ATR 42 SYSTEMS QUIZ
List the sequence of events while starting Engine #1 (assume #2 is already running).
(ECU fault lights will initially be on in 42.) · Engine Start Rotary Selector to Start · Press Start pb for Engine #1 · 10% Nh: Move CL to FTR which introduces fuel and ignition · 10% Nh: Generator #2 begins providing power to the start circuit in addition to the battery · 25% Nh: ECU fault light extinguishes (42 only) · 45% Nh: Start #1 ON light extinguishes = starter / generator is resting · 61.5% Nh: Starter / Generator #1 acts as a generator · 66% Nh = 42 / about 62% Nh = 72: Move CL to Max RPM
Re: previous question: what additional item would cause a CONFIG warning on takeoff?
Parking brake not released
On the ground, with the OVBD valve pb selected to AUTO, the OBVD valve is closed if?
· #1 engine is running (oil pressure above 40 psi).
What is the maximum nose steering angle?
· +/- 60° with steering on · +/- 91° while being towed (steering off).
What is the range of the radio altimeter?
· - 20 feet to + 2500 feet.
What are the maximum cabin rates in MANUAL mode?
· -2,500 fpm to +1500 fpm.
When does the LO LVL hydraulic alert illuminate?
· .67 gallons.*
What is the minimum oxygen quantity for dispatch on the 42 & 72 aircraft:
· 1400 psi.
When do the fusible plugs release internal pressure?
· 177° C*.
How many volts are required for the inverters to work?
· 18 volts.
What makes up the AHRS?
· 2 Attitude heading reference units. · 2 Flux valves. · 1 Dual remote compensator.
If the AIRFRAME / AIRBLEED pb is deselected what valves are operated?
· 2 Deice valves unless engine anti-icing is selected on. · 2 Isolation valves.
What is the total hydraulic fluid volume?
· 2.54 gallons.*
What is the horsepower rating for the ATR42?
· 2100 SHP for reserve takeoff and go-around (100% torque) · 1900 SHP for normal takeoff (92% torque)
What is the minimum voltage for a battery start?
· 22 volts.
What is the horsepower rating for the ATR 72?
· 2400 for reserve takeoff and go-around (100% torque) · 2150 for normal takeoff (90% torque)
How many elevators are there?
· 2; each control column controls the associated elevator; and through the pitch coupling mechanism; the other elevator and opposite column.
How many hand-held fire extinguishers are on the ATR 42?
· 3
What is the delivery pressure of each hydraulic pump?
· 3000 psi.
How many TAS inputs are there to each AHRS?
· 3; 1 analog from respective ADC directly, 1 digital from each ADC through the ASCB.
Describe the inflation sequence for the engine / airframe de-ice in normal mode (42):
· 5 seconds each, for a total of 30 seconds. 30 second rest. Total 60 second cycle.
What brake pressure is being applied with the emergency brake?
· 500 psi gradually applied
With a total loss of hydraulic pressure, if you have a full accumulator charge, how many applications are available of the emergency brake?
· 6
How many brake applications do we have with the brake accumulator?
· 6.
What is the cabin pressure at FL250 (maximum theoretical cabin altitude = Max. ZCTH)*?
· 6740 feet.
In AUTO mode duct temperature is limited to what temperature?
· 88° C*.
In MANUAL mode the controller directly controls the temperature control valve, the duct temperature is limited to?
· 88° C*. We get an OVHT at 92° * C.
What initiates the ATPCS sequence?
· < 21% torque on the failed engine.
What is a flux valve?
· A device that senses magnetic north, much like a magnetic compass.
What must happen for the RED ENG FIRE to illuminate?
· A fire signal must be detected by both loops A & B unless one is de-selected. Then the other will work alone.
What could be the cause of a engine 1 feed low pressure light and engine 1 fuel pumps run light?
· A fuel leak or jet pump failure and weak electric pump.
What is the difference in philosophy between a leak and an overheat?
· A overheat may be reset after a cooling period but a leak may not.
What indication do we have of an RMI failure (The RMI itself or AHRS failure)?
· A red OFF flag appears. The ADF needle displays relative bearing only; while the VOR needle displays magnetic bearing to the station.
With no power available to the aircraft, how can we obtain some lighting in the cabin?
· A switch located by the entrance door provides for 2 minutes of cockpit lighting and emergency EXIT lighting Note: Main cabin door must be open
When does the DC AUX pump automatically run?
· ACW Blue pump pressure less than 1500 psi. · Gear handle down. · At least one engine running. · Aux Lo PR Sw in/on · DC Bus 2 Pwrd · Prop Brake Off
What is installed on the reduction gear box?
· ACW generator. · Prop control unit (PCU). · Feather pump and overspeed governor. · Aux. Feather pump (installed there but driven electrically)
You see a "blue ball" on the EADI with ATT fail and an empty compass rose on the EHSI with HDG fail. What failed?
· AHRS
Angle of attack info is directly processed by the CCAS; What are the alert and shaker limits and the pusher limits (42)?
· ALERT and STICK SHAKER ACTIVATION 12.5° *. · STICK PUSHER ACTIVATION 15° *. · Stall alarm and shaker are inhibited on the ground. · Pusher in inhibited on the ground and 10 seconds after takeoff.
What occurs when Horns Anti-Icing is On (42):
· ALERT and STICK SHAKER ACTIVATION 7.5° *. · STICK PUSHER ACTIVATION 15° *. Note: During T/O the icing AOA stall alert threshold is initially 8.5° *, and changes over in 5 minutes after take-off, or when flaps are selected to 0° which ever comes first. · Stall alarm and shaker are inhibited on the ground. · Pusher is inhibited on the ground and 10 seconds after takeoff.
What does the pack need to open?
· Air pressure and electrical supply. When one is missing the pack valve is spring-loaded closed.
If there is low pressure downstream of the deice valve what is lost?
· All airframe deicing; engine deicing is still available.
What lights on the CAP can be cleared?
· All amber except; PARK BRAKE, GPWS FAULT, CCAS, and MAINT PANEL.
What lights on the CAP can be inhibited in the 42?
· All smoke lights, level 2 amber lights except EFIS COMP.
What is the function of the Electronic Control Unit (ECU)?
· Allows for constant power lever angle for a given engine power setting. · Delivers uptrim to valid engine in case of engine failure on takeoff. · Provides faster engine acceleration and slower deceleration. · Prevents governor underspeed on the ground; maintains 70.8% NP.
What happens when the pitch tabs become desynchronized?
· An alert on the CCAS. · Normal and standby trims are inoperative. · The AP disconnects.
What does a battery charge fault mean?
· An overheat is detected by the BPU and the contactor is opened. · A failure of the charge contactor.
Why should caution be used when using the emer / park brake?
· Anti skid protection is not available. · Going past the first notch is prohibited until below 60 knots. · Going approx. 1 cm beyond the notch is permitted as a last resort if below 60 knots. · Using the emergency brake at speeds above 20 knots requires visual inspection of tires before next takeoff. · Leaving the brake in the "emergency" notch for parking is unsafe.
Which gear warnings can not be silenced?
· Any gear not seen down by detection system 2 (42) or MFC (72). with flaps 45° · Any gear not seen down with flaps 30° and radio altimeter < 500 ft.
Which gear warnings can be silenced?
· Any gear not seen down with one power lever at flight idle and radio altimeter < 500 ft.
If an engine failure occurs, what ice protection is lost?
· Associated engine protection is lost.
When do the spoiler start to deploy?
· At 2.5° aileron deflection.
What does a DC SVCE / ULIT Bus shed light mean?
· At least one UTIL BUS is disconnected from its associated main DC Bus. Note: To determine which one, check the recirculation fans.
What does the brake temp hot light mean?
· At least one brake exceeds 200° C*.
What is touchdown protection?
· At touchdown the brakes are inhibited until wheel speed is greater than 35 knots or 5 seconds.
When is the anti-skid deactivated?
· Below 10 knots.
When is prop anti-ice inhibited?
· Below 63% NP.
What items will cause the bleed air valves to close?
· Bleed overheat (274° C*. inside the duct). · Bleed leak (124° C*. around the duct). · Actuation of the fire handle. · Absence of air pressure (engine not running). · Loss of respective DC bus.
When does the bleed valve close?
· Bleed overheat is greater than 274° C* inside the duct. · Bleed leak greater than 124° C* around the duct. · Fire handle pulled. · Loss of air pressure or electricity (DC bus 1 or 2 in 42)
How is pitch trimming performed?
· By offsetting both tabs from the neutral position.
How is aileron trim performed?
· By offsetting the LH aileron tab from the neutral position.
How is the Ground Handling Bus supplied?
· By the main battery or by external power.
What are the 3 parts of the SGU?
· C = Symbol generation; this part generates the symbols going to the CRT's. · B = ASCB Input output; this part sends and receives data from the ASCB enabling exchange of data from the other pilots data. · A = Data input; this part receives data from AHRS and NAV systems. · Memory aid: A = Acquires data. B = Both can share. C = Creates the picture.
You see one blank CRT. What type of failure is this?
· CRT failure
What does the rudder trim do?
· Changes "neutral" spring tab position
Action to take in case of a compressor stall:
· Consult Engine Stall Checklist - no memory items.
What is the role of the Generator Control Unit (GCU)?
· Controls the generator contactor and the start contactor.
How are the side windows heated?
· DC BUS 1 & 2.
In basic mode what powers the busses?
· DC emergency bus: Hot Emergency Battery bus · DC essential bus, DC and AC STBY busses: Hot main battery bus until override pb depressed · After Override pb is depressed the DC and AC STBY supply will change to the Hot Emergency Battery bus
What lights on the electrical panel will be on with GPU power?
· DC generator 1 & 2 fault. · AC wild generator 1 & 2 fault. · AC wild bus 1 & 2 off.
What lights on the electrical panel will be on with battery power only?
· DC generator 1 & 2 fault. · DC bus 1 & 2 fault. · DC utility bus shed. · Both battery charge contactor Fault lights · Both battery arrows · AC Bus 1 & 2 · Inverter 2 · AC wild bus 1 & 2 off. · AC wild generator 1 & 2 fault.
What is located on the accessory gear box?
· DC starter / generator. · HP fuel pump. · Oil pumps.
What two ways is a crew notified of a system failure?
· Directly through a local alert. · A central alert through the CCAS.
(42) What is the role of the two battery protection units (BPU)?
· Each connects the battery for charging. · Analyzes the charge current and or associated DC bus voltage so as to prevent thermal runaway.
What does the MIN CABIN LIGHTING switch do?
· Enables us to control the MIN CABIN LIGHTS powered by the MAIN BATTERY. On the RH side of the cabin, every other light is illuminated. Switch doesn't do anything unless you're on battery power only.
What do we lose if controller 1 fails (42)?
· Engine 1 boots A & B. · Airframe A.
What do we lose if controller 2 fails (42)?
· Engine 2 boots A & B. · Airframe B.
What does the blue system operate?
· Flap extension and retraction. · Spoilers. · Nose wheel steering. · Emer./park brake.
What are the major items on the 26 volt AC standby bus?*
· Flap indicator. · Course / heading select panel 1. · First officers RMI. · Some EFIS comparator warnings.
(42) What items does the T/O configuration test check?
· Flaps 15° . · Trim in the green. · Power management in T/O. ( Note: It also performs an auto recall.)
What is the meaning of the amber Icing light on the center panel?
· Flashing: Ice detected with level 1 or 2 ice protection on (modified in 1999). · Steady: Ice detected with level 3 ice protection on.
What is locked wheel protection?
· For speeds above 23 knots, if the inboards sense a greater than 50% differential the brakes release. This is the same for the outboards.
How many alert levels are there, give an example of each, and which are processed in the CAC?
· Four levels (3=Warnings, 2=Cautions, 1=Advisories, 0=Information). · 3=Engine Fire, Stall Warning. · 2=Bleed Fault, Pack Fault. · 1=A/Erect Fail (No Chime). · 0=Airframe De-ice mode selected. · Only level 3 & 2 are processed in the CAC.
How is the engine feed jet pump activated?
· From HP fuel from the HMU.
Where is air for wing and engine bled?
· From the HP compressor.
What happens when the fire handle is pulled?
· Fuel LP valve is closed. · Air: Bleed and HP valves are closed. · Arms the Squibs and light is illuminated. · De-ice and isolation valves are closed. · Electrical: ACW and DC generators are deactivated. · Prop is feathered.
What does the number 2 gear indicating system do?
· Gear position on overhead. · Signal to the CAC for gear warning including red light in gear handle, etc. (42)
During a walkaround what should the exterior hydraulic gauges indicate (no engines running)?
· Green = 1500 psi. · Blue = 1500 psi. · Emer/Park 3000 psi.
What is required for the standby hydraulic pump pb to work?
· Ground handling bus must be powered (aircraft must be on the ground). · Automatic aux. pump logic is not met.
The BANK pb only affects bank angle when in the ______ mode
· Heading
What is the difference between low & high bank?
· Hi = 27° · Lo = 15°
What is the meaning of the ICING AOA green light on the center panel?
· Horns selected on. Must use icing speeds.
In order of priority, in what ways can the DC Emergency Bus be supplied?
· Hot Emergency Battery Bus. · DC Bus 1. · DC Bus 2.
What does DC Bus 1 normally supply?
· Hot Emergency Battery Bus. · DC Emergency Bus. · DC Standby Bus. · Utility Bus 1. · Inverter 1. · DC Service Bus.
In order of priority, in what ways can DC ESS Bus be supplied?
· Hot Main Battery Bus. · DC Bus 1. · DC Bus 2.
What does DC Bus 2 normally supply?
· Hot Main Battery Bus. · DC ESS Bus. · Utility Bus 2. · Inverter 2.
Name the 11 DC buses.
· Hot Main Battery Bus. · DC Bus 1. · DC Emergency Bus. · Hot Emergency Battery Bus. · DC Bus 2. · DC Service Bus. · Utility Bus 1. · DC Standby Bus. · Utility Bus 2. · DC ESS Bus. · DC Ground Handling Bus.
In the normal mode, the DC emergency bus & DC standby bus are powered by?
· Hot emergency battery bus.
What lights on the CAP will be on with GPU power?
· Hyd. · Anti-icing. · Fuel. · Elect. · Air. · Prkg. Brk. · ENG
What does the ACW system run?
· Hydraulic pumps. · Anti-ice Heat. · Landing, Taxi, and Strobe lights · LAV flush. · Hot Jugs.
How are the uplocks released?
· Hydraulically or mechanically.
How is the downlock assembly unlocked to allow gear retraction?
· Hydraulically.
When does the amber light on the ITT gauge illuminate?
· ITT > 816° C (42) · ITT > 800° C (72)
Why is there a 2.15 second delay on the autofeather?
· If an engine fails on takeoff, the 2.15 second delay allows the pilot to retard the PL and disarm the autofeather, in order to receive some reverse on the failed engine.
What indication do we have of a SGU failure?
· If part A and / or B fails we see two red X's on both the EADI and the EHSI. · If part C fails or if the whole SGU fails we see 2 blank screens.
When does the EFIS COMP light illuminate?
· If the SGUs note a 6° heading difference between the 2 AHRS with the bank less the 6° (if the aircraft bank is greater than 6° the threshold is 12°); there will also be an amber HDG in the upper right corner of the EADI. · If the 2 SGUs disagree more than 6° on the pitch we see a PIT. · If the 2 SGUs disagree more than 6° on the roll we see a ROL. · If the 2 SGUs disagree more than 6° on the pitch and roll we see ATT. · ILS parameters: .6° LOC, .2° GS, both out of limits: ILS
What is the flap override switch?
· In case of a reduced flap landing, to allows us to remove just the "TOO LOW FLAPS" alert.
Where is the ELT antenna located?
· In fairing ahead of the stabilizer fin.
Where is the ELT transmitter located?
· In the ceiling of the cabin between the passenger entry door and the lavatory door.
Where are the engine feed jet pump and electric pump located?
· In the feeder compartment.
Where is the fuel tank temperature indicator located?
· In the left feeder tank.
Following the failure of the top CRT, you have gone to composite mode but the colors are missing. How do you fix this?
· Increase the radar display brightness (inner knob for EHSI).
After the oxygen mask has been pulled out how can you use the boom microphone again without re-stowing the oxygen mask?
· It can be accomplished by closing the left oxygen mask door and pressing the TEST pb.
How is the DC SVCE Bus powered, and why is it important to know?
· It can be powered by external power or DC BUS 1. · If it is being powered by external power the flight attendant has control, and if it is being powered by DC Bus 1 then the pilots have control. Note: At no time do the pilots have an indication of the status of the Service bus. Just control via the SVCE/UTIL pb.
What is the function of the temperature control valve?
· It controls the amount of hot air entering the mixing chamber, while the pack adds cold air. Note: If one pack is inoperative, the other pack supplies both compartments through the mixing chamber.
Describe the PW 120 and PW 124:
· It is a 2 spool gas generator driving a four blade prop via a free turbine / reduction gear box assembly.
What happens to the ground handling bus in flight?
· It is de-energized.
What is the function of the 43 AH (Main) battery?
· It is for engine starting and emergency power supply which includes propeller feathering.
What is the rudder damper?
· It limits excessive movement of the rudder due to wind gusts.
What does the PCU do?
· It meters oil to the increase or decrease side of the piston to change the blade angle. · Locks the blade angle by means of an acme screw, which prevents the blade angle from decreasing more than 1° in case of loss of oil pressure in the PCU. · Allows prop feathering by dumping metered pressure back into the oil tank.
What happens to the air sucked in by the ground cooling fan?
· It passes over the primary and secondary heat exchangers and is exhausted overboard.
What is the role of the Bus Power Control Unit (BPCU)?
· It provides for the control of bus tie contactor. · Battery start contactor. · Load shedding. · External power function. · DC Service bus contactors.
If the PCU oil pump failed, what would happen to the prop?
· It would act like a fixed pitch prop, increasing and decreasing speed with PL movement. · The pilots could still feather the prop because the electrical feathering pump would pump oil from a cavity in the case (like a stand pipe). This is activated when the CL is placed in the feather position.
Where is air for air conditioning generally bled?
· LP compressor, but at low engine speeds from the HP compressor.
What does the green system operate?
· Landing gear extension and retraction. · Normal braking.
What happens once a leak is detected?
· Leak light. · Bleed fault · Pack fault · HP and LP bleed valves are latched shut.
When does the red light in the oil temperature / pressure gauge illuminate?
· Less than 40 psi; a separate 40 psi switch activates the CCAS.
What is level 3 and when is it used?
· Level 1 plus · Level 2 plus · Airframe de-icing. · For operating with ice accretion.
What is level 1 ½ and when is it used?
· Level 1 plus: · Props. · Continuous relight. · For takeoff in ground icing conditions, but flight in non-icing conditions.
What level 2 and when is it used?
· Level 1 plus: · Props. · Horns. · Side windows. · Engines. · Continuous relight. · For operating in icing conditions or taking off with visible moisture below 1500' and OAT at or below 5°. Note: Do not try to project what the temperature will be at cloud level. The breaking point is simply 5°.
The ADU has 4 lines of text. What is the meaning and color of each line?
· Line 1: Advisory message in white letters. · Line 2: Caution message in amber letters. · Line 3: Armed modes in white letters. · Line 4: Active modes in green letters.
Why would a RECIRC FAN fault?
· Low fan RPM. · Fan over temperature.
What does AIRFRAME / AIRBLEED fault mean?
· Low pressure downstream of the deice valve of 14 psi* for more than 6 seconds. · Over temperature upstream of the deice valve of 230° C*.
What major items are affected by a loss of the DC emergency bus?*
· Master cautions and aural warnings still work if other busses are powered. · Torque gauges inop. · VHF 1 radio inop. · Standby horizon inop. · Both bleeds and packs will be lost. · AC wild powered blue hydraulic pump is lost. Use the hyd. Crossfeed. · Captain and standby probes heating is lost. · Captain and standby altimeters should be compared to the first officers side. · Normal pitch trim is lost, but the standby pitch trim will work if the other busses are powered.
How is the gear held in the up position?
· Mechanically by uplocks.
What is the function of the Hydro Mechanical Unit (HMU)?
· Meter the flow of fuel to the engine, with the excess being returned to the HP pump inlet. · Provide the HP motive flow required by the feeder compartment jet pump and engine feed jet pump · Provides fuel shutoff via the condition lever.
After a failure of AHRS #1, which nav source and course knob should the captain use?
· Nav 1 and the course knob on the captain's side.
After a failure of SGU #1, which nav source and course knob should the captain use?
· Nav 2 and the F/O's course knob.
You turn off a bleed pb. Will the associated pack fault light illuminate?
· No - the fault light is inhibited in this case, but the pack valve will still close.
Are the horns heated on the ground?
· No.
Is the TAT probe heated on the ground?
· No.
If the blue pump LO PR light illuminates on final approach (gear down) will the AUX pump cycle on and off?
· No. The pressure provided by the AUX pump cannot extinguish the blue main pump LO PR light due to a check valve.
Air for the packs is bled from where?
· Normally from the low compressor stage (LP). However, at low engine speed when pressure from LP stage is insufficient the air is automatically switched to the high compressor stage (HP).
Will the aux. hydraulic pump automatically come on in flight if the blue ACW pump output drops below 1500 psi?
· Not unless the gear handle is in the down position.
Difference between 42 and 72:
· On the 72 shaker AND pusher thresholds change with horns selected ON. · On the 72, the pusher is also inhibited when the aircraft descends below 500 feet. However, if the radar altimeter gives an erroneous 500ft. signal while IAS > 185 knots for more than 120 seconds, the STICK PUSHER FAULT amber light will illuminate, notifying the crew that the stick pusher is inhibited.
(42) When does the ground cooling fan run?
· On the ground and in flight when speed is < 125 knots.
(42) What would be a likely indication of a ground cooling fan failure?
· On the ground or in flight below 125 knots when the respective pack faults.
What is the difference between a X generator start on the ground and an engine start in flight?
· On the ground the Main battery cranks the starter to 10% and then the opposite generator assists until 45%; but in flight the main battery is responsible for the entire start.
When would the emergency exit lights illuminate?
· On: Emergency exit lights illuminate · Arm: Lights illuminate if DC EMER BUS voltage drops below 18 Volts or if both generators are lost. Lights extinguish if DC EMER BUS voltage is over 20 Volts and at least one generator is operating. · DISARM: Exit light system is deactivated. Note: F/A's EMER LIGHT switch will override the ARM and DISARM positions
What are the main components of the AFCS?
· One computer. · One control panel. · One advisory display panel (ADU). · Three servo actuators; one for each axis.
How can the auto pilot be disengaged automatically?
· One of the engagement conditions of the auto pilot or yaw damper is no longer met. · Stall warning indicator threshold is achieved. · There is a disagreement between two AHRS or two ADC's. · There is a mismatch between the two pitch trims.
How can we activate the GND HDLG BUS without turning the battery on?
· Open an entrance door. · Open the fueling panel. · Open the cargo door operating panel cover. · Activate the DC AUX PUMP.
What areas are pneumatically ice protected?
· Outer and center wing leading edges. · Horizontal tail. · Engine air intakes. · Separation chambers.
What controls the position of the temperature control valve?
· Pack outlet temperature (duct temperature). · Demand selector position. · Compartment temperature. · Skin temperature. · In MANUAL it is controlled directly by the demand selector position.
What is the function of the pack valve?
· Pack shut off. · Pressure control; Normal or High are available (17 or 30). High flow increases the pack entrance pressure.
What are the arming conditions for the ATPCS?
· Power Management to Takeoff. · ATPCS pb ON. · Both PL above 56° PLA (49º = ATR72). · Both torques above 53%. · A/C on ground when arm light illuminates for uptrim to be available. If armed in flight there will be no uptrim.
What does the ADC compute?
· Pressure altitude. · Vertical speed. · Computed airspeed (IAS). · True airspeed. · Total air temperature. · Static air temperature.
What is the pressure of the oxygen system?
· Pressure of 1850 psi is reduced to 78 psi.
What is level 1 and when is it used?
· Probes and fwd. windshield heating. · Always used.
What areas are electrically ice protected?
· Prop. Blades. · Windshields. · Probes. · Horns. · Inlet guide vanes.
What indication will there be if a jet pump fails in flight?
· Pump RUN light on (green). Possibly a very brief FEED LO PR light.
How can the auto pilot be disengaged manually?
· Quick disconnect on the control wheel. · Action on the pitch trim (normal or standby). · Auto pilot pb on the AFCS control panel. · Yaw damp pb on the AFCS control panel. · Go around pb on the power lever. · 30 daN* force on the rudder pedals (66 pounds)*.
What does an AUDIO SELECT FAULT mean?
· RCAU processing board failure or power loss.
With DC EMER BUS only, what cockpit lighting is available?
· RH DOME light · LH 3 lights located below the glareshield · Overhead panel light illuminating the pedestal · Light in the wet compass
What items are on the DC ground handling bus?
· Red light on forward cargo door. · Fueling control and indicators. · DC aux. pump power supply and indication when on the ground. · Cargo door power supply. · 2 minute lights.
With the power management selected to takeoff; what torque is computed by the FDAU?
· Reserve takeoff torque (same as go-around torque)
What does AHRS 1 supply?
· SGU 1. · F/O RMI. · FDAU. · Radar stabilization. · ASCB.
What does AHRS 2 supply?
· SGU 2. · CPT's RMI. · ASCB.
You see two blank CRTs. What type of failure is this?
· SGU failure
You see a large red X on both CRTs. What type of failure is this?
· SGU failure but part C still works
What is the rudder spring tab?
· Similar to a balance tab, it operates in the opposite direction of desired rudder travel in flight. Relative wind then assists in moving the rudder. The amount of deflection of the tab in relation to the rudder is proportional to air load on the rudder.
You see a small red X on some information. What type of failure is this?
· Source failure. For example, if the red X covers the glideslope, no suitable glideslope signal is being received.
What is FLAP UNLK?
· Spurious retraction from flaps 15° and more; the alert is triggered if retraction is more than 3° * (42).
What are the inputs to each ADC?
· Static air pressure from static port. · Total air pressure from pitot tube. · Total air temperature from TAT probe.
What is the meaning of the blue DE-ICING light on the memo panel?
· Steady: Airframe deicing is selected on. · Flashing: No ice detected for 5 minutes, but airframe de-icing is still on.
How many power sources are available for emergency evacuation lighting?
· TWO; DC EMER BUS via a voltage divider or a 6 volt batteries which are charged from the DC EMER BUS Note: They have a 10 minute capacity
What is the function of the TCS button?
· Temporarily allows the pilot to control the aircraft with the auto pilot engaged. · In BASIC mode, the TCS button will cause the AP to change pitch and roll references. If the pitch is > 15° when the button is released the pitch will return to 15° . If the TCS button is released at a bank angles < 6° the system will level the wings. If the TCS button is released with a bank angle between 6° and 35° it will maintain that angle. At bank angles of >35° the system will return to 35° . Note: Action on the TCS with Alt Hold, VS Hold, Or IAS HOLD modes selected, will re-synchronize those modes.
What data is used for guidance computations?
· The AFCS computer uses data from the coupled ADC and SGU and displays the same commands on both sides.
What computes the maximum torque and the displays it on the torque gauge bugs?
· The FDAU.
In flight, if the exhaust mode pb is released, what will happen?
· The OVBD valve will open slightly, the under floor valve will close, and the fan will shut off.
What is the main system element to the ATPCS (Automatic Takeoff Power Control System)?
· The Signal Conditioning Unit (SCU) in the 42 or the Auto Feathering Unit (AFU) in the 72; it sends the torque signal from the free turbine to the torque gauge in the cockpit; it also includes the autofeathering / uptrim logic; it delivers the signal to the feather solenoid, the feather pump, and opposite ECU which performs the uptrim.
What happens with an ADC failure and can we recover the lost items?
· The associated airspeed, altimeter and VSI are lost and unrecoverable. · With ADC 1 failure we lose the TAT and SAT indicator (42) and the pressurization system now uses ADC 2.
What does an F on the anti skid panel indicate?
· The associated anti skid is lost.
What do the pump LO PR lights indicate?
· The associated pump pressure is less than 1500 psi.
What do the spoiler lights indicate?
· The associated spoiler is not in the retracted position.
How do the outflow valves operate in AUTO mode?
· The auto digital controller uses: · Landing Elevation. · Takeoff elevation as memorized. · Cabin Pressure · Static pressure from ADC1 and Captains altimeter or, ADC2 and 29.92 if ADC1 fails. The controller adjusts the electro-pneumatic outflow valve, which has the pneumatic outflow valve slaved to it. If the digital controller loses electrical power both outflow valves go to full close.
How do the hydraulic gauges in the cockpit differ from the gauges in the hydraulic bay?
· The blue and green cockpit gauges indicate system pressure, while the exterior gauges indicate the greater of accumulator pressure or system pressure. · The parking brake accumulator pressure on the cockpit gauge is showing the fluid side and can drop to zero after repeated use of the parking brake with no blue system pressure, but the exterior gauges show accumulator pressure on the gas side and should never drop below 1500 psi.
While at the gate with GPU power only, which probe heating fault lights will be illuminated?
· The captains pitot and alpha. · The first officer pitot and alpha.
After a source failure of Nav 1, the captain selects VOR/ILS Switching. Which course knob should the captain use?
· The course knob on the captain's side.
What changes when the prop heat mode SEL is selected on?
· The cycle is changed from 10 seconds / pair with 30 seconds off, to 20 seconds / pair and no rest period.
What happens when a fuel pump pb is deselected?
· The electric pump is deactivated and the motive flow valve is closed on that side.
In flight, with the exhaust push button on OVBD what happens to the extract fan, ovbd valve, and under floor valve?
· The extract fan stops, the under-floor valve is closed and the ovbd valve is partially open. This allows for differential pressure to vent the avionics area instead of the extract fan.
What happens when flap asymmetry occurs?
· The flaps stay in their present position and the control lever no longer works
What does the red light on the cargo door panel mean?
· The ground handling bus is being supplied by the hot main battery bus. Note: The red light indicates that the main battery is emptying, even if the battery switch is in the off position.
What occurs with a LO LVL hydraulic alert?
· The hydraulic x-feed automatically closes.
If the left fuel gauge in the cockpit is inoperative, how will the refueling system be affected?
· The left fuel gauge on the fuel panel will be inoperative, making the automatic function of the pressure refueling system unusable.
How do the flaps operate?
· The lever electrically controls the flap valve which hydraulically actuates the 4 flap actuators.
What happens to the wheels when the gear is selected up?
· The main gear wheels are braked automatically.
What is blade angle governing mode?
· The normal mode for flight; the PL adjusts the NH via the ECU and the HMU; the CL sets the MAX NP via the PCU.
What is fuel governing mode?
· The normal mode for ground operations; The PL sets the blade angle through the PCU; the ECU adjusts fuel flow in order to maintain 70.8% NP. Only works with ECU operative.
What is transition mode?
· The period where the NP is between 70.8% (fuel governing) and the maximum set by the CL (blade angle governing); this normally occurs as the power is being added at takeoff and then again on approach to landing.
How does the emergency extension operate?
· The push / pull handle mechanically releases the uplocks and the gear extends do to gravity and aerodynamic forces: the main gear is assisted by a gas actuator. Note: When the gear retracts it charges the actuator.
What changes when the wing / engine deicing mode SEL is selected on (42)?
· The rest period changes to 210 seconds.
What does a fault light mean in the start pb?
· The starter remains engaged after 45%. · The GCU fails during starting.
For the 72s, which have start A / B; what is the difference between A & B?
· There are 2 exciters (A & B) each with their own igniter.
After the flaps are extended to there selected position there is still a EXT flag; what might this mean?
· There is a leak in the system.
Each battery Charge Contactor is closed in normal operation. When do they open?
· Thermal runaway of associated battery. · Undervoltage of DC MAIN Bus (< 25 volts). · Start sequence initiated (both are opened until Engine Start Rotary Sel. is OFF - but no fault light illuminates). · Battery switch selected to OVRD.
Where are the LP valves located and how do we operate them?
· They are located at the fuel outlet of each fuel tank and they can only be operated by pulling their respective fire handle which electrically closes the valve.
What is the function of the 15 AH (Emergency) battery?
· To provide power to the emergency network if the main battery becomes depleted. It's secondary role is to avoid power transients on critical equipment during engine starts.
Following the failure of the top CRT, you go to composite mode by doing what?
· Turning the EADI brightness all the way down until it clicks off.
Where does the computer receive its data?
· Two Air Data Computers (ADC). · Two Attitude and Heading Reference System (AHRS). · Two Symbol Generation Units (SGU). · Radio Altimeter.
What does the DITCH pb do?
· Two electric motors drive both outflow valves closed. This is only in aircraft with the outflow valves in the belly.
How many type III exits are there and how can they be operated?
· Two; they can be operated from inside and outside
How long are the warnings inhibited after takeoff?
· Until the gear starts to retract.
What is indicated by a pack fault?
· Valve position disagreement. · A temperature > 204° C*. downstream of pack compressor. The pack valve will close automatically.
Engine compressor stalls are recognized by?
· Varying degrees of abnormal noise. · Fluctuating engine parameters. · Abnormal PL response. · Rapid ITT increase.
When on batteries only, what information will still be processed in the CCAS?
· Warnings only, that portion of the CAC is powered by the DC ESS BUS.
When do the electric pumps automatically run?
· When Fuel low level light illuminates (less than 352 pounds or test PB pressed). · When the fuel x-feed valve is open. · When jet pump pressure drops below 5 psi.
When does ELT transmission occur?
· When deceleration exceeds 5 G's*.
On the cargo door operating panel, what does the blue light mean?
· When illuminated all door hooks and latch locks are engaged
On the cargo door operating panel, what does the red light mean?
· When illuminated, indicates Ground Handling Bus is directly powered by the HOT MAIN BATTERY BUS
When are the CABIN and CARGO door unlocked aural alerts inhibited?
· When the #1 condition lever is in feather or fuel shut-off
When are the SERVICE and FWD COMPT unlocked aural alerts inhibited?
· When the #2 condition lever is in feather or fuel shut-off
What does the door OK lights mean when illuminated?
· When the test button depressed, indicates cabin and service doors are opened and associated micro-switches are in the opened position
When is the anti skid test inhibited?
· When the wheel speed exceeds 17 knots.
Where is the leak detection located?
· Wing leading edge to fuselage fairing. · Upper and lower fuselage floor · Air conditioning area.
A bleed fault light illuminates in flight. Will the associated pack fault light illuminate?
· Yes.
What is the meaning of the red light in the gear handle?
· You forgot to put the gear down for landing (as sensed by system 2), below 500' or with flaps 45 degrees.
If operating in manual pressurization mode, remember to ensure that:
· You need to depressurize the cabin before landing (especially before reaching the gate) or the ramp agent could be killed if they open the service or cabin door! This does not happen automatically upon landing, as it would in the auto mode.
How long can the oxygen system provide 100% oxygen to the crew?
· at least 15 minutes.
What are the maximum cabin rates in AUTO mode?
· up to 20,000 ft. not more than 550 fpm.* · 20,000 ft. not more than 620 fpm.* · Descent rate, normal = -400 fpm. · Descent rate, fast = -500 fpm.
