidents going public is FALSE? A) Presidents are not passive followers of public opinion. B) Presidentsʹ appearances are often staged purely to obtain the publicʹs attention. C) In recent years, presidents have averaged more than one public appearance every weekday of the year. D) Dwight Eisenhower was the first president to use presidential speeches to gain policy support. E) John F. Kennedy was the first ʺtelevision president.ʺ

105) The higher the president stands in the polls, A) the less support he needs in Congress. B) the shorter the presidentʹs coattails. C) the less need there is for presidential public appearances. D) the easier it is to persuade others to support presidential initiatives. E) the less likely he will initiate new policy ventures.

43) Traditionally, a vice president A) has no formal constitutional powers. B) later becomes president. C) is an important advisor to the president. D) has little responsibility. E) both C and D

44) The presidentʹs cabinet A) was provided for and elaborated upon by the Constitution. B) has changed very little since 1960. C) tends to serve as a collective board of directors. D) consists of executive branch leaders who advise the president on policy and administer government departments. E) all of the above

90) ________ enables a group of similarly situated plaintiffs to combine similar grievances into a single suit. A) An amicus curiae brief B) A public interest suit C) Olsonʹs Law of Large Groups D) A class action lawsuit E) A collective civil suit

91) Flight attendants won a(n) ________ against the airline industryʹs regulation that all stewardesses had to be unmarried. A) amicus curiae brief B) writ of habeas corpus C) bill of attainder D) class action lawsuit E) administrative appeal

The ________ is officially composed of the president, the vice president, the Secretary of Defense and the Secretary of State. A) National Security Agency B) Pentagon C) Joint Chiefs of Staff D) National Security Council E) Trilateral Commissionar.

The ________ is the real focus of power in the United Nations. A) General Assembly B) Foreign Relations Committee C) Secretariat D) Security Council E) Secretary General

The ________ was formed in 1947 to coordinate American foreign and military policies and advise the president. A) State Department B) Department of Defense C) Joint Chiefs of Staff D) National Security Council E) Central Intelligence Agency

The cold war ended A) spontaneously with freedom and self-determination erupting in Eastern Europe. B) with the signing of the East-West Corollaries in 1993. C) with the American occupation of Eastern Europe in 1945. D) shortly after Chinese students held peaceful protests for democracy in Tiananmen Square. E) with Iraq's defeat in Kuwait in 1991.

The feminist movement was reborn A) when women became involved in the war effort during World War II. B) when the Supreme Court made its decision in Roe v. Wade. C) after the Civil War when women became inspired by the emancipation of the slaves. D) during the Civil Rights movement of the 1950s and 1960s. E) when the Equal Rights Amendment was first introduced in the 1920s.

The first American president to sign a treaty to actually reduce current levels of nuclear weapons in the United States arsenal was A) Dwight Eisenhower. B) Richard Nixon. C) Jimmy Carter. D) Ronald Reagan. E) John Kennedy.

The issue of ________ deals with women seeking to redress the fact that jobs traditionally held by men tend to pay far greater salaries than jobs requiring similar skills but are traditionally held by women. A) gender equality B) affirmative action C) feminized wage scales D) comparable worth E) the lace purse

The largest increase in peacetime defense spending occurred under President ________, who argued that the Soviets had used arms control agreements to gallop ahead of the United States in military spending. A) Gerald Ford B) Jimmy Carter C) Richard Nixon D) Ronald Reagan E) Harry Truman

The most pervasive characteristic of American international economic policy is A) elitism. B) secrecy. C) the dominance of the president. D) pluralism. E) the lead role played by top State Department officialssn

52) Which of the following groups has the largest potential membership? A) National Association for the Advancement of Colored People B) National Organization for Women C) American Medical Association D) Air Transport Association of America E) American Political Science Association

56) The free-rider problem refers to the difficulty of A) small groups in raising enough money to influence policy. B) groups in organizing all their potential members. C) actual groups in collecting dues from members. D) potential groups in receiving their share in collective goods. E) all taxpayers having to pay for public services and payments that go only to the poor.

97) Right-to-work laws are most strongly supported by A) unemployed citizens. B) business groups. C) union officials. D) the feminist and civil rights movements. E) illegal immigrants.

Affirmative action programs are referred to by critics as A) negative reaction. B) reverse discrimination. C) positive negativism. D) comparable worth. E) degenderizing.

Affirmative action seeks to move beyond A) equal results to equal opportunity. B) equal opportunity to equal results. C) equal opportunity to equal rights. D) equal rights to equal opportunity. E) negativism to positivism in human relations..

10) Which president was a political scientist? A) Ronald Reagan B) James Madison C) Richard Nixon D) Bill Clinton E) Woodrow Wilson

101) The typical member of Congress supports the president on national security roll-call votes A) very rarely. B) about 75 percent of the time. C) almost always. D) only 38 percent of the time. E) slightly more than half the time.

McCarthyism was strongest during A) World War II. B) the Vietnam War. C) the Korean War. D) dettente. E) World War I.

On the United Nations Security Council, ________ countries have permanent seats. A) no B) 2 C) 5 D) 15 E) 9

The international economy today is one characterized by A) independence. B) isolationism. C) interdependence. D) intransigence. E) protectionism.

31) The poverty rate is highest among A) African Americans. B) people over 65. C) Caucasians who live in Appalachia. D) Hispanics. E) residents of central cities.

32) A ________ tax takes a higher percentage from the incomes of the rich than the poor. A) progressive B) proportional C) regressive D) relative deprivation E) flat

The fastest growing age group in the American population is A) Generation X. B) people in their 80s. C) infants. D) teenagers. E) baby-boomers.

A small band of farmers in western Massachusetts took up arms in what is remembered as A) the Farmersʹ Revolt. B) King Georgeʹs War. C) the Boston Tea Party. D) the Whiskey Rebellion. E) Shaysʹ Rebellion.

A system in which many groups make themselves heard and felt somewhere in the policy process is A) pluralistic. B) direct democracy. C) hyperpluralistic. D) elitist. E) bureaucratic.

28) Elite theorists emphasize the power of A) subgovernments. B) business leaders. C) congressional staff members. D) public interest lobbies. E) presidents.

) A political party is a key ________ in Americaʹs democratic system. A) stimulus-response B) linkage institution C) input D) majoritarian inhibitor E) output

) According to hyperpluralists, the increasing caseloads of federal and state courts demonstrate A) the high status of attorneys in the United States. B) the inability to control the bureaucracy in implementing policy. C) that groups are more likely to appeal to different institutions in order to gain policy benefits. D) the expanding scope of government in the United States. E) the increasing complexity of our social networks.

) All of the following are ingredients of a pluralistic democracy EXCEPT A) group competition for policy benefits. B) bargaining and compromise. C) majority rule. D) multiple access points to policymakers. E) separation of powers.

) Informal changes to the Constitution have reflected changes in all of the following EXCEPT A) technology. B) political practice. C) judicial interpretation. D) constitutional amendments. E) none of the above

) Many politicians believe that single-issue groups A) stimulate the political system to solve public policy problems. B) are essential to democracy. C) complicate efforts to seek the middle ground on various issues. D) play a unifying role in American politics. E) do not affect policymaking.

) Some scholars have suggested that a consequence of separation of powers and checks and balances has been A) the inability of groups to get their grievances heard. B) fragmented policymaking processes. C) the tyranny of the majority. D) streamlined, but hasty, government decision making. E) political instability.

) The nature of groups and the government in hyperpluralist theory is A) strong government and strong groups. B) weak groups and strong government. C) weak groups, strong elites, and weak government. D) strong groups and weak government. E) too few groups result in the creation of many governments.

) ________ is the process by which policy comes into being and evolves over time. A) Democracy B) A policymaking system C) A constellation D) The bureaucracy E) Government

1) A capitalist economic system is one in which A) individuals and corporations own the principal means of production, through which they seek to earn profits. B) a central government determines production and price levels. C) private individuals act according to market principles and enhance the general welfare, with no government involvement. D) individuals and corporations share ownership of the principal means of production, and profits are distributed equally. E) all individuals have an equal chance of owning the principal means of production, often in the form of stock ownership.

1) About ________ of Americans recently reported that they agreed that ʺsuccess in life is pretty much determined by forces outside our control.ʺ A) one-tenth B) two-thirds C) three-fourths D) one-half E) seven-eighths

1) There is a tremendous gap between youth and the elderly in all of the following EXCEPT A) political knowledge. B) political participation. C) political interest. D) volunteering. E) media use.

1) Which of the following is NOT true about health care in America? A) The United States spends a higher proportion of its wealth on health care than any other country. B) Americans are the healthiest people in the world. C) Much of the money Americans pay for health care goes to services like organ transplants, kidney dialysis, and other treatments that are not widely available outside the United States. D) By the mid-1990s, Americans had spent over $1 trillion a year on health care. E) Informally, health care is rationed in the U.S.

10) Which of the following contributes to higher costs of medical care in the United States? A) The best doctors tend to practice abroad where insurance premiums are lower. B) Americans are the healthiest people in the world. C) Insured patients have little incentive to ask for cheaper care. D) Malpractice insurance costs for doctors are covered by the federal government. E) None of the above

11) Doctors have no reason to compete with each other to offer cheaper health care expenses because A) insurance companies and government pay for most health care expenses. B) government mandates that everyone receives equal access to health care. C) technology has made medical care more efficient and less costly. D) specialization has made competition unnecessary. E) All of the above

11) The distribution of income across segments of the American population is A) just about even. B) slightly uneven. C) highly uneven. D) impossible to gauge. E) constantly changing.

11) The nationʹs unemployment rate is determined by A) monthly changes in income tax withholdings monitored by the Internal Revenue Service. B) a monthly random survey of the population. C) randomly selected payroll audits by Federal Reserve Board analysts. D) monthly reports by the unemployment department of each state. E) monthly reports filed by all employers regarding the number of their employees.

12) Access to health insurance in the United States is strongly related to A) race and geographic location. B) gender and income. C) race and income. D) gender and geographic location. E) race and gender.

12) During the 1960s and 1970s, the income distribution in the United States A) grew more equitable. B) remained much the same, which is fairly equal. C) remained much the same, which is fairly unequal. D) grew more unequal. E) narrowed considerably.

12) The ________ conducts a huge statistical survey of the population monthly to measure the nationʹs unemployment rate. A) Federal Reserve Board B) Council of Economic Advisors C) Bureau of Labor Statistics D) Census Bureau E) Office of Management and the Budget

13) During the 1980s and 1990s, income distribution in the United States A) grew more equitable. B) remained much the same, which is fairly equal. C) remained much the same, which is fairly unequal. D) grew more unequal. E) narrowed considerably.

13) The official unemployment rate underestimates unemployment because it leaves out A) discouraged workers. B) students. C) housewives. D) the high-tech sector. E) the homeless.

13) ________ is part of the Social Security system and covers 40 million American seniors with hospitalization insurance and other optional health insurance. A) Medicaid B) Medicare C) The National Institutes of Health D) The Superfund E) The United States Health Service

14) In the 2004 presidential election, people who thought their families were doing better off voted A) 2 to 1 for George W. Bush. B) 4 to 1 for George W. Bush. C) 10 to 1 for George W. Bush. D) 4 to 1 for John Kerry. E) 2 to 1 for John Kerry.

14) In the United States, the largest single source of health care dollars comes from A) private insurance companies. B) private charities. C) government. D) citizens themselves in out-of-pocket medical payments. E) the private sector.

14) ________ is the amount of money owned, including stocks, bonds, bank accounts, cars, houses, and so forth. A) Income B) Wealth C) Taxable income D) Net earnings E) Net profit

15) Inflation was generally highest during the A) 1930s. B) 1970s. C) 1960s. D) 1980s. E) 1990s.

15) The United States government finances much of the medical research done in the country through A) Medicaid. B) the National Endowment for Medical Research. C) the National Institutes of Health. D) the National Science Foundation. E) the Department of Health and Human Services.

15) Which of the following is TRUE about wealth and income in American society? A) Wealth is distributed less equally than income. B) Wealth and income are distributed about the same in society. C) Income is distributed less equally than wealth. D) Wealth and income are the same thing. E) none of the above

16) The National Institutes of Health A) administers the national health insurance system in the United States. B) provides funds for medical research in the United States. C) is the largest hospital and physiciansʹ interest group in the United States. D) administers the Medicare and Medicaid programs. E) is the federal agency that regulates private health insurance companies.

16) The principle that the government should not meddle with the economy is known as A) Keynesian economic theory. B) caveat emptor. C) monetarism. D) laissez faire. E) conservatism.

16) The top one percent of wealth-holders currently possess about ________ of all American wealth. A) one percent B) one tenth C) one quarter D) one third E) one half

17) Americans pay about ________ of their health care costs out of their own pockets. A) 4 percent B) 20 percent C) 40 percent D) 33 percent E) 54 percent

17) When the stock market crash of 1929 sent unemployment soaring, President Herbert Hoover A) embraced Keynesian economic theory. B) experimented with dozens of new federal policies and work projects to put the economy back on track. C) pushed a massive tax cut through Congress to stimulate the economy. D) clung to the laissez-faire economic theory. E) put strict wage, price, and production controls into effect nationwide.

17) Which best characterizes the distribution of wealth and income in the United States? A) Wealth is more unequally distributed than income. B) Income is more unequally distributed than wealth. C) Wealth and income are each distributed in roughly the same pattern. D) The distribution of wealth is becoming slightly more equal, while the distribution of income is becoming slightly more unequal. E) The distribution of income is becoming slightly more equal, while the distribution of wealth continues to grow more unequal.

18) Laissez faire is the A) principle that government should not meddle with the economy. B) term for a negative balance of trade, meaning imports exceed exports. C) belief that government, and particularly presidents, have virtually no influence over the economy because whatever mechanisms the government might use to affect economic growth are far too weak to change the individual, daily market decisions of 260 million Americans. D) theory that government spending can help the economy weather its normal ups and downs, even if it means going into debt. E) difference between the nationʹs unemployment rate and inflation rate.

18) Medicare was adopted in 1965 to provide government health insurance to A) veterans. B) government employees. C) the poor. D) the elderly. E) children living in poverty.

18) The distribution of income in the United States A) makes Americans the richest people on earth. B) is quite uneven. C) has shifted since 1950 towards middle-income people. D) is fairly equal compared to most nations in the world. E) has shifted notably away from elderly people since 1965.

19) Statistics show that the distribution of income among American households was most unequal in A) 1960. B) 1970. C) 1980. D) 1990. E) 1950.

19) The first president to call for national health insurance was A) Franklin Roosevelt. B) Harry Truman. C) Lyndon Johnson. D) Jimmy Carter. E) Bill Clinton.

19) Who is the current chair of the Federal Reserve Board? A) Alan Greenspan B) Ben Bernanke C) Mike Emmons D) Ralph Nader E) Robert Wagner

32) An example of the use of monetary policy is A) instituting a freeze on prices. B) requiring banks to keep more money on reserve. C) subsidizing farmers. D) making low-interest, long-term loans to college students. E) all of the above

50) An estimated 90 percent of the energy resources of the United States is in A) oil reserves. B) coal deposits. C) natural gas reserves. D) uranium deposits. E) water.

51) Americaʹs coal deposits are expected to last A) 15 more years. B) 50 more years. C) for hundreds of years. D) for thousands of years. E) forever, as coal is a renewable resource.

2) A mixed political economy is one in which A) both agricultural and manufacturing sectors are active. B) the government, while not commanding the economy, is still deeply involved in economic decisions. C) the government controls some, but not all, sectors of the economy. D) inflation and unemployment are uncorrelated. E) the government consults with corporate directors on the nature and magnitude of government regulation.

2) Americans believe strongly that A) Social Security is a bad policy. B) government is responsible for social welfare. C) families are responsible for social welfare. D) social welfare is a collective good. E) people should take personal responsibility for themselves.

2) Overall, about ________ of the Gross Domestic Product goes to the health industry. A) 20 percent B) 15 percent C) 25 percent D) 40 percent E) 8 percent

20) The amount of money collected between two points of time is called A) income. B) wealth. C) taxes. D) savings. E) asset accumulation.

20) The federal program that permits older Americans to purchase inexpensive coverage for doctor fees and other non-hospital expenses is A) Medicare Part A. B) Medicare Part B. C) Medicaid. D) social insurance program. E) the American Association of Retired Persons.

20) ________ is the manipulation of the supply of money and credit in private hands to promote the nationʹs economic health. A) Keynesianism B) Laissez faire C) Fiscal policy D) Monetary policy E) Supply-side policy

21) An economic theory called monetarism holds that A) government should stimulate economic growth by injecting large amounts of money into the economy by keeping interest rates low. B) stimulating supply through lower taxes is the key to economic health. C) the supply of money is the key to the nationʹs health, and having too much cash and credit in circulation stimulates inflation. D) government should not meddle with the economy. E) government spending can help the economy weather its normal ups and downs, even if it means running up a debt.

21) Medicaid is a program designed to provide health care for A) the very poor. B) the elderly. C) everyone who lives below the poverty line. D) veterans. E) Social Security recipients.

22) Monetarists want to A) use government spending and job programs during economic downturns to inject money into the economy. B) reduce taxes in order to stimulate the growth of the money supply. C) hold the growth in money supply to equal the rise in the gross national product after inflation. D) tie the value of the dollar to the value of gold, thus increasing and stabilizing the money supply. E) keep the governmentʹs hands off the economy.

22) Which of the following is NOT true about Medicaid? A) It is funded by both the states and national government. B) It is a means-tested program. C) It provides health care for all poor Americans. D) The costs of Medicaid are increasing rapidly. E) States have cut Medicaid coverage in recent years.

22) Which of the following statements about the distribution of wealth in America is TRUE? A) Many of the poor are slowly gaining ground, relatively speaking, to higher -income groups. B) All groups are increasing their wealth, with the poor increasing at a slightly lower rate. C) Many of the poor are losing ground to the higher-income groups in absolute terms. D) All groups are increasing their wealth, with the poor increasing at a slightly higher rate. E) The middle class (the middle quintile of the population) is increasing its share of the national income, while the top and bottom quintiles are losing their share of national income.

23) Monetary policy is directly regulated by A) the United States Mint. B) the Federal Reserve System. C) Congress and the President. D) the Department of Commerce. E) the Treasury Department.

23) The share of national income earned by various groups in the United States is described by the concept of A) the apple pie. B) income distribution. C) income relativity. D) socio-economic stratification. E) wealth allocation.

23) What is the largest voluntary association in the world? A) American Association of Retired Persons B) Sierra Club C) International Association of Workers and Peasants D) National Patientsʹ Union E) Chinese Revolutionary Workersʹ Party

24) The Federal Reserve System is governed by A) a seven-member Board of Governors appointed by the President and confirmed by the Senate. B) the director of the Internal Revenue Service. C) a twelve-member Board of Governors chosen by local bankers in each of the twelve Federal Reserve districts. D) the Presidentʹs Council of Economic Advisors. E) the Secretary of the Treasury, whose name appears on all currency.

24) The poverty line is measured by A) the minimum wage extended on a yearly basis. B) taking into account what a family would need to spend to maintain an ʺaustereʺ standard of living. C) the number of people filing for unemployment benefits. D) the boundaries of an urban ghetto. E) proportion of the median income as determined by IRS records.

24) Which of the following statements about the American Association of Retired Persons is FALSE? A) It is the largest voluntary association in the world. B) It can claim to represent one American in eight. C) Its widespread respect and authority are due to the fact that it has avoided involvement in political activity. D) It speaks with authority on all questions associated with the elderly. E) Its membership has been growing dramatically.

25) A supporter of laissez-faire policy would oppose A) supply-side economics. B) a strict separation between government and business. C) governmental intervention in the economy. D) reducing governmental economic regulation. E) reducing government subsidies of failing businesses.

25) Business groups are becoming increasingly active in health care policymaking because A) businesses contribute the most taxes that pay for Medicare and Medicaid. B) businesses are run primarily by elderly Americans who have a vested interest in health care. C) healthy employees are more profitable to businesses. D) private employers often pay the insurance premiums for their employees. E) all of the above

25) The United States Bureau of Censusʹ definition of the poverty line takes into account A) the earning power of the head of the household and family size. B) a daily intake of 2,000 calories and half the average hourly wage in the country. C) what a family would need to spend for an austere standard of living and the size of the family. D) the earning power of the head of the household and racial composition of the family. E) all of the above

26) Since the New Deal, A) policymakers have made it part of their regular business to seek to control the economy. B) the federal government has become less involved in economic policy. C) the principle of laissez faire has dominated economic policy. D) economic issues have become less politicized. E) Keynesian economics has replaced supply-side theory in American fiscal policy.

26) The primary focus of President Clintonʹs Health Security Act was A) fraud on the part of insurance companies. B) rationing and access. C) the establishment of national health insurance. D) providing health care for all Americans. E) the elderly.

26) To count the poor, the United States Bureau of the Census has established the ________ which takes into account what a family would need to spend to maintain an ʺaustereʺ standard of living. A) culture of poverty B) urban underclass C) poverty line D) relative deprivation index E) Poverty Index

27) Officially, approximately ________ of Americans lived below the poverty line in 2005 (although many more could have fallen into it for short periods). A) 4 percent B) 12 percent C) 17 percent D) 31 percent E) 6 percent

27) The economic theory that considers the supply of money as the key to the nationʹs economic health is A) supply-side economics. B) currency-reserve theory. C) monetarism. D) Keynesian economic theory. E) laissez-faire capitalism.

27) Under Bill Clintonʹs proposed Health Security Act, the brunt of the increased health care costs would have fallen most directly on A) employers. B) employees. C) those who purchased tobacco, alcohol, and pornography. D) patients. E) doctors.

28) George W. Bushʹs proposal for lowering medical costs by encouraging health savings accounts can best be described as A) socialist. B) popular. C) cheap. D) market based. E) egalitarian.

28) Monetarists emphasize that economic conditions are related to A) the level of government deficit spending. B) the value of the dollar in global currency markets. C) declining productivity. D) how much money government spends. E) the supply of money.

28) One study of American families found that ________ were below the poverty line at least once during their lifetimes. A) nearly one-tenth B) nearly one-third C) nearly one-half D) nearly two-thirds E) nearly three-quarters

29) Compared to the general population, poverty is more common among all of the following EXCEPT A) African Americans and Hispanics. B) the elderly. C) children. D) inner city residents. E) Asian Americans.

29) The main agency for making monetary policy is the A) Office of Management and Budget. B) United States Treasury. C) Federal Reserve Board. D) Congressional Budget Office. E) Council of Economic Advisors.

29) Which aspect of health care costs has increased the fastest? A) emergency room care B) prescription drugs C) prenatal care D) out-patient surgery E) treatment for drug and alcohol abuse

3) Capitalism is A) an advanced system of stock management. B) an economic system in which individuals and corporations own the principal means of production. C) an economic system in which public agencies manage fundamental aspects of monetary policy. D) an economic system in which the government owns the means of production. E) an economic system based on the Federal Reserve.

3) Compared to Western European nations, the United States has a ________ infant mortality rate. A) higher B) nearly identical C) slightly lower D) significantly lower E) faster growing

3) Examples of Social Welfare policies include A) entitlements. B) means-tested programs. C) project grants. D) A and B E) A and C

30) Of the following, who can not be considered a strong advocate for stem cell research? A) George W. Bush B) Michael J. Fox C) Nancy Reagan D) Christopher Reeve E) the State of California

30) Official poverty counts tend to underestimate poverty because A) some families refuse to report their income level. B) some families go in and out of poverty without being counted. C) they do not include individualsʹ wealth. D) the Republicans want it that way. E) the Democrats want it that way.

30) The Federal Reserve Board is intended to be A) formally under the control of Congress. B) half Democrat and half Republican. C) replaced by each new president. D) formally under the control of the president. E) independent of partisan politics.

31) Oregon started rationing health care provided under Medicaid by A) deciding not to pay for some costly treatments in order to provide medical care to more people. B) moving toward greater high-tech breakthroughs in medicine. C) giving everyone a certain number of health care ʺcredits,ʺ which they can spend annually as they see fit. D) requiring Medicaid recipients to stop bearing children in order to receive free health coverage for their present families. E) distributing Medicare patients to a greater number of physicians.

31) The Federal Reserve Board regulates A) antitrust policy. B) tax and spending policies. C) the nationʹs gold reserves and the United States Mint. D) all United States government bank accounts and investments. E) the supply of money and credit in the economy.

33) Which of the following is NOT true about the Environmental Protection Agency? A) It is the nationʹs largest regulatory agency. B) It is in charge of administering policies dealing with toxic wastes such as dangerous chemicals. C) It enforces the Clean Air Act, the Water Pollution Control Act, and many other environmental bills. D) It was established in the 1910s. E) The head of the EPA is a cabinet member.

34) Members of the Federal Reserve Systemʹs Board of Governors A) are subject to replacement by each new president. B) are given 14-year terms designed to insulate them from political pressures. C) can be fired by the president at any time. D) are career civil-servants, neither appointed nor fired by presidents. E) merely carry out policy decided by the Treasury Department.

34) Poverty among the elderly declined over the past several decades primarily due to A) Social Security payments. B) the booming economy in the 1980s. C) changing attitudes in society regarding the elderly. D) the larger proportion of savings held by the elderly. E) none of the above

34) The National Environmental Policy Act, the Clean Air Act, and the Water Pollution Control Act are implemented by the A) Department of the Interior (DOI). B) Department of Transportation (DOT). C) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). D) Department of Energy (DOE). E) Presidentʹs National Environmental Council.

35) A ________ tax requires the same share from everyone, rich and poor alike. A) progressive B) proportional C) regressive D) relative deprivation E) flat

35) The Clean Air Act of 1970 A) banned cigarette advertisements on television. B) empowered the Department of Interior with enforcing tough anti-pollution laws on industries near national forests or national parks. C) empowered the Department of Transportation to authorize mandatory reductions in automobile emissions. D) never passed Congress due to economic concerns about its effect. E) banned cigarette smoking in public buildings.

35) The Federal Reserve Systemʹs Board of Governors sets discount rates at a higher level A) to assist incumbent presidents near election time. B) thus lowering the cost of money and stimulating borrowing. C) to combat high unemployment. D) to increase the amount of money in circulation. E) to decrease the amount of money in circulation.

36) A ________ tax takes a higher percentage from those with lower incomes, and less from the wealthy. A) progressive B) proportional C) regressive D) relative deprivation E) flat

36) The smaller size of American cars, the use of unleaded gasoline, and the lower gas consumption of new cars are all due in large part to A) self-regulation of the automobile industry. B) Supreme Court rulings. C) Department of Transportation regulations. D) consumer demands. E) the dramatic increases of Middle Eastern oil prices in the 1970s.

36) Which of the following is NOT one of the measures used by the Fed to control the money supply? A) It sets discount rates for the money that banks can borrow from the Federal Reserve. B) It can buy and sell government securities in the market, thereby either expanding or contracting the money supply. C) It sets reserve requirements that determine the amount of money that banks must keep in reserve at all times. D) It dictates the minimum prime lending rate by commercial banks. E) none of the above

37) Auto companies have been partially successful in their efforts to delay implementation of A) clean air standards. B) mandatory air bag requirements. C) oil price deregulation. D) the National Environmental Policy Act. E) auto safety legislation.

37) The federal income tax is an example of a ________ tax. A) progressive B) proportional C) regressive D) relative deprivation E) flat

37) Which of the following is NOT influenced in a major way by the actions of the Fed? A) money supply B) inflation C) commercial interest rates D) the minimum wage E) the unemployment rate

38) Fiscal policy is A) taxing, spending, and borrowing decisions shaped mostly by Congress and the president. B) the manipulation of interest rates by the government to affect economic growth rates. C) based on the principle that government should not meddle with the economy. D) the manipulation of the supply of money and credit in private hands. E) the reduction of taxes in order to stimulate the economy.

38) The Water Pollution Control Act of 1972 has successfully A) improved the water quality of the Great Lakes and northeastern rivers. B) chlorinated the water systems of nearly every major city. C) abolished ocean dumping. D) banned all oil drilling in off-shore rigs. E) all of the above

38) The best evidence indicates that the overall incidence of taxeslocal, state, and federalin America is A) progressive. B) proportional. C) regressive. D) relative deprivation. E) flat.

39) About ________ of the United States is now designated as protected wilderness. A) 4 percent B) 12 percent C) 24 percent D) 35 percent E) 17 percent

39) Taxing, spending, and borrowing decisions by Congress and the president are known collectively as A) fiscal policy. B) econometrics. C) supply-side economics. D) monetary policy. E) laissez faire.

39) The overall incidence of taxes in America is proportional, because A) federal, state, and local taxes all tend to be proportional. B) generally regressive federal taxes are counterbalanced by more progressive state and local taxes. C) generally regressive state and local taxes are counterbalanced by progressive federal taxes. D) relative deprivation serves as a counterbalance at each level. E) federal taxes are proportional.

4) Conservatives complain about A) the size of the public sector. B) excessive regulation of the private sector. C) the oppressive scope of government. D) all of the above E) new legislation limiting corporate power.

4) Policies that attempt to provide assistance and support to specific groups in society are called A) equal opportunity policies. B) redistributive policies. C) social welfare policies. D) tax subsidies. E) anti-poverty policies.

4) Which of the following countries has the highest infant mortality rate? A) United States B) France C) Japan D) Italy E) Canada

44) Which of the following is NOT true about Superfund? A) Taxes on chemical products are used to pay for it. B) It has successfully located and isolated the countryʹs toxic waste dump sites and has completely cleaned more than half of those sites. C) It was created by Congress in part to respond to the Love Canal disaster in New York state. D) Its costs represent the fastest growing segment of the nationʹs environmental budget. E) It is administered by the EPA.

44) ________ encourages government to create jobs for people during times of severe unemployment in order to get money into the hands of consumers and stimulate the entire economy. A) Supply-side economics B) Industrial policy C) Laissez faire D) Monetary policy theory E) Keynesian economic theory

45) The Keynesian economic theory argues that governmentʹs role in an economic depression should be to A) reduce demand. B) lower taxes. C) increase demand. D) increase supply. E) increase the total money supply with lower interest rates.

45) The Superfund was created to A) clean up toxic waste. B) preserve endangered species. C) buy land for wilderness protection. D) finance the national park system. E) all of the above

45) The tax that can be used to redistribute income from the rich to the poor is a A) sales tax. B) progressive tax. C) regressive tax. D) proportional tax. E) relative deprivation tax.

46) A believer in Keynesian economic theory would stress that A) government should avoid involvement in the economy. B) the Federal Reserve Board should be abolished. C) government should stabilize the economy through its spending policies. D) government spending should be reduced when unemployment rises. E) the dollar should be convertible to gold on demand, thus tying its value to gold and stabilizing its value.

46) A tax that can make the rich richer and the poor poorer is a A) flat tax. B) progressive tax. C) regressive tax. D) proportional tax. E) graduated tax.

46) Which of the following statements about the Superfund is FALSE? A) The law can force polluters to clean up pollution that occurred even before the law was passed. B) Its purpose is to pay for cleaning up toxic waste. C) It was created by taxing chemical products. D) It has been highly successful. E) A single polluter can be forced to pay for cleanup of a site that was also polluted by many others.

47) The best evidence indicates that the overall incidence of taxes in America is A) proportional. B) progressive. C) regressive. D) redistributive. E) relative deprivation.

47) The economic theory that would argue that government can spend its way out of a depression by stimulating the economy through spending is A) Keynesianism. B) Marxism. C) Reaganomics. D) monetarism. E) red ink economics.

47) To successfully dispose of nuclear wastes, they must be isolated from the environment for ________ years. A) 10 B) 100 C) 1,000 D) 5,000 E) 10,000

48) A large number of legal suits currently involve conflicts over who will pay to A) protect endangered species. B) fund environmental research. C) clean up radioactive wastes. D) administer wilderness preserves. E) purchase new wilderness lands.

48) Jumping into the business of consumer protection in the 1960s and 1970s, the ________ made new rules about product labeling, exaggerated product claims, and the use of celebrities in advertising. A) Federal Trade Commission B) Consumer Products Safety Commission C) Food and Drug Administration D) Clayton Antitrust Act E) Consumer Protection Agency

48) The biggest chunk of transfer payments goes to A) means-tested programs in general. B) Temporary Aid to Needy Families (TANF) in particular. C) unmarried black females with children. D) the elderly and other recipients of social security. E) foreign aid.

49) After more than a decade of political delays, President Bush in 2002 signed off on Congressional legislation choosing Yucca Flats, Nevada, as the A) official location of the Superfund. B) new office location of the EPA. C) only remaining pristine wilderness in the United States. D) site for the long-term storage of nuclear waste. E) site for the destruction of nuclear weapons.

49) Food Stamps, low-interest student loans, and Temporary Aid to Needy Families are all examples of A) transfer payments. B) regressive taxes. C) entitlements. D) relative deprivation. E) proportional taxes.

49) ________, supported by President Reagan, was encouraged by the economist Arthur Laffer. A) Deficit spending B) Supply-side economics C) Keynesian economic theory D) A strict laissez-faire system E) Monetarism

5) Federal spending on social programs ________ spending on the military and homeland security. A) is slightly less than B) is about the same as C) is slightly higher than D) is substantially higher than E) is much lower than

5) Health care in the United States A) has decreased in cost due to the technological revolution. B) constitutes nearly 15 percent of Americaʹs gross domestic product. C) has made the United States the healthiest country in the world. D) has failed to keep up with the technological revolution. E) All of the above

5) The consumer price index measures A) the change what various incomes can buy. B) the change in the amount of taxes paid by individuals. C) the change in the cost of buying a fixed basket of good and services. D) the change in income, controlling for periods of unemployment. E) the change in the prime lending rate.

50) A transfer payment is one which A) requires some form of work in exchange for government assistance. B) provides money from the governmentʹs general treasury to those in specific need. C) is paid in lieu of cash. D) is not based on need. E) provides tax credits from the government general treasury to those in need.

50) According to proponents of supply-side economics, A) increasing government spending provides an incentive to invest in business expansion. B) decreasing the supply of money reduces the federal deficit. C) borrowing money decreases the risk of unemployment and recession. D) cutting taxes leads to more incentive to save, work harder, and create more jobs. E) increasing the supply of goods available for consumption lowers prices and reduces the inflation rate.

51) President Reaganʹs economic policies emphasized A) balanced budgeting through across-the-board cuts in all categories of government spending. B) the application of Keynesian economic theory to stimulate or slow the economy through lowering or raising taxes. C) supply-side economics in which tax cuts and deregulation are designed to free funds for savings and investment. D) industrial policy which targeted high tech industries for government assistance in helping them develop and compete in international markets. E) first balancing the budget and then cutting taxes.

51) Which of the following is NOT a means-tested program? A) Medicaid B) Medicare C) Food Stamps D) Aid to Families with Dependent Children E) none of the above

52) George W. Bushʹs tax cuts in 2001 were based on A) stagflation. B) the Federal funds rate. C) supply-side economics. D) Keynesian economics. E) hyperinflation.

52) Which of the following is NOT true of coal? A) It is the nationʹs most abundant fuel. B) It is responsible for the ʺblack lungsʺ health hazard to coal miners. C) It accounts for half the energy Americans use. D) Its use to produce electricity is linked to acid rain. E) About 90 percent of all of Americaʹs energy resources are in coal.

52) Which of the following is an example of an entitlement? A) Food Stamps B) Aid to Families with Dependent Children C) Social Security D) low-interest college loans E) Pell Grants

53) Major corporate corruption scandals in the 1990s A) were largely ignored by Congress. B) were ignored by conservatives. C) have had few economic effects. D) followed an era of corporate concentration. E) resulted in prosecution.

53) The ʺdirtiestʺ type of fuel is A) coal. B) oil. C) natural gas. D) nuclear fuel. E) wood.

53) Transfer payments A) consist of cash and in-kind benefits from the government. B) are part of the proposed changes to make taxation more proportional. C) have significantly redistributed income in America. D) have the net effect of being regressive. E) all of the above

54) Since the 1980s big business was particularly characterized by A) the breakup of many multinational corporations. B) an increase in corporate mergers. C) a decline in foreign competition. D) an increase in government regulation. E) an increase in ethical concerns.

54) The most controversial energy source is A) coal. B) oil. C) natural gas. D) nuclear fuel. E) solar.

54) Transfer payments have A) significantly redistributed income in America. B) raised many of the poor above the poverty line. C) created greater income equality. D) have had virtually no affect on poverty in America. E) conspicuously bypassed the elderly, while helping many other groups.

55) Global warming refers to A) the expectation that the Earthʹs atmosphere is becoming warmer due to the decreasing size of ice masses in Antarctica. B) the expectation that the world will share a common weather pattern by the year 2010. C) the expectation that the Earthʹs atmosphere is becoming warmer due to high levels of carbon monoxide production. D) the spread of nuclear power throughout the world. E) the melting of the polar ice caps.

55) Social Security and Medicare A) require an income and means test for eligibility. B) are the largest and most expensive social welfare programs in America. C) have had little effect on the health and income of older Americans. D) are voluntary programs aimed specifically at the poor. E) all of the above

55) The Sherman Act of 1890 was passed as ________ measure. A) a tariff reform B) a monetary reform C) a Civil War reparations D) an antitrust E) a pro-labor

56) At the end of 1997, 150 nations met in Kyoto, Japan, and agreed in principle to A) stop producing carbon monoxide. B) reduce their emissions of greenhouse gases below 1990 levels by about 2010. C) increase their reliance on renewable resources by 200 percent of their 1990 levels. D) offer tax incentives for reducing carbon monoxide production. E) stop using nuclear energy.

56) The purpose of antitrust legislation is to A) promote the rights of unions. B) prevent foreign investors from owning majority interests in American companies. C) stop the growth of multinational corporations. D) ensure competition and prevent monopolies. E) foster industrial growth through such measures as tariffs and quotas to keep out foreign competition.

56) Which of the following programs receives the most funding? A) Medicare B) Medicaid C) Food Stamps D) Aid to Families with Dependent Children E) Supplemental Security Income

57) A famous and recent antitrust case pursued by the Clinton administration involved A) Disney Enterprises. B) McDonaldʹs. C) Microsoft. D) AT&T. E) none of the above

57) Medicaid provides A) hospital care for the retired and disabled people covered by Social Security. B) medical insurance to those over 65 and disabled. C) medical and hospital aid to the poor on the basis of need through federally assisted state health programs. D) cash payments to aged, blind, or disabled people whose income is below a certain amount. E) hospital care for people covered by Social Security.

57) Which of the following is a renewable resource? A) coal B) solar energy C) natural gas D) oil E) nuclear

58) According to Martin Gilens, whitesʹ attitudes toward welfare are strongly influenced by A) whether they had ever personally experienced poverty. B) their religious beliefs about caring for the poor. C) their current wealth. D) whether they viewed African Americans as lazy or not. E) their educational background.

58) Which of the following is NOT true about the Food and Drug Administration? A) It has the responsibility to ascertain the safety and effectiveness of new drugs before approving them for marketing in America. B) It has broad regulatory powers over the manufacturing, contents, marketing, and labeling of food and drugs. C) It has the regulatory power to cap the retail prices of food and drugs and prevent profiteering by food and drug companies. D) Recent budget cuts have left it overburdened and seriously understaffed. E) All of these are true.

59) The feminization of poverty refers to A) the high incidence of poverty among unmarried mothers and their children. B) high poverty levels among the elderly, who tend to be female. C) higher incarceration rates of women today compared to twenty years ago. D) higher rates of homelessness among women. E) the high incidence of poverty among married mothers and their children.

59) The first major consumer protection policy was the A) Product Safety Act. B) Food and Drug Act. C) Environmental Protection Act. D) Wagner Act. E) Consumer Credit Protection Act.

6) Hundreds, if not thousands, of studies by political scientists have concluded that voters A) ignore the economic consequences of government policies. B) vote for candidates who promise the most. C) vote solely on the basis of partisanship alone. D) vote for the candidate who will benefit the voterʹs financial condition the most. E) vote against their personal financial interests.

6) Programs to assist the poor have always been A) politically popular. B) controversial. C) supported at increasingly high levels. D) provided as entitlements. E) none of the above

6) Which of the following countries has the lowest life expectancy? A) Italy B) Japan C) United States D) Canada E) France

60) Means-tested public assistance programs A) are funded at much higher levels than entitlement programs. B) were eliminated by President Reagan. C) were strengthened as a result of Lyndon Johnsonʹs ʺWar on Poverty.ʺ D) include Medicare, Unemployment Insurance and Old Age, Survivors, and Disability Insurance. E) were eliminated by President Bush.

60) Prior to the New Deal era of the 1930s, the national government A) usually allied itself with business elites to squelch labor unions. B) forbade workers from joining unions. C) actively encouraged workers to join unions. D) guaranteed collective bargaining rights for those workers who formed a viable union. E) set long prison terms for anyone convicted of unionization activity.

61) The ________, passed by Congress in 1935, dramatically brought the government into the equation of one generationʹs obligations to another. A) Aid to Families with Dependent Children Act B) Medicaid bill C) Social Security Act D) National Direct Student Loan Act E) Medicare Bill

61) The right of American workers to collective bargaining was first guaranteed by the National Labor Relations Act, also known as the ________ Act. A) Taft-Hartley B) Clayton Antitrust C) Wagner D) Roosevelt E) Hawley-Smoot

62) Social Security was begun in the United States during A) the Civil War. B) World War I. C) the New Deal. D) the Great Society era. E) Spanish American War.

62) Which of the following is NOT true of the Wagner Act? A) It gave states the power to adopt right-to-work laws. B) It stated that the right of workers to collective bargaining was guaranteed by the national government. C) It represented a sharp break with the governmentʹs traditional anti-labor stance. D) It barred employers from firing or discriminating against a worker who advocates the possibility of unionizing. E) none of the above

63) An example of the kind of consumer policy that was first adopted in the 1960s and 1970s was A) protection against unfair competition that would artificially raise consumer prices. B) creation of the Federal Trade Commission to regulate fair business practices. C) protection against adulterated food and drugs. D) trust-busting. E) creation of a Product Safety Commission to regulate the safety of items sold to consumers.

63) The Social Security Act of 1935 A) brought government into the equation of the obligations of one generation to another. B) substantially freed adults from the obligation of caring for both their children and parents. C) provided for free medical care for all citizens over the age of 65 until it was repealed by the Republican congress of 1953. D) freed American citizens from the obligation of supporting the poor. E) substantially freed children and adults from paying their parentsʹ medical expenses.

64) The agency responsible for protecting the public against false and misleading advertising isthe A) Food and Drug Administration. B) Justice Department. C) Product Safety Commission. D) Federal Communications Commission. E) Federal Trade Commission.

64) The ʺWar on Povertyʺ was the set of social welfare policy initiatives begun by President A) Lyndon Johnson. B) Jimmy Carter. C) Franklin D. Roosevelt. D) Ronald Reagan. E) Harry S. Truman.

65) The ʺWar on Povertyʺ programs were later attacked and had their funding reduced substantially by President A) Dwight Eisenhower. B) Lyndon Johnson. C) Ronald Reagan. D) Richard Nixon. E) George Bush.

65) Truth in lending is enforced by the A) National Labor Relations Board. B) Federal Trade Commission. C) Federal Reserve Board. D) Justice Department. E) Product Safety Commission.

66) The right of workers to collective bargaining is guaranteed by the A) First Amendment. B) United States Constitution. C) National Labor Relations Act. D) Taft-Hartley Act. E) Clayton Antitrust Act.

66) Which of the following presidents did not accept or expand many of the programs initiated under Johnsonʹs ʺWar on Povertyʺ? A) Richard Nixon B) Gerald Ford C) Jimmy Carter D) Ronald Reagan E) both Nixon and Reagan

67) An employer is forbidden to fire or discriminate against a worker who advocates the possibility of unionizing under a provision of the A) Landrum-Griffin Act. B) Taft-Hartley Act. C) Clayton Act. D) Wagner Act. E) First Amendment.

67) President Ronald Reagan ________ the ʺWar on Povertyʺ programs. A) was the mastermind behind the passage of B) continued to support C) severely reduced many of D) completely abolished E) enhanced the scope of

68) Charles Murrayʹs evaluation of the Great Society programs concluded they A) helped to curb the spread of poverty and made the situation much better for millions of the nationʹs poor. B) helped to curb the spread of poverty, but did not make the situation any better for the nationʹs poor. C) helped to curb the spread of poverty, but actually made the situation worse for the nationʹs poor. D) did not curb the spread of poverty, and actually increased the number of the nationʹs poor. E) did not curb the spread of poverty, but strengthened the family as a social institution.

68) The Taft-Hartley Act was aimed at A) expanding the rights of organized labor. B) requiring employers to provide basic health insurance for their employees. C) guaranteeing the right to collective bargaining for the first time in United States history. D) establishing a minimum wage. E) limiting certain practices by organized labor.

69) Charles Murrayʹs study of the programs of the Great Society concluded all of the following EXCEPT A) a key problem all along was inadequate funding to see the anti-poverty programs through. B) public policies discouraged the poor from solving their own problems. C) the programs actually made it profitable to be poor and victimized. D) many of the programs not only failed to halt the spread of poverty, they actually made matters worse. E) many of the programs actually increase poverty in the U.S.

69) Right-to-work laws were permitted by the A) Clayton Antitrust Act. B) Wagner Act. C) National Labor Relations Act. D) Taft-Hartley Act. E) Federal Trade Commission.

7) The government spends more on the ________ than on the ________. A) military; civilians B) youth; elderly C) men; women D) non poor; poor E) non citizens; citizens

7) Which of the following is a reason that American health care expenses are so high? A) Americans visit the doctor more often. B) Americans have longer hospital stays. C) Doctors practice ʺoffensive medicineʺ to avoid medical liability. D) High-tech care is available for previously untreatable conditions. E) All of the above.

7) Which of the following statements is TRUE about Americaʹs political parties and relatively high inflation? A) Neither the Democrats nor the Republicans are willing to accept relatively high inflation. B) The Democrats are more willing to accept relatively high inflation than the Republicans. C) Both the Democrats and the Republicans are willing to accept relatively high inflation. D) The Republicans are more willing to accept relatively high inflation than the Democrats. E) Studies have found no correlation between a given political party and its acceptance of high inflation rates.

70) A major study by Charles Murray argues that A) although the Great Society did not eliminate poverty, it did reduce the number of poor. B) not only did the social programs of the Great Society fail to curb the advance of poverty, they actually made the situation worse. C) macroeconomic cycles were responsible for much of the movement into and out of poverty during the post-1965 period. D) although the Great Society was able to reduce poverty in America, it had no effect on racial discrimination. E) there is a ʺnew povertyʺ in America that is largely the result of deindustrialization, foreign competition, the exploitation of part-time workers and stagnation of the minimum wage.

70) Right-to-work laws are supported by A) union members, but not necessarily organized unions. B) illegal immigrants. C) organized labor unions. D) business management. E) both organized labor unions and management.

71) According to Charles Murray, the problem with social welfare policies is that they A) cost too much. B) did not receive adequate funding. C) discouraged the poor from solving their own problems. D) did not address the basic problem of racism as a cause of poverty. E) robbed hard-working Peter to pay lazy Paul.

71) States were given the right to pass right-to-work laws by the A) National Labor Relations Act. B) Supreme Court ruling in Standard Oil v. California. C) Clayton Antitrust Act. D) Taft-Hartley Act. E) Sherman Antitrust Act.

72) Criticisms of the current welfare system include each of the following EXCEPT A) they discourage the poor from solving their problems. B) they make it profitable to be poor and victimized. C) they do not include a means test to weed out welfare fraud. D) they discourage poor people from saving money. E) they discourage recipients from getting married or even living together.

72) Right-to-work laws prohibit A) employers from discriminating against legal aliens in their hiring practices. B) discrimination in the work place on the basis of race or gender. C) requirements that workers join a union to hold their jobs. D) employers from hiring illegal aliens. E) the formation of labor unions.

73) Government regulation affects businesses like Wal-Mart by A) monitoring stock transactions. B) affection labor practices such as the minimum wage. C) regulating working conditions and labor practices. D) none of the above E) all of the above (excluding D)

73) Martin Gilens research suggested that Americansʹ opposition to welfare was based on A) economic self-interest. B) conservative political ideology. C) negative attitudes toward blacks. D) negative attitudes toward the poor. E) negative attitudes toward government.

74) Each of the following were provisions of the 1996 welfare reform bill EXCEPT A) each state would receive a fixed amount of money to run its own welfare programs. B) people on welfare would have to find work within two years or lose all their benefits. C) basic health care benefits would be provided to those who found jobs. D) a lifetime maximum of five years on welfare was set. E) All of the above were provisional the 1996 welfare reform bill.

75) Nationally, over the past six decades, there has been a particularly strong redistribution of government benefits in favor of the A) very wealthy. B) corporations. C) nationʹs children. D) elderly. E) middle class.

76) Compared to other industrialized countries, the United States ________ in providing a safety net for all its citizens and in lifting a greater percentage of the poor above the poverty line with various programs. A) does much better B) does somewhat better C) does about the same D) does worse E) does something similar

77) The United States differs from other industrial countries in regard to social welfare in all of the following ways EXCEPT A) the United States does not have a comprehensive family leave policy. B) Americans tend to see poverty and social welfare needs as individual rather than government concerns. C) Europeans tend to see government in a more positive light, while Americans tend to distrust government action. D) only the Scandinavian countries spend a smaller proportion of their gross national products on social welfare policies than does the United States. E) the universal provision of daycare to toddlers, paid for by the government.

78) Compared to most Western democracies, the United States provides A) relatively few social welfare benefits. B) selective rather than universal social welfare payments. C) an average amount of social welfare benefits. D) more cash transfers, but fewer in-kind transfers. E) overly generous social welfare benefits.

79) Europeans tend to A) see poverty and social welfare needs as individual. B) have a more positive attitude toward government than Americans. C) distrust government action in areas like social welfare policy. D) leave people at low-income levels more on their own. E) prefer the perpetuation of a privileged and aristocratic upper class whose lifestyle they can envy even though they cannot live it.

8) Americans have ________ health care. A) high-tech, expensive, and unequal B) low-tech, inexpensive, and unequal C) high-tech, expensive, and equal D) low-tech, expensive, and unequal E) high tech, inexpensive and equal Answer: A

8) The median American household income is approximately A) $27,000. B) $32,000. C) $46,000. D) $59,000. E) $60,000.

8) Union members, minority group members, and the poor are more likely to vote ________ than higher income people are. A) Republican (due to greater concern about unemployment) B) Democratic (due to greater concern about both unemployment and inflation) C) Democratic (due to greater concern about unemployment) D) Democratic (due to greater concern about inflation) E) Republican (due to greater concern about inflation)

9) Business owners, managers, and professional people are more likely to vote ________ than lower income people are. A) Republican (due to greater concern about inflation) B) Democratic (due to greater concern about unemployment) C) Democratic (due to greater concern about inflation) D) Republican (due to greater concern about both inflation and unemployment) E) Republican (due to greater concern about unemployment)

9) Government benefits provided regardless of financial need are called A) means-tested. B) transfer payments. C) entitlements. D) non-merit benefits. E) generic expenditures.

9) The infant mortality rate in the United States A) is the lowest in the world. B) is second lowest in the world after Japan. C) ranks 18th among the worldʹs nations. D) is only worse than Finland, Japan, and Iceland. E) is half of what it is in Japan

110) The American two-party system promotes A) the organization of political parties around special interests. B) the weakness of centrist positions on policy issues. C) moderation in conflict and ambiguous policy positions. D) greater conflict, but clear policy choices. E) competitive elections.

101) The media usually report on Americaʹs social problems in a manner that A) encourages government to take on more and more tasks. B) suggests government can really not be trusted to take on more tasks. C) is neither critical nor positive. D) displays a lack of real sensitivity. E) has often been described as benign neglect.

101) Which of the following is TRUE about most third-party campaigns in American history? A) They almost never win office. B) They occasionally succeed. C) They usually become major political parties over time. D) They have been most successful at promoting party dealignment. E) They frequently are successful.

105) Which of the following factors weaken political campaignsʹ effects on voters? A) selective perception, party identification, and incumbent name recognition B) negative advertising, party identification, and incumbent name recognition C) campaign expenditures, party identification, and incumbent name recognition D) selective mobilization, party identification, and incumbent name recognition E) selective mobilization, negative advertising and incumbent name recognition

107) Americaʹs party nomination system could best be described as A) open and entrepreneurial. B) rational and bureaucratized. C) informal, but rational. D) a meritocracy. E) an apprenticeship system.

113) The fact that candidates must tailor their appeals to the particular interest of each major state tends to result in A) numerous campaign promises adding up to new government programs. B) increased public interest in the campaign. C) limiting the scope of government. D) a more open and democratic process. E) a tilt toward statesʹ rights at the expense of the national government.

15) The successes of civil rights and womenʹs rights groups in redirecting the course of public policy, once they were organized, is pointed to as evidence to support the ________ theory that American politics is open and not a problem. A) pluralist B) hyperpluralist C) elite D) hyperelitist E) free market

17) The idea that just a few groups have all the power is associated with A) elite theory. B) pluralist theory. C) hyperpluralist theory. D) democratic theory. E) syndicalism.

19) In states with caucuses, A) supporters of candidates try to get elected as delegates through a pyramid of meetings. B) the state legislature selects the stateʹs delegates to the national conventions. C) party leaders select delegates according to their own candidate preferences. D) candidates appoint supporters to serve as delegates. E) delegates are chosen through general election of a candidate.

21) Which of the following theories offers the most positive interpretation of the effect of interest groups on American democracy? A) pluralist B) hyperpluralist C) elite D) hyperelitist E) free market

A public good is defined as A) something in which any member of society can share. B) something provided by the government that cannot be provided by the private sector. C) a choice that government makes in response to a political issue. D) a public policy that is good for the nation as a whole. E) all of the above

26) The pluralist theory of American politics maintains that A) the extensive organization of competing groups is evidence that influence is widely dispersed among them. B) the proliferation of interest groups results in political stagnation. C) the largest interest groups will come to dominate policymaking. D) although groups often do not play by the rules of the game, they do represent the American public at large. E) the slogan on our money, e pluribus unum, is accurate in the sense that out of the many competing groups in America, a single unified American purpose has been forged.

29) Power in the major United States political parties is A) fragmented among local, state, and national party organizations. B) concentrated in the state parties, with national and local organizations playing only minor roles. C) hierarchically distributed from the national to local levels. D) centralized in national party organizations. E) concentrated in party machines at the local level.

3) Nomination for public office is A) a partyʹs selection of a candidate. B) being appointed to a government post. C) a win in key state primaries. D) a victory in the general election. E) the incumbentʹs selection of a candidate.

32) Interest group liberalism is associated with which of the following criticisms? A) In an effort to please and appease every interest, agencies proliferate, conflicting regulations expand, programs multiply, and the budgets skyrocket. B) Real power is held by relatively few people, key groups, and institutions that get nearly all they want from government. C) Interest groups win some and lose some, but no group wins or loses all the time, and democratic government is well served by their competition. D) The framers of the Constitution intended that groups serve to bargain for various interests in American society, and this has proven a wise and relatively fair, open system. E) The interest group system is dominated by liberal interest groups who have been successfully pushing an agenda that has made it hard for the police to fight crime, contributed to declining moral values and bankrupted the government with giveaways to welfare freeloaders.

38) Subgovernments are composed of key interest group leaders interested in policy X, the government agency in charge of administering policy X, and the ________ handling policy X. A) congressional committees and subcommittees B) federal courts C) public relations officers D) political candidates E) local governments

39) In achieving ʺmomentum,ʺ nothing helps a candidate more than A) early unexpected primary and caucus victories. B) winning where a win was expected. C) a unanimous vote at the national nominating convention. D) closing the gap in the last stages of the campaign. E) strong competition.

40) The hyperpluralist complaint that interest group politics creates subgovernments refers to A) the cooperative efforts of group leaders, government agencies, and members of congressional committees and subcommittees to promote special interests. B) the power of interest groups in determining government policies. C) the conflict of interest created when government agencies promote group interests. D) the use of paid lobbyists on congressional committees and subcommittees. E) the proliferation of specialized local governments over the last thirty years, many of which are designed to service some special interest.

43) A(n) ________ group is composed of all people who might be group members because they share some common interest. A) potential B) interest C) actual D) single-issue E) latent

43) Television became especially important in bringing the reality of ________ home to America as its first heavily televised war. A) the Vietnam War B) the Korean War C) World War I D) the war in Iraq E) World War II

45) Keeping the party operating between conventions is the job of the A) national committee. B) regional offices. C) elected officials. D) congressional leadership. E) majority or minority whip.

45) Part of Olsonʹs Law of Large Groups is the argument that A) the larger the potential group, the less likely potential members are to contribute. B) the larger the potential group, the more likely potential members are to contribute. C) potential group size does not have any measurable affect on the willingness of potential members to contribute. D) an actual group and a potential group are virtually the same when it comes to effectiveness. E) the smaller the group the less likely the potential members are to contribute.

46) According to Olsonʹs Law of Large Groups, A) the larger the group, the further it will fall short of providing an optimal amount of a collective good. B) the smaller the group, the further it will fall short of providing an optimal amount of a collective good. C) the more levels of authority within a group, the more faith its members will have in it. D) the more levels of authority within a group, the less faith its members will have in it. E) the larger the group, the more likely it is to win.

47) ________ helps to explain why public interest lobbies have relatively small proportions of actual members. A) The free-rider problem B) Special interest liberalism C) The rise of political action committees D) Tougher regulation of all lobbyists E) Olsonʹs Law of Large Groups

53) A study of major party platforms by Gerald Pomper found that the parties broke their promises A) ten percent of the time. B) half the time. C) two-thirds of the time. D) over ninety percent of the time. E) a third of the time.

59) Public officials often leak ________ to reporters to see what the political reaction will be. A) trial balloons B) sound bites C) beats D) ʺoiled newsʺ E) talking heads

61) The Democratic-Republicans were also known as the A) Jeffersonians. B) Madisonians. C) Whigs. D) Federalists. E) Hamiltonians.

69) Sound bites are A) short clips of a political speech lasting fifteen seconds or less. B) leaks by official sources used to test the political waters. C) negative news coverage received by a public figure. They hurt! D) a form of censorship widely used in Great Britain. E) negative political advertisements that offer quick attacks on oneʹs opponent.

A shield law A) gives reporters the right to withhold information from the courts. B) gives judges the right to issue a gag order. C) protects certain religious practices not covered by Supreme Court rulings. D) prevents the courts from closing criminal trials to the press. E) prevents reporters from disclosing secret government information.

7) According to the text, Ronald Reaganʹs presidency was characterized by A) more concern and energy devoted to the presidentʹs media appearances than in any other administration. B) a number of spontaneous media appearances by the president designed to take advantage of his Hollywood experience. C) considerable animosity between the media and the administration. D) Reaganʹs frequent false statements which were later documented by reporters to be either errors or deliberate lies. E) attempts to avoid media appearances by the president.

73) According to the Federal Election Campaign Act, candidates must A) disclose who contributed to their campaigns, and how the money was spent. B) reject any contributions of Political Action Committees that exceed $1,000. C) apply for federal funds if they are running in a presidential election. D) raise their own campaign funds. E) all of the above

73) In 2004, the average sound bite of a presidential candidate shown talking on the nightly news averaged A) less than ten seconds. B) about thirty seconds. C) about two minutes. D) about ninety seconds. E) about a minute.

75) In the 1976 case of Buckley v. Valeo, the Supreme Court ruled that A) the limitation on the amount of money persons could contribute to their own election campaigns violated free speech, and was unconstitutional. B) presidential election campaigns could not be paid for by tax dollars. C) the forced disclosure of contributions to federal elections violated freedom of association, and was therefore unconstitutional. D) the limitation on the amount of money people could contribute to their own election campaigns was not a violation of free speech, and was constitutional. E) congressional and state legislative districts must be of equal population and reapportioned every ten years.

77) In a 2002 survey of 1,149 journalists, A) more were found to identify themselves as Democrats than as Republicans. B) a majority expressed no party preference whatsoever. C) they were about evenly split in their party preferences between Republicans and Democrats. D) more were found to identify themselves as Republicans than as Democrats. E) a large majority were found to be both ideologically neutral and have no preference for one party over the other.

79) One survey of journalists in 2002 found that ________ were Democrats. A) 37 percent B) 29 percent C) 60 percent D) 45 percent E) 85 percent

91) The media seem to have the least effect in terms of A) how people vote. B) how people evaluate political leaders. C) what Americans think about. D) the importance people attach to problems. E) who votes.

93) Agenda-setting effects on public opinion are an example of how A) the media influence individualʹs vote choices. B) the media have a bias in favor of the status quo. C) the media cue individuals about what political issues are important to think about. D) the media have a liberal bias. E) the media have no bias.

97) The relationship between campaign spending and electoral success is that A) spending more than your opponent does not assure victory. B) the candidate who spends the most is sure to win. C) the more incumbents spend, the more likely they are to be reelected. D) the amount of money spent and winning are entirely unrelated. E) none of the above

99) According to Herbert Alexanderʹs ʺdoctrine of sufficiency,ʺ A) there is a minimum amount of money that candidates must spend to have a chance at winning. B) candidates with large personal fortunes are almost guaranteed victory, unless their opponent is of roughly equal net worth. C) in order to win a candidate must have more money than his or her opponent. D) the wealthier candidate always wins. E) a candidateʹs sense of self-worth, not money, is most important to a successful campaign.

A broad program for community development would most likely be supported through a(n) A) formula grant. B) enterprise zone. C) project grant. D) categorical grant. E) block grant.

A choice that government makes in response to some issue on its agenda is called A) public policy. B) selective selection. C) a law. D) stimulus-response. E) rational choice theory

A form of governmental structure in which the national government is weak and most or all power is in the hands of its components (e.g., states) is known as A) federalism. B) statist. C) a confederation. D) parliamentary. E) a unitary government.

A key question that confronts government regarding different public policy choices is A) whether an appropriate linkage institution is willing to frame a policy. B) which is the most complicated one to deal with. C) which is the least complicated one to deal with. D) whether or not government should do anything about them. E) all of the above

A major purpose of the economic provisions in the Constitution was to A) promote a more equal distribution of wealth in the country. B) guarantee the states a significant economic role. C) preserve and strengthen the farm economy to the disadvantage of manufacturing. D) establish a comprehensive set of social welfare programs to assist people in times of need. E) create a strong national government so as to bring stability out of economic chaos.

A marriage license issued in one state is valid and honored in all states under the constitutional provision of A) separation of powers. B) full faith and credit. C) national supremacy. D) national licensure. E) privileges and immunities.

A means of selecting policymakers and or organizing government so that policy represents and responds to the publicʹs preferences is A) government. B) politics. C) public administration. D) democracy. E) all of the above

A number of states have sued the federal government for reimbursement of funds on the grounds that A) overcrowded prisons are a form of cruel and unusual punishment. B) Trick question! States cannot sue the federal government. C) it has no right to charter a national bank. D) the federal government isnʹt preventing illegal immigration into their states. E) the Federal Reserve Board has pushed interest rates too high, increasing state borrowing costs.

A project grant is A) money awarded for public housing in urban areas of the nation. B) awarded more or less automatically to states or communities. C) awarded on the basis of competitive application. D) restricted to construction projects. E) distributed on the basis of population, per capita income, percentage of rural population, or some other factor.

After the American Revolution, state legislatures were composed of A) significantly more middle-class representatives and fewer wealthy members compared to before the war. B) revolutionary war militiamen. C) about the same ratio of wealthy members and not so wealthy members as before the war. D) significantly more landless laborers and poor farmers than any other group. E) a higher percentage of wealthy planters, lawyers, and merchants than ever before.

After the Revolution, James Madison observed that ʺthe most common and durable source of faction has been A) urban and rural divisions.ʺ B) the various and unequal divisions of property.ʺ C) aristocracy.ʺ D) the British army.ʺ E) racial inequalities.ʺ

After the Revolution, a major power shift occurred in the states from ________ to ________. A) the broad middle class; a handful of wealthy individuals B) countryside; city C) city; countryside D) the east coast; the western interior E) wealthy individuals; broad middle class

After the Revolution, power in the state legislatures shifted A) from merchants to lawyers. B) from the poor to the wealthy. C) from radicals to conservatives. D) from the wealthy to those with more moderate incomes. E) from the upper to the lower chambers.

Aid to parochial schools was first passed in the 1960s at the request of A) Richard M. Nixon. B) Jimmy Carter. C) John F. Kennedy. D) Lyndon Johnson. E) Barry Goldwater.

All governments A) have written constitutions. B) are elected. C) have a legislature. D) provide services. E) have a president.

All governments A) provide public goods and socialize citizens into the political and social system. B) ensure safety on the high seas and promote free enterprise. C) maintain national parks and a national defense. D) guarantee a capitalist economy and collect taxes. E) hold elections.

All of the following are examples of how federalism decentralizes our policies EXCEPT A) federal income tax. B) regulation of abortion. C) death penalty. D) funding of education. E) homeland security.

All of the following are parts of the policymaking system EXCEPT A) public goods. B) policymaking institutions. C) linkage institutions. D) peopleʹs political interests. E) policy.

All of the following were tactics of the Civil Rights Movement EXCEPT A) marches. B) civil disobedience. C) sit-ins. D) bus boycotts. E) none of the above.

Almost every policy the national government has adopted has originated with A) the Senate. B) the states. C) the House of Representatives. D) the Supreme Court. E) the president.

American government is viewed most positively by the A) socialist theory. B) pluralist theory. C) positivist philosophy. D) hyperpluralist theory. E) elite and class theory.

American society generally emphasizes equal A) pay for equal work. B) results. C) rewards. D) distribution. E) opportunity.

Americansʹ civil liberties are set down in A) the Declaration of Independence. B) the Bill of Rights. C) Article I of the Constitution. D) no written document or law. E) the Preamble to the Constitution.

Americaʹs ________ society makes it more sensible to have Social Security administered on a national rather than a state-by-state basis. A) electronic B) free enterprise C) mobile D) multi-ethnic E) aging

Among the factors that contributed to economic turmoil under the Articles of Confederation was the A) postwar depression that left many small farmers unable to pay their debts and threatened mortgage foreclosures. B) decreasing economic viability of slavery. C) power shift from middle-class farmers to wealthy landowners. D) state legislatures that favored creditors and created more debt. E) All of these factors contributed to the economic turmoil

An example of public policymaking would be A) Congress and the president deciding not to act on the AIDS crisis. B) a majority of the public supporting the idea of government dealing with unemployment. C) the president meeting with the heads of oil companies. D) the press creating public concern about racial discrimination. E) all of the above

An interest group so single-minded that its members often vote on only one issue, ignoring a politicianʹs stand on everything else, is known as A) a one-issue group. B) a uni-issue group. C) a hot-button group. D) a single-issue group. E) a mono-issue group.

As a result of our federal form of government, the death penalty in the United States A) is mandatory. B) is in violation of the Eighth Amendment. C) is permissible at the federal level, but banned at the state level. D) varies substantially by state. E) is permissible because it is not considered cruel and unusual punishment.

As originally established by the Constitution, the House of Representatives had how many members from each state? A) seven B) one C) two D) It depended on the stateʹs population. E) none

As the framers wrote the Constitution they had no practical choice but to adopt a federal system for all but which of the following reasons? A) The confederation had clearly failed in managing the countryʹs problems. B) The population was too dispersed for a unitary system to work. C) Americansʹ loyalty to state governments was stronger than it was to the United States. D) America had always had a federal system and it would have been too radical and disruptive a change to adopt another system. E) The countryʹs transportation and communication systems were too primitive for a unitary government to work.

At the center of all theories of elite domination of politics is A) big business. B) the Congress. C) the nouveau riche. D) the Trilateral Commission. E) the president.

At the end of the Revolutionary War, A) captured British troops were herded into large prison camps where they served life sentences for their treachery. B) a strong, new national government began immediately to keep the economy running smoothly with careful regulation. C) a postwar depression severely hurt small farmers and many others. D) the condition of the economy was largely the same as it had been before the war. E) a period of tremendous economic prosperity began.

At the time of the constitutional convention, slavery A) existed only in Georgia and the Carolinas. B) was permitted in all thirteen states. C) was illegal only in Massachusetts. D) was prohibited north of the Mason-Dixon line. E) was prohibited by the Connecticut Compromise, which was never put into effect.

At the time of the ratification of the Constitution, A) all states had bills of rights but there was no national Bill of Rights. B) the national Bill of Rights also applied to the states. C) there were no bills of rights in the United States. D) both the national government and the states had bills of rights. E) the national government had a Bill of Rights but, there were no state bills of rights.

At the top of the political agenda during the period of the Articles of Confederation was A) economic issues. B) social-equality issues. C) military issues. D) voting rights issues. E) slavery.

At the urging of feminists and conservative Christians, some cities have banned pornography on the grounds it dehumanizes and endangers women. How have the courts dealt with these bans? A) They have upheld them based on the Equal Protection Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. B) They have refused to review them. C) They have struck them down as violations of the First Amendment. D) They have upheld them based on the First Amendment. E) The courts have been erratic, allowing some ordinances and revoking others.

1) A(n) ________ is a partyʹs official selection of a candidate to run for office. A) appointment B) nomination C) conversion D) imprimatur E) endorsement

10) In Europe, interest groups A) do not exist. B) often form political parties. C) exist but are not as powerful as in the United States. D) have the same role and power as in the United States. E) do not have the same constitutional protection that they have in the United States and are frequently persecuted.

101) Campaigns strengthen voter commitment to the usual party or the candidate they previously supported by emphasizing ________ as part of their campaign strategy. A) conversion B) reinforcement C) activation D) persuasion E) direct mail

103) More than any other development in the twentieth century, the rise of television broadcasting has reinforced ________ in the American political process. A) interest B) individualism C) behavioralism D) participation E) democratization

11) In many countries with multiparty systems and proportional representation, interest groups A) frequently win a majority of seats in the national legislature. B) frequently win some seats in the national legislature. C) frequently run candidates for seats in the national legislature, but these candidates almost never win. D) are barred from running candidates for office. E) are guaranteed by law seats in the national parliament in proportion to their percentage of the general population.

11) Which of the following is TRUE about the presidential nomination process? A) In most states, it is the party leadership that chooses the delegates, and ordinary party voters have no say. B) In most states, presidential primaries are held with the national convention delegates allocated to each candidate in rough proximity to their percentage of popular vote. C) In most states, caucuses of interested party voters are held to begin the delegate selection process; only a small percentage of party voters attend, but it is open. D) Presidential candidates are chosen by their partyʹs senators and representatives in Congress. E) Although caucuses or presidential primaries are held in all states, these are mere beauty contests; convention delegates are chosen earlier by party officials who are uninterested in the opinions of party voters.

15) Political parties perform all of the following tasks EXCEPT A) pick policymakers and run campaigns. B) enforce rigid adherence to their policy positions. C) advocate public policies. D) coordinate policymaking. E) give cues to voters.

2) According to James Madison in Federalist Paper No. 1, the way to prevent any one group from having too much power is to A) eliminate most groups. B) increase the scope and number of groups. C) strictly regulate them. D) make them unconstitutional. E) none of the above

20) The idea that interest group activity brings representation to all is associated with A) elite theory. B) pluralist theory. C) hyperpluralist theory. D) democratic theory. E) republicanism.

21) Compared to 1952, recent polls on party identification have shown that A) more people today identify themselves as Democrats. B) there are more independents than there are Democrats or Republicans. C) the percentage of Democrats has increased only slightly, while the percentage of Republicans has declined. D) both the percentages of both Democrats and Republicans in the country have increased. E) none of the above

22) Pluralists argue that lobbying A) is dominated by wealthy corporations and the wealthiest individuals and is a danger to the democratic system. B) is open to all and is therefore not to be regarded as a problem. C) by so many interest groups who get what they want indicates that the relation between groups and government has grown too cozy. D) must be suspended until tighter regulations can be put into place to protect the public interest. E) has no effect on policymaking.

24) Elitist theorists argue that A) groups weak in one resource can use another, and all legitimate groups are able to affect public policy by one means or another. B) the fact that there are numerous groups proves nothing, because most groups are extremely unequal in power. C) the government has treated all interest group demands as legitimate, and unwisely chosen to advance them all. D) the larger the group, the further it will fall short of providing an optimal amount of a collective good. E) governments should be controlled by a select group of well-educated, cultured, wealthy persons who understand the laws of economics and can run the most efficient government.

29) Elitist views of interest groups emphasize that A) groups are essentially equal in their power and thus cancel each othersʹ influence on policymakers. B) a system of interlocking directorates reinforces the power of the few dominant groups. C) group competition weakens the ability of any one group to dominate. D) because there are so many groups, their effect on policy is insignificant. E) the leaders of powerful interest groups tend to think they are superior to the average citizen and thus they demand special privileges from government not accorded the rest of society in order to maintain themselves as a privileged elite.

3) In the description of political parties as ʺthree-headed political giants,ʺ which of the following is NOT considered one of those three heads? A) the party-in-government B) the party-out-of-power C) the party-in-the-electorate D) the party as an organization E) none of the above

3) Since the 1960s, the number of interest groups has A) remained constant. B) risen rapidly. C) declined slightly. D) declined sharply. E) fluctuated up and down as new issues developed and others faded away.

30) Interest group liberalism is criticized especially by ________ theorists. A) pluralist B) hyperpluralist C) elitist D) hyperelitist E) social-conservative

31) For a candidate, the most important and desirable result of the early nomination contests is A) doing well in a state highly representative of the entire United States population. B) doing better than expected, thus winning an image as the partyʹs frontrunner and holder of momentum. C) winning the highest number of national convention delegates. D) winning all of its electoral votes. E) winning the highest number of votes

31) Party machines in large cities relied primarily on ________ to reward friends and punish enemies. A) local judges B) patronage C) city police departments D) the civil service merit system E) third parties

34) The criticism that government refuses to make tough choices between X or Y, instead pretending there is no need to choose and trying to favor both is most often made by ________ theorists. A) pluralist B) hyperpluralist C) elitist D) hyperelitist E) rational choice

36) Interest group liberalism refers to A) government freedom to favor some interest groups over others. B) governmentʹs excessive deference to interest groups. C) the liberal political ideology of most interest groups. D) the proliferation of the number of interest groups. E) the strong tendency of interest groups to back the Democratic party and not the Republican party and that keeps the Democratic party in power.

41) A hyperpluralist interpretation of group politics would maintain that A) groups weak in one resource can substitute other resources to influence policy decisions. B) groups have become so powerful that government ends up aiding every possible interest. C) the fact that there are numerous groups proves nothing, because groups are unequal in power. D) groups provide a key linkage between people and government. E) All of these are true.

41) The first televised ________ occurred during the 1960 presidential campaign. A) election returns B) presidential debate C) national political convention D) political commercial E) presidential press conference

43) Voters in presidential primaries and caucuses tend to be A) very similar to the rest of the United States population in terms of education and income. B) older and more affluent than the United States population as a whole. C) minorities and notably younger than the general population. D) somewhat less educated and somewhat poorer on average than the United States population as a whole. E) far less educated and much poorer on average than the United States population as a whole.

44) The free-rider problem refers to A) unrelated amendments being added to a piece of legislation in order to bypass usual procedures. B) potential members of a group failing to join the actual group, as they know they will receive the same benefits whether they are active members or not. C) legislators who face no election opponents, and thus are automatically reelected. D) mass transit scofflaws who endanger government aid to subways, buses, and commuter trains by not being officially counted. E) welfare fraud and the costs it imposes on government and taxpayers.

48) According to Olsonʹs Law of Large Groups, A) the larger the group, the more effective it will be. B) the smaller the group, the more effective it will be. C) the size of a group does not determine its effectiveness, the leadership structure is the key. D) all groups have a life cycle of birth, growth, maintenance, and decline, although many never decline completely. E) large groups are more democratic.

49) The day-to-day activities of the national party are the responsibility of the A) congressional party leaders. B) national chairperson. C) president. D) national committee. E) national convention.

49) Which for the following is true about cable newscasts? A) ʺHardʺ news stories comprise about 22 hours of a typical dayʹs cable newscast. B) Only about 11% of the time was used for written and edited news stories. C) Cable news is heavily subsidized by the the federal government. D) There are more regulations for cable news than their are for broadcast news. E) Cable newscasts are more concerned with increasing the reputation of the news organization than with making profit.

5) Purposely staged activities held in front of the media are called A) trial balloons. B) media events. C) political dramas. D) press conferences. E) news.

50) The biggest obstacle to the effectiveness of large groups is the A) difficulty of finding effective leadership. B) problem of raising funds and attracting government support. C) formation of counter-groups to oppose them. D) discrepancy between potential and actual membership. E) government regulations on lobbying activities.

55) A party era begins, or is made more certain, with A) the defeat of an incumbent president. B) a critical election. C) the founding of a new major party. D) party competition. E) a congressional election.

111) Advocates of the ________ believe that parties should present distinct, comprehensive programs for governing the nation and carry them out. A) differentiation approach B) McGovern-Fraser Commission C) responsible party model D) rational-choice theory E) party realignment

55) The partyʹs platform is drafted A) after the convention, by a committee made up exclusively of supporters of the winning nominee. B) before the convention, by a committee whose members are chosen in rough proportion to each candidateʹs strength. C) after the convention, by a committee of party members chosen in rough proportion to each candidateʹs strength. D) during the convention, usually in the morning hours when cameras are not rolling. E) by the partyʹs presidential nominee in the days after the convention is over.

57) The final major event of each partyʹs national convention, during the last hour or so on the fourth and final night, is the A) adoption of the party platform. B) acceptance speech by the presidential candidate. C) roll-call vote for the presidential nomination. D) keynote speech. E) inaugural ball and champagne party to honor the new nominee.

61) The largest expenditure in a campaign budget for the presidency or a statewide office today would almost certainly be A) travel, hotels, and food for the candidate and campaign staff. B) television advertising. C) the salaries of the campaign manager, pollster, counsel, and other staff. D) direct mail. E) buttons, signs, car bumper stickers, billboards, and brochures.

67) Television news coverage characteristically A) has little impact on shaping political opinions. B) lacks in-depth analysis. C) emphasizes policy issues. D) focuses on Congressional politics more than presidential politics. E) focuses on what elites think is important.

7) Which of the following is NOT typical of American interest groups? A) They frequently look to the bureaucracy or the judicial process to achieve their policy goals. B) They run their own slate of candidates for office in many parts of the country. C) Most have a handful of key policies to push, and are policy experts in those areas. D) Unlike political parties, they are not faced with the constraint of trying to appeal to everyone. E) They mostly represent diffuse, non-economic interests.

71) Andrew Jackson was the first president identified as a(n) A) Independent. B) Democrat. C) Republican. D) Democratic-Republican. E) Whig.

71) During the 1992 election campaign, CBS News promised to ________, but then changed its policy when it proved to be unworkable. A) follow campaign ads with factual analysis B) reform the sound bite process C) ban coverage of polls D) float no trial balloons E) give equal time to each candidate on each news broadcast

79) Donating $200,000 to a political party to help its presidential nominee in somewhat indirect ways is A) legal, and known as soft money. B) illegal under the McCain-Feingold Act. C) of unclear legality and the subject of a controversial and vague Supreme Court ruling. D) legal, and known as a PAC contribution. E) illegal under the Federal Election Campaign Act (FECA).

8) American political parties differ from interest groups in that parties A) are policy specialists. B) are policy generalists. C) are policy-driven. D) do not take positions on policy issues. E) have a narrower scope than interest groups.

83) A shot of a personʹs face speaking directly into the television camera is known as a A) superfacial. B) talking head. C) head shot. D) sound bite. E) mug shot.

83) The election of 1896 is considered a watershed because it A) entrenched western farmers and silverites in the Republican party. B) shifted the party coalitions and entrenched the Republicans in power for another generation. C) gave Republicans control of the South. D) marked the rise of the Populist party, which dominated American politics until the Depression. E) brought the industrial working classes and Wall Street interests together into the Democratic fold.

87) A talking head is a reference to A) a television talk show host. B) a shot of a personʹs face talking directly to the camera. C) a news leak that is discretely passed to a reporter in a public washroom. D) a television news anchor. E) a television talk show.

Beginning in 1781, the United States was governed under the A) Articles of Confederation. B) Mayflower Compact. C) Basic Law of 1781. D) British Constitution. E) current United States Constitution.

Beginning with the case of ________ in 1925, the Supreme Court began to rule that the Bill of Rights applied directly to the states, as well as to the national government. A) United States v. Bill of Rights B) Miranda v. Arizona C) Engel v. Vitale D) Barron v. Baltimore E) Gitlow v. New York

Blacks were first given the legal right to vote by the A) Civil Rights Act of 1964. B) Twenty-fourth Amendment. C) Fifteenth Amendment. D) Voting Rights Act of 1965. E) Emancipation Proclamation.

Business interests have traditionally found their demands received most favorably by A) state governments. B) the courts. C) Congress. D) the president. E) cities.

By eighteenth-century standards, life was ________ for most people in the United States at the time of the Revolution. A) hell both politically and economically B) politically oppressive C) ideal D) not bad E) an economic nightmare

1) The case involving Eli Lilly and Company illustrates how A) little influence special interests actually have on Congress. B) special interests can still bribe members of Congress. C) special interestsʹ campaign contributions can influence congressional action. D) Congress can regulate the activities of special interests. E) the increasing importance of multinational corporations.

103) Campaigns are most effective in A) getting people to contribute time and money. B) converting voters from one candidate to another. C) reinforcing existing preferences toward candidates. D) educating people on the issues. E) shaping how the media will portray a candidate to the public.

107) If the United States had a multiparty system, A) third parties would come to dominate politics. B) the necessity for coalitions would be eliminated. C) each party would have more distinct policy positions. D) people would have to pay dues to belong to a party. E) each party would move to the ideological center.

111) Party outsiders have ________ getting elected in the United States than in other countries. A) about the same chance of B) no chance of C) a much easier time D) a somewhat more difficult time E) a much less likely chance of

12) An interest group is more likely to form its own political party where A) voters choose their legislators in single-member districts. B) voters choose their legislators in dual-member districts. C) voters choose their legislators using proportional representation. D) the government has a bicameral legislature. E) there is a strong two-party system, and the major parties ignore their demands.

13) According to ________ theorists, interest groups compete and counterbalance one another in the political marketplace. A) elitist B) hyperelitist C) pluralist D) hyperpluralist E) free market

15) The presidential primary was begun in the early twentieth century, most strongly pushed by A) Democratic party leaders in Congress. B) Republican party leaders in Congress. C) political reformers who wanted to take nominations out of the hands of party bosses. D) party bosses who wanted to take nominations out of the hands of political reformers. E) the members of the electoral college.

16) The group theory of politics offered by pluralist theorists argues all of the following EXCEPT A) groups provide a key link between people and government. B) no one group is likely to become too dominant. C) groups are all of equal strength. D) groups usually play by the rules of the game. E) different groups win at different times.

18) A pluralistic interpretation of interest group politics would maintain that A) all groups are subject to corrupt practices and tactics involving violence. B) the degree of organization of a group has no effect on its ability to influence policy. C) all legitimate groups can affect public policy by means of one political resource or another. D) when groups compete the public interest is not served. E) the overemphasis on groups in America has submerged the value of the individual and lead to government policies that suppress individual interests.

23) The McGovern-Fraser Commission made the delegate selection process of the Democratic party more democratic by A) giving the power of selecting delegates to party officials. B) increasing the number of delegates chosen. C) weakening the power of party leaders to choose convention delegates. D) encouraging the use of presidential caucuses rather than primaries. E) none of the above

23) The upsurge of partisan independence among Americans since 1952 A) has come mostly at the expense of the Republicans. B) has not harmed either party. C) has come mostly at the expense of the Democrats. D) has occurred mostly among minor party identifiers. E) has harmed both parties equally.

23) ________ theorists are impressed by how insignificant most organized interest groups are. A) Pluralist B) Hyperpluralist C) Elitist D) Pluralist and hyperpluralist E) Deconstruction

25) Most Americans are A) liberal. B) moderate-liberals. C) moderate. D) conservative. E) non-ideological.

25) The ________ theorists argue that the power of the few is fortified by an extensive system of interlocking directorates, and that wealthy corporations prevail when it comes to major decisions by government. A) pluralist B) hyperpluralist C) elitist D) hyperelitist E) pyramid

27) The presence and power of multinational corporations illustrates A) elite theory. B) pluralist theory. C) hyperpluralist theory. D) democratic theory. E) global unity theory.

27) Which of the following was NOT a reason for the Democratic party adding superdelegates to its national nominating conventions? A) the sense that party insiders and elected officials would be more likely to support the most electable candidate B) the need for establishing a ʺpeer reviewʺ to the process, with input from politicians who often know the candidates best C) the insistence of the McGovern-Fraser Commission to have superdelegates play a major veto-like role D) the feeling that earlier reforms had given too little say to the partyʹs state and national leaders, with disastrous election results E) none of the above

33) Interest group liberalism is promoted by A) ideologically liberal interest groups and not conservative groups. B) one group winning and another losing in the competition for government action or funding. C) subgovernments. D) hyperpluralists. E) all of the above

35) The idea that too many groups are getting too much of what they want is associated with A) elite theory. B) pluralist theory. C) hyperpluralist theory. D) democratic theory. E) proliferation theory.

37) All subgovernments have the same goal A) protecting the public interest. B) attacking the government head-on. C) protecting their self-interest. D) electing the most qualified people to office. E) to join the main government.

37) In closed primaries, A) voters may vote for candidates from either party. B) voters may choose on election day which party primary they want to participate in. C) only voters who have registered in advance with the party can vote. D) voters may vote for multiple candidates. E) none of the above

37) In general, magazines are A) politically conservative. B) basically reserved for the educated elite. C) not a major source of news in the United States. D) not read very widely in the United States. E) a major source of news in the United States.

39) Which of the following is NOT one of the major elements of the subgovernment system at the national level? A) interest group B) congressional committee C) federal court D) federal agency E) bureaucrats

43) Each party holds a national convention every A) six years. B) year. C) four years. D) five years. E) two years.

47) Critics of primaries and caucuses contend that the presidential ʺkingmakersʺ are now A) party bosses. B) the few who vote in the caucuses and primaries. C) the media. D) interest groups. E) state party organizations.

49) Consumer organizations suffer from A) amicus curiae briefs. B) class action suits. C) Olsonʹs Law of Large Groups. D) right-to-work laws. E) hyperpluralism.

5) In most advanced industrialized countries, national campaigns A) are even less dignified than in the United States. B) occur once every four years. C) are limited by law to no more than two months. D) are longer than American elections. E) occur only once every seven years.

51) Political candidates make many promises when running for office. In electing one, the public can expect A) specific implementation of the promise to differ from the general promise made during the campaign. B) few to be carried out because political promises are made to be broken. C) that for every broken promise, many more will be kept. D) a significant gap between party platform and political performance. E) both A and D.

51) To a large extent, television networks define news as what is ________ to viewers. A) informative B) vital information C) entertaining D) thought-provoking E) yet unknown

55) News is what A) the public believes are the most important political issues facing the country. B) government officials want it to be. C) is timely and different. D) has the greatest impact on the most people. E) journalism professors say it is.

59) Providing select information and a request for money to lists of people who have supported candidates of similar views in the past is a frequently used political technique known as A) soft money. B) conversion. C) direct mail. D) fundraising. E) caucusing.

6) An organization of people with similar policy goals entering the political process to try to achieve those aims is called A) a political party. B) a political action committee. C) an interest group. D) a collective. E) a political corporation.

61) During the first Persian Gulf War, reporters A) had very free movement but only limited access to accurate military information on a timely basis. B) were barred from covering the war or speculating about it from the time the air strikes began until the entire war was over. C) were denied freedom of movement and had only limited access to accurate military information on a timely basis. D) were frequently captured by Iraqi troops and sentenced to long jail sentences for reporting information unfavorable to the Iraqi government. E) had very free movement, and access to accurate military information almost immediately.

63) After the Persian Gulf War, fifteen major news organizations sent a letter A) condemning President Bush for killing tens of thousands of retreating Iraqi troops. B) citing a dozen instances of blatant, false propaganda that had been given them by Iraqi officials during the war. C) complaining that the Pentagonʹs rules for reporting the war were designed to control the news. D) congratulating the Pentagon for its brilliant war effort. E) complaining that they had been barred by the Pentagon from filming United States planes killing tens of thousands of retreating Iraqi troops waving white flags of surrender.

81) In Buckley v. Valeo (1976), the Supreme Court A) ruled that the wildly unequal campaign expenditures of candidates for government office were a violation of the Equal Protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment and ordered Congress and the states to develop mechanisms to assure equal funding of all major candidates. B) limited the activities of Political Action Committees. C) struck down the part of the Federal Election Campaign Act that restricted the amount individuals could contribute to their own campaign. D) stated that the Federal Election Commission had no power to enforce compliance with their requirements. E) declared the Federal Election Campaign Act unconstitutional.

83) The hydraulic theory says that money always finds a way to get around legal obstacles. Thus, when the soft money loophole was closed, how did money continue to find its way into political campaigns? A) through the McCain-Feingold loophole B) through dense money C) through 527 Groups D) through the garden hose loophole E) through buying bulk purchases of books to avoid limits on campaign contributions

85) The news does not mirror reality because A) journalists are more liberal than most people. B) the number of potential news stories is limited. C) journalists must select stories that will draw the largest audience. D) journalists are more conservative than most people. E) the news media are biased toward the coverage of political events.

87) PACs are A) committees formed to lobby government officials in behalf of their interests. B) state commissions organized to reform campaign financing practices. C) committees organized by interest groups to channel money to parties and candidates. D) subcommittees of the FEC. E) groups organized by political activists to increase voter participation.

89) Critics of the ʺminimal effects hypothesisʺ about the mediaʹs effect on public opinion point to the mediaʹs role in A) how voters cast their ballots. B) concealing problems that exist by ignoring them. C) shaping what priority Americans attach to problems. D) whether people choose to vote. E) mobilizing voter turnout.

9) One of the main differences between American political parties and interest groups is that A) interest groups are concerned with more issues. B) interest groups concentrate on only one policy arena. C) political parties run candidates for office. D) interest groups limit their membership. E) political parties are policy specialists.

9) The people who keep the party running between elections and make its rules are members of which ʺheadʺ of the party? A) party-in-the-electorate B) permanent party C) party as an organization D) party-in-government E) party-in-the-states

91) Most PACs give money to A) candidates who disagree with them, but who are likely to be ʺbought.ʺ B) candidates of only one political party. C) candidates who already agree with them in the first place. D) the parties and let them distribute money among their candidates as they see fit. E) challengers trying to unseat incumbents

93) Which of the following statements about Political Action Committees (PACs) is FALSE? A) All PAC expenditures must be meticulously accounted for to the FEC. B) PACs have proliferated in recent years. C) The influence of PACs is particularly important in presidential campaigns. D) Candidates need PACs because high-tech campaigning is expensive. E) PACs contribute money before and after elections.

95) Research has shown that the cost of American election campaigns is A) high compared to other countries. B) decreasing when the rising cost of living is taken into account. C) per person, about the same as a DVD movie. D) only about 25 cents per voter. E) a national scandal.

97) People who invest their political ʺcapitalʺ in a particular issue are often called A) talking heads. B) policy wonks. C) policy entrepreneurs. D) political investors. E) policy specialists.

1) A political party is A) less interested in winning elections than in particular public policy. B) a group of people who agree on everything and organize annually to win elections. C) a narrow interest group seeking advantage through elections. D) a team of men and women with similar beliefs seeking legitimate control of the government by through elections. E) an organization devoted to implementing policy in the public interest.

103) Critically affecting the electoral college vote, bringing new issues to the public agenda, and venting popular discontent are important roles played by A) intra-party factions. B) splinter groups in a multiparty system. C) the two-party system in thwarting extreme or unconventional views. D) third parties in a two-party system. E) parties based on a single issue in a multiple-issue society.

109) In proportional representation systems Page Ref A) whoever gets the most votes wins the election. B) each demographic group is allocated a certain number of positions in the government, in proportion to that groupʹs percentage of the population. C) coalition governments usually last for many years. D) legislative seats are allocated according to each partyʹs percentage of the nationwide vote. E) every party gets represented in the legislature

109) Throughout American history, presidential campaigns have become A) dirtier and dirtier. B) shorter and shorter. C) more and more secretive. D) more and more democratic. E) all of the above

11) The political ʺparty-in-the-electorateʺ is defined as people who A) vote for the candidates from one party. B) register as members of a party. C) work for a partyʹs candidates. D) identify with a party. E) walk door-to-door to meet the voters and personally campaign for their partyʹs candidates.

113) In what way do weak political parties affect the scope of government? A) They make it difficult for politicians to help their constituents. B) They allow presidents to expand the scope of foreign policy, while they decrease the domestic scope of government. C) Being weak, they are unable to counteract the power of government so the scope of government grows. D) Since it is harder for them to enact legislation, it is hard for them to either expand or decrease the scope of government. E) They have had no real effect on the size and power of government.

14) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) With proportional representation systems, all it takes is between one and five percent of the vote for a party to win seats in the national legislature. B) In many Scandinavian countries, farmersʹ parties have long been in existence. C) Many new interest groups in Europe have formed parties on the basis of shared values. D) Green parties in Europe have never been able to win enough votes to enter the nationallegislature. E) Parties are more like interest groups in Europe than in the U.S.

17) Linkage institutions A) help link the three branches of government together to achieve coherent policies. B) are used to implement public policies. C) link political parties to the government. D) translate inputs from the public into outputs from the policymakers. E) link the president to members of his/her party in Congress, so they can coordinate their policies in government.

19) Rational-choice theory asserts that A) the parties should not be expected to differentiate themselves in any way. B) more extremist party positions give the public a sense that things can really be changed, and usually win elections. C) the wise party selects policies in which it truly believes, and gives the voters a chance to vote them up or down on principle. D) the wise party selects policies that are widely favored. E) none of the above

21) The McGovern-Fraser Commission A) chose presidential candidates for the Democratic party. B) investigated violations of campaign finance law in 1968. C) established the dates of presidential primaries. D) had a mandate to make the Democratic party conventions more democratic. E) strengthened the role of the partyʹs national committee.

25) The addition of superdelegates to the Democratic national conventions was spearheaded by A) those who felt the Warren Commission had led to unrepresentative delegate selection. B) President Jimmy Carter. C) the McGovern-Fraser Commission. D) those who felt the McGovern-Fraser Commission had opened up the delegate selection process too much. E) the Warren Commission.

27) Ticket-splitting refers to A) switching membership in political parties. B) the procedure used to conduct computerized, automated vote counting. C) voting with one party in one presidential election, and another party in the next presidential election. D) voting for one party for one office, and another party for other offices. E) voting for a party other than the one you identify with.

31) Interest group liberalism holds that A) the fact that there are numerous interest groups proves nothing, because groups are extremely unequal in power. B) interest groups win some and lose some, but no group wins or loses all the time. C) when one interest group throws its weight around too much, its opponents are likely to intensify their organization and thus restore balance to the system. D) virtually all pressure group demands are legitimate, and the job of government is to advance them all. E) the role of government is to leaven the natural inequalities of the free market system and that entails paying more attention to the needs of economically weak interest groups and less attention to economically powerful groups.

33) In 2004 almost three-fourths of the Republican and Democrat delegates were chosen within ________ of the New Hampshire primary. A) six months B) two weeks C) two months D) six weeks E) four weeks

37) The state that has disproportionate power because it holds the first presidential primary each election year is A) New York. B) California. C) Iowa. D) New Hampshire. E) Rhode Island.

39) Television became extremely important in political campaigns beginning in A) 1948. B) 1952. C) 1972. D) 1960. E) 1984.

4) The right of interest groups to organize is A) protected by the Constitution. B) protected by the Federal Election Campaign Act. C) protected by state laws. D) protected by the Bill of Rights. E) none of the above

41) Blanket primaries A) cost less than open primaries. B) discourage party loyalty. C) depress voter turnout. D) encourage party loyalty. E) have fewer undercounts.

45) Critics of the primary and caucus system point to the fact that A) disproportionate attention goes to the later caucuses and primaries. B) no precedent for them is written into the Constitution. C) only the best known candidates have a chance of winning the primaries and caucuses. D) participation in primaries and caucuses is unrepresentative of the public at large. E) none of the above

45) Individuals aged 29 and under are A) more likely than older individuals to spend time getting news. B) less likely than older individuals to use the Internet for news. C) more likely to rely on newspapers than on television as a news source. D) less likely than older individuals to learn about the presidential campaign from a daily newspaper. E) more likely than older individuals to use newsmagazines as a news source.

47) During the military campaign in Afghanistan, President Bush and the White House frequently watched ________ to see events as they happened. A) Nightline B) Good Morning America C) closed circuit, top-secret Pentagon video relays D) CNN E) The MacNeil/Lehrer

49) Critics of a national primary argue that A) the campaign would be lengthened. B) obscure candidates would receive too much of an advantage. C) the media would have little impact. D) no candidate would receive a majority, thus a run-off election would be needed. E) All of these could happen.

5) The term interest group can be generally defined as A) an organization that seeks a collective good, the achievement of which will not specifically or materially benefit the membership or activists of the organization. B) a group that has a narrow interest, dislikes compromise, and single-mindedly pursues its goal. C) all people who share some common interest regardless of whether they join an organization promoting that interest. D) an organization of people with similar policy goals entering the political process to try to achieve those aims. E) an organization of people who share a common interest who run candidates in elections sympathetic to that interest.

53) Over the years, television coverage of national party conventions has A) received increasingly high Nielsen ratings. B) become more dramatic. C) shifted to local affiliate reporters focusing on their state delegations and away from the national network anchors. D) been scaled back. E) steadily increased.

53) Todayʹs massive media conglomerates control newspapers with over ________ of the nationʹs daily circulation. A) 53 percent B) 30 percent C) 50 percent D) 80 percent E) 33 percent

59) The first party system in the United States consisted of the A) Democrats and Whigs. B) Federalists and Whigs. C) Democrats and Republicans. D) Federalists and Democratic-Republicans. E) Democratic-Republicans and Whigs

63) At the beginning of party development in the United States, A) parties tried to defeat each other in elections. B) there were many small parties, each representing a narrow interest. C) we had a one-party system where one powerful party dominated the government and blocked the creation of new parties. D) parties sought to destroy each other. E) parties were merely the personal following of certain charismatic individuals.

65) Media coverage of a candidateʹs campaign is a function of A) how candidates spend their advertising budget. B) the ʺfreeʺ attention they get as newsmakers. C) the nature of their policy agenda D) both A and B E) none of the above

65) Most television news analysis reports A) run over ten minutes. B) run about five minutes. C) run about seven minutes. D) last less than a minute. E) run about two minutes.

65) The policy positions stated in party platforms are A) of some importance because they are unambiguous statements of where a party stands. B) intended to get a candidate elected, not to be implemented. C) of little importance because only 10 to 25 percent of the positions are acted upon by government. D) very important because nearly three-fourths of them result in policy action when the party is in power. E) never important because less than one-third of them result in policy action when the party is in power.

69) Americaʹs first and shortest-lived major political party was the A) Anti-Federalist party. B) Whig party. C) Democratic-Republican party. D) Federalist party. E) Independence party.

71) The administration of the campaign finance laws and the enforcement of compliance with their requirements is handled by the A) Fair Political Practices Commission. B) Campaign Finance Bureau of the Department of the Treasury. C) Department of Justice. D) Federal Election Commission. E) Government Accounting Office.

75) Which of the following statements about television news is FALSE? A) The only highly regarded in-depth news shows on television are watched by very few viewers. B) Studies have shown that television gives only skimpy attention to the issues during a presidential campaign. C) The complex issues of today are difficult to treat in a short news clip. D) Television analysis of news events has been rapidly increasing. E) Television news is less detailed than that presented in newspapers.

81) The overriding bias in the news is toward stories that A) include talking heads. B) are triangular. C) are liberal. D) draw large audiences. E) target-specific audiences.

81) Who was the president who brought together the original New Deal coalition in support of his candidacy? A) Woodrow Wilson B) Lyndon Johnson C) John F. Kennedy D) Franklin D. Roosevelt E) Herbert Hoover

85) Which of the following groups was NOT part of the New Deal coalition? A) African Americans B) Southerners C) members of labor unions D) wealthy New Englanders E) Catholics and Jews

87) The New Deal coalition made the ________ party the minority party for decades. A) Socialist B) Federalist C) Whig D) Republican E) Democratic

91) Party dealignment is symbolized by A) the 1992 election of a president and Congress of the same party. B) the recent pattern of one-party control. C) a renewed commitment to Americaʹs two major political parties. D) the recent pattern of divided government. E) the Republican takeover of Congress in 1994.

Enumerated powers are those that are A) reserved for the states. B) stated in the Constitution. C) implied in the Constitution. D) involving money matters. E) granted specifically to the president.

95) In 1968 the Democratic party was torn apart, leaving the door to the presidency open for Republican Richard Nixon primarily due to A) the failure of President Johnsonʹs War on Poverty. B) the sudden evaporation of the New Deal coalition. C) the abandonment of the Democratic party by African Americans. D) President Johnsonʹs Vietnam War policies. E) the severity of the mid-60ʹs recession.

99) Ross Perotʹs candidacies for president in 1992 and 1996 were lmao an example of what type of third-party campaign? A) a split-level party B) a party espousing an extreme ideological position C) a splinter party D) a party serving as an extension of one individualʹs candidacy E) none of the above

99) Which of the following statements about policy agendas is FALSE? A) Interest groups, political parties, and the president are all examples of those who push for their priorities to take precedence. B) Scores of issues compete for attention from the government. C) The policy agenda receives some serious attention at any given time. D) Only government officials develop policy priorities. E) none of the above

19) According to the group theory of politics, A) all groups are equal. B) groups do not compete. C) groups do not play by the rules of the game. D) groups weak in one resource can use another. E) most political influence comes from individuals speaking in the name of groups but actually acting on their own personal agenda.

D???????

De facto educational segregation occurs A) by forced school busing to separate the races. B) by forced school busing to integrate the races. C) when segregated classrooms occur within an integrated school. D) by law. E) by the reality of neighborhood schools located in areas that happen to be racially segregated.

De jure educational segregation occurs A) by constitutional amendment. B) by law. C) by forced school busing to integrate the races. D) by the reality of neighborhood schools located in areas that happen to be racially segregated. E) from day-to-day depending on changing enrollments at a particular school.

Funding for the interstate highway system is an example of A) dual federalism. B) cooperative federalism. C) tripartite federalism. D) a unitary system of government. E) national federalism.

Only the national government is allowed to A) levy taxes. B) regulate commerce with foreign nations. C) take private property for public purposes. D) make and enforce laws. E) all of the above

Over a third of Americaʹs wealth is owned by A) the United States government. B) one percent of the population. C) a third of the population. D) seven percent of the population. E) Japanese investors.

35) The rules determining the way in which the primaries are set up and the delegates are allocated are made by A) the electoral college. B) the Constitution. C) Congress. D) the Federal Election Commission. E) state legislatures and state parties.

44) The supreme power within each of the parties is A) the state party organizations. B) the president. C) the Supreme Party Court. D) the national convention. E) the national committee.

5) The key spokespersons for political parties come from which of its major components? A) the party-in-the-electorate B) the party as an organization C) the party-out-of-power D) the leaders-of-the-party-organization E) the party-in-government

From clean-air legislation to welfare reforms, the states constitute a ________ to develop and test public policies and share the results with other states and the national government. A) major roadblock B) national laboratory C) neglected resource D) last chance E) severe reluctance

Delegates to the Constitutional Convention generally agreed on each of the following EXCEPT A) questions of human nature. B) the need for a limited government. C) the object and nature of a republican government. D) causes of political conflict. E) issues of equality.

During the 1980s, the Supreme Court ________ the displaying of Christmas nativity scenes and Hanukkah menorahs on public property. A) refused to hear cases challenging B) first permitted and then prohibited C) upheld the constitutionality of D) declared unconstitutional E) encouraged

During the American Revolution, Patrick Henry said A) ʺWe fight for truth, justice, and the American way!ʺ B) ʺGive me liberty or give me death.ʺ C) ʺI regret that I have but one life to give for my country.ʺ D) ʺOur fathers brought forth on this continent, a new nation, conceived in Liberty, and dedicated to the proposition that all men are created equal.ʺ E) ʺLive free or die.ʺ

During the colonial period, A) Americans experienced less freedom than citizens of most European nations. B) Britain was involved in nearly every aspect of American politics. C) Americans were burdened with cumbersome feudal and hierarchical restraints. D) Americans suffered one of the lowest standards of living in the world. E) the King and Parliament generally confined themselves to governing the coloniesʹ foreign and trade policies.

During the first half of the twentieth century, the Supreme Court A) paid more attention to the .separate. than to the "equal" part of the separate but equal doctrine. B) allowed segregation in the armed forces. C) upheld the legality of all-white primaries. D) declared all Jim Crow laws unconstitutional. E) all of the above

105) In many other democracies, the system of awarding seats in the national legislature, unlike in the United States, is one of A) single-member districts. B) intellectual merit alone. C) winner-take-all. D) virtual representation. E) proportional representation.

11) In what was a very different era, the press chose not to point out to readers or to photograph the fact that President ________ was confined to a wheelchair. A) Warren Harding B) Harry Truman C) Dwight Eisenhower D) Lyndon Johnson E) Franklin Roosevelt

13) Precinct-level presidential caucuses A) directly choose national convention delegates. B) determine how many votes that state will cast for each of the presidential candidates at the national convention. C) have absolutely nothing to do with choosing delegates to the major partiesʹ national nominating conventions. D) choose delegates to state conventions where delegates to the national convention are selected. E) choose delegates to county caucuses/conventions where delegates to the state convention are selected, then the state convention chooses national convention delegates.

13) Which is a linkage institution? A) Supreme Court B) Executive Office of the President C) Congress D) all of the above E) none of the above

17) Following the Democratic National Convention in Chicago in 1968, the party chose to A) limit attendance at future conventions to the elected officers of the partyʹs organizations nationwide. B) limit attendance at future conventions to the partyʹs nationwide elected government officeholders. C) tighten up its convention delegate selection to keep it from being overrun by women, minorities, youth, and single-issue groups. D) allow party officers and Democratic officeholders, many of whom had not been seated at recent conventions, to serve as ʺsuper delegates.ʺ E) open up its process of choosing delegates to the national convention in order to respond to demands for greater inclusion from women, minorities, youth, and other groups.

29) Superdelegates A) are special delegates chosen by popular election. B) are each able to cast three votes at their national convention rather than the standard one vote. C) are delegates uncommitted to a specific candidate. D) have helped make the delegation more representative of the population. E) have helped restore an element of peer review to the process of choosing a presidential candidate.

31) The principal source of news and information for most Americans today is A) newspapers. B) radio talk shows. C) magazines. D) print media. E) the broadcast media.

33) Following the first Nixon-Kennedy presidential debate of 1960, opinion polls showed that A) those who watched on television thought Nixon had won, while those who listened over the radio thought Kennedy won. B) those who watched on television and listened over the radio both thought Kennedy had won. C) those who listened over radio thought it was a draw, while those who watched television thought Kennedy did better. D) those who watched on television and listened over the radio both thought Nixon had won. E) those who watched on television thought Kennedy had won, while those who listened over the radio thought Nixon won.

33) Patronage A) is commonly used by political parties today. B) is an incentive given by national party offices. C) is the deference that elected officials give to their campaign contributors in making policy decisions. D) is based on merit and competence. E) was an inducement of jobs and financial rewards given for political reasons by party machines.

35) Since 1960, state party organizations A) have begun selecting candidates for state offices. B) have been established for the first time as the national organizations have weakened. C) have virtually disappeared as the national units have taken on their functions. D) have begun selecting candidates for Congress. E) have become much more powerful and organized.

57) Party realignments in the United States A) occur when a party makes dramatic changes in its positions on issues. B) involve the death of one party and the birth of a brand new one. C) are slight adjustments of political allegiance among voters in at least one region of the country. D) happen after most presidential elections, and occasionally in-between. E) are rare events in the United States, usually associated with a major national crisis or trauma, in which one partyʹs majority domination is replaced with anotherʹs.

57) Reporters and their official sources usually have a(n) ________ relationship. A) hostile B) disinterested C) adversarial D) conspiratorial E) symbiotic

63) Most of the money spent on presidential campaigns these days is spent on A) computer services. B) air travel, hotels, and meals. C) direct mail. D) printing. E) the media.

67) ʺCritical electionsʺ always result in the A) widespread public questioning of the American election process accompanied by calls for its reform. B) displacement of the minority party by the majority party. C) formation of new political parties. D) successful bid by a third political party. E) formation of new coalitions for each political party.

7) According to the ʺthree-headed political giantʺ model of political parties, the largest component of an American party is the A) party as an organization. B) party-in-the-states. C) party Congress. D) party-in-the-electorate. E) party-in-government.

73) During the second party system in United States history, Martin Van Buren argued that A) political parties were harming the country because they promoted factionalism, petty bickering, and disunity. B) the Whigs should be the sole party, as they were the only legitimate representatives of the people. C) the Democrats should be the sole party, as they were the only legitimate representatives of the people. D) the Republicans should be the sole party, as they were the only legitimate representatives of the people. E) a governing party needed a loyal opposition party to represent parts of society that it could not.

75) The Whig party A) was named after the wigs that the early aristocrats such as George Washington wore. B) dominated the second American party era between 1828 and 1856. C) forged a coalition of westerners, southerners, and new immigrants. D) believed in broadening political opportunity, eliminating vestiges of elitism, and mobilizing the masses. E) was only able to win the presidency when it nominated aging, but popular, military heroes.

77) Soft money is A) money donated by a person to his or her own campaign. B) cash contributions that are not traceable and in some situations illegal. C) small donations that, while important to a campaign, are not as important as larger contributions. D) money loaned to a campaign, but expected to be paid back. E) money donated to parties rather than candidates, thus not subject to contribution or spending limits.

85) The McCain-Feingold Act of 2002 did all of the following EXCEPT A) barred groups from running ʺissue adʺ within 60 days of a general election if they refer to a federal candidate and are not funded through a PAC. B) banned soft money contributions. C) increased the amount that individuals could give to candidates form $1,000 to $2,000. D) indexed the limit on individual contributions to inflation in future years. E) none of the above

89) Critics of the PAC system are concerned that A) PACs are not regulated. B) they tend to support only Republican candidates. C) PACs are too weak and ineffective to contribute to a strong democracy. D) only the largest and most powerful interest groups can afford to form PACs. E) PACs may control what the electoral winners do once in office.

89) In elections since 1968, A) the Democrats have dominated both the presidency and the Congress. B) the Republicans have dominated both the presidency and the Congress. C) party control of both Congress and the presidency has shifted from one party to the other at least every other election. D) the Democrats have dominated the presidency, while the Republicans have dominated Congress. E) the Republicans have dominated the presidency, while the Democrats have dominated the Congress.

9) The first presidential caucus of the campaign season is traditionally held in A) Delaware. B) California. C) Minnesota. D) New Hampshire. E) Iowa.

93) Over the past thirty years, there has been a marked rise in A) support for both the major and minor parties. B) support for the Democratic party. C) support for both the Democratic and Republican parties. D) support for minor parties. E) party neutrality.

97) Party dealignment means the A) the inability of the parties to deal with the nationʹs problems. B) lack of party cohesion in Congress. C) realignment of party coalitions. D) increasing inability of minority parties to win elections. E) decreasing influence of both parties on voters and government.

Each of the following is considered a disadvantage of federalism for democracy EXCEPT A) local interests may be able to thwart national majority support of certain policies. B) powerful interests in a state can use the state as a power base to promote their interests. C) voter turnout rates in state and local elections are even lower than in national elections. D) large number of governments in the United States make exercising democratic control more difficult. E) policy diversity can discourage states from providing services that would otherwise be available.

Each of the following violations of individual rights is forbidden in the original Constitution EXCEPT A) passing ex post facto laws. B) strict limits on the prosecution of treason. C) passing bills of attainder. D) suspension of the writ of habeas corpus. E) suspension of freedom of speech.

Elite and class theory holds that A) all societies are divided along class lines and that an upper-class elite will rule. B) power is dispersed among many institutions. C) in a democracy the majority class must overthrow the government and rule by itself if government is to be freed from the control of the rich. D) there is little consensus in policymaking among elites. E) politics is the basis of elite power.

Equal protection of the laws A) means that laws cannot establish different standards for the treatment of different groups. B) is guaranteed in the original Constitution. C) means that states have to make their laws promote equality among persons. D) provides a rigid standard for constitutional interpretation. E) does not deny states treating classes of citizens differently if the classification is reasonable.

Escalating campaign costs are a challenge to democracy because A) it is believed that PAC contributions affect the way members of Congress vote on single issues. B) they are associated with more technical policies. C) they lead to policy gridlock. D) they reflect diverse interests. E) they make it easier for candidates to raise money.

Ever since 1914, the courts have used ________ to prevent illegally seized evidence from being introduced into the courtroom. A) prior restraint B) the Miranda rule C) probable cause D) search warrants E) an exclusionary rule

Expansions of mandated programs by the national government present especially difficult funding problems for A) Congress. B) federal taxpayers. C) state and local governments. D) foreign governments. E) the recipient of the service or program.

Extradition is the requirement that states A) provide sanctuary for federal criminals. B) cannot discriminate against citizens of other states. C) recognize each others public acts, records, and civil judicial proceedings. D) must return a person charged with a crime in another state to that state for trial or imprisonment. E) enforce federal law within their state.

Federal aid to state and local governments accounts for how much of federal spending? A) 33 percent B) 50 percent C) 2 percent D) 18 percent E) 75 percent

Federal policies to regulate food and drugs, build interstate highways, and protect consumers are all justified as A) presidential prerogatives. B) enumerated powers of Congress. C) delegated powers of Congress. D) implied powers of Congress. E) both C and D

Federal policies to regulate food and drugs, build interstate highways, protect consumers, try to clean up dirty air and water, and do many other things are all justified as ________ of Congress. A) implied powers B) categorical grants C) constitutionally specified powers D) reserved powers E) enumerated powers

Federal regulation of state governments is usually accomplished through A) United States Supreme Court decisions. B) presidential decrees. C) attaching conditions to grants it gives them. D) federalization of a stateʹs national guard. E) direct, executive orders.

Federal support for public education is an example of a A) pragmatic federalism. B) dual federalism. C) cooperative federalism. D) layer cake federalism. E) separation of powers

Federalism contributes to democracy by each of the following ways EXCEPT A) easing the burdens on the national government so it can function more effectively. B) increasing the opportunities for government to be responsive to demands for policies. C) increasing access to government. D) having state governments add thousands of elected offices for which citizens may vote or run. E) providing a means for unified public policy.

Federalism is A) a system of shared power by the state and national governments. B) the same as unitary government. C) sole government authority in the national government. D) sole government authority in the states. E) a three-branch government with a system of checks and balances.

Federalism is A) unique to the United States alone. B) practiced by about half the nations worldwide. C) practiced in about half the American states. D) practiced by nearly all of the 190 nations worldwide. E) practiced by fewer than 20 nations worldwide.

Federalism is a way of organizing a nation so that A) power is centralized in state and local government. B) both national and state levels of government have authority over the same land and people. C) there is one federal government and all regional governments are administrative subunits of it. D) power is centralized in the national government. E) there are three branches of government and a system of checks and balances.

Federalism is advantageous for democracy for each of the following reasons EXCEPT A) allows for a greater diversity of opinion to be reflected in public policies. B) increases the number of decisions and compromises made at the national level. C) increases access to government. D) allows more opportunities for political participation. E) allows customization of policies for local needs.

Fifth Amendment protection against self-incrimination means that A) you have a right to confront witnesses against you. B) you can be granted immunity from prosecution in exchange for your testimony. C) as a defendant you have a right to counsel. D) you cannot be forced to be a witness against yourself. E) police officers may use whatever force is necessary to protect themselves from harm in arrest situations.

Fifth Amendment rights were expanded to include guidelines for police interrogation procedures in the famous case of A) California v. Simpson. B) Dennis v. United States. C) Gideon v. Wainwright. D) Miranda v. Arizona. E) Mapp v. Ohio.

Fiscal federalism is A) the pattern of spending, taxing, and providing grants in the federal system. B) the distinct separation of national government spending versus state and local government spending. C) the federal governmentʹs regulation of the money supply and interest rates. D) the federal income tax. E) a sharing of local and national resources practiced in other countries but not in the United States.

Freedom of assembly includes the right to do all of the following EXCEPT A) riot. B) parade. C) protest. D) picket. E) demonstrate.

Freedom of expression A) has sometimes been limited when it conflicts with other rights and values. B) is protected by the Fourth and Fifth Amendments. C) is an absolute right protected by the First Amendment. D) includes freedom of speech and press, but not actions. E) would not protect a political rally to attack an opposition candidate's stand on issues.

Government is defined as the A) organization that brings problems to the attention of public officials. B) body that is concerned with economic problems while leaving social problems to other institutions of society. C) agency that implements policies that have been enacted by other institutions of the political system. D) executive branch and its agencies. E) institutions and processes through which public policies are made for society.

Governments in the modern world, whether democratic or not, are similar in doing all of the following EXCEPT A) protecting citizensʹ civil liberties. B) maintaining a national defense. C) providing public goods. D) collecting taxes. E) providing public services.

Grants for specific programs distributed according to community demographic factors, such as population or income, are A) formula grants. B) categorical grants. C) revenue sharing grants. D) project grants. E) block grants.

Grants that are given more or less automatically to states or communities, which have discretion in deciding how to spend the money are called A) project grants. B) discretionary grants. C) formula grants. D) categorical grants. E) block grants.

Hispanic Americans comprise approximately ________ percent of the United States population. A) 14 B) 5 C) 22 D) 10 E) 20

How has the electoral college changed from the original intent of the framers? A) Affirmative action programs have made the student body much more diverse, although standards have also been lowered. B) The president must now be elected by two-thirds vote of the electoral college rather than a simple majority. C) The number of electors has decreased dramatically. D) Almost all electors now vote for the presidential candidate who wins the most popular votes in their state. E) Today, the electors vote for whom they personally feel would make the best president.

How is a unitary system different from a federal one? A) The national government can coin money, conduct foreign relations, and declare war. B) The national government can change the boundaries of states, or abolish them. C) State governments have political autonomy and can nullify national laws. D) Administrative subunits, such as states, can collect taxes, conduct elections, and make laws independently of the national government. E) both B and C

How many governments are there in the United States? A) 538 B) over 100,000 C) 51 D) one E) 50

Hyperpluralists believe that the dominant player in American politics is A) groups. B) the president. C) the government. D) the media. E) rich individuals.

Hyperpluralists would argue that A) too many influential groups cripple governmentʹs ability to govern. B) society is divided along class lines. C) group competition will result in a rough approximation of the public interest. D) wealth is the basis of power. E) too few groups lead to a proliferation of governments.

If the allocation of power in a cooperative federal system were compared to a cake it would be most like A) a layer cake with two distinct layers. B) a single-layer cake. C) a cake walk: who gets what is random. D) fifty marbled cupcakes. E) a layer cake with many layers.

If the allocation of power under dual federalism were compared to a cake it would be most like A) a marbled cake where the flavors blend into each other. B) an angel food cake, fluffy with little substance. C) New York cheesecake, heavy and crushing under its own weight. D) a layer cake, with two distinct layers. E) a cupcake.

In 1995, the Republican majority in Congress, in contrast to previous Democratic Congresses, A) limited the use of unfunded mandates. B) prohibited the states from using unfunded mandates. C) limited the use of block grants. D) avoided funded mandates. E) all of the above

In 2000, the Supreme Court ruled that A) government had a legitimate interest in protecting sexually explicit material on cable stations. B) government had no right to regulate sexually explicit material on cable stations. C) government had a legitimate interest in prohibiting sexually explicit material on cable stations. D) government regulation of sexually explicit material on cable stations must be narrowly tailored to promote the government's interest in protecting children. E) government had a legitimate interest in protecting sexually explicit print material.

In 2005, the Supreme Court found that two Kentucky counties violated the establishment clause of the First Amendment by A) establishing English as the ʺofficial first language of the State of Kentucky.ʺ B) by posting the Ten Commandments as a way of promoting religion. C) banning ʺintelligent designʺ from the curriculum D) providing an ʺinefficientʺ system of public education. E) requiring students to say the Pledge of Allegiance.

In Gregg v. Georgia (1976), concerning applications of the Eighth Amendment, the Supreme Court ruled that A) only the federal government, and not the states, can impose the death penalty. B) execution by electrocution is cruel and unusual punishment. C) Georgia's death penalty law was "freakish" and "random." D) capital punishment is an extreme sanction, but it is suitable to the most extreme of crimes. E) the death penalty constitutes cruel and unusual punishment.

In John Lockeʹs philosophy, the requirements that standing laws be known and private property be preserved A) are always threatened by democratic government. B) impose two major limits on government. C) are unenforceable when government is limited. D) must be sacrificed in the interest of democracy.

In Lemon v. Kurtzman (1971), the Supreme Court ruled that A) states can prohibit pornography despite the freedom of the press. B) aid to church-related schools must have a secular legislative purpose. C) religious freedom takes precedence over compulsory education laws. D) an official prayer at a public-school graduation violated the constitutional separation of church and state. E) voluntary prayer in public schools is unconstitutional.

In Lemon v. Kurtzman, the Supreme Court established that aid to church-related schools must do all of the following EXCEPT A) have a secular purpose. B) inhibit religion. C) not advance religion. D) not create excessive government entanglement with religion. E) treat all religions equally.

In Miller v. California (1971), the Court ruled that decisions regarding whether or not material was obscene should generally be made by A) Congress, through statutory law. B) lower federal judges as they see fit, but in conformance with the First Amendment. C) local communities, with some guidelines provided by the Court itself about how to make such judgments. D) the Supreme Court itself, on a case-by-case basis. E) individual persons in their own private lives.

In Planned Parenthood v. Casey, the Supreme Court A) struck down a law requiring minors to notify one or both parents or a judge before obtaining an abortion. B) changed its standard for evaluating restrictions on abortion from one of "strict scrutiny" of any restraints on a "fundamental right" to one of "undue burden" that permits more regulation. C) specified that family planning services receiving federal funds could not provide women any counseling regarding abortion. D) affirmed a provision requiring a married woman to tell her husband of her intent to have an abortion. E) made abortions for minors illegal.

In Roe v. Wade, the Supreme Court ruled that in the third trimester of pregnancy A) states can ban abortion except when the mother's health is in danger. B) states are prohibited from funding the abortions of poor women. C) states cannot ban abortion unless the mother's life is in danger. D) states cannot ban abortion. E) the federal government, but not the states, is prohibited from funding abortions for poor women.

In Roth v. United States, the Supreme Court held that A) outdoor drive-ins could not be barred from showing a film which included nudity. B) the possession of child pornography was not covered by any right to free speech or press, and could be made a crime. C) the government cannot prohibit discrimination against women priests by churches because it would violate the free exercise of religion. D) obscenity is not within the area of constitutionally protected free speech. E) the film Carnal Knowledge, which had critical acclaim but a sexual theme and explicit scenes, could not be banned.

In Saenz v. Roe, the Supreme Court ruled that A) California was required to recognize the legality of same sex marriages. B) California could not require a new resident to wait one year before being eligible for welfare benefits. C) California could withhold educational benefits from children of illegal immigrants. D) California was required to offer bilingual education programs in the public elementary schools. E) California could not provide welfare benefits to illegal immigrants.

In Schenck v. United States (1919), Justice Holmes said that speech can be restricted when it A) is uttered by government officials in an effort to establish a religion. B) provokes "a clear and present danger. to people." C) advocates the violent overthrow of the United States. D) is spoken rather than non-verbal or symbolic. E) is expressed on private property.

In Zurcher v. Stanford Daily, the Supreme Court ruled that A) the Stanford Daily had complete control over its photograph files. B) the Stanford Daily must cease publication of military strategy papers. C) the Stanford Daily must open its files for use as police evidence. D) the Stanford Daily must disclose the location of its reporters. E) the Stanford Daily is controlled by the University president, not state laws.

In ________ federalism, the powers and policy assignments of different levels of government are like a marble cake, with mingled responsibilities and blurred distinctions between layers of government. A) fiscal B) mixed C) dual D) cooperative E) tripartite

In ________ federalism, the powers and policy assignments of the different levels of government are distinct, like a layer cake. A) fiscal B) dual C) tripartite D) cooperative

In ________, the Court clarified its doctrine of what was obscene, including such gauges as whether material appealed to merely a prurient interest in sex, and whether it lacked serious artistic, literary, political or scientific merit. A) Osborne v. Ohio B) Engel v. Vitale C) Miller v. California D) Near v. Minnesota E) Federal Communications Commission v. Stern

In a democratic society, parties, elections, interest groups and the media are all examples of ________ between the preferences of citizens and the governmentʹs policy agenda. A) cross-pollination B) inputs and outputs C) ideological bridges D) obstacles E) linkage institutions

In contrast to the Democratic Congress of recent decades, the new Republican majority in Congress is passing more federal aid in the form of A) revenue sharing. B) categorical grants. C) block grants. D) tax credits. E) tax expenditures.

In cooperative federalism, A) states and the national government each remain supreme within their own spheres. B) responsibilities are mingled and distinctions are blurred between the levels of government. C) powers and policy assignments of the layers of government are distinct. D) states are supreme over the national government. E) both A and B

In the Lemon v. Kurtzman decision of 1971, the Supreme Court ruled that A) any aid of any sort to church-related schools is not constitutional, because it violates church-state separation. B) aid to church-related schools is fully constitutional, and can be used for any purposes needed by the schools. C) spoken prayers in public schools were unconstitutional. D) aid to church-related schools must be for secular purposes only, and cannot be used to advance or inhibit religion. E) devotional Bible-reading in public schools was unconstitutional.

In the case of Dennis v. United States, the Supreme Court A) upheld the federal law banning the Nazi party in the United States and prohibiting its activities. B) upheld the convictions of Communist party officials who had been sent to prison because of their beliefs. C) overturned the convictions of Communist party officials who had been sent to prison because of their beliefs. D) ruled that burning a draft card was not covered under free speech. E) overturned the federal law against burning or desecrating the American flag, arguing that it violated free speech.

In the case of Dred Scott v. Sandford, the United States Supreme Court A) voted unanimously to declare slavery unconstitutional and "barbaric," thus causing the southern states to secede. B) ruled that all adult African-American men had a right to vote under the Constitution. C) outlawed segregation laws which separated blacks and whites in all public places. D) ruled that a black man, slave or free, was "chattel," and upheld slavery itself as constitutional. E) for the first time placed a geographic limit on the expansion of slavery, banning it west of the Mississippi River.

In the case of Korematsu v. United States, the Supreme Court A) ruled that the removal of Japanese Americans from the west coast and their placement in internment camps during World War II was barbaric and unconstitutional. B) ruled just prior to World War II that Japanese Americans living in the United States had to be repatriated to Japan. C) upheld the constitutionality of the United States atomic bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki. D) upheld the constitutionality of the removal of Japanese Americans from the west coast and their placement in internment camps during World War II. E) ruled that restrictions on Japanese ownership of land in the United States were unconstitutional.

In the case of Miranda v. Arizona, the Supreme Court ruled that A) illegally obtained evidence cannot be used in a trial. B) police must inform any suspect of a series of rights, including the constitutional right to remain silent. C) the death penalty could be imposed for the most extreme of crimes. D) defendants in all felony cases have a right to counsel, even if the state has to provide such legal assistance. E) the police must show probable cause before making an arrest.

In the case of NAACP v. Alabama (1958), the Supreme Court ruled that A) Alabama could not require segregated schools. B) the First Amendment's freedom of assembly does not include freedom of association. C) the state of Alabama was unlawfully restricting the NAACP's freedom of association. D) picketing in residential neighborhoods can be restricted. E) the NAACP had to turn over its membership list to the government.

In the case of New York Times v. Sullivan (1964), the Supreme Court ruled that A) government officials cannot sue newspapers for libel since this would entail prior restraint of the press. B) the Pentagon Papers could be legally published despite the government's desire to keep the material secret. C) the publication of the Pentagon Papers could be legally barred as a matter of national security. D) statements made about political figures, however malicious, can never be deemed libelous. E) statements made about political figures are libelous only if made with malice and reckless disregard for the truth.

In the case of New York Times v. United States in 1971, the Supreme Court ruled A) against permitting racy advertisements for massage parlors, saunas, and escort services which could be deemed obscene. B) against prior restraint in the case of the Pentagon Papers, which allowed them to be published. C) that the government cannot file libel suits against newspapers, because, it would result in government censorship. D) in favor of permitting racy advertisements for massage parlors, saunas, and escort services as freedom of speech. E) in favor of prior restraint in order to prevent publication of the Pentagon Papers.

In the case of Plessy v. Ferguson, A) housing discrimination was forbidden. B) the principle of .separate but equal. was overturned. C) school busing was allowed to remedy racial segregation. D) United States citizenship and all rights that go with it were granted to former slaves. E) the principle of .separate but equal. was used to justify segregation.

In the case of ________, the Supreme Court ruled that a black man, slave or free, was "chattel" and had no rights under a white man.s government; it also ruled that Congress had no power to ban slavery in the western territories. A) Plessy v. Ferguson B) Craig v. Boren C) Dred Scott v. Sandford D) Brown v. Board of Education E) Amos v. Colorado

In the case of ________, the Supreme Court ruled that requiring an organization to turn over its membership lists was an unconstitutional restriction on freedom of association. A) Planned Parenthood v. Casey B) NAACP v. Alabama C) Near v. Minnesota D) Mapp v. Ohio E) United States v. Communist Party

In the case of ________, the Supreme Court ruled that segregation of races by law was constitutional so long as the facilities that were separate were also equal. A) Amos v. Alabama B) Brown v. Board of Education C) Plessy v. Ferguson D) Craig v. Boren E) Dred Scott v. Sandford

In the case of ________, the Supreme Court ruled that the Bill of Rights restrained only the national government, not states and cities. A) Miranda v. Arizona B) Barron v. Baltimore C) New York v. the United States D) Engel v. Vitale E) Gitlow v. New York

In the case of ________, the Supreme Court ruled that the protection against unreasonable search and seizure applied to the state and local governments, as well as the national government, thus nationalizing the exclusionary rule. A) Miranda v. Arizona B) Gideon v. Wainwright C) Roth v. United States D) United States v. New York E) Mapp v. Ohiols.

In the case of ________, the Supreme Court upheld federal court rulings ordering busing of students to achieve racially balanced schools. A) Craig v. Boren B) Plessy v. Ferguson C) Brown v. Board of Education D) Unified Transportation Co. v Madison County E) Swann v. Charlotte-Mecklenberg County Schools

In the case of the Nazis' proposed 1977 march on Skokie, a suburb north of Chicago with many Holocaust survivors which had denied the Nazis a permit to march, the Supreme Court, a year after the fact, let stand a lower court ruling that A) communities have the right to impose local standards on the right to march. B) Nazis and Communists are among a select list of groups that because of their anti-democratic nature are not protected by the First Amendment. C) the Nazis could only march if they publicly repudiated the murderous actions of the Nazis before and during WWII. D) certain groups are so predisposed to violence that their freedom of assembly is not guaranteed. E) no community could use its power to grant parade permits to stifle free expression or freedom of assembly.

In what case did the Supreme Court rule that a newspaper, no matter how outrageous its opinions, must be allowed to publish without prior restraint? A) Wisconsin v. Yoder B) Miranda v. Arizona C) Near v. Minnesota D) New York Times v. Sullivan E) Mapp v. Ohio.

In what case did the Supreme Court rule that suspects must be told of their constitutional rights to remain silent, that what they say can be used against them, and of their right to have an attorney present during any questioning? A) Gideon v. Wainwright B) Near v. Minnesota C) Plucennik v. United States D) Miranda v. Arizona E) Mapp v. Ohio

Increased technical expertise is a challenge to democracy because A) it is difficult to have an informed ʺnon-technicalʺ public debate on technical issues. B) it goes against the tenets of pluralist political theory. C) it violates the notion of one man, one vote. D) elected officials find it hard to understand technical experts. E) interest groups have a difficult time securing technical expertise

Jim Crow laws A) imposed legal segregation on African Americans in the South after the Civil War. B) were an attempt to reimpose slavery in the South after the Civil War. C) gave African Americans the right to vote in local elections in the South. D) granted former slaves free land in compensation for their years of unpaid labor. E) allowed African Americans to hold state and federal offices in the South after the Civil War.

Jim Crow laws were those which A) were enacted by Southern whites in the late nineteenth century to segregate African Americans from whites. B) the North enforced in the South in the Reconstruction era following the Civil War, granting rights to former slaves. C) sought to end segregation and bring the races into closer contact with one another. D) justified slavery and set codes for slaves' behavior. E) established slavery and contract law regulating the slave trade.

John Locke believed in each of the following EXCEPT A) limited government. B) consent of the governed. C) natural rights. D) divine right of kings. E) both C and D

John Locke believed that the ʺend of governmentʺ was A) preservation of property. B) majority rule. C) equality of man. D) pursuit of happiness. E) ʺthe beginning of life.ʺ

John Lockeʹs ideas on natural rights were related to human law in that A) natural rights were less important than human law. B) natural rights were considered higher than human law. C) human law was the source of natural rights. D) human law protected property rights, making human law equal to natural rights. E) human law and natural rights were unimportant after revolution

Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels published A) The Communist Manifesto. B) A Theory of Democracy. C) The Federalist Papers. D) Poor Richardʹs Almanac. E) War and Peace.

Laws that directly regulate abortion, drinking ages, marriage and divorce, or sexual behavior are policy prerogatives that belong to A) the bureaucracy. B) the states. C) Congress. D) local governments. E) federal courts.

Legal segregation of the races was declared unconstitutional in the 1954 landmark ruling known as A) King v. University of Kansas. B) Plessy v. Ferguson. C) Dred Scott v. Sandford. D) Craig v. Boren. E) none of the above.

Lockean thought and the Declaration of Independence are similar in that both A) recognize the right of the people to determine their own form of government, short of resorting to revolution. B) were developed in the late 1700s. C) value the preservation of private property. D) seek common ideals in government through the establishment of a constitutional monarchy. E) support the concept of natural rights and the idea that government be built on the consent of the governed.

Madisonian principles in the Constitution were based on A) statesʹ rights. B) a concentration of power, so that the minority faction could dominate the government. C) the belief that government should always be dominated by the majority. D) concern that government would be dominated by a majority or minority faction. E) the ideas of a group of professors at Madison University.

Opposition to ratification of the Constitution was based on the belief that it would A) provide for elite control, endanger liberty, and weaken the states. B) produce more democratic elements than desirable for a strong central government. C) give too much power to the states. D) promote pluralism, which would threaten liberty. E) all of the above

Many elite and class theorists believe that ________ of Americans control most government policy decisions. A) 5 percent B) a majority C) the vast middle class D) 1 percent E) 10 percent

Medicaid and Aid for Families with Dependent Children are examples of A) categorical grants. B) formula grants. C) project grants. D) state grants. E) block grants.

Medicaid is an example of A) a federal grant program that produces considerable competition between the states. B) a federal grant program that receives little support from the political parties. C) a federal block grant. D) a federal grant program that puts an economic strain on the states. E) all of the above

Miller v. California (1973) A) achieved a workable definition of legal obscenity. B) abolished pornographic material only when it involved children. C) resulted in uniform state laws regulating obscenity. D) stated that local communities should have more responsibility over deciding what constitutes obscenity. E) prohibited hanging as a cruel and unusual punishment.

Most cases are settled through A) plea bargaining. B) paupers' petitions. C) judicial tribunals. D) trial by a judge. E) trial by jury.

Most criminal cases are settled in A) the Supreme Court. B) plea bargaining. C) municipal and county courts. D) district court. E) the jury room.

Most delegates to the Constitutional Convention believed that the secret of good government is a A) centralized government. B) balanced government. C) government that is open and not secretive. D) popularly controlled government. E) strong executive.

Most of the delegates at the Constitutional Convention regarded what as the greatest threat to government? A) factions B) kings C) slaves D) foreign adversaries E) charismatic leaders

Most of the governments in the world today are ________, in which all power resides in the central national government. A) unitary B) federalist C) nationalist D) confederations E) fiscal

Most of the wording of the Bill of Rights concerns A) the rights of people accused of crimes. B) the right to bear arms. C) freedom of religion and the establishment clause. D) freedom of speech and freedom of the press. E) freedoms of expression.

National, state, and local governments in America spend almost ________ of the gross domestic product. A) 3 percent B) 30 percent C) all D) 10 percent E) none

Native-American Indians were made citizens of the United States in A) 1964. B) 1924. C) 1789. D) 1868. E) They were never made citizens of the United States.

Obscenity is A) equated with nudity by the Supreme Court. B) clearly defined as it pertains to both freedom of the press and freedom of speech. C) prohibited in the First Amendment. D) a matter of federal standards rather than state or local standards. E) not protected under the Constitution.

Of all the funds spent by state and local governments, federal aid accounts for about A) two-thirds. B) one-half. C) one-fourth. D) three percent. E) one-third.

On the issue of slaves, the Constitution specified A) that a gradual end to slavery must be worked out by Congress and the states within ten years. B) that slavery would be banned beginning in 1800. C) a boundary, known as the Mason-Dixon line, south of which slavery would be legal. D) Nothing. It was too controversial a subject and the delegates could not agree on anything regarding it. E) that slaves would count as three-fifths persons for counting the nationʹs population and determining seats in the House.

On the whole, federal grant distribution follows the principle of A) universalism. B) stinginess. C) cronyism. D) to the victors go the spoils. E) needs-testing.

One advantage of the Internet for democracy is that it A) provides less information than newspapers. B) makes it easy to avoid political topics. C) makes it easier for citizens to communicate directly with government. D) will provide more political information to political elites. E) none of the above

One consequence of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 was A) dramatic increase in the number of African Americans registered to vote. B) increased access of blacks to public accommodations. C) the increased use of gerrymandering. D) decreased involvement of federal officials in state election procedures. E) an increase in segregation.

One of the most regulated forms of speech is A) symbolic speech. B) obscenity. C) libel. D) unintended speech. E) commercial speech.

One of the primary reasons for the comparatively small scope of American government is A) liberalism. B) pluralism. C) judicial review. D) capitalism. E) individualism.

One recently controversial application of the ʺfull faith and creditʺ provision of the Constitution is for A) extradition. B) birth certificates. C) same gender marriages. D) bigamy. E) abortion

One type of linkage institution is A) an interest group. B) a government. C) a bureaucracy. D) a legislature. E) all of the above

Over the last 100 years, the provisions of the Fourteenth Amendment have become the vehicle for A) extending the right to vote to non-whites, women, and 18-year-olds. B) expansive constitutional interpretation to outlaw arbitrary classifications which deny equality under the law. C) limiting the national government's ability to interfere in matters affecting individual states. D) government regulation of business and industry. E) all of the above

Over the last 125 years the people of the United States have turned increasingly to the national government to solve problems or provide assistance because A) the Tenth Amendment gave increased power to the national government. B) a problem or policy often requires the authority and resources of the national government. C) of corruption at the state level. D) we have a unitary government. E) of persistent corruption in state and local government.

Over time, there has been a gradual change from a dual federalism to a(n) ________ federalism. A) unitary B) single C) tripartite D) cooperative E) fiscal

PAC stands for A) Partisan Assistance Contribution. B) Party Affairs Council. C) Policy Advisory Commission. D) Politically Active Constituency. E) Political Action Committee.

Parties and interest groups A) determine which issues are on the policy agenda. B) are not particularly interested in the policy agenda. C) work hard to get the issues they want on the policy agenda. D) have no effect on the policy agenda. E) determine the congressional agenda.

People who worry about PACs are most especially concerned about A) the decline in American voter turnout. B) the close connection between money and politics. C) too much democracy being dangerous to social stability. D) the role Party Affairs Councils play in elections. E) single-issue voters.

Pluralist theory contends that in the United States A) society is governed solely by an upper-class elite. B) too many influential groups cripple governmentʹs ability to govern. C) many groups vie for power with no one set of groups dominating. D) the many members of Congress dominate a singular official such as the president. E) because most citizens fail to pay attention to serious issues, government has become an elite institution.

Policies that extend basic rights to groups historically subject to discrimination are known as A) civil rights. B) civil liberties. C) human rights. D) suffrage. E) affirmative action.

Political issues A) are always acted upon by the government. B) arise when people disagree about a problem or public policy choices made to combat a problem. C) are limited in number in the United States. D) usually emerge out of group consensus on a problem. E) all of the above

Political knowledge A) is greater among youth than the elderly. B) fosters political tolerance. C) is not that important in a democracy. D) is generally high in the United States. E) none of the above

Political parties are an important example of the A) Third Amendment. B) formal amendment process. C) unwritten constitution. D) wishes of the founders. E) rigidity of the Constitution.

Politics is defined by Harold Lasswell as A) conflict in society. B) the exercise of power. C) the resolution of conflict in a way that serves the public. D) who gets what, when, and how. E) a course of action to solve a problem.

Poll taxes for federal elections were outlawed in the A) Voting Rights Act. B) Civil Rights Act of 1964. C) Supreme Court's Guinn v. United States decision of 1915. D) Twenty-fourth Amendment. E) Tax Reform Act of 1963.

Populism emphasizes A) the people. B) the elected officials. C) representative democracy. D) the meritocracy. E) prosperity.

Prior restraint is most often considered acceptable on the grounds of A) libel. B) obscenity. C) national security. D) cruel and unusual punishment. E) religious freedom.

Programs such as Medicaid and Aid for Families with Dependent Children, where applicants automatically qualify for aid if they meet the requirements, are examples of A) dual federalism. B) project grants. C) formula grants. D) block grants. E) welfare.

Project grants A) have no strings attached. B) are awarded on the basis of competitive applications. C) are distributed according to a specific formula. D) are automatically given to states and communities. E) all of the above

Public policy is defined as a A) policy directed at more than one person. B) course of action to solve a problem. C) set of rules and regulations issued by a government agency. D) course of action by a political party. E) choice that government makes in response to an issue.

Ratification of the Constitution A) needed the approval of nine states. B) needed the approval of a majority of the people. C) occurred when it was approved by the delegates to the Constitutional Convention. D) needed the approval of all the states. E) was by two-thirds vote of the Continental Congress.

Ratification of the Constitution was done by A) the voters in each state casting open ballots. B) special conventions in each state. C) the state legislatures approving the document. D) approval by the Supreme Court. E) majority vote of the delegates at the Constitutional Convention.

Reflecting the natural rights philosophy, the Declaration of Independence stated that governments derive their just powers from A) God. B) the consent of the governed. C) tradition. D) their elected leaders. E) a Constitution.

Regarding the right to vote in national elections, the framers of the Constitution A) required that all free, adult males with property worth at least $50 be allowed to vote. B) decided to leave it up to the individual states to determine voter qualifications in their own states. C) finally granted women the right to vote. D) included a requirement that all free, adult males be allowed to vote. E) provided that free men and women over the age of 20 be allowed to vote.

Sometimes states tackle problems that are generally considered national problems. This is most likely to occur when the federal government acts in a way that most state residents do not like. An example of this is A) state funding for stem cell research in California. B) lowering the minimum wage. C) collecting taxes on purchases made on the Internet. D) restrictions on the chemicals that can be used for developing digital photographs. E) local school board policies about which textbooks are appropriate.

Spending on public education illustrates A) cooperation between states and federal government for unified policy. B) the advantages of fiscal federalism. C) the diversity in the quality of education among states as a result of federalism. D) the national curriculum that exists in the United States. E) advantages of relying on states to supply public services.

Standard operating procedures in cooperative federalism include each of the following EXCEPT A) shared administration. B) shared costs. C) federal funding with no strings attached. D) federal guidelines. E) categorical and block grants.

Standards of review used by the Supreme Court in discrimination cases include all of the following EXCEPT A) inherently suspect. B) more than reasonable. C) reasonable. D) intermediate, between reasonable and inherently suspect. E) cautious.

States are responsible for most public policies dealing with each of the following issues EXCEPT A) economic issues. B) social issues. C) police powers. D) family issues. E) moral issues.

Suffrage refers to A) the practice of de facto slavery rather than de jure slavery. B) the legal segregation of the races or of men and women in hotels, motels, restaurants, and other public places. C) the hardships endured to obtain civil rights for African Americans and equal rights for women. D) the legal right to vote. E) the practice of shackling slaves working in fields so they could not run away.

Symbolic speech A) consists of speech criticizing the symbols of government. B) cannot be prohibited because it is too vague for government to legislate against. C) has been ruled as disruptive and as a criminal activity. D) consists of action that expresses an opinion. E) is prohibited under the First Amendment.

The American Revolution A) did not drastically alter the colonistsʹ way of life. B) produced great societal change. C) was won quickly and decisively by the superior American troops. D) created class conflicts that split society. E) was fought between a large army of colonials and a small British army.

The American Revolution A) was heavily influenced by the earlier successes of the French Revolution. B) strongly reflected the widespread class conflict that would eventually lead to deadly riots for two generations. C) was very similar to the French, Russian, and Iranian Revolutions. D) was a radical social movement that drastically altered the colonistsʹ way of life. E) was an essentially conservative movement that did not drastically alter the colonistsʹ way of life.

The American Revolution was based upon the ideas of A) intellectual slaves. B) intellectual frontiersmen. C) George Washington. D) European political thinkers. E) American farmers.

The American Revolution was different from the French, Russian, and Iranian revolutions in that A) it was much bloodier. B) it was much shorter. C) it did not result in a change of government. D) it produced little societal change.

The Anti-Federalists believed that the new constitution A) was a thinly disguised attempt to abolish a federal form of government in the United States. B) was an enemy of freedom and designed to give control of the government to a rich elite. C) created a new government too weak to be effective, and they preferred a monarchy to ensure stability. D) was too democratic and would lead to tyranny of the masses against the wealthy. E) with whatever faults it might have, was the young nationʹs best hope for a workable government.

The Articles of Confederation were adopted by A) the Continental Congress. B) President George Washington. C) a small, self-appointed committee of the nationʹs political leaders. D) the British Parliament. E) the Continental Army under command of General George Washington.

The Bill of Rights was added to the Constitution A) during the ratification process, before final ratification of the constitution. B) during the Constitutional Convention, at the insistence of Thomas Jefferson. C) after the ratification process was complete, and partly to fulfill a promise to those who supported ratification. D) in 1865 after the union victory in the Civil War. E) piece by piece during the first hundred years of its operation.

The Bill of Rights was adopted primarily in response to A) the Spanish Inquisition. B) British abuses of the colonists' civil liberties. C) the abuses committed by the United States Continental Army during the Revolutionary War. D) the horrors of the French Revolution. E) Shays' Rebellion.

The Bill of Rights was written and proposed by A) the United States Supreme Court in 1796. B) the First Congress of the United States in 1789. C) the Constitutional Convention in 1787. D) President George Washington in 1789. E) President Thomas Jefferson in 1801.

The British government stepped up its controls over the American colonies with new taxes and stronger commerce regulations right after A) King Phillipʹs War. B) the assassination of the Duke of Windsor. C) King Georgeʹs War. D) the Civil War. E) the French and Indian War.

The British levied new taxes on its North American colonies in the eighteenth century in order to pay for A) maintaining the elegant lifestyle of the British royalty. B) conquest of territories in Africa and Asia. C) defending new territories obtained after the French and Indian War. D) tax cuts and social welfare programs for residents of the British Isles. E) the rising cost of tea.

The Brown v. Board of Education decision overturned the Supreme Court's 1896 ruling in A) Craig v. Boren. B) Dred Scott v. Sandford. C) Marbury v. Madison. D) Amos v. Alabama. E) Plessy v. Ferguson.

Today the equal protection clause is interpreted broadly enough to do all of the following EXCEPT A) reapportion state legislatures. B) prohibit job discrimination. C) permit sexual harassment. D) forbid racial segregation in the public schools. E) none of the above

The Declaration of Independence argued that A) nations are indivisible and a people must never secede from their mother nation. B) people should revolt when they suffer deep injustices. C) the British parliament was to blame for the evils imposed upon the colonists. D) people should always work peacefully within the system to redress any grievances they have. E) revolution is justifiable whenever people become angry with their government.

The Declaration of Independence says that ʺall men are created equal.ʺ Which aspect of the American creed does this suggest? A) Individualism B) Egalitarianism C) Liberty D) Capitalism E) Populism

The Declaration of Independence was a A) valid legal document under British law. B) bitter attack against the British king for abuses said to have been done to the colonists over a long period of time. C) proclamation from King George III granting the American colonists the right to form their own nation. D) thoughtful, cautious explanation of why independence might be a good idea if certain demands were not met. E) last effort by the American colonists to get back on good terms with England, while only threatening independence.

The Declaration of Independence was primarily A) a treaty with France for war against Britain. B) an original philosophical treatise on politics. C) an outline for a new government. D) a polemic, announcing and justifying a revolution. E) the United Statesʹ first constitution.

The Dred Scott v. Sandford ruling was handed down by the Supreme Court A) a few years after the Civil War. B) in 1896. C) during the Civil War. D) in the 1950s. E) a few years prior to the Civil War.

The Eighth Amendment to the Constitution A) is the freedom of privacy. B) forbids cruel and unusual punishment. C) is the right to bear arms. D) grants women equal rights including the right to vote. E) protects freedom of assembly.

The Federalist Papers were A) essays in support of ratification of the constitution. B) essays written that were critical of the constitution. C) newspapers which backed the Federalist party in early United States elections. D) the original name of the constitution written by the Constitutional Convention. E) the notes that George Washington took at the Constitutional Convention.

The Fifth Amendment forbids A) cruel and unusual punishment. B) forced self-incrimination. C) illegal searches and seizures. D) the government establishment of a national religion. E) all of the above except D.

The Founding Fathers believed that a major source of political conflict was the A) governmentʹs attempt to preserve private property. B) absence of majority rule. C) unequal distribution of property. D) religious differences in society. E) Indian tribes.

The Fourteenth Amendment specifically forbids the states from denying to anyone A) freedom on the basis of race. B) freedom of privacy. C) the right to vote on the basis of race. D) equal protection of the laws. E) the right to vote on the basis of sex.

The Fourteenth Amendment was one of three passed A) during the 1960s. B) directly following the Civil War. C) during George Washington's administration. D) during the Depression of the 1930s. E) right after the Revolutionary War.

The Madisonian requirement that each branch of government acquire the consent of the others for many of its actions created a system of A) confederated government. B) checks and balances. C) constitutional republic. D) cross-cutting requirements. E) separation of powers.

The Madisonian system A) is a form of direct democracy. B) encourages change. C) has a conservative bias favoring the status quo. D) discourages moderation and compromise. E) both C and D

The McCulloch v. Maryland case dealt with what specific grievance? A) a state taxing a national bank B) toll bridges on interstate roads C) the location of Marylandʹs capital city D) a state coining its own money E) import taxes on goods made in other states

The Miranda Rule A) has been strengthened by the Court in recent years. B) was openly welcomed by police departments throughout the country. C) has made police interrogations easier. D) was based on the probable cause clause of the Fourth Amendment. E) has required all police officers to inform accused persons of their rights.

The National Defense Education Act, the Elementary and Secondary Education Act, and the Interstate Highway System are all examples of A) dual federalism. B) cooperative federalism. C) triangulation. D) layer cake federalism. E) unitary federalism

The Pentagon Papers dealt with A) a documented history of United States involvement in the Vietnam War which the government wanted kept secret. B) a documented history of United States involvement in the Korean War which the government wanted kept secret. C) prisoners of war from World War II. D) secret agreements between the United States and the Soviet Union. E) all of the above

The Sixth Amendment right to counsel in federal courts was expanded in the famous 1963 Supreme Court case of A) Gregg v. Georgia. B) Gideon v. Wainwright. C) Arizona v. the United States. D) Mapp v. Ohio. E) Miranda v. Arizona.

The Supreme Court case of Gibbons v. Ogden A) defined the meaning of the elastic clause. B) settled the contested presidential election of 1824. C) defined commerce as virtually every form of commercial activity. D) established the principle of implied powers. E) established the supremacy of the national government.

The Supreme Court case of Gideon v. Wainwright A) extended the right to counsel to everyone accused of a felony. B) prohibited government officials from issuing gag orders to the media. C) ruled that illegally seized evidence can not be used in court. D) gave only those accused of capital crimes the right to counsel. E) set guidelines for police questioning of suspects.

The Supreme Court case of Korematsu v. United States (1944) A) upheld the constitutionality of the internment of Japanese Americans during World War II. B) ruled that public discrimination against Japanese Americans is unconstitutional. C) set the stage for the extension of equal rights to Japanese Americans. D) awarded benefits to Japanese Americans interned during World War II. E) upheld the prohibition of the ownership of land by people of Japanese descent.

The exclusionary rule, which was applied to state governments, as well as the federal government in Mapp v. Ohio (1961), meant that A) federal agents may make arrests for state crimes. B) state governments are excluded from prosecuting federal crimes. C) searches by police could not be made without a legal search warrant. D) probable cause must be established prior to arrest. E) unlawfully obtained evidence could not be used in court.

The extent of an individual's or group's freedom from prior restraint depends on A) whether the nation is at war. B) nothing- it is absolute. C) the moods of the Supreme Court justices. D) who the individual or group is. E) the Constitution.

The fact that a driverʹs license from one state is valid in other states is an example of A) privileges and immunities. B) extradition. C) implied powers. D) full faith and credit. E) unmandated reciprocity.

The fact that the former Republican majority in Congress prefers block grants to categorical grants indicates that A) they want to increase federal aid to state governments. B) they want federal money to be spent at the neighborhood level rather than the state level. C) they want to decrease federal aid to state governments. D) they want the federal government to exercise less authority over the states. E) they intend to raise more money from state governments to reduce the federal budget deficit.

The failure of the Equal Rights Amendment showed that A) Congress was unwilling to support a measure opposed by a strong minority of the public. B) a national majority in favor of an amendment is not sufficient to add it to the Constitution. C) most states did not want to grant constitutional equality to women. D) we are a democracy, and majority opinion prevails. E) men are pigs, still unwilling to grant women equal rights.

The fastest growing minority group in the United States is A) Native Americans. B) African Americans. C) Japanese Americans. D) Hispanic Americans. E) Asian Americans.

The federal system A) decreases judicial power. B) centralizes our politics. C) decreases opportunities for political participation. D) decreases the number of government officeholders. E) decentralizes our politics.

The first African immigrants to America were A) clergy. B) small shopkeepers. C) kidnap victims. D) farmers. E) Nigerian ivory traders.

The first and only place in which the idea of equality appears in the Constitution is in the A) Fourteenth Amendment. B) Ninth Amendment. C) Preamble. D) First Amendment. E) Declaration of Independence.

The first two weeks of the Constitutional Convention were spent debating A) the nature of republican government. B) the economic structure of the new government. C) the terms of Britainʹs surrender. D) military issues and the need for a standing army. E) practical political issues.

The foundation of John Lockeʹs philosophy was that human beings A) derive their rights from nature. B) have rights that are granted them by government. C) determine their own rights. D) derive their rights from God. E) are granted their rights by their King.

The framers of the Constitution gave the chief economic policymaking role to A) the courts. B) the Federal Reserve Board. C) the president. D) Congress. E) the states.

The government designed at the Constitutional Convention allowed the voters to directly elect A) both the House and Senate. B) the president and all members of Congress. C) only the Senate. D) only the president. E) only the House of Representatives.

The governmentʹs responses in the wake of Hurricane Katrina underscores A) the necessity of complying with the letter and the spirit of the Third Amendment. B) the tensions between Congress and the president. C) the ability of the U.S. military to mobilize and deploy quickly. D) the complexity of American federalism. E) all of the above

The grandfather clause was ________ by the Supreme Court in the 1915 decision, Guinn v. United States. A) overlooked B) established C) declared age discrimination D) found unconstitutional and outlawed E) upheld as constitutional

The grandfather clause was passed by Oklahoma and other southern states to A) exclude blacks from having the right to vote in primary elections, though they could vote in general elections. B) guarantee the equal rights of senior citizens in employment. C) deny African Americans the right to vote. D) deny land to anyone whose grandfathers were not white. E) distribute land to former slaves on the basis of how many generations they had served on a particular plantation.

The great freedoms of speech, press, religion, and assembly are contained in the A) First, Second, Third and Fourth Amendments. B) Fourth Amendment. C) Second Amendment. D) Third Amendment. E) First Amendment.

The idea that the Constitution guarantees a right to privacy was first enunciated in A) Griswold v. Connecticut. B) Marbury v. Madison. C) Roe v. Wade. D) Webster v. Reproductive Health Services. E) Planned Parenthood v. Casey.

Today, ________ apply to the states. A) all of the Bill of Rights except the First Amendment B) all of the Bill of Rights C) none of the Bill of Rights D) four amendments of the Bill of Rights E) all but five provisions or amendments of the Bill of Rights

The immediate reaction to Brown v. Board of Education (1954) was A) the busing of students to achieve racially balanced schools. B) the closing of schools in Topeka, Kansas. C) passage of the Twenty-third Amendment to overturn the Brown decision. D) the desegregation of public schools in the South. E) increased enrollment in private schools by whites in the South and a threat to close public schools.

The incorporation doctrine involves A) application of the Bill of Rights to the states. B) the government's power to regulate corporations. C) the procedures for creating a city government. D) the interpretation of the commerce clause. E) the extension of judicial review to state courts.

The justification for separation from England in the Declaration of Independence was based heavily on the ideas of the English philosopher A) Lord North. B) Henry VIII. C) Oliver Cromwell. D) David Hume. E) John Locke.

The largest item in the United States government budget, consuming more than one-fifth of spending, is A) Social Security payments. B) foreign aid. C) education spending. D) national defense. E) welfare for the poor.

The largest percentage of federal grants to states and localities is in the area of A) defense. B) health. C) transportation. D) education. E) homeland security.

The legal right to vote is referred to as A) civil liberties. B) the grandfather clause. C) civil rights. D) suffrage. E) coverture.

The list of problems to which political leaders are paying serious attention is a(n) A) problem set. B) policy agenda. C) issue constellation. D) legislative package. E) none of the above

The main instrument the national government uses for both aiding and influencing states and localities is A) judicial decisions. B) politics. C) grants-in-aid. D) mandates. E) revenue sharing.

The main instrument the national government uses to influence state governments is A) grants-in-aid. B) mandates. C) judicial review. D) the Tenth Amendment. E) presidential decrees.

The main type of federal aid to state and local governments is in the form of A) block grants. B) formula grants. C) categorical grants. D) project grants E) revenue sharing.

The most common type of categorical grant is A) block grants. B) a rescission fund. C) project grants. D) disaster relief. E) revenue sharing.

The most fundamental element of democratic theory is A) ʺpower to the people!ʺ B) government efficiency. C) equality. D) majority rule. E) access to information

The most important application of privacy rights has come in the area of A) abortion. B) birth control. C) sexual preference. D) pornography. E) the death penalty.

The most important effect of the constitutional amendments has been to A) expand liberty and equality. B) reinforce elite control of government. C) expand the powers of the states. D) strengthen the capitalist economy. E) all of the above

The national government has exclusive control over foreign and military policy, the postal system, and monetary policy, while the states have exclusive control over other specific areas. This division of responsibilities reflects A) dual federalism. B) divided government. C) tripartite federalism. D) cooperative federalism. E) fiscal federalism.

The one element of government that Madisonʹs plan placed within direct control of the voters was the A) Senate. B) presidency. C) Congress. D) House of Representatives. E) Supreme Court.

The one institution most responsible for putting civil rights goals on the nation's policy agenda was A) Congress. B) the presidency. C) the courts. D) the political parties. E) the state governments.

The overall set of shared values in a society is known as A) individualism. B) value added voting. C) populism. D) political culture. E) collectivism.

The pattern of spending, taxing, and providing grants in the federal system is called A) economic federalism. B) dual federalism. C) cooperative federalism. D) fiscal federalism. E) monetary federalism.

The phrase "all men are created equal" comes from the A) Bill of Rights. B) Constitution. C) famous pamphlet, Common Sense. D) Declaration of Independence. E) Bible.

The policymaking institutions of the American national government include all of the following EXCEPT A) the Supreme Court. B) the presidency. C) political parties. D) Congress. E) the Senate.

The power to directly regulate such things as drinking ages, marriage and divorce, and sexual behavior has been granted A) to all governments by the Bill of Rights. B) to the national government. C) to the president. D) to state governments. E) to both the state and national governments

The primary author of the Declaration of Independence was A) Thomas Jefferson. B) Benjamin Franklin. C) James Madison. D) King George III. E) George Washington.

The primary goal of the American Revolution was A) to gain control over the coloniesʹ trade with foreign nations. B) to cut taxes. C) to win the right to print paper money that could be used to pay off debts. D) to restore the colonistsʹ rights as British subjects. E) to gain control of the western frontier.

The primary goal of the American Revolution was to A) establish a new political system. B) restore rights the colonists felt were already theirs as British subjects. C) create a new economic order. D) institutionalize new social values based on equality. E) establish property rights.

Today, ________ have (has) an established church that is officially supported by the government. A) the United States B) no nation C) Great Britain D) all nations E) both the United States and Great Britain

The primary thrust of the original intent and wording of the Tenth Amendment is that A) state legislatures have the ultimate authority to determine what a state governmentʹs powers are. B) states have certain powers that the national government cannot encroach upon. C) the national government can take control of a state government during a national emergency. D) national laws override state laws when there is a conflict between the two. E) both the states and national government are bound by the limitations in the Bill of Rights.

The principal type of federal aid for states and localities is A) categorical grants. B) disaster loans. C) revenue sharing. D) block grants. E) urban renewal grants.

The principle of the supremacy of federal law over state law was affirmed in A) Marbury v. Madison. B) the Tenth Amendment. C) United States v. Darby. D) McCulloch v. Maryland. E) the presidential election of 1804.

The principle that "obscenity is not within the area of constitutionally protected speech or press" was established in A) Roth v. United States. B) Osborne v. Ohio. C) Miller v. California. D) United States v. Snepp. E) Ohio v. Pussycat Theater.

The principle that statements about public figures are libelous only if made with malice and reckless disregard for the truth was established in A) Texas v. Johnson. B) New York Times v. Sullivan. C) Osborne v. Ohio. D) the Anti-Defamation Act of 1952. E) Hustler Magazine v. Falwell.

The principle that the national government has certain implied powers that go beyond its enumerated powers was first elaborated in the Supreme Courtʹs decision in A) United States v. the States. B) Gibbons v. Ogden. C) Miranda v. Arizona. D) McCulloch v. Maryland. E) Marbury v. Madison.

The process from above is A) a policymaking system. B) political decision making. C) a policy agenda. D) a government. E) a linkage institution.

The proportion of the United States gross national product spent by state and local governments has ________ since 1929. A) increased at a much faster rate compared to the national government B) increased, but not nearly as fast as the national governmentʹs C) dropped considerably D) remained steady E) dropped slightly

The publication of statements known to be false that are malicious and tend to damage a person's reputation is called A) obscenity. B) symbolic. C) slander. D) libel. E) fraud.

The rapid growth of the national government is largely due to the fact that A) the diversity of interests within and among the states require a national focus. B) states are constitutionally prohibited from maintaining independent defense forces and policies. C) the states have failed to adequately represent their interests. D) the Constitution requires that most programs be administered by the national government. E) most problems and policies require the authority and resources of the national government.

The requirement of a drinking age provision before states can receive federal highway aid is an example of A) a string attached to categorical grants. B) an important element of the ʺformulaʺ used to calculate formula grants. C) a project grant supported by the interest groups. D) the efforts of state agencies to get federal funds. E) an unfunded mandate.

The right to a "speedy trial" and the prohibition against "cruel and unusual punishment" A) are included in the Bill of Rights, but are rather vague and subject to the interpretation of the courts themselves. B) are so important that they were among the few civil liberties actually guaranteed by the original constitution. C) are not guaranteed by the Bill of Rights but, however vague in their wording, are considered vital to our court system. D) were ruled unconstitutional in 1976 because they were so ill-defined as to be meaningless. E) are included in the Bill of Rights, are self-evident, and have not required much court interpretation.

The right to privacy was applied to the states by the Supreme Court case of A) Gitlow v. New York. B) Gitlow, Near & Mapp v. the States. C) Mapp v. Ohio. D) Near v. Minnesota. E) Griswold v. Connecticut.

The rights of accused persons included in the Bill of Rights were originally intended to protect the accused in A) federal civil cases. B) federal criminal cases. C) local civil and criminal cases. D) political arrests and trials. E) police custody.

The separation of powers and the checks and balances established by the Constitution A) allow almost all groups some place in the political system where their demands for public policy can be heard. B) have acted to discourage the growth of groups in American society. C) have made the United States one of the most democratic countries in the world. D) create so many obstacles that groups have no place for their policy demands to be heard. E) are basically undemocratic since only elites can formulate policies within the system.

The significance of Gitlow v. New York (1925) was that A) a provision of the Bill of Rights was applied to the states for the first time. B) the national government was prevented from violating the Bill of Rights. C) a state constitution had precedence over the United States Constitution within that state. D) the Bill of Rights was interpreted as restraining only the national government and not cities or states. E) the U.S. Constitution has precedence over the state constitution within the state.

The sole purpose of government, according to John Locke, was to A) promote the common good. B) prevent anarchy. C) educate its people. D) protect individuals from violence. E) protect natural rights.

The supremacy clause A) establishes the Constitution, laws of the national government, and treaties as the supreme law of the land. B) establishes the Supreme Court as the final arbiter in all civil and criminal disputes. C) declares that the national government is superior to the states in every concern. D) states that powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by the states, are reserved to the states. E) states that the people are the supreme authority in the United States and that the government shall be subservient to them.

The system of checks and balances in the Constitution means that A) a majority can easily manipulate the system, but a minority cannot. B) changes in government policy can be made with relative ease, with few obstacles to stop a popular new force. C) we have a direct democracy, with all branches equally accessible to strong public pressure. D) change usually comes slowly, if at all, and moderation and compromise are typical in our political system. E) each branch of government has its own powers independent of the other.

The theory that argues that group competition results in a rough approximation of the public interest in public policy is A) hyperpluralist theory. B) balance of power theory. C) elite and class theory. D) pluralist theory. E) bureaucratic theory.

The theory that sees wealth as the basis of power is the A) democratic theory. B) hyperpluralist theory. C) Jeffersonian theory. D) elite and class theory. E) pluralist theory.

The view of human nature most prevalent among the Founding Fathers was that A) men abhor power and the burdens that come with it. B) people are self-interested in acquiring wealth and power. C) human nature can be perfected, given the right social and political institutions. D) people are basically cooperative and community-oriented. E) people are disorganized and without vision.

The white primary A) was the examination voters had to pass before being allowed to vote, designed to prevent blacks from voting because they had been denied educational opportunities. B) denied blacks the right to run for office in primary elections in the South. C) excluded blacks from primary elections, thus depriving them of a voice in the real electoral contests in the South. D) denied blacks the right to vote in all southern elections. E) allowed blacks to vote only in Republican primaries in the heavily Democratic South.

The workings of the federal system are sometimes called A) internal relations. B) intergovernmental relations. C) intrastate relations. D) interstate relations. E) international relations.

The writers of the United States Constitution A) were distrustful of democracy. B) sought to establish the most democratic system they could. C) were interested in promoting equality above all else. D) patterned our government after Britainʹs except for the King. E) believed in majority rule.

The ʺpower of the fewʺ in the United States today is likely to refer to A) high-level bureaucrats. B) elected officials. C) property holders. D) technical experts. E) a silent majority.

Things that are indivisible, nonexclusive, and that everyone can share are called A) intangible property. B) socialized. C) community property. D) communist. E) public goods.

Thomas Jefferson argued that the First Amendment created a "wall of separation" between A) the government and the people. B) the Congress, the president, and the Supreme Court. C) the people and the Supreme Court. D) church and state. E) men and women.

Thomas Jefferson, who wrote in the Declaration of Independence "We hold these truths to be self evident, that all men are created equal," believed A) that slavery was immoral. B) in the principle of equal rewards. C) that blacks were genetically inferior to whites. D) that there were no differences among human beings. E) that all people are created equal at birth, but become unequal over time.

Thomas Jeffersonʹs phrase ʺlife, liberty, and the pursuit of happinessʺ was a modification of John Lockeʹs phrase ʺLife, liberty, and ________.ʺ A) property B) God C) heaven D) health E) equality

Those who argue that the United States is in the midst of a culture war argue that Americans are becoming increasingly A) isolationist. B) secular. C) hypocritical. D) egalitarian. E) polarized.

Those who met at the Constitutional Convention in 1787 were A) a mix of wealthy and middle-class Americans. B) wealthy planters, lawyers, and merchants. C) overwhelmingly middle-class farmers. D) primarily British officials overseeing the implementation of the new government agreed to in the peace treaty. E) split evenly between Democrats and Republicans.

Time and time again, the Supreme Court has protected freedom of the press by A) ruling in favor of strict libel laws. B) striking down prior restraint. C) refusing to allow the subpoena of reporters. D) relaxing due process procedures. E) all of the above.

To prevent abuse of police power, the Constitution requires that no court may issue ________ unless probable cause exists to believe that a crime has occurred or is about to occur. A) a writ of habeas corpus B) a prior restraint C) an exclusionary rule D) a search warrant E) any of the above

To propose a formal amendment to the Constitution, one needs to have a A) three-quarters vote in Congress. B) national convention requested by half of the states. C) majority vote of the Supreme Court. D) two-thirds vote in Congress. E) the presidentʹs approval.

To render African-American votes ineffective, several southern states used the ________, a device that permitted political parties to choose their nominees in elections off limits to blacks. A) suffrage B) grandfather clause C) poll tax D) hidden ballot E) white primary

What was the main criticism of the national bank created by the United States government? A) It was printing too much worthless paper money which debtors were using to pay off their debts. B) It was charging exorbitant interest rates on its loans. C) It was borrowing too much money, putting the United States government hopelessly in debt. D) It was an instrument of the elite and gave the national government too much control of the economy. E) It did not efficiently distribute money to the states.

What was the original, sole, and express purpose of the convention in Philadelphia? A) to revise the Articles of Confederation B) to choose the first president C) to negotiate the peace treaty with Great Britain D) to abolish the Articles of Confederation E) to grant women the right to vote

What was the significance of the Annapolis meeting? A) It was the first national convention of women demanding the right to vote. B) It issued the Declaration of Independence. C) It dissolved the Continental Congress. D) It selected George Washington as the first post-Revolutionary president. E) It issued the original call for the Constitutional Convention in Philadelphia.

When compared with the rest of the world, America has a relatively low A) number of offices up for election. B) number of candidates who seek office. C) frequency of elections. D) voter turnout in elections. E) all of the above

Where is the right to privacy found in the Constitution? A) Tenth Amendment B) First Amendment C) Sixth Amendment D) Ninth Amendment E) none of the above

Which of the following categories is the largest expenditure in the federal budget? A) Social Security B) Medicaid C) environment D) national defense E) homeland security

Which of the following does NOT characterize the standard operating procedure of cooperative federalism today? A) federal guidelines B) grants-in-aid C) shared costs D) separate and distinct roles for the national and state governments E) shared administration

Which of the following elements of the Bill of Rights was extended to the states by the Supreme Court case of Near v. Minnesota? A) freedom of speech B) freedom of the press C) right to counsel in felony cases D) grand jury requirement E) right to privacy

Which of the following federal policies exemplifies the implied powers of Congress? A) environmental protection law B) income tax C) the regulation of interstate commerce D) the provision of an army and a navy E) all of the above

Which of the following individuals have suggested that pluralist theory is less descriptive of American politics than in the past? A) Anthony King B) Robert Dahl C) Alexis de Tocqueville D) Robert Putnam E) Thomas Jefferson

Which of the following is FALSE about the Constitution? A) It creates many government access points where groups can attempt to initiate or block policy changes. B) It discourages hyperpluralism. C) It places many limits on the governmentʹs powers. D) It protects individual liberty. E) It creates government gridlock and inaction.

Which of the following is FALSE about the United States government under the Articles of Confederation? A) Each state had only one vote in Congress. B) Most authority rested with the United States Congress rather than the state governments. C) The Congress had only one house. D) There was no president. E) All of these are false.

Which of the following is NOT a contemporary theory of democracy? A) hyperpluralism B) class theory C) democratic centralism D) pluralism E) elite theory

Which of the following is NOT a free exercise issue? A) animal sacrifice B) religious use of peyote C) teacher led prayers in public schools D) whether Amish children must go to school E) none of the above

Which of the following is NOT a linkage institution? A) political parties B) the media C) interest groups D) Congress E) All of these are linkage institutions.

Which of the following is NOT a standard operating procedure of cooperative federalism today? A) distinctly separated powers of state and national governments B) federal grants-in-aid C) shared administration of programs D) shared financing of government E) federal guidelines imposed on states

Which of the following is NOT an effect of federalism? A) It simplifies the governmental system. B) Courts are called upon to be referees, and they gain power. C) It decentralizes political power. D) It creates more access points to government. E) It increases bureaucracy.

Which of the following is NOT one of the cornerstones of an ideal democracy? A) a constitution B) effective participation C) citizen control of the agenda D) economic equality E) equality in voting

Which of the following is NOT protected in the First Amendment? A) right to privacy B) right of people to petition the government for a redress of grievances C) no establishment of religion D) freedom of speech E) freedom of the presss

Which of the following is NOT specifically stated in the Bill of Rights? A) right to privacy B) protection against double jeopardy C) right to bear arms D) freedom of speech E) All of these are specifically stated.

Which of the following is NOT true about categorical grants? A) The federal government is less likely to apply conditions to these grants today than in the 1970s. B) There are several hundred specific purposes or categories for which these grants can be used. C) Virtually every one is enshrouded in rules and regulations for its use. D) A project grant is the most typical type of categorical grant. E) Categorical grants are monies that can be spent in broad categories of functions.

Which of the following is NOT true? A) Few countries have federal systems. B) Most federal systems are democracies. C) Authoritarian regimes generally do not use federalist systems. D) No unitary governments are democratic. E) Only some democracies use federal systems.

Which state boycotted the Constitutional Convention? A) Texas, because it took too long to get to Philadelphia B) Virginia C) Rhode Island D) No state boycotted. E) Both Virginia and Rhode Island boycotted.

Which of the following is TRUE about the Supreme Court's decision in Miranda v. Arizona? A) Miranda's innocence or guilt was not at issue; his rights had been violated, so his conviction was overturned. B) The Court's decision greatly relieved members of police departments throughout the country. C) The Court ruled that Miranda was innocent, and Miranda later became a famous public defender in the local courts. D) The Court ruled that Miranda's constitutional rights had not been violated and that he could be legally executed. E) The Court concluded that Miranda was innocent, overturned his conviction, and ordered him freed from prison.

Which of the following is an accurate statement about the Bill of Rights and its relevance to the stages of the criminal justice system? A) The rights of accused persons are protected up to the point of actual arrest. B) The rights of accused persons are protected up to the point of being convicted of a crime. C) The Bill of Rights does not apply to accused criminals. D) The rights of accused persons are protected up to the point of the trial itself. E) The rights of accused persons and convicted criminals are guaranteed at every stage, from gathering of evidence to the imposition of punishment.

Which of the following is an example of a confederation? A) state governments in the United States B) the United Nations C) OPEC D) Britain E) France

Which of the following is established by the written Constitution? A) the right to an abortion B) media coverage of the House and Senate C) political parties D) All of these are mentioned in the written Constitution. E) None of these are mentioned in the written Constitution.

Which of the following is most equitably distributed in America? A) income B) access to education C) taxes D) credit E) federal aid to states and cities

Which of the following is most fundamentally critical of American democracy? A) traditional democratic theory B) democratic negativism C) pluralist theory D) critical democratic theory E) elite and class theory

Which of the following situations was NOT considered an economic problem by the writers of the Constitution? A) States put up tariffs against products from other states. B) Paper money was virtually worthless in some states. C) The economy was in a recession. D) States were passing laws favoring debtors over creditors. E) National taxes were too high.

Which of the following statements about Native Americans is FALSE? A) Native Americans are the oldest minority group in the United States. B) Native Americans are guaranteed access to the polls, housing, and to jobs. C) Native Americans were made citizens of the United States long before African Americans received the same status. D) The Indian Claims Act of 1946 established a means to settle financial disputes arising from lands taken from the Indians. E) Native Americans are the poorest minority group in the United States.

Which of the following statements about a governmentʹs policy agenda is FALSE? A) When you vote, you are partly looking at whether a candidate shares your agenda or not. B) Bad news gets an issue on the policy agenda more quickly than good news. C) When people confront government officials with problems to be solved, they are trying to influence the governmentʹs policy agenda. D) A governmentʹs policy agenda tends to remain constant over time. E) None of the above; all are true.

Which of the following statements about federal block grants is FALSE? A) Block grants were created to lessen the paperwork and strings attached to many grants-in-aid. B) Congress has established an unlimited number of block grants to support narrowly defined programs. C) The Republican Congress is increasing block grants. D) States have discretion in deciding how to spend block grant money. E) They provide the states more flexibility in spending.

Which of the following statements about federalism is FALSE? A) Federalism was hotly debated at the Constitutional Convention. B) Eighteenth-century Americans had little experience in thinking of themselves as Americans first and state citizens second. C) There was no other practical choice in 1787 but to create a federal system of government. D) Loyalty to state governments was so strong that the Constitution would have been resoundingly defeated had it tried to abolish them. E) None of the above; all are TRUE.

Which of the following statements about federalism is false? A) In cooperative federalism, sometimes even blame is shared when programs do not work well. B) The American system has always been neatly separated into purely state and purely national responsibilities. C) In cooperative federalism, policy assignments are shared between states and the national government. D) Cooperative federalism today rests on several standard operating procedures. E) None; all are true.

Which of the following statements about freedom of assembly is FALSE? A) Freedom of assembly is often neglected alongside the great freedoms of speech, press, and religion. B) Without freedom of assembly we would not have the right to form political parties or interest groups. C) Freedom of assembly includes the right to assemble and the right to associate. D) Nazis have the constitutional right to march through a heavily Jewish community. E) Freedom of assembly allows groups to demonstrate at any time, at any place, or in any manner they wish.

Which of the following statements about freedom of expression is FALSE? A) Universities cannot prohibit racial, religious, or sexual insults. B) Obscenity and libel are not protected by the First Amendment. C) Picketing is considered symbolic speech and receives First Amendment protection. D) Government can limit expression more easily than it can limit action. E) Holding a political rally to attack an opposition candidate's stand on important issues gets First Amendment protection.

Which of the following statements about judicial interpretation is FALSE? A) Judicial interpretation can profoundly affect how the Constitution is understood. B) The power of judicial review gives courts the right to decide whether legislative actions are in accord with the Constitution. C) The power of judicial interpretation is explicitly stated in the Constitution. D) In the case of Marbury v. Madison, the Supreme Court decided it would be the one to decide constitutional disputes. E) none of the above

Which of the following statements about public goods is FALSE? A) The government usually provides public goods. B) Public goods are things that everyone can share. C) Individuals have powerful incentives to provide public goods. D) Public goods are not profitable. E) Public goods are indivisible and nonexclusive.

Which of the following statements about religion and politics is FALSE? A) Many school districts have simply ignored the Supreme Courtʹs ban on school prayer and hold prayers in their classrooms. B) The religious diversity in America has made it difficult to establish one state religion such as Britain has. C) The Supreme Court has never permitted the claim of religious freedom to permit every sort of behavior. D) Efforts are underway to amend the Constitution to permit school prayer. E) In recent years, religious issues and controversies have become less visible in political debate.

Which of the following statements about taxes is TRUE? A) One out of every three dollars earned by an American citizen is used to pay taxes. B) Despite the image presented by the media, survey data reveal that Americans feel they are getting their moneyʹs worth for the taxes they pay. C) About one-tenth of the average American citizenʹs salary goes to taxes. D) The tax burden in the United States is higher than in most other democratic nations. E) All of these are true.

Which of the following statements about the Anti-Federalists is FALSE? A) The Anti-Federalists were basically unpatriotic and un-American. B) The Anti-Federalists fought to prevent ratification of the new constitution. C) The Anti-Federalists believed that the new government was an enemy of freedom. D) The Anti-Federalists believed the new government would erode fundamental liberties. E) The Anti-Federalists believed the new Constitution was a class-based document.

Which of the following statements about the Bill of Rights and the rights of the accused is FALSE? A) The great majority of the words in the Bill of Rights deal with the rights of the accused rather than freedoms of expression. B) The Bill of Rights covers every stage of the criminal justice system. C) The language of the Bill of Rights regarding the rights of the accused is often vague. D) Defendants' rights are well-defined in the Bill of Rights. E) Most defendants' rights, as provided in the Bill of Rights, have been incorporated by the states.

Which of the following statements about the Bill of Rights is FALSE? A) The Bill of Rights was written by the First Congress of the United States. B) The Bill of Rights consists of the first ten amendments to the Constitution. C) Most state constitutions did not have a Bill of Rights at the time of the Constitutional Convention. D) Many states made adoption of a Bill of Rights a condition of ratification of the Constitution. E) The Constitution of 1787 contained no Bill of Rights.

Which of the following statements about the Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) is FALSE? A) The ERA was opposed by many southern states. B) The ERA was proposed by Congress in 1978. C) Public opinion polls showed little support for the ERA after 1960. D) The ERA was first proposed in 1923. E) The ERA never became part of the Constitution.

Which of the following statements about the Supreme Court and abortion is FALSE? A) The Supreme Court has forbidden any state regulation of abortion during the first trimester. B) The Supreme Court upheld a state law requiring teenagers to secure the consent of at least one parent before obtaining an abortion. C) The Court permits states to require a 24-hour waiting period before getting an abortion. D) The Court allows states to require a woman to give her husband advance notice of an abortion. E) The Supreme Court permits states to forbid the use of any state funds to pay for abortions.

Which of the following statements about the state governments is accurate? A) They carry out virtually all the functions they always have, while the national government has taken on new functions. B) The national government has taken away nearly all the functions the states used to perform. C) The national government has taken away about half the functions the states used to perform. D) There has been a sharp decrease in the proportion of gross national product spent by states and localities since 1929. E) Their policy functions have nearly been taken over by the national government.

Which of the following statements best describes voter turnout in the United States? A) Among democratic nations, the United States leads the world in voter turnout. B) Voter turnout in the United States is constitutionally mandated. C) Voters are usually a microcosm of the entire body of American citizens. D) Most American voters consider politics as critical to their interests. E) The United States has one of the lowest voter turnout rates in the world

Which of the following statements concerning the public airways is FALSE? A) The FCC restricts the use of obscene words on public airways. B) The same restrictions that apply to radio and television also apply to newspapers. C) About two-thirds of American homes have cable TV. D) Cable television has fewer restrictions placed on them than the public airways. E) The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) regulates radio and television broadcasting.

Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Federalism reduces decision making and conflict at the national level. B) Federalism reduces the opportunities for political participation. C) Federalism allows the diversity of opinion within the country to be reflected in different public policies among the states. D) There are over a half million elected officials in the United States as a result of the federal system. E) The federal system ensures that each state can establish a power base to promote its interests.

Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) The federal government has given billions of dollars in subsidies to private industries. B) The national government took a direct interest in economic affairs from the very founding of the republic. C) As the country became more industrialized many interests asked the national government to restrain monopolies and encourage open competition. D) As the country became more industrialized and urbanized, economic interest groups turned to the state governments rather than the federal government for help. E) The national government has increasingly involved itself in the economic marketplace.

Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) The American Revolution was fought principally in the name of equality. B) The delegates to the Constitutional Convention did not resolve the tension between slavery and the principles of the Declaration of Independence. C) Women's rights were hotly debated at the Constitutional Convention. D) Most colonists were eager to defend slavery. E) all of the above

Who issued the Declaration of Independence? A) the Constitutional Convention of 1776 B) the Continental Congress C) President George Washington D) the 13 colonial legislatures E) General George Washington

Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Federal grants can put an unwanted financial burden on states. B) When Congress imposes a program on the states, it also provides the funds for the program. C) Congress decreased funding of Medicaid in the 1980s to relieve state financial burdens. D) States are always seeking increases in grant programs. E) all of the above

Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) The American states have unitary governments. B) Federalism is the typical way nations organize their governments. C) Great Britain has a federal system. D) Most European countries are confederations. E) none of the above

Which of the following statements regarding libel is FALSE? A) Public figures are protected against libel since publications must prove that what they wrote is true and not malicious. B) Libel cases are very difficult for public figures to win. C) Libel laws do inhibit the press to some extent. D) General William Westmoreland failed to prove libel. E) It is more difficult for a public figure than a private individual to win a libel suit.

Which of the following takes the most positive view of democracy in the United States? A) democratic centralism B) pluralist theory C) hyperpluralism D) democratic positivism E) elite theory

Which of the following was NOT a characteristic of the 55 delegates who attended the Constitutional Convention? A) Most were residents of the western frontiers. B) They were all men. C) A significant number were urbanites. D) Many were college graduates. E) They were mostly wealthy planters.

Which of the following was NOT a problem with the national government under the Articles of Confederation? A) the threat of some of the Continental Army to establish George Washington as king B) the lack of power given to state legislatures C) the lack of an executive to lead the nation D) the inability of the central national government to regulate foreign trade or regulate the national economy E) the unwillingness of the states to send money requisitioned by the central national government

Which of the following was NOT a problem with the national government under the Articles of Confederation? A) the unwillingness of the states to send money requisitioned by the central national government B) the lack of an executive to lead the nation C) the lack of power given to state legislatures D) the inability of the central national government to regulate foreign trade or regulate the national economy E) None of these were problems at the time.

Which of the following was NOT a source of revenue for the United States government under the Articles of Confederation? A) taxes levied by the Continental Congress B) printing its own money C) selling off western lands D) state governments E) All of the above were revenue sources.

Which of the following was NOT occurring in the states during the time of the Articles of Confederation? A) abolishment of religious qualifications for holding office B) adoption of bills of rights C) upper-class dominance D) expanded political participation E) all of the above

Which of the following was NOT one of the economic difficulties the writers of the Constitution attempted to address? A) some states kept printing virtually worthless money B) the tariffs states had erected against one another to protect their state-made products C) lack of unemployment compensation and welfare payments D) the difficulty of the Continental Congress in raising money from the states E) All of these were dealt with in the Constitution.

Which of the following would NOT be considered a contemporary challenge to American democracy? A) complexity of the issues B) the threat of communism C) the use of money in politics D) political participation rates E) diversity

Which of these is NOT a criterion of traditional democratic theory, as formulated by Robert Dahl? A) freedom of speech and press B) One person gets one vote. C) Citizenship must be open to all within a nation. D) Those who participate in political organizations must be representative of the general population. E) Citizens must make rational choices.

Which of these is NOT among the factors that tend to lead to the creation of a federal form of government in a country? A) large population B) diverse population C) large land area D) the existence of multiple religions E) industrialization

Which of these is NOT considered a challenge to democracy by the textbook? A) the diversity of the American people B) the level of political participation by Americans C) PACs D) the specialization of knowledge held by experts E) the tendency of the American political system to change rapidly

Which of these is TRUE about the United States Constitution? A) It centralizes political power. B) It is superseded only by decrees of the president. C) It sets neutral rules for the game of politics. D) All of these are true. E) None of these are true.

Which of these is a linkage institution? A) USA Today B) the presidentʹs cabinet C) the House of Representatives D) the ambassador to France E) all of the above

Which of these was NOT a principle established in the case of McCulloch v. Maryland? A) State governments are forbidden spending more money than they raise each year, while there is no such requirement on the national government. B) The national government can establish a national bank, even though the Constitution does not say it can. C) The national government is supreme to the states when it is acting within its sphere of action. D) The national government has certain implied powers that go beyond its enumerated powers. E) State laws preempt national laws when the national government clearly exceeds its constitutional powers and intrudes upon state powers.

Which of these was NOT among John Lockeʹs key philosophical concepts? A) checks and balances B) limited government C) natural rights D) consent of the governed E) property rights

Which of these was NOT one of the big three disagreements at the Constitutional Convention? A) what to do about slavery B) who should have the right to vote C) whether or not the states should have an equal number of votes in Congress D) whether the courts should have the power of judicial review E) issues of equality

Which one of the following countries has federalism as its method of governing? A) Canada B) China C) France D) Kenya E) No other country uses federalism.

113) ʺRally eventsʺ A) are specific and dramatic events that relate to international relations, directly involving the United States and the president. B) have an enduring impact on a presidentʹs public approval. C) involve economic upsurges that dramatically increase presidential popularity. D) have no effect on presidential popularity even though presidents use them for that purpose. E) occur frequently during a presidentʹs administration.

115) Common Cause is an example of A) a public interest lobby. B) a subgovernment. C) interest group liberalism. D) a single-issue group. E) a for-profit lobby.

116) An example of a public interest group is A) Common Cause. B) American Medical Association. C) National Organization for Women. D) National Association of Manufacturers. E) National Rifle Association

117) The presidentʹs ________ serves as the principal conduit of information from the White House to the press on a daily basis. A) press secretary B) vice president C) Chief of Staff D) Secretary of Information E) Domestic Policy Advisor

16) As president, ________ launched the ʺGreat Societyʺ at home while escalating the Vietnam War abroad. A) Lyndon Johnson B) Harry Truman C) Richard Nixon D) Gerald Ford E) Dwight Eisenhower

2) As Richard Neustadt has argued, presidential power is probably best understood as the power to A) persuade. B) command. C) control. D) harass. E) veto.

25) In order to convict and remove an impeached president, it takes A) a two-thirds vote in the Senate. B) a majority vote in the Senate. C) a majority vote in the House of Representatives. D) a two-thirds vote in the House of Representatives.

29) The Twenty-fifth Amendment, ratified in 1967, A) created a means for selecting a new vice president when the office became vacant. B) granted 18-year-olds the right to vote. C) limited the president to two terms in office. D) specifically forced Richard Nixon from office. E) provided for the direct election of the president by the people.

3) A ________ is staged by a campaign primarily for the purpose of being covered on television and in the press. A) media event B) TV commercial C) political incident D) ʺGet Out the Voteʺ effort E) political play

35) Serious magazines of political news and opinion are A) basically reserved for the educated elite in America. B) almost nonexistent in the United States. C) a principle source of news and information for most Americans. D) rapidly dying out in the United States, but remain very healthy in Europe and Latin America. E) a more common source for national and international news than newspapers.

4) Americans want a strong president, A) but do not like a concentration of power. B) and do not care whether the strength is used for good or for ill. C) and would like to abolish all checks on presidential power. D) but do not expect much from any president. E) but want an even stronger Congress.

42) A constitutional duty of the vice president is to A) preside over the Senate and cast the deciding vote in the event of a tie. B) attend the funerals of foreign leaders on behalf of the president. C) preside over the House and cast the deciding vote in the event of a tie. D) raise funds for party candidates. E) all of the above

47) Cabinet-level executive departments are created by A) Congress. B) the Constitution. C) the president. D) rarely held national referendums. E) all of the above

52) The National Security Council A) links the presidentʹs key foreign and military policy advisors. B) is composed of the heads of the three branches of the armed services and makes recommendations to the president on combat strategy. C) was established by President Roosevelt to manage foreign and domestic intelligence operations. D) was created by legislation to keep the president informed on foreign affairs.

53) The Office of Management and Budget is comprised of A) political appointees and career officials. B) political appointees, career officials, and congressional staffers. C) all political appointees. D) all career officials. E) economists.

53) Which of the following groups claims the smallest share of its potential members? A) National Consumers League B) United States Savings and Loan League C) Tobacco Institute D) Air Transport Association E) American Medical Association

6) According to the Constitution, a president must be at least ________ years of age. A) 35 B) 30 C) 40 D) 25 E) 21

61) President Clintonʹs decision making style was A) to immerse himself in the details of policy and run an open White House, soliciting the advice of a large number of aides. B) to set up a chain of command in which all advice was sent upward to his Chief of Staff who then presented Clinton with the decision-making options. C) highly organized and decisive, with the president actually flipping a coin to decide issues where his advisors are evenly divided. D) to delegate so much decision making authority to his aides that the media often call them his ʺhandlers.ʺ E) to remain highly isolated and make most decisions in consultation only with his two closest advisors.

62) Single-issue groups A) include members with narrow, uncompromising interests. B) have had little effect on the outcomes of elections. C) mainly focus on the issue of abortion. D) are not taken seriously because they lack a large constituency. E) tend to focus on their specific economic interest rather than on collective social issues.

67) The member of a presidential campaign who helps reporters make their deadlines with stories that the campaign would like to see reported is the A) press secretary. B) media liaison. C) propagandist. D) director of public relations. E) media consultant.

69) Which of the following statements about the presidential veto is FALSE? A) Almost half of all vetoed bills have been overridden by Congress. B) Presidents can not veto only parts of a bill. C) Even the threat of a presidential veto can be an effective tool for persuading Congress to give more weight to presidentsʹ views. D) The presidential veto is an inherently negative resource. E) The president, unlike most governors, cannot use a line-item veto.

7) All presidents but one have been A) Protestant. B) Catholic. C) Hare Krishna. D) atheist. E) Evangelical Christian.

70) In 1998, the Supreme Court ruled in Clinton v. City of New York that A) a 1996 law granting the president the authority to propose rescinding funds in appropriation bills was unconstitutional. B) the pocket veto was unconstitutional. C) that the Clinton impeachment vote was unconstitutional. D) that the president could not line-item veto grant monies to urban areas.

73) According to the text, one of the most common function of lobbyists is to A) provide information and ideas to members of Congress. B) recruit former officeholders to help with public relations. C) convert members of Congress to the point of view the lobbyists represent. D) actually introduce new legislation. E) raise funds for preferred political candidates.

74) The text identifies two types of lobbyists, A) full-time employees and consultants. B) policy experts and legal specialists. C) attorneys and non-attorneys. D) those based in Washington, D.C., and those based elsewhere. E) ʺold schoolʺ and ʺmodern styleʺ lobbyists.

75) Presidential coattails refers to A) voters who support the president casting their ballots for congressional candidates of the presidentʹs party. B) the tendency for the presidentʹs party to lose congressional seats in midterm elections. C) fund-raising parties the president hosts to raise money for congressional candidates. D) the presidentʹs power to appoint members of his own political party to cabinet posts and as personal advisors. E) members of Congress voting according to the wishes of the president.

8) According to the original Constitution, the president must be A) at least 35 years old. B) a resident of the United States for at least five years. C) a citizen of the United States for at least ten years. D) a white man. E) all of the above except D

84) Steve Sovernʹs LASTPAC and Common Cause A) agree that all candidates and officeholders should not accept money from political action groups. B) disagree on the issue of whether PACs engage in influence peddling. C) disagree on the issue of whether electioneering is an appropriate policy arena for interest groups. D) agree that the $5,000 limit on PAC contributions makes such contributions meaningless in multimillion -dollar presidential campaigns and should be rescinded. E) agree that the income tax check-off to support public financing of presidential campaign should be eliminated.

85) The most successful tactic that civil rights and environmental groups have used to influence policy is A) litigation. B) electioneering. C) lobbying. D) media advertising. E) protest demonstrations.

88) The presidentʹs role in the legislative process A) is especially important in influencing Congressʹs agenda. B) usually puts her/him in conflict with Congress. C) is usually minor because Congress operates independently from the president. D) is most effective in domestic policy. E) at least until 1995, has been to react to and modify congressional initiatives.

95) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) In the American economy, government directly determines wages, prices, and profits. B) Public policy in America has economic effects through regulations, tax advantages, subsidies and contracts, and international trade. C) Even a minor change in government regulatory policy can cost industries a great deal or bring increased profits. D) How the tax code is written determines whether people and producers pay a lot or a little of their incomes to the government. E) B and D only

96) The War Powers Resolution may be considered unconstitutional because A) its use of the legislative veto may be considered a violation of the doctrine of separation of powers. B) it violates the presidentʹs power to declare war. C) it violates the presidents power as Commander in Chief. D) it was struck down by the Supreme Court. E) it violates the congressional power to appropriate funds for the military.

99) Which of the following statements about crises is FALSE? A) There were more immediate crises early in American history than there are today. B) Most crises occur in the realm of foreign policy. C) Crises are rarely the presidentʹs doing. D) The president has become more prominent in handling crises than other branches of government. E) It is easier for an individual president to manage crises than it is for congressional leaders to do so.

After passage of the Nineteenth Amendment in 1920, public policy toward women was dominated by A) protectionism. B) the principle of equality. C) coverture. D) matriarchalism. E) economic, but not political, advances.

All of the following are instruments of foreign policy EXCEPT A) taxation. B) military. C) economic. D) diplomacy. E) none of the above.

All of the following countries are seeking to acquire nuclear weapons EXCEPT A) Algeria. B) Iran. C) Iraq. D) North Korea. E) none of the above.

Defense spending now makes up about ________ of the federal budget. A) one-fifth B) one-third C) one-half D) three-fifths E) one-fourth

Diplomacy refers to A) formal and informal communications with representatives of other governments. B) regulation of international travel. C) the exchange of military officials between countries. D) a recent philosophy regarding world relations. E) multi-sided arms negotiations.

During the Cold War era, more than a million ________ troops were spread from West Germany to Portugal. A) North Atlantic Treaty Organization B) Trilateral Commission C) German D) United Nations peacekeeping E) United Nations combat

Economic sanctions are A) non-military sanctions imposed on a foreign government in an attempt to modify its behavior. B) sanctions imposed by the United States government on multinational corporations. C) accomplished through the use of tariffs and quotas. D) typically used as a second resort in an escalating military conflict. E) an example of a last resort sanction.

Homophobia refers to A) fear and hatred toward gay men and lesbian women. B) the tendency to be sexually attracted to members of one's own sex. C) the development of positive stereotypes concerning gay men and lesbian women. D) promoting the Civil Rights of gay men and lesbian women. E) an attitude of tolerance and acceptance toward gay men and lesbian women.

The one key word that could be used to describe todayʹs international economy is A) interdependency. B) protectionism. C) isolationism. D) self-sufficiency. E) bankruptcy.

In its 1995 ruling in Adarand Constructors v. Pena, the Supreme Court A) changed direction and began to curtail federal use of affirmative action programs. B) outlawed discrimination against women in the construction industry. C) mandated an expansion of federal affirmative action programs. D) upheld federal affirmative action programs as constitutional. E) broadened the scope of state and local affirmative action programs that it considers constitutional.

Lieutenant Colonel Oliver North became a national celebrity when he explained his involvement in the ________ to a televised Congressional hearing. A) Iran-Contra scandal B) Watergate scandal C) defense procurement scandal D) liberation of Kuwait E) Whitewater scandal

Member countries of the United Nations agree to A) renounce war and respect certain human and economic freedoms. B) elect their leaders through the democratic process. C) adopt the United States Constitution as their model for self-government. D) limit the organization's activities to a peacekeeping function, and not involve themselves in economic development or health, education, and welfare concerns. E) adopt capitalist economic systems.

Multinational corporations A) have been known to link forces with the CIA to overturn governments they disliked. B) are usually strictly regulated by their host country. C) are among the oldest actors on the international stage. D) contribute two-thirds of the world's industrial output. E) all of the above

Permanent members of the United Nations Security Council have A) veto power over any Security Council decisions, including any effort to deploy UN peacekeeping troops. B) two votes each on the Security Council, making them more important than non-permanent members. C) no more or no less clout on the Security Council than the non-permanent members, just guaranteed membership. D) no voting power on the Security Council, but are guaranteed the right to listen in or speak at any meeting. E) none of the above

Supporters of affirmative action believe that A) affirmative action produces so important a social goal that some reverse discrimination is acceptable. B) merit is the only fair basis for distributing benefits. C) discrimination is wrong, even when its purpose is to rectify past injustices. D) any form of quota system is unjust. E) some discrimination is acceptable.

The Central Intelligence Agency is required by law to report its activities to A) relevant Congressional committees. B) the Joint Chiefs of Staff. C) the United Nations Security Council. D) the Secretary of State. E) no one, not even the president.

The Intermediate-range Nuclear Forces (INF) treaty is a significant event in arms control because A) it is the first treaty to reduce current levels of nuclear weapons. B) the United States agreed to scrap its SDI proposal. C) it eliminated nuclear weapons in Europe. D) it prohibited the development of antiballistic missiles. E) it was illegally abrogated by the Soviet Union and lead to the Reagan arms buildup of the early 1980s.

The National Security Council is officially composed of the president and all of the following EXCEPT the A) director of the Central Intelligence Agency. B) Secretary of Defense. C) Secretary of State. D) vice president. E) Secretary of Homeland Security.

The Nineteenth Amendment A) gave women the constitutional right to vote. B) outlawed the poll tax in federal elections. C) repealed Prohibition. D) gave African Americans the constitutional right to vote. E) ended slavery.

The Persian Gulf War showed that A) women could serve as combat pilots. B) women would not volunteer for combat positions. C) there is no place in the military for women. D) women did well in the military, but should not serve in combat positions. E) women's military performance was inferior to men's.

The United States A) donates more total aid than any other country. B) devotes a larger share of its GNP to foreign economic development than any other country. C) no longer gives military aid to less developed countries. D) funnels all of its foreign aid through the United Nations. E) all of the above

The United States Supreme Court has handed down each of the following decisions concerning gender discrimination in employment and business activity EXCEPT A) requiring the federal government to give women equal pay for jobs of comparable worth. B) prohibiting gender discrimination in private business and service clubs. C) voiding laws and rules barring women from jobs through arbitrary height and weight requirements. D) protecting women from being required to take mandatory pregnancy leaves from their jobs. E) None of the above; the court has handed down each of the decisions above.

The ________ banned gender discrimination in employment by law. A) Civil Rights Act of 1964 B) Fair Labor Standards Act C) Supreme Court ruling in National Organization for Women v. Bank of America D) Nineteenth Amendment E) Gender Equity Act of 1972

The ________ is the primary foreign policy arm of the United States government. A) State Department B) Department of Defense C) Joint Chiefs of Staff D) National Security Council E) Central Intelligence Agency

The case of Regents of the University of California v. Bakke dealt with A) affirmative action. B) sexual harassment. C) the right to establish a gay student organization. D) comparable worth. E) paid maternity leave.

The chief role of the Secretary of Defense is to A) manage the military budget. B) be the president's chief foreign policy advisor. C) coordinate American foreign and military policy. D) act as Commander in Chief of the armed forces. E) declare war.

The containment doctrine was A) intended to prevent Soviet expansion after World War II. B) the policy of nuclear arms agreements to limit the spread of nuclear weapons. C) the Soviet policy of building the Iron Curtain and Berlin Wall to hold American influence to Western Europe after World War II. D) first proposed as a military maneuver during the Korean War as a means to prevent Chinese advances. E) the policy of cooperation and relaxation of tensions with the Soviet Union.

The government body responsible for coordinating foreign and military policy is the A) National Security Council. B) Joint Chiefs of Staff. C) Central Intelligence Agency. D) State Department. E) Department of Defense.

Which of the following statements about defense spending is FALSE? A) Evidence indicates that as defense spending increases, domestic spending decreases. B) Pressures to cut defense spending and allocate funds to decrease the budget deficit are strong. C) Conservatives fight deep cuts in defense spending in order to maintain readiness at a high level. D) Liberals maintain that the Pentagon wastes money and that the United States buys too many guns and too little butter. E) Defense spending now comprises half of the federal budget.

Which of the following statements about the Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) is FALSE? A) The ERA was ratified in 1982. B) The ERA battle stimulated vigorous feminist activity. C) The ERA battle stimulated vigorous anti-feminist activity. D) The ERA was first introduced in the 1920s. E) Congress passed the ERA in 1972.

Which of the following statements about the balance of trade is FALSE? A) When a country exports more than it imports, it has a balance of trade deficit. B) The excess of imports over exports decreases the dollar's buying power against foreign currencies. C) Since the late 1980s, the United States has experienced an export boom that has given us a balance of trade surplus with Western Europe. D) A poor balance of trade exacerbates unemployment. E) A decline in the dollar makes American products cheaper abroad and increases exports.

________ are intended to raise the price of imported goods and thereby protect a nation's businesses and workers from foreign competition. A) Tariffs B) Quotas C) Balances of trade D) Subsidies E) Excise taxes

"Coverture" A) was the combination of electric shock therapy and drugs once used to .cure. homosexuals of their homosexuality. B) was the legal doctrine that deprived married women of any identity separate from that of their husbands. C) is a term used to describe the time when minority groups will outnumber Caucasians of European descent. D) was the principle used to justify the internment of Japanese Americans during World War II. E) was the legal doctrine used to discriminate against Native Americans by placing them in reservations.

100) Congressʹs role in national security policy has typically included all of the following EXCEPT A) support or criticism of the president. B) initiation of policy. C) oversight of the executive branch. D) to pass authorizations and appropriations for presidential actions. E) monitoring constituent opinions on national security.

101) Right-to-work laws A) guarantee full employment. B) outlaw union membership as a condition of employment. C) require employees to join the union representing them. D) offer government jobs to unemployed workers. E) require welfare recipients to work for their welfare checks.

103) Environmental groups A) are an example of an economic interest group. B) grew dramatically after the first Earth Day in 1970. C) support nuclear power as a clean alternative to coal mining. D) have had very little influence on Congress and state legislatures. E) tend to avoid energy issues, while concentrating on the preservation of wilderness.

111) The Fair Share program is an effort by the A) National Organization of Women to renew the fight for the Equal Rights Amendment. B) National Association for the Advancement of Colored People to negotiate agreements with businesses to increase minority hiring and the use of minority contractors. C) National Organization of Women to get equal pay for comparable work. D) National Association for the Advancement of Colored People to desegregate private clubs. E) American Taxpayersʹ Union to raise the wages and cut the taxes of lower- and middle-income people.

114) The surge in President George Bushʹs approval ratings during and immediately following the Gulf War in 1991 was an example of A) the bandwagon effect. B) a rally event. C) the bully pulpit. D) presidential coattails. E) a pocket veto.

119) Most of the news coverage of the White House A) is class analysis that seeks to explain which socio-economic groups are benefiting from or being injured by the latest policies. B) focuses on the most visible layer of presidentsʹ personal and official activities. C) focuses on the fundamental processes operating in the executive branch. D) is concerned with the substance of policies. E) is concerned with foreign policy issues.

120) A large number of studies have concluded that the news media are A) moderately biased toward liberal ideology. B) not biased on any systematic basis, and the news is typically characterized by neutrality. C) slightly biased toward the Democrats. D) strongly biased toward the Democrats. E) slightly biased toward the Republicans.

121) News coverage of presidents and their activities A) usually focuses on the personality of the president. B) is not systematically biased in any direction. C) tends to focus on the substance of presidential policies. D) has a heavy liberal bias. E) is typically unfavorable toward the White House.

14) The two-term limit was placed on the presidency by A) an act of Congress passed after Franklin D. Rooseveltʹs death. B) the Twenty-second Amendment. C) the Presidential Powers Act of 1951. D) the Twenty-fifth Amendment. E) Article II of the original Constitution.

15) Prior to the 1930s, A) press conferences were held twice a week. B) the president was rarely directly questioned by the media. C) the media was dominated by a few influential newspapers. D) image-building was essentially built around radio broadcasting. E) the president catered to the local, rather than the national, press.

21) Prior to his election as president, ________ had been a well-known actor and served for two terms as governor of California. A) George Bush B) Ronald Reagan C) Jimmy Carter D) Richard Nixon E) Earl Warren

21) Todayʹs news people work in an environment of ________ toward government. A) friendship B) cynicism C) hostility D) trust E) acceptance

24) Impeachment of a president means that the president is A) convicted of a crime. B) indicted by the House. C) removed from office. D) tried by the Senate. E) all of the above

25) Thomas Patterson found that media coverage of presidential candidates changed from a descriptive framework to a(n) A) evaluative framework. B) analytical framework. C) empirical framework. D) uniform framework. E) normative framework

27) With over 2,700 reporters, photographers and editors, ________ has more news gathering ability than any other news organization. A) Gannett B) the Associated Press C) The New York Times D) Columbia Broadcasting System E) King Features Syndicate

38) The founding fathers envisioned a presidency that would A) be better organized than todayʹs presidency. B) have fewer responsibilities than todayʹs presidency. C) have greater control over the Congress than todayʹs presidency. D) have greater powers than todayʹs presidency. E) clearly be the dominant branch of government

41) In recent years, A) presidents have been less concerned about their appointment power. B) presidents have paid closer attention to appointing officials who will be responsive to the presidentʹs policies. C) presidents have paid less attention to agency rules and regulations. D) there has been a trend toward decentralized decision making in the White House. E) there has been a trend toward centralized decision making in the White House.

47) Every political party depends upon what the text calls a ________ , meaning a set of individuals or groups supporting it. A) system of patronage B) coalition C) set of super delegates D) power base E) linkage institution

51) All people who might be group members because they share some common interest make up A) an actual group. B) a potential group. C) a collective group. D) an interest group. E) a probable group.

59) John F. Kennedyʹs ʺwheel-and-spokesʺ system of management was characterized by A) a hierarchical organization with a chief of staff at the top. B) many aides with equal status balanced against one another in the decision-making process. C) the presidentʹs involvement in every administrative detail. D) a closed, small network of computers that directly linked the president to his closest advisors through e-mail messages. E) a streamlined, fast-paced, and efficient decision-making style.

67) Technological improvements in communication have caused interest groups to A) consolidate. B) sharply increase in number. C) sharply decline in number. D) move out of Washington, D.C. E) form broad coalitions to expand their clout.

68) A pocket veto is the situation in which the president A) vetoes particular items in a spending bill. B) lets a bill die by neither signing nor vetoing it after Congress has adjourned. C) rejects a Congressional override. D) lets a bill become law by neither vetoing nor signing it. E) sends a law back to Congress with the reasons for rejecting it.

69) Three basic strategies employed by interest groups are all of the following EXCEPT A) lobbying. B) implementation. C) electioneering. D) litigation. E) going public.

70) Which of the following is NOT one of the basic interest group strategies in America? A) lobbying B) running candidates for office C) litigation D) electioneering E) implementation

71) A ʺcommunication by someone other than a citizen acting on his or her own behalf, directed to a governmental decision maker with the hope of influencing his or her decisionʺ is a definition of A) campaigning. B) lobbying. C) electioneering. D) litigation. E) a policy output.

72) Which of the following is NOT a way in which a lobbyist can help a member of Congress? A) obtaining group support for the politicianʹs reelection B) introducing legislation in Congress C) providing valuable information on specialized policy areas D) helping with political strategy E) assisting with the cost of traveling between their home district and Washington, D.C.

73) When constituency opinion and the presidentʹs proposals conflict, members of Congress are more likely to A) vote with the president. B) vote with their constituents. C) seek an electronic vote rather than a voice vote. D) not vote. E) vote according to their own ideology.

75) Many interest groups involve themselves in ________ to help get those they consider to be the right people into office or to keep them there. A) lobbying B) electioneering C) litigation D) policymaking E) recruitment

76) Recent election studies show A) the presidentʹs party usually gains seats in Congress in mid-term elections. B) a diminishing connection between votersʹ presidential and congressional voting. C) that the party of the winning presidential candidate has been gaining an increasing number of seats in congress. D) that presidential coattails no longer exist. E) that many congressional races are determined by presidential coattails.

77) A mid-term election is A) one in which the incumbent is running for reelection. B) a congressional election that is not accompanied by a presidential election. C) held every two years. D) a special election that may remove an official from office in the middle of the term. E) a presidential election that occurs during a session of Congress.

77) The Republican party began as the A) party of big business interests. B) principal anti-slavery party. C) principal pro-slavery party. D) party of statesʹ rights and silver money. E) party of the New Deal.

79) Most studies show that A) presidential coattails are increasing in certain regions. B) presidential coattails rarely affect elections. C) presidential coattails are stronger in midterm elections. D) presidential coattails are stronger than ever. E) presidential coattails affect Republicans more than Democrats.

80) Political Action Committees are primarily a means used by interest groups for A) lobbying. B) electioneering. C) litigation. D) policymaking. E) political action.

83) An electoral mandate ________ the presidentʹs level of support in Congress. A) does severe harm to B) usually has a positive effect on C) increases by a factor of 2.5 D) has no effect on E) guarantees a sharp increase in

83) Which of the following is NOT true about Political Action Committees? A) There are far more PACs now than there were in 1974. B) Most PAC money goes to challengers rather than incumbents. C) Some PACs contribute to both challenger and incumbent, playing it safe. D) Only a handful of candidates have completely resisted the lure of PAC money. E) PACs contribute before and after elections.

87) The primary goal of the presidentʹs legislative strategy is usually A) to win on all final votes. B) to set the agenda. C) to win the support of all fellow partisans. D) block legislation he opposes. E) none of the above

9) How many presidents were political scientists? A) about half of them B) one C) all but one of them D) two E) all of them

93) In ʺgoing publicʺ interest groups A) extend membership to a broader range of people. B) use advertising and public relations to enhance their image. C) bring class action suits against their opponents. D) issue stock. E) open their decision-making meetings to the general public.

93) Which of the following statements about the role of the president as chief diplomat is FALSE? A) Presidential diplomacy can involve negotiating conflicts between other nations and not the United States. B) Senate approval of treaties negotiated by the president is almost automatic. C) The president has the sole power to negotiate treaties with other nations. D) In domestic policymaking, as chief diplomat, the president must rely principally on persuasion to lead. E) All of these are false.

95) The impact of TV news is that it A) familiarizes the public with issues through its emphasis on headline reading. B) alters the priorities Americans attach to a circumscribed set of problems. C) influences the governmental agenda because policymakers and policy entrepreneurs depend on it. D) has little influence on the public agenda because most viewers are less educated. E) all of the above

After the Iraqi invasion of Kuwait, the United Nations A) sided with Iraq, but many countries refused to go along. B) authorized an embargo on the shipment of goods into and out of Iraq, then authorized the use of force against Iraq. C) authorized an embargo on the shipment of goods into and out of Iraq, but would not authorize the use of military force. D) remained a neutral ground for diplomacy, siding neither with nor against Iraq's actions, but calling for a peaceful resolution. E) sided with Iraq

After the president, the ________ is considered the nation's foremost diplomat in the United States. A) National Security Adviser B) Secretary of State C) Secretary of Defense D) United States Ambassador to the United Nations E) chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

America's principal foreign policy strategy toward the Soviet Union throughout the Cold War, proposed by the foreign policy strategist George Kennan in 1947, was A) isolationism. B) containment. C) peaceful coexistence. D) covert operations. E) laissez faire.

Americans are usually least interested in A) domestic policy. B) foreign policy. C) economic policy. D) social policy. E) tax policy.

An agreement between President Bush and President Yeltsin in January 1993 called for A) the total elimination of nuclear weapons in Europe. B) elimination of over two-thirds of their long-range nuclear weapons. C) a moratorium on the manufacture of nuclear weapons. D) a ban on all intermediate-range nuclear weapons. E) an indefinite freeze on overall levels of nuclear weapons.

During the early years of his administration, Reagan's foreign and defense policies emphasized A) detente. B) anticommunism. C) arms reduction talks. D) nuclear disarmament. E) international free trade agreements.

Fear of a serious communist conspiracy in the United States during the early years of the Cold War led to the rise of a near panic that communism was infiltrating American government and cultural institutions, and became known as A) brinkmanship. B) McCarthyism. C) detente. D) isolationism. E) the Deep Freeze.

From about 1920-1960, the feminist movement A) experienced great growth and activity. B) was in a period of hibernation. C) was preoccupied with winning the right to vote. D) concentrated on anti-war causes. E) first coalesced as a significant political movement in the United States.

In detente, A) nuclear rearmament was emphasized. B) diplomacy and propaganda replaced the threat of force. C) unilateral arms reductions were common. D) international relations shifted from a multipolar to a bipolar world. E) international relations shifted from a bipolar to a multipolar world.

It was, above all else, ________ that dealt a death blow to American isolationism. A) World War I B) World War II C) the Cuban Missile Crisis D) the Vietnam War E) World War III.

One of the few spots where violence and brutal government force crushed a pro-democracy reform movement in 1989 and allowed the communist government to endure was in Tiananmen Square in A) Warsaw. B) Beijing. C) Prague. D) Quito. E) Ho Chi Minh City.

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is a cooperative international organization intended to stabilize A) diplomatic costs. B) the exchange of currencies. C) economic policies between the developed and less developed countries. D) stock markets in new democracies. E) protective tariffs.

The Iran-Contra affair erupted in 1986 when it came to light that members of the ________ were involved in a secret operation selling arms to Iran in return for Iranian help in returning American hostages held in Lebanon, and using money from the arms sale to fund rebels in Nicaragua. A) Joint Chiefs of Staff B) National Security Council staff C) Department of Defense D) State Department E) Central Intelligence Agency

The Iran-Contra affair involved covert activities staged by the A) State Department. B) National Security Council. C) Pentagon. D) Central Intelligence Agency. E) Joint Chiefs of Staff.

The Marshall Plan A) warned European nations to stay out of Latin America. B) poured billions of dollars into war-ravaged European nations after World War II. C) established the containment doctrine. D) imposed democratic constitutions on Germany and Japan in the wake of World War II. E) created NATO.

The Monroe Doctrine A) ended the American policy of isolationism. B) showed again that America was not concerned with Europe's problems. C) affirmed America's intention to stay out of Latin American affairs. D) symbolized the start of the Cold War. E) first enunciated the policy of isolationism.

The North Atlantic Treaty Organization is an example of a A) United Nations agency. B) regional organization for military purposes. C) regional organization for economic purposes. D) multinational corporation. E) global organization for military purposes.

The Supreme Court has voided each of the following sexual discrimination laws EXCEPT laws that A) provided for alimony payments to women only. B) made statutory rape a crime for men only. C) set a higher age for drinking for men than for women. D) closed a state's nursing school to men. E) provided child support for women only.

The United Nations Security Council has ________ members. A) 5 B) 15 C) 35 D) 175 E) 100

The Vietnam War A) began during the Johnson administration. B) illustrates the ability of government to lie to its citizens. C) received widespread popular support despite the attention given to a very vocal minority opposition. D) ended with a compromise settlement in the Peace Treaty of 1973. E) began during the Nixon administration.

The ________ was established after World War II in order to coordinate American information and data-gathering operations abroad and to collect, analyze, and evaluate its own data. A) OSS B) CIA C) JCS D) National Security Council E) North Atlantic Treaty Organization

The cold war led to all of the following EXCEPT A) an arms race between the United States and the Soviet Union. B) the use of atomic weapons. C) the growth of the military-industrial complex. D) mutual assured destruction. E) none of the above

What caused a public uproar involving the National Security Agency in 2005? A) revelations that the NSA had tortured prisoners at Guantanamo, Cuba B) revelations that the NSA was monitoring the communications of American citizens without obtaining warrants C) a leaked memo that linked the events of September 11, 2001 with the Democratic National Committee D) a scathing report condemning the George W. Bush administration for ʺbuilding a case for the war in Iraq on a quicksand foundationʺ E) the resignation of Donald Rumsfeld under a cloud of suspicion for his role in a Columbian-based drug smuggling operation

Which of the following is NOT one of the three ultimate tools of foreign policy? A) military B) judicial C) economic D) diplomatic

Which of the following nations is least dependent on foreign oil? A) Japan B) United States C) Germany D) Great Britain E) the European nations together

Which of the following statements about Supreme Court rulings concerning affirmative action is FALSE? A) The Court has approved preferential treatment of minorities in promotions. B) The Court has ruled that affirmative action can exempt recently hired minorities from traditional work rules specifying "last hired, first fired" order of layoffs. C) The Court has ordered quotas for minority union memberships. D) The Court has ruled that public employers may use affirmative action promotion plans to counter the underrepresentation of women and minorities in the workplace. E) none of the above

Which of the following statements about the immediate consequence of women receiving the right to vote is FALSE? A) Many supporters of the right to vote accepted the traditional model of the family. B) The feminist movement gained steam immediately after the right to vote was secured. C) Winning the right to vote did not automatically give women equal rights, pay, and status. D) Many state laws continued to enshrine the traditional view of the family in public policy. E) Gaining the right to vote did not eliminate many of the challenges facing women.

Which of the following statements about women in the military is FALSE? A) Congress has opened all the service academies to women. B) Women, as well as men, are now required to register for the draft. C) Statutes and regulations prohibit women from serving in most combat situations. D) Women have served in every branch of the armed services since World War II. E) Women do not have a ceiling on the rank they can achieve.

product of de´tente was the A) end of the Korean War. B) start of the Strategic Arms Limitation Talks. C) 1979 Israeli-Egyptian peace treaty. D) creation of the United Nations. E) all of the above

33) The presidentʹs power can best be understood as A) very limited and largely ceremonial. B) always the dominant figure in the American political system. C) shared with other branches of government as part of the Madisonian system of checks and balances. D) unlimited and absolute. E) originally intended to be unlimited and absolute, but gradually weakened over time.

35) In order to preserve the balance of power in government without jeopardizing the independence of the presidency, the framers A) refused to give the president powers in the area of national security. B) created a weak executive. C) checked those powers that they believed to be most dangerous. D) limited the president to administrative powers. E) limited presidents to two terms of office so they could not become ʺelected monarchs.ʺ

37) The president has the constitutional authority to make treaties with other nations, subject to the agreement of A) a majority of both the House and the Senate. B) a majority of the Senate. C) two-thirds of the Senate. D) two-thirds of the House. E) a majority of the House.

39) In blanket primaries, A) voters may choose on election day which party primary they want to participate in. B) only voters who have registered in advance with the party can vote. C) voters may vote for candidates from either party. D) voters may vote for multiple candidates. E) none of the above

39) Theodore Roosevelt and Woodrow Wilson A) were the first presidents to exercise power beyond the specific powers granted to the president in the Constitution. B) developed the role of the president as manager of the economy. C) set a precedent for presidents to serve as world leaders. D) were the only two presidents to ever have their actions declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court. E) were among the least effective presidents.

40) A primary resource available to presidents for controlling the bureaucracy is A) control of the federal budget. B) their unlimited power to offer patronage positions in the bureaucracy. C) the power to appoint top-level administrators. D) their ability to dismiss or fire most members of the bureaucracy. E) all of the above

46) The chairperson of the party that controls the White House is normally selected by A) members of the party in Congress. B) a committee of state chairpersons. C) the president. D) closed primary. E) none of the above

48) The head of each cabinet-level executive department is appointed by the president and A) must be confirmed by a majority of the House. B) is not subject to House or Senate approval. C) must be confirmed by a majority of the Senate. D) must be confirmed by a majority of both the House and the Senate. E) must be confirmed by two-thirds of the Senate.

51) With the advent of television, A) presidential caucuses were replaced by primaries. B) television coverage of conventions increased steadily. C) multiballot conventions died. D) conventions became shorter. E) All of these occurred.

54) A ʺcollective goodʺ refers to A) goods and services that are publicly owned. B) benefits that accrue to the group that sought them. C) something of value that benefits both the actual and potential members of a group. D) a public policy that is in the public interest. E) goods and services collected for the needy.

54) The Office of Management and Budget, the National Security Council, and the Council of Economic Advisors are A) members of the White House staff. B) advisory bodies of the Department of State. C) policymaking bodies of the Executive Office of the President. D) part of the presidentʹs cabinet. E) the key liaison agencies between the president and Congress.

55) An example of a collective good is A) food. B) employment. C) clean air. D) housing. E) all of the above

56) The agency that reviews legislative proposals for the president is the A) Council of Economic Advisors. B) National Security Council. C) Office of Management and Budget. D) Legislative Executive Agency. E) Executive Legislative Agency.

57) According to Mancur Olson, A) large groups are the most effective groups B) the bigger the group, the smaller the free-rider problem. C) the larger the group, the further it will fall short of providing an optimal amount of a collective good. D) the larger the group, the more effective it is in influencing public policies. E) the key to group power is to form broad coalitions with other groups, making themselves nearly invincible.

57) The part of the executive branch of government that the president sees daily and relies heavily on for information, policy options, and analysis is the A) vice president. B) presidentʹs cabinet. C) White House staff. D) Executive Office of the President. E) Council of Economic Advisors.

58) An advantage for small groups is that A) free-riders can be forced out of the organization, creating more unity. B) it is easier to reconcile divergent interests in small groups. C) there is more at stake for each member, making it easier to organize and activate all members. D) collective goods do not have to share with the big interests. E) they are able to ʺhideʺ in the political process so that opposing groups are not able to organize against them.

60) The organization and importance of the White House staff depend on A) the presidentʹs Chief of Staff. B) agenda schedules and formal rules of debate. C) the personal style of the president in office. D) the legal authority granted it by Congress. E) a hierarchy of access to the president.

61) A single-issue group is one that is all of the following EXCEPT A) focused on narrow interest. B) unable to compromise. C) organizes on the national level only. D) single-mindedly in pursuing its goal. E) intensely committed to a policy goal.

62) The president who was known as the ʺconsummate delegatorʺ because he dispersed authority to his advisors was A) John F. Kennedy. B) George Bush. C) Ronald Reagan. D) Jimmy Carter. E) Lyndon Johnson.

63) Single-issue group politics has been especially emotional over the issue of A) consumerism. B) equality. C) abortion. D) foreign policy. E) affirmative action.

66) The Constitution gives the president the power to influence the legislative process through his responsibility to A) make laws by decree without the consent of Congress in some situations. B) direct the business of Congress and initiate impeachment. C) report on the state of the union and veto acts of Congress. D) recommend legislation and make appointments. E) manage the economy, lead the party, and deal with national crises.

67) When a president vetoes congressional legislation, A) Congress must form a joint committee to address the presidentʹs complaints. B) the Supreme Court determines whether the law will take effect. C) Congress can override the veto by a two-thirds vote in both houses. D) there is nothing Congress can do about it. E) one house of Congress can override the veto if it votes to do so with a two-thirds vote.

68) ________ is a communication by someone other than a citizen acting on his or her own behalf, directed to a government decision maker, particularly in the legislative and executive branch, with the hope of influencing his or her decision. A) Electioneering B) An amicus curiae brief C) Lobbying D) Litigation E) Campaigning

69) Which of the following did the Federal Election Campaign Act NOT do? A) require disclosure of campaign contributions by all candidates for federal offices B) provide public financing for the presidential nominees of both major parties C) provide public financing of House and Senate races D) limit presidential campaign spending E) provide public financing of Senate races

78) According to the text, lobbying works best A) with people who are undecided about a policy. B) when large amounts of money are involved. C) on people already committed to the lobbyistʹs policy position. D) when the lobbyist uses pressure tactics. E) when the lobbyist starts crying and pleading.

79) Political action committee (PAC) money goes overwhelmingly to A) Independents. B) challengers. C) incumbents. D) Democrats. E) Republicans.

81) Interest groups seeking to exert influence on the electoral process can honestly and openly funnel money into the campaign coffers of their supporters through A) lobbying. B) electioneering. C) Political Action Committees. D) subgovernments. E) electronic banking.

84) Electoral mandates A) are the procedures used by the electoral college to tally the presidential electoral votes. B) occur most often in mid-term elections. C) consist of the perception that the voters strongly support the winnerʹs positions. D) are the constitutional requirements that federal elections be held on the second Tuesday of November of even numbered years. E) have no real effect on how Congress supports the president.

85) Which of the following statements about presidential bargaining is FALSE? A) The presidential bargaining takes a variety of forms. B) The president needs to bargain only with enough people to provide a majority. C) Bargaining in the form of providing specific benefits for members of Congress is critical to creating presidential coalitions. D) The president does not have to bargain with every member of Congress to receive support. E) Presidentsʹ bargaining ability is enhanced by strong public approval.

86) ________ are written arguments submitted to the courts in support of one side of a case. A) Class action lawsuits B) Litigations C) Amicus curiae briefs D) Public interest lobbies E) Opening arguments

88) Literally, amicus curiae means A) legal opinion. B) legal argument. C) friend of the court. D) curious observer. E) let the decision stand.

89) Amicus curiae briefs A) are written explanations of a court decision. B) are lawsuits submitted by interest groups. C) consist of written arguments submitted to the courts in support of one side of a case. D) enable groups of similarly situated plaintiffs to combine similar grievances into a single suit. E) are legal arguments submitted by the presidentʹs attorneys advocating the United States governmentʹs position in an important federal court case.

90) The presidentʹs legislative skills compete with other factors influencing congressional voting, including all of the following EXCEPT A) ideology. B) constituency news. C) PAC spending. D) partisanship. E) none of the above

91) Among the presidentʹs constitutional powers as a maker of foreign policy is the power to A) ratify peace treaties. B) appropriate foreign-aid funds. C) extend diplomatic recognition to foreign governments. D) declare war. E) all of the above

92) Class action lawsuits A) consist of written arguments submitted to the courts in support of one side of a case. B) consist of lawsuits brought to the courts by one particular social class in society. C) enable a group of similarly situated plaintiffs to combine similar grievances into a single suit. D) enable organized interests groups to sue the federal government over a particular issue. E) ask a court to take action against a particular group to stop them from injuring another group financially.

92) Which of the following is NOT one of the presidentʹs powers as the nationʹs chief diplomat? A) negotiating executive agreements which do not require congressional approval B) mediating disputes between nations other than the United States C) declaring war against an adversary D) extending diplomatic recognition to a nation E) negotiating treaties with other nations

94) Some believe the War Powers Resolution could be successfully overturned by the Supreme Court because it A) was vetoed by President Nixon. B) was not ratified within the constitutionally mandated seven-year period. C) uses a legislative veto, which may violate the separation of powers. D) interferes with the presidentʹs power to declare war. E) was really aimed at the Vietnam War only.

96) Economic groups A) are those which require individuals to pay dues to be members. B) consist only of corporations, rather than individuals, as members. C) are those groups interested in wages, prices, and profits. D) lobby on behalf of all consumers. E) are those groups that provide information to Congress.

McCarthyism A) was an anti-war movement during the Korean War. B) was the clandestine name of the communist movement in the United States. C) claimed that communism was infiltrating American government and cultural institutions. D) was the name of the policy that called for the United States to isolate the Soviet Union. E) was the policy of using United States tax dollars to rebuild Germany and Japan after World War II.

98) In the United States showdown with Saddam Hussein in January 1991, A) Congress declared war on Iraq. B) Congress voted against using force against Iraq, but President Bush used force anyway. C) Congress passed a resolution authorizing the president to use military force against Iraq. D) after granting President Bush a thirty-day extension, Congress invoked the War Powers Resolution and effectively placed a ninety-day limit on combat. E) Congress did not vote on declaring war or authorizing military force, preferring to let the president act alone.

98) The union shop A) serves as the headquarters of an organized labor group. B) sells only goods made by laborers affiliated with a union. C) requires that all employees in a unionized business join the union. D) is a retail store whose employees are unionized. E) both B and D

A study by Richard Betts showed that the advice given to the president by the Joint Chiefs of Staff tends to A) be split, with the Army and Marine Corps favoring aggressive policies and the Navy favoring peaceful policies. B) favor aggressive solutions to crises. C) be no more aggressive than advice given by civilian advisors. D) be ignored by the president who listens mainly to the national security advisor. E) favor the use of nuclear weapons.

A tariff is a A) good imported from another country. B) good exported to another country. C) tax added to the price of imported goods. D) tax added to the price of exported goods. E) tax added to the price of technological goods.

Alice Paul authored the Equal Rights Amendment, and unsuccessfully pushed for its passage beginning in the A) 1960s. B) 1970s. C) 1920s. D) 1980s. E) 1940s.

All of the following countries have agreed to give up their nuclear weapons EXCEPT A) Argentina. B) Sweden. C) North Korea. D) Brazil. E) Norway.

Almost immediately following World War II, the United States entered into ________ with the Soviet Union. A) the Korean War B) the Cuban Missile Crisis C) a Cold War D) peaceful coexistence E) a lend lease plan

An example of an interest group involved in international affairs would be A) the World Bank. B) the European Economic Community. C) Greenpeace. D) tourists. E) immigrants.

As chief diplomat, the president does all of the following EXCEPT A) negotiates treaties. B) deploys troops abroad. C) entertains foreign heads of state. D) appoints United States ambassadors. E) none of the above

By the mid-1950s, defense expenditures A) declined below World War II levels. B) gave way to expenditures on social-welfare policies. C) grew to be the largest component of the federal budget. D) reduced the profits of defense contractors. E) shifted to the Middle East to protect American oil supplies.

In 1990, Congress enacted the ________, a far-reaching law to protect a particular group of Americans from discrimination, ignoring those who claimed the price tag would be too high. A) Gay and Lesbian Civil Rights Bill B) Native-Americans Inclusion Act C) Americans with Disabilities Act D) Children's Rights Act E) Immigrant Grant Acte above.

In 1993, the Supreme Court ruled that sexual harassment is sex discrimination that violates the Civil Rights Act when A) the target objects a second time to touching, body language, or dirty talk. B) it causes severe psychological injury. C) the workplace environment becomes hostile or abusive. D) an employee can no longer perform his or her job. E) the target suffers a nervous breakdown.

In Faragher v. City of Boca Raton (1998), the Supreme Court held that A) school districts can be held liable for sexual harassment. B) the military can not be responsible for sexual harassment at conferences. C) employers are responsible for preventing and eliminating sexual harassment. D) government entities are not responsible for preventing sexual harassment. E) none of the above.

In considering gender discrimination in employment and business activity, the Supreme Court has ruled that any prerequisites based on gender or appearance A) fall within the penumbra of the commerce clause, and thus enjoy its constitutional protection. B) are unconstitutional. C) must have a direct relationship with the duties required in a particular position, or are otherwise discriminatory. D) can be accepted as non-discriminatory if the requirements have a longstanding tradition in the industry. E) are matters of private business concern and therefore not under the protection of the Constitution.

In general, American conservatives argue that the breakup of the communist regimes in Eastern Europe and the demise of the Soviet Union were principally due to A) the serious defects of the Soviet economy- the inertia, the wastefulness, and the corruption inherent in the system. B) Mikhail Gorbachev's unexpected and unyielding commitment to glasnost and perestroika. C) America.s defense build-up during the 1980s which the Soviet Union could not match and eventually toppled it. D) brilliant efforts over several years by various agencies and representatives of the United Nations. E) political revolution in the Soviet Union.

In the case of Craig v. Boren, the Supreme Court ruled that A) sex classifications would be treated by the Court as inherently suspect. B) racial classifications were constitutional if they have a compelling, legitimate, and rational purpose. C) it would employ a "medium scrutiny" standard: sex discrimination would be treated as neither valid nor invalid. D) sex classifications would be treated by the Court as valid. E) all sex classifications were unconstitutional.

In the case of ________, the Supreme Court ruled that affirmative action programs were not unconstitutional, but they could not involve a set-aside quota of spots available only to members of particular groups. A) Craig v. Boren B) Korematsu v. United States C) Regents of the University of California v. Bakke D) Reed v. Reed E) Roe v. Wade.

International economic policies today tend to emphasize A) high tariffs and protectionism. B) central planning and policymaking. C) lower tariffs and freer trade. D) heavy reliance on international economic organizations. E) free trade and protectionism.

Liberals argue that the most crucial aspect of national defense is A) diplomacy. B) a strong military capability. C) a strong economy. D) international alliances. E) nuclear deterrence.

Opposition to Civil Rights laws for the handicapped has been justified primarily on the basis of the A) inability of disabled persons to handle most employment requirements. B) fear that laws will lead to a quota system to hire disabled persons. C) high cost of programs to help the disabled. D) fear that the disabled will take jobs away from able-bodied persons. E) all of the above.

President Ronald Reagan proposed a massive new spending program called the ________ to create a global umbrella in space, wherein computers would scan the skies and use various high-tech devices to destroy invading missiles. A) brinkmanship B) Superpatriot Missile Shield C) Strategic Defense Initiative D) Anti-Ballistic Missile System E) Early Warning System

Regional organizations have ________ in the post-World War II era. A) declined in number B) decreased in influence C) proliferated D) disappeared E) remained activeneral

The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 A) required all governmental buildings to have wheelchair-accessible entrances and facilities. B) added AIDS victims to the list of handicapped persons. C) prohibited employment discrimination against the disabled. D) added handicapped people to the list of Americans protected from discrimination. E) required an affirmative action program for the disabled.

The North American Free Trade Agreement is designed to eventually eliminate most ________ among Canada, Mexico, and the United States. A) subsidies B) imports C) tariffs D) border patrols E) exports

The Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty was the first accord A) on nuclear weapons signed between the United States and the Soviet Union. B) to reduce current levels of nuclear weapons. C) mandating the elimination of many long-range nuclear missiles. D) cutting conventional arms in Europe. E) to be rejected by the United States Senate.

The Strategic Defense Initiative was a(n) A) proposal for arms reduction between the United States and the Soviet Union. B) treaty between the United States and Western European countries for mutual defense. C) proposal for an umbrella in space to destroy invading missiles. D) attempt by the military to increase its nuclear forces during the Reagan administration. E) secret Pentagon operation to topple communist governments worldwide through assassinations if necessary.

The Supreme Court ruled against some of the basic principles of affirmative action in which of the following cases? A) Metro Broadcasting Inc. v. Federal Communications Commission B) Fullilove v. Klutznick C) Regents of the University of California v. Bakke D) United Steelworkers of America, AFL-CIO v. Weber E) all of the above.

The United Nations General Assembly is made up of about ________ members. A) 15 B) 60 C) 185 D) 320 E) 144

The United Nations was created in A) 1789. B) 1865. C) 1945. D) 1967. E) 1919.

The United States and Soviet Union agreement on SALT I reflected A) a policy of containment. B) brinkmanship. C) a policy of de´tente. D) McCarthyism. E) the two nations' first effort to coordinate the development of a natural resource.

The Unites States originally pursued a "decapitation" strategy for confronting al-Qaida. What did this strategy propose to do? A) attack the root causes of terrorism, namely poverty B) reduce America.s cultural influence on the Muslim world C) eliminate a small number of al-Qaida leaders D) execute publicly all al-Qaida members by way of the guillotine E) spread democracy to the Middle East

The ________ helped to overthrow the governments of Iran in 1953 and Guatemala in 1954, and has a long history of involvement in the internal affairs of other nations. A) Department of Defense B) National Security Council C) Central Intelligence Agency D) Joint Chiefs of Staff E) Federal Bureau of Investigation

The ________ is a regional economic organization of major nations. A) North Atlantic Treaty Organization B) Warsaw Pact C) European Union D) Trilateral Commission E) Geneva Convention

The ________ staffs United States embassies and consulates in about 300 overseas posts from Albania to Zimbabwe, representing the interests of Americans. A) Department of Defense B) Justice Department C) State Department D) National Security Council E) Executive Office of the President

The commanding officers of each of the services, plus a chair, constitute the A) Armed Services Committee. B) National Security Council. C) Joint Chiefs of Staff. D) Department of Defense. E) Central Intelligence Agency.

The containment doctrine did not prevent the communists from winning a stunning victory in ________ in 1949. A) Turkey B) West Berlin C) China D) Taiwan E) Vietnam

The death-blow to American isolationism occurred as a result of A) the Monroe Doctrine. B) World War I. C) World War II. D) the League of Nations. E) the Soviet takeover of Eastern Europe.

The first American president to sign a treaty to reduce existing levels of nuclear weapons was A) Richard Nixon. B) Jimmy Carter. C) Ronald Reagan. D) George Bush. E) Bill Clinton.

The first American president to unilaterally dismantle some United States nuclear weapons was A) Jimmy Carter. B) Ronald Reagan. C) George Bush. D) Bill Clinton. E) Richard Nixon.

The goal of affirmative action is to move toward A) equal facilities. B) equal opportunity. C) equal results. D) equal pay. E) comparable worth.

The growth of the military budget during the 1950s under President Eisenhower led him to remark at the end of his second term that A) although the Soviets were not aware of it yet, the United States had won the Cold War. B) atomic bombs should be dropped on the Soviet Union. C) the military-industrial complex that had developed between private defense contractors and the Pentagon was worrisome. D) due to the Soviet launching of the Sputnik satellite, peaceful coexistence between the superpowers was over. E) none of the above

The head of the foreign policy arm of the federal government who traditionally advises the president is the A) National Security Assistant. B) Secretary of Defense. C) Secretary of State. D) United States Ambassador to the United Nations. E) chair of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.

The phrase "guns and butter" refers to A) politicians who promise money for both military and domestic spending programs. B) the general economic improvement accompanying the nation.s involvement in a major war, though at a high human cost. C) what many scholars claim is the trade-off a nation faces between defense spending and social spending. D) the economic impact on cities and towns with military bases or large defense industries. E) the economic impact of foreign countries with large defense industries.

The president's principal civilian adviser on the military is the A) National Security Adviser. B) Secretary of State. C) Secretary of Defense. D) chair of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. E) director of the Central Intelligence Agency.

The strongest and most controversial form of affirmative action is A) busing. B) comparable worth. C) numerical quotas. D) comparative worth. E) equal opportunity.

The women's rights movement was launched with the signing of the A) Feminist Manifesto. B) Emancipation Proclamation. C) Seneca Falls Declaration. D) Equal Rights Amendment. E) Declaration of Independence.

When the American people hold strong opinions regarding international relations, A) they are usually ignored. B) policymakers manipulate the agenda to emphasize domestic issues. C) they find policymakers responsive to them. D) they follow the lead of the president. E) national security policy decisions are delayed.

Which of the following countries spends the smallest percentage of its gross domestic product on foreign economic development? A) New Zealand B) Japan C) United States D) Italy E) Norway

Which of the following is NOT a power of Congress in foreign and defense policy? A) to declare war B) to ratify treaties C) to appoint ambassadors D) to confirm presidential nominees to head the State Department and Department of Defense E) to provide oversight of the CIA

Which of the following statements about the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) is FALSE? A) The CIA was created after World War II to coordinate American information and intelligence activities abroad. B) The bulk of the material gathered and analyzed by the CIA comes from readily available sources. C) The CIA has never been involved in domestic affairs. D) Congress requires the CIA to inform relevant Congressional committees of current and anticipated covert operations. E) It was involved in the overthrow of the Iranian government.

Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Civil rights policies have expanded the power of government. B) The steady expansion of civil rights has brought more groups into the democratic process. C) Current civil rights policies conform to the eighteenth-century idea of limited government. D) The rights ensured by the First Amendment are essential to a democracy. E) Lyndon Johnson was president when civil rights legislation was passed in the 1960s.

106) Public interest lobbies are those organizations that A) emphasize equal rights and equality of opportunity in America. B) eschew the subgovernment system and operate within view of the public, often through town meetings. C) have large memberships, usually a million or more. D) seek a collective good, the achievement of which will not selectively and materially benefit members or activists. E) focus exclusively on public expenditures directed toward Social Security.

108) That successful lobbying efforts by consumer groups benefits all consumers, and not just group members, is an example of A) interest group liberalism. B) electioneering. C) lobbying. D) a free-rider problem. E) Olsonʹs Law of Large Groups.

108) The primary factor influencing whether or not a person approves or disapproves of a presidentʹs job performance is A) age. B) geographic location. C) gender. D) political party identification. E) presidential personality.

112) Changes in presidential approval levels appear to be due primarily to A) the presidentʹs personality. B) how the media treat the president. C) the financial elitesʹ responses to presidential policies. D) the publicʹs evaluation of how the president is handling policy areas. E) how the presidentʹs policies affect people individually.

112) The National Organization for Women A) was first formed in the nineteenth century to help women gain the right to vote. B) was primarily responsible for ratification of the Equal Rights Amendment. C) is no longer a formidable force for womenʹs rights. D) now works for the enactment of individual statutes (laws) to protect womenʹs rights rather than a constitutional amendment. E) is a counter-interest group formed by Phyllis Schlafly to oppose the Womenʹs Liberation Movement and the Equal Rights Amendment.

115) The ultimate weapon in the presidentʹs arsenal of resources to influence Congress is probably A) media support. B) interest group support. C) her/his fundraising ability. D) mobilization of the public. E) the support of Wall Street and the Federal Reserve Board.

12) Since World War II, United States presidents have A) except for Bill Clinton, first served as vice president. B) had very similar career backgrounds. C) all previously served as governors. D) come from a diversity of career experiences. E) all served as United States senators.

122) Which of the following statements about the presidency and democracy is FALSE? A) There is little prospect of the presidency being a threat to democracy. B) From the time the Constitution was written there has been a fear that the presidency would degenerate into a monarchy. C) Concerns over presidential power are generally closely related to policy views. D) Concerns about a tyrannical presidency were prevalent in the Reagan administration due to his ability to impose his will on Congress.

13) Which president held one thousand press conferences, far more than any other? A) John F. Kennedy B) Richard Nixon C) Ronald Reagan D) Franklin Roosevelt E) Bill Clinton

17) Appointed to the vice presidency in 1973 due to a vacancy, he was the only one to become president having run for neither the presidency or vice presidency in the preceding election. A) Lyndon Johnson B) Nelson Rockefeller C) Ronald Reagan D) Gerald Ford E) Jimmy Carter

17) Which of the following statements about Franklin Roosevelt and the news media is FALSE? A) Roosevelt used presidential wrath to warn reporters off material he did not want covered. B) The press revered Roosevelt. C) Roosevelt knew how to feed the right story to the right reporter. D) The press often reported on Rooseveltʹs health and confinement to a wheelchair. E) none of the above

19) The use of detective-like reporting methods to unearth scandals is known as A) yellow journalism. B) trial balloons. C) scientific journalism. D) investigative journalism. E) print journalism.

20) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) For over 10 percent of American history, the presidency has been occupied by an individual not elected to the office. B) In the twentieth century, almost one-third of our presidents were ʺaccidental Presidents.ʺ C) About one in five presidents got the job because they were vice president when the incumbent president died or resigned. D) Most presidents have served two or more full terms. E) Most presidential elections are decided by Congress.

26) Once the House votes for impeachment, the president A) must leave office. B) is fined or sentenced to prison. C) is tried by the Supreme Court. D) is tried by the Senate. E) must be indicted by a Grand Jury before being removed from office.

29) For most newspapers in medium-sized cities and small towns, their principal source for reporting national and world news is A) USA Today. B) The New York Times. C) Cable News Network. D) The Associated Press. E) The Washington Post.

30) Under the terms of the Twenty-fifth Amendment, while the vice president is serving as acting president, A) a new election must be held within six months. B) the electoral college determines when the incapacitated president can reclaim the presidency. C) the recuperated president can not reclaim his former job. D) the recuperated president can reclaim the Oval Office through a set procedure. E) the Senate and the House must vote in a secret ballot on whether or not to reinstate the recuperated president.

32) The Constitution framers A) were unanimous in wanting a single president to lead the country. B) were united in wanting a strong chief executive. C) were united in wanting a chief executive similar to the prime minister of Great Britain. D) generally wanted a president with limited authority and responsibilities. E) hoped to create a monarchy in the United States.

34) The Constitution A) provides a list of specific powers and implied powers reserved for the president. B) places the power of the presidency above the other branches of government. C) requires Congress to delegate specific areas of presidential power. D) says remarkably little about presidential power. E) B, C, and D are all correct.

36) Which of the following is NOT a constitutional power of the president? A) serve as Commander in Chief of the armed forces B) sign or veto legislation passed by Congress C) appoint federal judges with the advice and consent of a majority of the Senate D) enact legislation by issuing decrees E) All of these are the presidentʹs constitutional powers.

45) The presidential cabinet A) is the electronically locked vault where the president keeps his top secret papers. B) is given tremendous power under the Constitution. C) includes, by law, a minimum of two sitting members of Congress at all times. D) consists of the head of each executive department, plus any additional government officials the president designates. E) can veto actions by the president.

5) Americans tend to A) have low expectations for the president. B) prefer a concentration of power in the presidency. C) have a high degree of trust in strong leadership and political authority. D) look back longingly on the great, powerful presidents. E) Not give a crap about anything.

50) The two oldest cabinet departments are A) state and defense. B) interior and justice. C) treasury and justice. D) state and treasury. E) education and state.

51) The newest cabinet department is A) commerce. B) agriculture. C) interior. D) homeland security. E) transportation.

59) According to Mancur Olson, small interest groups generally are ________ compared to all other groups. A) insignificant B) incoherent C) less focused D) more effective E) more democratic

60) An advantage of single-issue groups is their A) financial resources. B) pool of potential members. C) pool of actual members. D) intensity. E) diversity.

65) By 2000, the number of groups listed in the Encyclopedia of Associations was over A) 5,000. B) 1,000. C) 10,000. D) 20,000. E) 50,000.

66) Which of the following statements about interest groups is FALSE? A) The majority of groups now have their headquarters in Washington, D.C. B) There are an enormous number of highly specialized and seemingly trivial groups. C) Almost every group has a staff and publications. D) The growth rate of interest groups has slowed in recent years. E) Groups are more diverse today than in past decades.

71) In 1996, Congress passed a law giving the president the authority to propose rescinding funds in appropriations bills. Later, A) Congress overturned the law. B) President Clinton chose not to use such authority. C) President Clinton used it successfully. D) the Supreme Court voided the decision. E) President Bush voided the decision.

74) Presidential coattails refers to A) presidential favors to those who support the presidentʹs policies. B) the formal constitutional powers of the president. C) the ability of members of Congress to hide behind the president on tough issues. D) voters casting their ballots for congressional candidates of the presidentʹs party who will support the president. E) withholding of presidential favors from those who oppose the presidentʹs policies.

77) According to the text, the least effective activity of lobbyists in Congress is A) contributing to campaigns. B) providing information. C) activating members of Congress to vote on legislation. D) converting members of Congress to the lobbyistsʹ positions. E) both A and B

79) The Depression of the 1930s gave rise to what is called A) econo-politics. B) party competition. C) the Era of Divided Government. D) the New Deal coalition. E) the Republican resurgence.

81) The political resource that has the most potential to turn a situation of stalemate between the president and Congress into one supportive of the presidentʹs legislative proposals is A) presidential leadership. B) the presidentʹs party leadership. C) presidential rewards and sanctions. D) public approval. E) the threat of veto.

82) High public approval of the president A) has no effect on congressional elections. B) gives the president less control over Congress. C) once achieved is usually sustained for the remainder of his/her presidency. D) provides a cover for members of Congress to cast votes to which their constituents might otherwise object. E) allows members of Congress the freedom to vote according to their ideology rather than party.

82) Most PAC money goes overwhelmingly to incumbents because incumbents A) need more money due to the restraints of being in office. B) have already been ʺbought offʺ by interest groups. C) have already become friends and supporters of lobbyists. D) are the most likely to be able to return the investment. E) have the need for large amounts of money to maintain themselves in power.

86) According to the text, two strategies used successfully by President Reagan in achieving his objectives were A) moving slowly and letting Congress set the priorities. B) moving slowly and setting priorities. C) lying and forgetting. D) moving fast and setting priorities. E) moving fast and letting Congress set the priorities.

87) An amicus curiae brief is A) one which enables a group of similarly situated plaintiffs to combine similar grievances into a single suit to pursue a remedy for past wrongs. B) an oral or written appeal of a court decision made by an interest group which is party to the particular case. C) an oral or written appeal of a court decision made by an interest group not party to a particular case. D) a written argument submitted to the courts in support of one side of a case. E) the written statement of a courtʹs decision in a case explaining the reasons for the decision.

89) Studies have shown that once one takes into account the status of their party in Congress and their standing with the public, presidents renowned for their legislative skills are A) twice as successful in winning congressional support than other presidents. B) most likely to reshape the contours of the political landscape. C) most likely to be able to create opportunities for political change. D) no more successful in obtaining congressional support than those considered less adept at dealing with Congress. E) much more successful in gaining support for their domestic policies than for their foreign policies.

9) Up until the presidency of Franklin Roosevelt, A) reporters did not ask presidents questions, they simply reported what presidents did. B) presidents held daily press conferences. C) presidents held private chats with reporters in a very informal setting rather than hold public press conferences. D) reporters submitted their questions to presidents in writing. E) reporters had fireside chats with presidents in the White House.

The United Nations is composed of nearly 200 A) civil servants. B) diplomats. C) nations and international organizations. D) nations. E) regional caucuses.

94) Which of the following statements about interest groups going public is FALSE? A) Interest groups carefully cultivate their public images. B) Interest groups market not only their stand on issues but their reputations as well. C) More and more organizations have launched expensive public relations efforts. D) The public relations of most groups tend to be characterized by hard sell and bias.

95) The War Powers Resolution A) prohibited the president power from committing American troops without congressional approval. B) established the chain of command of the armed forces in the event the president is incapacitated. C) gave the president the formal power to declare war in the case of nuclear attack. D) mandated the withdrawal of forces after sixty days unless Congress declared war or granted an extension. E) established the code protocols that launch nuclear missiles in order to prevent accidental or unauthorized missile launches.

97) During the 1991 Gulf War, A) the War Powers Resolution was ignored. B) Congress cut off funding after sixty days. C) President Bush did not seek congressional support for the operation. D) Congress passed a resolution authorizing the president to use force against Iraq. E) Congress adopted a formal declaration of war against Iraq.

99) Right-to-work laws ________ the union shop. A) take a neutral stance toward B) require C) legalize D) outlaw E) regulate

Age discrimination laws have A) allowed children between the ages of 12 and 18 to leave their parents. B) lowered the minimum compulsory retirement age to 55. C) required employers to hire a certain percentage of people over the age of 50. D) denied federal funds to any institution discriminating against people over forty. E) all of the above.

Arms reduction talks were pushed onto the agenda of discussions between the two superpowers in the late 1980s due to all of the following reasons EXCEPT A) the rapid drive toward democracy in Eastern Europe. B) Moscow's economic torpor. C) the Pentagon's budgetary squeeze. D) President Reagan's consistent policy of detente. E) the thaw of the Cold War.

Detente refers to A) irrevocable differences between the United States and the Soviet Union. B) the threat of nuclear war. C) the foreign policy of the Reagan administration. D) a shift toward cooperation among world powers. E) France's policy of maintaining a nuclear arsenal and foreign policy independent of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization.

During the 1950s, John Foster Dulles, the Secretary of State under Eisenhower, proclaimed a policy of ________ in America's dealings with the Soviet Union. A) containment B) detente C) peaceful coexistence D) brinkmanship E) laissez faire

During the Cold War era, the Soviet Union and its Eastern European allies formed a regional organization known as the A) Iron Curtain. B) European Economic Community. C) Trilateral Commission. D) Warsaw Pact. E) Geneva Convention.

In ________, the Supreme Court ruled that any "arbitrary" sex -based classification violated the equal protection clause. A) Regents of the University of California v. Bakke B) Dred Scott v. Sandford C) Swann v. Charlotte-Mecklenberg County Schools D) Reed v. Reed E) Roe v. Wade

In response to the terrorist acts of September 11, 2001, the George W. Bush administration has developed a new foreign policy emphasizing A) negotiation. B) deterrence. C) detente. D) preemptive strikes. E) diplomacy.

In the case of Reed v. Reed (1971), the Supreme Court A) struck down an Oklahoma law setting different legal drinking ages for men and women. B) declared that a woman's place is in the home. C) prohibited sexual discrimination in public schools. D) held that any arbitrary sex-based classification violated the equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. E) declared that women are entitled to half the community property of a marriage when there is a divorce.

Many recent presidents have bypassed the Secretary of State for foreign policy advice and come to rely more on the A) Secretary of Defense. B) United States Ambassador to the United Nations. C) Joint Chiefs of Staff. D) special assistant for National Security Affairs. E) National Security Council.

New actors on the world stage include all of the following EXCEPT A) international organizations. B) non-governmental organizations. C) multinational corporations. D) diplomats. E) tourists.

President ________ was responsible for initiating the use of United States ground troops in Vietnam (eventually over 500,000), and the massive bombing of North Vietnam, but his failure to win the war after four years and the mounting anti-war protests back home led him to decide not to seek reelection. A) Harry Truman B) Franklin Roosevelt C) Richard Nixon D) Lyndon Johnson E) John F. Kennedy

The "gray liberation" movement refers to A) elderly homosexuals seeking equality. B) those seeking laws that break down racial barriers and promote harmony. C) anti-pollution activists who seek to reduce smog. D) those fighting for the rights of the elderly. E) those fighting for equal rights and justice for the disabled.

The 1991 convention of the Tailhook Association convention brought attention to the problem of A) the failure of the Equal Rights Amendment. B) homosexual activity in the armed services. C) comparable worth. D) sexual harassment. E) sexual discrimination in the courts.

The 1991 convention of the Tailhook Association of naval aviators experienced a celebrated case of sexual harassment when A) the commanding officer scattered his pubic hairs upon the desks of some of his female secretaries. B) the commander-in-chief of the armed forces asked a female aviator up to his hotel room ostensibly for business and then unzipped his pants, showed her his penis, and asked for oral sex. C) some men secretly videotaped their sexual encounters and then showed them at the convention. D) male aviators lined a hotel hallway and groped and kissed women trying to get to their rooms. E) All of these; it was a really sordid affair.

The Rehabilitation Act of 1973 A) entitles all children to a free public education appropriate to their needs. B) increased the amount of financial aid to disabled people. C) guaranteed free, lifetime medical care and physical therapy for Vietnam War veterans. D) added handicapped people to the list of Americans protected from discrimination. E) prohibits employment discrimination against the disabled.

The primary means the United States has used to keep rogue nations from acquiring nuclear weapons has been by A) successful monitoring of the international arms market. B) dramatically increasing foreign aid to rogue nations. C) infiltrating the intelligence communities of the rogue nations. D) encouraging nations to agree that they would not acquire, or at least test, nuclear weapons. E) both A and D

The rise of detente and the first Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty (SALT) were brought about under President A) Harry Truman. B) Dwight Eisenhower. C) Ronald Reagan. D) Richard Nixon. E) John F. Kennedy.

The structure of America's defenses has been based on A) complete control of the sea and large overseas bases. B) military control of outer space. C) strategic nuclear air command and a small but specialized standing army. D) a large standing military force and a triad of strategic nuclear weapons. E) the defense of our borders and the ability to fight one minor regional conflict.

The use of violence to demoralize and frighten a country's population or government is referred to as A) isolationism. B) de´tente. C) mutual assured destruction. D) terrorism. E) psychological warfare.

What errors did the United States make in planning post-war Iraq? A) The U.S. believed that the American soldiers would be welcomed as liberators. B) The U.S. believed that Iraqi oil revenues would pay for most reconstruction costs. C) The U.S. believed Iraqis had the skill and infrastructure to do most of the rebuilding. D) all of the above E) none of the above

Which of the following is NOT true about the Central Intelligence Agency? A) Its precise budget and most of its staff are kept secret. B) Much of its business is collecting basic information from newspapers and government reports in foreign cities. C) It has helped overthrow foreign governments through successful espionage. D) Due to its need for secrecy, it does not have to report to any congressional committee. E) The head of the CIA is a member of the president's National Security Council.

Which of the following statements about affirmative action is FALSE? A) The constitutional status of affirmative action has not been very clear. B) Affirmative action puts an emphasis on equal results and not merely equal opportunities. C) Affirmative action has been used to establish special provisions to ensure that a portion of school admissions go to minorities and women. D) Polling data shows that most Americans support affirmative action. E) none of the above.

Which of the following statements about events in the late 1980s and early 1990s marking the end of the Cold War is FALSE? A) The Berlin Wall, separating East and West Germany, was torn down. B) Eastern European nations overthrew their communist regimes and established free, democratic governments. C) The former Soviet Union split into 15 separate nations. D) Mass protests in Tiananmen Square led to sweeping democratic reforms in China. E) The collapse of communism was sparked by the policies of Soviet communist leader Mikhail Gorbachev.

102) References by commentators on the presidency to there being ʺtwo presidenciesʺ refer to A) the president as candidate and the president as elected leader. B) the first term and the second term of a president. C) what the president originally proposes to accomplish and what the president actually does accomplish. D) the differences between public and private presidential actions. E) national security and domestic policy.

104) How did the White House Communications Office choreograph George W. Bushʹs address from the Abraham Lincoln announcing the end of major combat operations in Iraq? A) They placed a ʺMission Accomplishedʺ banner over the presidentʹs head. B) They positioned the Abraham Lincoln so that the shoreline was not visible. C) They timed the even so that the sun would cast a favorable light on the president. D) The coordinated the shirts of the crewmembers. E) all of the above

109) At the base of presidential evaluations is the A) publicʹs longstanding suspicion of excessive presidential power. B) lack of well-defined opinions among most people. C) predisposition of many people to be critical of government and politics in general. D) publicʹs indifference to the president. E) predisposition of many people to support the president.

116) Presidential press conferences A) give the president a chance to be spontaneous. B) have not been used since the Nixon administration. C) are not very useful means of eliciting information. D) are required by the Constitution without saying how often. E) are small, intimate meetings with the president.

118) The individual who conducts daily press briefings and serves as a conduit of information from the White House is the A) National Security Advisor. B) Minister of Information. C) presidentʹs secretary. D) Chief of Staff. E) press secretary.

18) Which of the following presidents was a Republican? A) Harry Truman B) John Kennedy C) Lyndon Johnson D) Jimmy Carter E) Richard Nixon

19) The only president to resign his office was A) Warren Harding. B) Jimmy Carter. C) Lyndon Johnson. D) Spiro Agnew. E) Richard Nixon.

3) Richard Neustadt has argued that presidential power is the power to A) instruct. B) command. C) educate. D) control. E) persuade.

31) According to the Twenty-fifth Amendment, in the event of a vacancy in the vice presidency, A) the electoral college elects a new vice president. B) the Speaker of the House is automatically the new vice president. C) the office remains vacant until a subsequent national election takes place. D) the Congress picks a new vice president from a list of five names submitted by the president. E) the president nominates a replacement, who must be confirmed by both houses of Congress.

46) Which of the following is a member of the cabinet? A) director of the Federal Bureau of Investigation B) Speaker of the House C) secretary of the navy D) White House Chief of Staff E) none of the above

49) The cabinet department responsible for making foreign policy and handling treaty negotiations is A) interior. B) justice. C) foreign affairs. D) defense. E) state.

55) The budgetary implications of the presidentʹs budget are provided to the president by A) Executive Budget Office. B) Department of the Treasury. C) Council of Economic Advisors. D) Internal Revenue Service. E) Office of Management and Budget.

58) The system of White House management employed by President John Kennedy was A) to disperse his authority to numerous aides, each of who had powerful decision-making power. B) unusually closed, with only the president and his two closest aides involved in most major decisions. C) to personally take charge of even the minor details of decision making. D) a chain of command with a chief of staff who controlled almost all access to the president. E) such that many aides equally participated in the decision-making process.

63) George W. Bushʹs management style is A) wheel and spokes. B) chaotic. C) hierarchical. D) transitional. E) to delegate.

64) A presidential veto of legislation passed by Congress A) can be overturned only by majority vote of the Supreme Court. B) cannot be overturned. C) can be overturned by a majority vote of both the House and the Senate to override the veto. D) can be overturned by a two-thirds vote of either the House or the Senate to override the veto. E) can be overturned by a two-thirds vote of both the House and the Senate to override the veto.

65) The pocket veto can only be used A) when a new president is about to take office. B) during a presidential election year. C) when Congress is in session. D) on appropriations bills. E) when Congress is adjourned.

72) The primary obstacle to party unity in Congress is the A) multiplicity of parties represented. B) lack of presidential leadership. C) separation of powers. D) bicameral legislature. E) lack of consensus on policy issues among party members.

76) Lobbyists provide members of Congress all of the following EXCEPT A) help with accomplishing their legislative goals. B) information. C) campaign strategy and organizational help. D) ideas and innovations. E) None of the above; lobbyists provide all of the above to members of Congress.

78) In mid-term elections, the A) presidentʹs coattails are the strongest. B) presidentʹs party typically gains seats. C) president almost always wins reelection; a president who does not is the exception. D) president usually does not become involved. E) presidentʹs party typically loses seats.

80) The impact of public approval or disapproval of the president on the support that the president receives in Congress is A) irrelevant. B) not too important, though it occasionally has a minor effect. C) represented in the text by the equation s \ʹ3D px\ʹ2D1. D) extremely important, and sways nearly all members of Congress on every vote. E) important, but usually at the margins on most policies.

Betty Friedan's book, ________, published in 1963, encouraged many women to question traditional assumptions and to assert their rights. A) A Handmaid's Tale B) The Second Sex C) The Female Eunuch D) Women and Economics E) The Feminine Mystique

In the case of Regents of the University of California v. Bakke, the Court A) refused to allow the admission of Bakke to University of California-Davis. B) was united in its decision. C) ordered that University of California-Davis could not use race as a criterion for admission. D) ruled that nursing schools cannot discriminate against men in their admissions procedures. E) ruled that a public university could not set aside a quota of spots for particular groups.

In the case of Regents of the University of California v. Bakke, the United States Supreme Court A) upheld all affirmative action programs as justified and constitutional. B) ruled that the University of California-Davis medical school could not discriminate against women, African Americans, or other minority groups. C) outlawed all affirmative action programs as unconstitutional. D) ruled that state-run nursing schools could not discriminate against men in admissions to their programs. E) upheld affirmative action programs, but limited their scope, and outlawed racial quota set-asides.

The Equal Rights Amendment failed because A) it was vetoed by the President. B) the Supreme Court voided it as unconstitutional. C) it did not win the required two-thirds vote in each chamber of Congress. D) it was rejected by the United States Senate. E) it fell three states short of sufficient ratification.

The European Union is an example of a ________ organization. A) nongovernmental B) domestic C) military D) diplomatic E) regional

The U.S. was involved in humanitarian intervention in which of the following countries? A) Somalia B) Haiti C) Bosnia D) Kosovo E) all of the above

The ________ gave women the constitutional right to vote. A) Bill of Rights B) Fifteenth Amendment C) Twenty-fourth Amendment D) Equal Rights Amendment E) Nineteenth Amendment.

Which of the following is TRUE about America's foreign aid programs? A) Nearly all of the money spent goes to help modernize agriculture and industry in poorer nations, or directly provides food to the hungry. B) The United States spends a greater percentage of its gross national product on foreign aid than any other developed nation. C) Among the developed countries of the world, the United States donates the smallest actual amount of foreign aid. D) Foreign aid has always been a highly popular expenditure with Americans. E) A substantial percentage of foreign aid is military assistance.

Which of the following is TRUE? A) Women are prohibited from serving as combat pilots. B) Women are prohibited on navy warships. C) Women are now allowed in ground combat units. D) Both men and women must register for the draft at age 18. E) none of the above.

Which of the following statements about foreign aid is FALSE? A) Presidents of each party have pressed for aid to nations in the developing world. B) A major goal of foreign aid is to stabilize nations friendly to the United States. C) A substantial percentage of foreign aid is in the form of military assistance. D) Foreign food aid often ends up in the pockets of American farmers. E) Congress usually increases the president's foreign aid requests.

Women were first given the right to vote by the A) Suffrage Act of 1880. B) Equal Rights Amendment. C) Fifteenth Amendment. D) Voting Rights Act. E) Nineteenth Amendment.

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