BIOS 214 Exams 1-3

Which is not true of nasal conchae?

A) they help warm the air B) they help cleanse the air C) they reduce turbulence inside the nasal cavity D) There are superior, middle, and inferior nasal conchae E) they moisten the air Answer C

All of the following except ____ contribute to the large surface area available for nutrient absorption in the small intestine

A) villi B) circular folds C) intestinal length D) rugae E) microvilli Anwser D

Name the two most specific body cavities that would be sectioned if a transverse plane were passed through the umbilicus.

Abdominal and Vertebral canal

d

Cardiac muscle has the following combination of characteristics 1. uninucleate 2. multinucleate 3. striated 4. unstriated 5. spindle shaped 6. voluntary 7. branched 8. unbranched a. 2,3,5,8 b. 3,8 c. 2,4,5,6,7 d. 1,3,7 e. 1,4,5,6,8

e

Cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands are under the control of the a. Somatic nervous system b. Paraympathetic divison c. Sympathetic divison d. Central nervous system e. B and C

a

Caudal extensions of the dura and pia mater that connect to the sacrum and coccyx make up (the) a. Coccygeal ligament b. Cordosacral ligament c. Inferior ligament of the spinal cord d. Denticulate ligaments e. None of the above

e

Cell bodies of spinal sensory nerves are located a. In dorsal horn of spinal cord b. In ventral horn of spinal nerve c. In grey commissure d. Near structure being innervated e. In dorsal root ganglion

b

Cerebrospinal fluid contains all of the following except: a. electrolytes b. erythrocytes c. lymphocytes d. water

a

Cerebrospinal fluid returns to the bloodstream by way of a. the arachnoid villi b. the pia mater c. central canal of the spinal cord d. cauda equina e. the choroid plexuses of the brain

Which type of vertebra has a transverse foramen?

Cervical

Which of the following vertebral curvatures is convex anteriorly?

Cervical Lumbar

a

Cervical spinal cord a. Supplies the shoulder girdle and upper limb b. Is smaller in diameter than other regions of the spinal cord c. Contains a smaller amount of gray matter than other areas of the spinal cord d. All of the above e. A and B only

An osteon is: A) region of bone that contains red marrow B)site of growth in length in a young bone C)region of bone that contatins yellow marrow D) a structural unit of compact bone

D - a structural unit of compact bone

Which of the following is found in the stratum basale? A) melanocytes B) cuboidal or columnar shaped cells C) keratinocytes D) all of the above

D - all of the above: melanocytes, cuboidal or columnar shaped cells, and keratinocytes

Epiphyseal plates of growing bones may be classified as: A) synchondroses B) cartilaginous joints C) synarthrotic joints D) all of the above

D - all of the above: synchondroses, cartilaginous joints and synarthrotic joints

The frontal bone: A) forms part of the floor of the orbit B) articulates with the mandible C) contributes to the sagittal suture D) none of the above

D - none of the above

Bursae are small "pockets" or sacs filled with synovial fluid that:

Help to relieve pressure during movement of body parts

d

In the mesencephalon, integrating visual information with other sensory inputs and initiating involuntary motor respones involving head and neck movement are function of the a. Red nucleus b. Substantia nigra c. Cerebral peduncles d. Superior colliculi e. Both A and B

c

In the muscle triad, the middle structure is a. A band b. Sarcoplasmic reticulum c. T-tubule d. Terminal cistern

Stratum spinosum

-cells are slightly flattened-starving -cytoplasmic extensions between cells (tonofibrils and desmosomes) remian intact --when cell shrinks due to straining techniques giving spinous appearance. contains langerhan cells

reticular layer

-collagenous fibers which are densely packed, stretch marks, wrinkles, lines of cleavage. -contain pressure receptor -Pacinian corpuscle (heavy pressure) - every thing below the papillary layer - made of dense irregular connective tissue

Which of the following pairs of associations are correct? 1) compact bone; dense and solid, no perforations at all 2) spongy bone; open network, struts 3) osteons; cancellous bone 4) osteoclasts; addition of new bone 5) none of these are correct

2) spongy bone; open network, struts

What is the fate of the cartilaginous cells that are present where bone is forming? 1) they move to a different region where bone has not yet formed 2) they usually die and are replaced by bone cells 3) they remain within the bone matrix 4) they line the Haversian system of the growing bone 5) none of the above are true

2) they usually die and are replaced by bone cells

Extra bones that develop between the usual bones of the skull are: 1) sesamoid bones 2) wormian bones 3) flat bones 4) endochondral bones 5) none of the above

2) wormian bones

b

A motor unit is a. the distance from one Z disc to the next b. one neuronal axon and all the muscle fibers innervated by it c. one thick filament and all thin filaments with which it forms cross bridges d. one neuromuscular junction e. one myofibril of a muscle fiber

c

A needle used in a spinal tap must be inserted until its tip is in the a. Subdural space b. Arachnoid mater c. Subarachnoid space d. Peridural space e. Epidural space

c

A nerve is a structure that may contain 1. axons 2. blood vessels 3. neuron cell bodies 4. connective tissue 5. myelin 6. oligodendrocytes a. 1, 3, 5, 6 b. 2, 3, 4 c. 1, 2, 4 d. 1, 4, 5

b

A neuron might be temporarily unable to transmit an impulse to another if a. The neurons are of different types b. Its supply of neurotransmitters is exhausted c. The levels of microglia are too low d. There are too many astrocytes present e. Either C or D

c

A neuron pool is a. A group of neurons linked by gap junctions b. A group of identical nerve cells c. A group of interconnected neurons with a specific function d. The group of neurons available to regenerate a damaged nerve e. Both A and B

e

All of these except one of the choices is/are either regulated or modified in action by the central nervous system a. Smooth muscle b. Cardiac muscle c. Skeletal muscle d. Smooth and cardiac muscle e. All muscle types are either regulated or modified in their actions by the central nervous system

c

All of these muscles attach to the scapula EXCEPT a. Infraspinatus b. Supraspinatus c. Rhomboideus major d. Subscapularis e. Teres major

e

All of these structures are associated with a synapse except a. End bulbs b. Vesicles c. Neurotransmitters d. Neuroreceptors e. Oligodendrocyte

Which of the following statements about joint classification is true?

All symphyses are synarthrotic All synchondroses are synarthrotic All synovial joints are diarthrotic

c

All the muscle fibers controlled by a single motor neuron constitute a a. Sarcomere b. Skeletal muscle c. Motor unit d. Synaptic knob e. Tendon organ

Contraction of the ___ causes goose bumps.

Arrector pili muscle

Which of the following statements about aging and joints is false?

Articular cartilage thickens

Which of the following is a function of the stomach?

A) Most chemical digestion takes place in stomach B) it digests lipids C) it churns food into a paste by mechanical means D) it stores food in the form of fat E) it absorbs most of the nutrients in food Answer C

Information from your ____ and ____ convey to you a sense of body position

A) aortic bodies,, carotid bodies B) baroreceptors, inner ear C) golgi tendon organs, inner ear D) baroreceptors, eye E) golgi tendon organs, organ of ruffini Answer C

The starch-digesting enzymes of the saliva and pancreatic juice are called____.

A) lysosymes B)upsadaisies C) peptidases D) lipases E) amaylases Answer: E

What are Peyer patches, and where are they located?

A) peptic ulcers that may occur in the stomach or duodenum B) lymphatic tissues of the oropharynx C) mucous glands of the duodenal submucosa D) fatty, clublike appendages of the serosa of the colon E) lymphatic tissue found in the submucosa of the ileum Answer E

What is the life span of epithelial cells in the lining of the stomach?

A) several decades B) 1 to 2 days C) 15 to 17 days D) 3 to 6 days E) 7 to 10 days Answer D

Each hepatic lobule consists of plates of epithelial cells radially arranged around a blood vessel called the ____.

A) sinusoid B) Central vein C) hepatic vein D) hepatic transport vessel E) hepatic portal vein Answer B

The retina and the posterior edge of the ciliary body meet at the

A) tepetum lucidum B) iris C) ora serrata D) ciliary process E) canal of Schlemm Answer C

The largest of the following is___

A) the cricoid cartilage B) the epiglottic cartilage C) the corniculate cartilage D) the thyroid cartilage E) the arytenoid cartilage Answer D

The size difference between the tympanic membrane and the oval window causes vibrations to: a. Change tone b. Become more frequent c. Amplify d. Become faint e. Do none of the above

c

The stomach performs all of the following functions except: a. Emptying of the food in the small intestine b. Temporary storage of food immediately after a meal c. Segmentation and deglutition d. Mixing of food with gastric secretions e. Secretion of hydrochloric acid

c

The tectorial membrane is located in the a. Internal ear b. Scala vestibuli c. Cochlear duct d. Scala tympani e. Middle ear cavity

c

The tongue has many bumps called the a. Lingum b. Body c. Papillae d. Frenulum e. Septa

c

The vestibular apparatus is located in the: a. Anterior cavity of the eye b. Nasal cavity c. Inner ear d. Middle ear

c

Unlike the small intestine, the large intestine shows pouches called ____ along its length a. Epiploic appendages b. Ceca c. Haustra d. Circular folds e. Teniae coli

c

What are Peyer patches, and where are they located? a. Fatty, club-like appendages on the serosa of the colon b. Peptic ulcers that may occur in the stomach or duodenum c. Lymphatic tissue found in submucosa of the ileum d. Mucous glands of the duodenal submucosa e. Lymphatic tissues of the oropharynx

c

What aspect of laryngeal function would be impaired if the arytenoid and Corniculate cartilages are damaged? a. The air would not be able to enter b. The larynx would be unable to move up or downward during swallowing to ease the passage of a bolus c. Sound production would be impaired d. The person would be likely to choke e. None of the above are true

c

What condition is stimulated by allergens and results in bronchoconstriction, airway inflammation, and difficulty in exhaling? a. Chronic bronchitis b. Pulmonary fibrosis c. Asthma d. Tuberculosis e. Emphysema

c

What is a function of parietal cells in the stomach? a. They produce mucus b. They produce a secretion that breaks down lipids c. They produce intrinsic factor d. They produce a secretion that initiates breakdown of proteins e. They produce a secretion that begins to breakdown starch

c

What is a muscle that allows you to roll your eyes upward, as in a look of disgust? a. Inferior rectus b. Lateral rectus c. Superior rectus d. Inferior oblique e. Superior oblique

c

What is the life span of epithelial cells in the lining of the stomach? a. Several decades b. 15-17 days c. 3-6 days d. 1-2 days e. 7-10 days

c

What is the name for farsightedness? a. Glaucoma b. Presbyopia c. Hyperopia d. Myopia e. Utopia

c

What kind of tissue lines most of the respiratory tract? a. Ciliated cuboidal b. Simple squamous c. Ciliated pseudostratified d. Stratified squamous e. Ciliated squamous

c

What structure corresponds to the "Adam's apple"? a. Vocal cords b. Thyroid gland c. Thyroid cartilage d. Cricoid cartilage e. Epiglottis

c

What structure may become inflamed and infected, and may burst resulting in peritonitis? a. Cecum b. Duodenal papilla c. Appendix d. Pharyngeal constrictors e. Duodenum

c

When you focus on objects close to the eye, the eye makes an adjustment called a. Myopia b. Diplopia c. Accommodation d. Refraction e. Emmetropia

c

Which is NOT TRUE of the pancreas in humans? a. Contains the islets or islands are Langerhans b. Secretes hormones-insulin and glucagon c. Produces bile d. Is endocrine and exocrine in function

c

Which of the following are not functions of the oral cavity? a. Analysis of material before wallowing b. Mechanical processing through the actions of the teeth, tongue, and palatal surfaces c. Initial digestion of food materials by acid d. Partial digestion of carbohydrates by salivary enzyme Lubrication of oral contents by mucus and salivary secretions

c

Which of the following are openings into the nasopharynx? 1) auditory tube 2) fauces 3) internal nares 4) external nares 5) nasolacrimal duct a. 2,3 b. 4,5 c. 1,3 d. 1,2,3

c

Which of the following do not contain cartilage? 1) tertiary bronchi 2) alveolar ducts 3) respiratory bronchioles 4) terminal bronchioles a. 2,4 b. 1,2,3,4 c. 2,3,4 d. 2,3

c

Which of the following features of the lungs face(s) the heart? 1) costal surface 2) hilus 3) base 4) mediastinal surface a. 3,4 b. 1 only c. 2,4 d. 1,2

c

Which of the following is a stomach feature that increases surface area for digestion and absorption? a. Plicae circulares b. Taeniae coli c. Rugae d. Omentum e. All of the above

c

Which of the following is an anatomical feature of the small intestine that serves to increase the surface are for digestion and absorption? a. Rugae b. Lacteals c. Microvilli d. All of the above

c

Which of the following nerve endings is not found in the skin? a. Pacinian corpuscles b. Hair receptors c. Proprioceptors d. Ruffini's corpuscles e. Tactile corpuscles

c

Which of the following pairs of terms is incorrectly matched? a. Exteroceptors; at or near the surface of the body b. Interceptors; in internal organs c. Proprioceptors; in the walls of blood vessels d. Cutaneous receptors; in skin and mucous membranes

c

Which of the following types of cells is the first to receive a light ray as it travels through the retina? a. Ganglion cell b. Pigmented epithelium c. Photoreceptor cell d. Bipolar cell

c

Which of the following would have the highest pitched voice? a. A person with thick true vocal folds b. A person with thick false vocal folds c. A person with thin true vocal folds d. A person with thin false vocal folds e. All of the above would have high-pitched voices

c

Which of the papillae contain the most taste buds per papilla? a. Aquaporins b. Those located on the anterior surface of the tongue c. Circumvallate d. Fungiform e. Filiform

c

Which of these answers is NOT related to the others on the list a. Anal canal b. Haustra c. Villi d. Colon e. Taenia coli

c

_________ cells in the ______ have no kinocilia a. Hair, ampulla b. Amacrine, ampulla c. Hair, cochlea d. Bipolar, cochlea e. Hair, vestibule

c

inorganic

calcium hydroxyapatite

What is the superior opening into the stomach

cardiac orifice

Advancing a gastric tube from the oral cavity to the oropharynx requires passing through the: a. Chonae b. Inferior meatus c. Parotid gland d. Fauces

d

Adventitia surrounds the a. Jejunum b. Liver c. Ileum d. Esophagus e. Transverse colon

d

All of the following except ___ contribute to the large surface area available for nutrient absorption in the small intestine. a. Villi b. Circular folds c. Intestinal length d. Rugae e. Microvilli

d

All of these surface area increasing structures except a. Microvilli b. Villi c. Plica circulares d. Adventitia e. The length of the small intestine

d

Baroreceptors detect changes in pressure in a. Blood vessels b. Digestive system c. Nervous system d. A and B

d

Bile helps accomplish which of the following? 1) chemical breakdown of protein 2) emulsification 3) protection of the gastric lining 4) maintenance of an alkaline pH in the duodenum a. 1,2,3 b. 1,2,3,4 c. 2,3 d. 2 e. 1,3,4

d

Cataracts are located in the a. Cornea b. Vitreous humor c. Retina d. Lens e. Conjunctiva

d

b

In the nervous system, a. All of the postsynaptic membrane-bound protein receptors are excitatory b. Excitatory effects promote the generation of nerve impulses c. Inhibitory effects upon receptors promote the generation of nerve impulses d. Both A and C e. None of the above

b

In the process known as Wallerian degeneration, a. No trace is left of the path taken by a previous neuron b. Macrophages remove the debris of damaged axons c. The axon proximal to the injury degenerates d. Schwann cells completely degenerate e. A and C from above

e

In the sarcomere, titin is not found in the a. Z disc b. H zone c. A band d. I band e Mline

a

In what lobe of the cerebrum would you find the primary motor area? a. frontal lobe b. temporal lobe c. parietal lobe d. occipital lobe

c

In what lobe of the cerebrum would you find the primary visual area? a. temporal lobe b. frontal lobe c. occipital lobe d. parietal lobe

c

In what part of the brain would you find the cerebral aqueduct? a. medulla oblongata b. cerebrum c. midbrain d. hypothalamus

Which of the following is true of the radius?

None of the above (articulates with trochlear notch of humerus, medial bone of forearm, head articulates with distal end of ulna)

The matrix of loose connective tissue is produced by

None of the above (mast cells, plasma cells, macrophages)

b

Posture is maintained by __________ fibers a. white b. slow oxidative (SO) c. fast-twitch d. type II e. fast glycolytic (FG)

d

Prominent tendons on the dorsum of the hand belong to the ________ muscle a. extensor retinaculum b. extensor carpi radialis c. flexor digitorum superficialis d. extensor digitorum e. brachioradialis

Using the following directional terms, decide which structure OF THE PELVIS is being described: medial to the ischium; inferior to the ilium; lateral to the pubic symphysis; medial to the acetabulum.

Pubis

A tissue that forms a supportive framework in the spleen and liver is known as ___ tissue

Reticular

___ are fibrous proteins in connective tissue that branch and cross-connect to provide a flexible but form-holding framework in which cells reside

Reticular

A plane suture is found

Right and left maxilla

The ___ region of the abdomen is inferior and right lateral to the umbilical region of the abdomen.

Right iliac or inguinal

b

Rigor mortis is the consequence of a. Lack of acetylcholine b. Lack of ATP c. Lack of AChE d. Lack of actin/myosin e. Lack of titin

a

Select the association that is most closely matched (in the spinal cord) a. Posterior--sensory b. Anterior--sensory c. Anterior--integrative d. Posterior--motor e. None of the above match

e

Select the best description of Nissl bodies a. accumulates as yellow-brown granules as the cell ages b. usually short and branched c. usually myelinated d. forms part of the cytoskeleton e. rough endoplasmic reticulum

b

Select the best description of axon terminals a. usually short and branched b. fine processes at the ends of axons c. usually myelinated d. join axon to cell body e. stored in synaptic vesicles

d

Select the best description of nerve fiber a. fine processes at the ends of axons b. usually short and branched c. fine processes at the ends of dendrites d. may refer to either axons or dendrites e. join axon to cell body

d

Select the best description of neurotransmitter molecules a. fine processes at the ends of axons b. usually short and branched c. usually myelinated d. stored in synaptic vesicles e. accumulates as yellow-brown granules as the cell ages

b

Select the best description of the Schwann cells: a. help maintain the blood-brain barrier b. form myelin sheaths of peripheral nervous system c. form lining of brain ventricles d. form myelin sheaths in central nervous system e. surround neurons in peripheral nervous system ganglia

e

The diaphragma sellae a. Part of the arachnoid mater b. Lies between the superior and inferior sagittal sinus c. Leads to jugular foramen d. Contains CSF e. Lines the hyophyseal fossa

d

The digastric, stylohyoid, mylohyoid, and geniohyoid muscles have which of the following in common? a. depresses the hyoid bone b. elevate the tongue c. origin on the body of the hyoid bone d. an attachment on the body of the hyoid bone

d

The direct energy supply produced by the skeletal muscles in order to enable them to contract is a. Infinite, as long as muscle activity is required b. Derived from fat, carbohydrate and cholesterol c. Independent of the supply of oxygen d. ATP e. A and B from above are correct

c

The dorsal root of a spinal nerve contains a. Interneurons b. Ventral rami c. Axons of sensory neurons d. Cells bodies of motor neurons e. Axons of motor neurons

c

The dura mater is the a. Outermost covering over the brain, but not the spinal cord b. Meninx that forms the coccygeal ligament along with component of the filum terminale c. Toughest and thickest of meninges d. Innermost of the meninges e. Structure that does all of the above

a

The embryonic forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain arise from what structure? a. the neural tube b. the telencephalon c. neural folds d. neural crest e. mesoderm

d

The epidural space in the spinal column is occupied by a. The spinal cord b. The dura mater c. Areolar tissue d. Adipose tissue e. CSF

d

The extensions of the dura mater that stabilize and support the brain are (the) a. Falx cerebri b. Falx cerebelli c. Tenroium cerebelli d. All of the above e. A and C

The linea aspera is found on which bone?

The femur

The inguinal region is proximal to the popliteal region. The axillary region is inferior to the antecubital region. Regarding these two statements,

The first is true, the second is false

c

The masseter muscle is _____ and acts as a/an ______ a. Bipinnate; depressor b. Bipinnate; elevator c. Multipennate; elevator d. Parallel fibered; elevator e. Multipennate; depressor

a

The membrane network that surround each myofibril in a sleevelike arrangement is the a. Sarcoplasmic reticulum b. Endomysium c. Endoplasmic reticulum d. Myoneural junction e. Actin

a

The meninges include a. Pia mater, arachnoid and dura mater from the inside outward b. Two layers of transverse collagen fibers c. Pia mater, dura mater and venous sinuses from the outside inward d. Different layers for the brain and the spinal cord e. None of the above

b

The meshwork of elastic fibers that make the arachnoid mater look "webby" are (the) a. Arachnoid granulations b. Arachnoid trabeculae c. Arachnoid extensions d. Subarachnoid spaces e. None of the above

c

The most important function of the soma of a neuron is to a. Generate an electrical charge b. Allow communication with another neuron c. House organelles that produce energy and synthesize organic molecules d. Support the neuroglial cells e. All of the above are correct

d

The muscle that can both flex and adduct the arm is the a. Subscapularis b. Teres major c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectoralis major e. None of the above

e

The muscles that form the rotator cuff include a. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, deltoid and teres major b. Pectoralis major, pectoralis minor, subscapularis c. Bicep brachii and deltoid d. Subclavius, deltoid and pectoralis minor e. Teres minor, infrapsinatus, supraspinatus and subscapularis

b

The nuclei in the spinal cord that contain the cell bodies of the somatic and visceral sensory neurons are located in (the) a. Lateral gray horn b. Posterior gray horn c. Gray commissures d. Anterior gray horn e. None of the above

d

The reticular formation a. Is only present on a single side of the brain, typically the right b. Is activated by stimulation from the thalamus of hypothalamus c. Is an interconnected network of brain stem nuclei centered in the metencephalon d. Is stimulated to produced heightened alertness and a generalized excitement e. both A and B

a

The region of a sarcomere where actin and myosin overlap is a. the A band b. the Z disc C. the big band d. the I band e. the H band

d

The rhomboid muscles are innervated by (the) a. Accessory nerve b. Long thoracic nerve c. Cervical nerves d. Dorsal scapular nerve e. None of the above

c

The rhomboideus major muscle is named according to a. relative size and location b. shape and location c. shape and relative size d. the direction of fibers

a

The right and left cerebral hemispheres are joined mainly by a. the corpus callosum b. the decussation c. pons d. association tracts e. thalamus

d

Which muscle is not in the anterior compartment of the forearm? a. flexor pollicus longus b. flexor carpi radialis c. palmaris longus d. supinator e. flexor digitorum profundus

c

The limbic system a. Induces an individual to go to sleep b. Maintains consciousness c. Establishes emotional states and related behavior drives d. Includes nuclei and tracts along the border between the diencephalon and metencephalon e. None of the above

a

The loss of muscle mass from disuse is called a. atrophy b. tetanus c. myopathy d. myasthenia gravis e. hypoplasia

c

Which nueroglia would be most responsible for helping to prevent pathogens and toxins from entering the brain from the blood? a. ependymal cells b. neurolemmocytes c. astrocytes d. oligodendrocytes

d

Which of the following are straplike muscles of uniform width with fascicles that all run in the same direction? a. pennate muscles b. rectilinear muscles c. fusiform muscles d. parallel muscles e. converment muscles

d

Which of the following features are common to the muscles of mastication? a. They share an oculomotor nerve innervation. b. They allow a person to smile. c. They are considered among the muscles of facial expression. d. They move the mandible at the temporomandibular joint. e. A and C are true.

The ____ of the stomach is/are responsible for the production of gastric juice a. Gastric glands b. Serosa c. Fundus d. Rugae

a

The actions involved in the mechanical processing of food include all but which of the following? a. Absorption b. Squashing foods with the tongue c. Tearing or crushing foods with the teeth d. Churning or swirling of the foods by the stomach e. No exceptions

a

The air passages beneath the conchae that create turbulence within the nasal cavity are a. Meatus b. Conchae c. Choanae d. Fossae e. Nares

a

The areolar connective tissue found immediately beneath the epithelium of the digestive tract is called a. Mucous b. Basement membrane c. Plica d. Lamina propria e. All of the above

a

The epithelium covering the inner surface of the eyelids and the outer surface of the eye is called the: a. Conjunctiva b. Lacrimal caruncle c. Cornea d. Lacrimal glands e. None of the above

a

The epithelium lining the lumen of the esophagus is a. Stratified squamous epithelium b. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium c. No epithelium, adventitia is present d. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium e. Simple squamous epithelium

a

The esophagus enters the abdominal cavity through the a. Esophageal hiatus b. Thoracoabdominal fissure c. Lesser omentum d. Greater omentum e. Cardiac region

a

What kind of tissue lines the oral cavity? a. Stratified squamous epithelium b. Simple squamous epithelium c. Simple columnar epithelium d. Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium e. Simple cuboidal epithelium

a

sebaceous glands

all hairs have sebaceous glands, antibacterial - creates sebum, waterproofs stratum corneum, absence in hair = brittle hair.

metopic suture

along fontal bone

portion of repiratory system that are capable of gas exchange

alveoli

A small sac of gland cells surrounding a space into which they secrete their product is called

an acinus

the connective tissue layer of the cornea is

avascular

proper connective tissue

average; dense and loose connective tissue

A certain part of the visual pathway regulates head and neck movements so that, in some circumstance, and individual can turn towards a visual stimulus even if they are blind. This is ____. a. The lateral geniculate nucleus b. The superior colliculus c. The suprachiasmatic nucleus d. The medial geniculate nucleus e. The occipital lobes of the brain

b

A near sighted person a. Can have his vision corrected by biconvex lenses b. May have an eyeball that is abnormally long c. Has an eyeball that is abnormally short d. Focuses the image behind the retina e. Sees objects in the same manner as a person suffering from astigmatism

b

A thick midline ridge in the thyroid cartilage that is sometimes referred to as the Adam's apple is technically named the a. Glottis b. Laryngeal prominence c. Cricoid extension d. Epiglottis e. Adams apple

b

A thin membrane that overs the surface of the lung called a. Parietal pleura b. Visceral pleura c. Visceral pneumothorax d. Parietal pulmonary membrane e. Visceral peritoneum

b

All receptors for ____ are confined to the head and are innervated by cranial nerves a. Exteroception b. The special senses c. Chemoreception d. Proprioception e. Somestheic senses

b

Antacid tablets (e.g. Tums, Rolaids) are used to help neutralize the acidity of gastric contents. What cells are responsible for this acidity? a. Rugae b. Parietal c. Mucus d. Chief

b

Bronchoconstriction brought on by various allergens is a ____ response. a. Visceral afferent b. Parasympathetic c. Somatic d. Sympathetic

b

Cells obtain energy primarily a. To increase the energy level of the cells b. Through aerobic metabolism c. Through gas exchange, gain of O2, and elimination of CO2 d. To assist in the movement of blood by decreasing its density by the addition of gases e. None of the above are ways or reasons cells contain energy

b

Changes in tension of the vocal chords is brought about by using muscles to move the a. Cuneiform cartilage b. Arytenoid cartilage c. Corniculate cartilages d. Cricoid cartilage e. Thyroid cartilage

b

Control of movements of the digestive tract is via the a. Hypoglossal nerve b. Myenteric plexus c. Submucosal plexus d. Sympathetic nervous system e. Control is different in various areas of the tract

b

Deep to the subcutaneous layer, the eyelids are supported by broad sheets of connective tissues, collectively called the: a. Palpebrae b. Tarsal plate c. Chalazion d. Medial canthus e. None of the above

b

Each rod a. Synapse on more than on bipolar cell b. Are very sensitive to low light levels c. Are located in the fovea, mostly d. Are used to "see" detail e. A and B only

b

Each tertiary bronchus supplies a region of a lung called a/an a. Lobe b. Bronchopulmonary segment c. Alveolar sac d. Lobule

b

Eye movements would be compromised by a. Damage to the accessory nerve b. Damage to the trochlear nerve c. Damage to the vagus nerve d. Damage to the vestibulocochlear nerve

b

In the brain, the: a. Optic chiasma is the region in which a single impression is obtained b. Occipital lobes contain the centers of vision c. Interpretation of visual image is a function of the optic chiasma d. Temporal fibers cross at the optic chiasma e. Parietal lobes contain the centers for vision

b

In the eye, the a. Cornea is in contact with the external surface of the lens b. Ciliary muscle permits the lens to focus on an object c. Rods and cones are able to move toward the source of light d. Crystalline lens is biconcave e. Anterior chamber contains the vitreous body

b

In the eye, the a. Crystalline lens is biconcave b. Ciliary muscle permits the lens to focus on an object c. Rods and cones are able to move toward the source of light d. Anterior chamber contains the vitreous body e. Cornea is in contact with the external surface of the lens

b

In the process of hearing, hair cells on the ____ are brushed by the ____; both of these structures are in the cochlear duct a. Oval window, round window b. Organ of corti, tectorial membrane c. Tympanic membrane; malleus, incus and tapes d. Vestibular membrane, basilar membrane e. None of the above

b

Intrinsic factor a. Protects the stomach lining from the effects of stomach acid b. Facilitates the absorption of vitamin B12 c. Activates pepsinogen d. Causes the release of stomach acid e. Increases gastric motility

b

Intrinsic factor a. Causes the release of stomach acid b. Facilitates the absorption of vitamin B12 c. Activates pepsinogen d. Protects the stomach lining form the effects of stomach acid e. Increases gastric motility

b

LASIK will a. Improve hearing b. Change of the shape of the cornea c. Change the shape of the retina d. Change the shape of the iris

b

Much of the filtration, warming, and humidification of the air that enters the respiratory system occurs in the a. Lungs b. Nasal passages c. Trachea d. Tertiary bronchi only e. Bronchi

b

Oblique musculature is only found in the ____ wall of the alimentary canal a. Colon b. Stomach c. Duodenum d. Ileum e. Rectum

b

Obstruction of the canal of Schlemm interferes with: a. The movement of endolymph b. The drainage of aqueous humor c. The flow of vitreous substance d. The drainage of tears e. Movement of CSF

b

Otolith stimulation of hair cells occurs in the a. Organ of corti b. Saccule and utricle c. Semicircular canals d. Crista ampullaris e. Cochlea

b

Passage of chyme from the stomach to the duodenum occurs when the a. Rugae relax b. Pyloric sphincter relaxes c. Ileocecal valve relaxes d. Cardiac sphincter relaxes Chyme passes through the hiatus

b

Peristalsis a. Is a condition wherein the lining of the digestive tract is irritated by the passage of rough, fibrous material b. Is waves of muscular contractions that move along the length of the digestive tract c. Only occurs in the esophagus d. Is a muscular movement pattern that occurs in regions of the digestive tract where smooth muscle fibers are not arranged in layers e. None of the above are true

b

Peristaltic contractions: a. Are of similar strength throughout the digestive tract b. Occur in the stomach, esophagus, small intestine, and large intestine c. Are primarily responsible for mixing the food with the digestive juices d. All of the above

b

Pleural fluid is secreted by: a. the parietal pleura only b. both the visceral and parietal pleurae c. the mediastinum d. the visceral pleura only e. the respiratory membrane

b

macrophages

big structure, big eating cell gets rid of infected cells, engulfs damaged cells and pathagens

Intercellular junctions

bind cells together

Eumelanian

black hair melanin

Fibroblasts

blast: gives rise to the product in front of - gives rise to fibers (stellate)(star-like) - secretes hyalouranan- increase viscosity makes thicker fluid

pheomelanin

blonde (white) hair melanin

damage or removal of parts of the mesentery interfere with normal function of the small intestine by

blood and nerve supply would suffer

The central canal of an osteon contains

blood vessels and nerves

Approaching the spinal cord from the anterior surface during surgery would involve cutting through the

body

bone repair

bone bleeds blood clots hematoma attracts white blood cells and fibroblasts. will repair fiber and osteoblasts will repair bone. only have to worry about it setting correctly

osteocytes

bone cells embedded in inorganic and organic matrix, maintain bone

epiphysis

bone ends - also articular surface

Aplastic anemia results from pathological changes in the ___ of an afflicted individual

bone marrow

aplastic anemia

bone marrow stops making blood cells leading to anemia

parasympathetic stimulation of the terminal bronchioles causes

bronchoconstriction

sympathetic stimulation of the terminal bronchioles causes

bronchodilation

Site fo contact digestion

brush border of the small intestine

A tendon sheath is a modified

bursa

A portal triad in the liver consists of branches of the: a. Hepatic artery, central vein, and hepatic vein b. Common bile duct, and right and left hepatic ducts c. Hepatic vein, hepatic artery, and bile duct d. Hepatic portal vein, hepatic vein, and hepatic artery

c

All of these are components of the choroid layer except: A) the iris B) the ciliary body C) ora serrata D) the pupil E) pupillary constrictor muscles

c

Aqueous humor is produced by a. The vitreous humor b. The lacrimal gland c. The ciliary body d. The ora serrata e. None of these structures

c

As a molecule of oxygen passes from alveolar air into the blood it passes through the layers of the alveolar capillary membrane in what order? 1) epithelial basement membrane 2) capillary basement membrane 3) alveolar epithelial wall 4) capillary endothelial wall a. 1,3,2,4 b. 3,1,4,2 c. 3,1,2,4 d. 4,3,2,1

c

Bile secreted from the gallbladder and pancreatic juice secreted from the pancreas center which portion of the GI tract? a. Cecum b. Jejunum c. Duodenum d. Ileum

c

Different types of photoreceptors in the eye are the: a. Bipolar and horizontal cells b. Ganglion and amacrine cells c. Rod cells and cone cells d. Fovea centralis and macula lutea e. 1 and 2 from above are types of photoreceptors in the eye

c

Diverticulosis is a disease of the a. Small intestine b. Alveoli c. Large intestine d. Interpleural space e. Trachea

c

During embryonic development, what structure does the optic stalk develop into? a. The lens b. The retina c. The optic nerve d. The ganglion cells e. The sclera

c

Each hepatic lobule consists of plate of epithelial cells radially arranged around a blood vessel called the ____. a. Sinusoid b. Hepatic transport vessel c. Central vein d. Hepatic vein e. Hepatic portal vein

c

Histologically, the epithelium of the alveoli includes which of the following structures? 1) cornified epithelial cells 2) simple squamous epithelium, type 1 cells 3) surfactant, type 2 cells 4) bony trabeculae 5) roaming macrophages a. All of the above b. None of the above c. 2,3,5 d. 1,4,5 e. 1,3,5

c

The layer of connective tissue underlying the epithelium of the mucosa of the GI tract is called the ____. a. Peritoneum b. Adventitia c. Lamina propria d. Submucosa

c

The most important function of the large intestine is: a. Digestion of incompletely digested foods b. Removal of toxic substances c. Absorption of water and electrolytes d. All of the above are equally important e. Secretion of enzymes

c

The peritoneal fold situated as a "fatty apron" anterior to the small intestine is the ____. a. Lesser omentum b. Mesentery c. Greater omentum d. Falciform ligament

c

The posterior cavity of the eye contains a. Tears b. Aqueous humor c. Vitreous humor d. Lacrimal gland secretions e. Lysozyme

c

The respiratory system functions include all of the following except: a. Providing an extensive area for gas exchange between the air and the circulating blood b. Moving air to and from lung exchange surfaces c. Activating the immune system by collecting and concentrating pathogens that enter the lungs d. Protecting the respiratory surface from dehydration e. Sound production

c

The semicircular canals include which of the following? a. Dorsal and ventral b. Lateral, middle, and medial c. Anterior, posterior, lateral d. Spiral, upright, and reverse e. None of the above

c

The type of strong fibrous connective tissue which attaches bones to bones at joints is called a

ligament

Structures that are most responsible for holding bones together at a synovial joint are:

ligaments

Dense regular connective tissue

ligaments, aponeuroses, elastic tissue, tendons

epithelium

lines internal cavities and external surfaces, forms glands and their ducts

fluid CT

liquidy in nature, blood and lymph

Apocrine sweat gland

located in axilla, groin, areola, - activated during puberty - open into hair follicle - emotional stress causes secretion of pheromones and sweat - mammory glands are specialized apocrine glands - polymastia

A synovial membrane contains:

loose connective tissue

Wandering cells

lymphocytes, mast cells, microphages - only present when there is an infection

osteoclasts

macrophages, have different origin than other bone cells, responsible for remodeling bone using HCL, multinuclei cell, periphry of bone

Two types of sweat glands in the skin are

merocrine and apocrine

small intestine is suspended from the dorsal body wall by the

mesentery proper

mesentary that suspends some of the large intestine is

mesocolon

Due to persistent exposure to cigarette smoke the epithelia of the trachea changed from pseudo stratified ciliated squamous epithelium to stratified squamous epithelium. This transition is identified as

metaplasia

holocrine

milk production, cell fragments break off when secreted

white/gray hair

mixture of air replacing pigments

channels of the cochlea are wrapped around the

modiolus

proprotionally cones are found

most densely at the middle of the retina

The wet membrane that covers cavities open to the external of the body is called

mucous membrane

Goblet cells are responsible for secreting what?

mucus

Goblet cells are responsible to secreting

mucus

The four major families of tissues that make up the human body are

muscular, nervous, epithelial, connective

muscular layer nearest the lumen

muscularis mucosae

between the layer of circular and longitudinal muscle in the muscularis externa is

myenteric plexus

The major matrix producing cells in bone are called

osteoblasts

A reduction in bone mineral density most commonly associated with post-menopausal women is known as

osteoporosis

elastic cartilage

outer ear, vocal cords

osteoblasts

outside of osteons, bone forming cells - periphreal of bone, transition to osteocytes

not accessory structure of eye

palpebrae

Loose connective tissue does NOT have ________.

parallel, packed fibers

salivary amylase is primarily secreted by the

parotid salivary gland

muscles involved with inspiration

pectoralis minor external intercostals sternocleidomastoid diaphragm

saccule and utricle function

perceive static equilibrium

Which of the following is not a characteristic of spongy bone tissue?

perforating (Volkmann's) canals

Functions of epithelium

protection- skin secretion- glands absorption- intestines excretion- kidney (cuboidal epithelium associated with kidney duct) Synthesis- vitamin D

IJ: Desmosomes

protein binding with inner cytoskeleton connected between adjacent cells - prevents tearing

Cilia are most likely to be seen on which of the following epithelium

pseudostratified columnar

passage of chyme from stomach to duodenum occurs when

pyloric sphincter relaxes

region of the stomach positioned nearer to the liver

pylrus

Which feature goes with the elbow joint?

radial annular ligament

canal of schlem

reabsorbs aqueous humor

Carotene

red hair melanin mixed with pheomelanin and eumelanian

LCT: Reticular connective tissue

reticular fibers only, bone marrow, spleen, need special stain

connective tissue supporting

ridigity; bone(calcium salts) and cartilage (chondrin).

Epithelial tissue can variously be described as being all of these except

rounded

Glaucoma is a condition which may occur due to the malfunction of the

scleral venous sinus

The lumbar and cervical curves of the vertebral column are called

secondary curvatures

chief cell

secretes pepsinogen

damage to the fovea of the eye interferes with the ability to

see color

The membrane covering the outer surface of the heart is a ___ membrane

serous

The membrane covering the outer surface of the heart is a _______ membrane.

serous

Bone growth rates increase dramatically after puberty because

sex hormones increase osteoblast bone deposition rates

diaphysis

shaft

Mesenteries

sheets of serous membrane suspend portions of the digestive tract within the peritoneal cavity double sheets of peritoneal membrane provide an access route to digest structures for nerves, lymphatics and blood vessels

Which type of epithelium is present where gas exchange is necessary?

simply squamous epithelium

microphages

small eaters. fight infection.

Aspect of hearing that would be lost if the auditory cortex is damaged

sound interpretation and pattern recognition

purpose of sinuses

sound quality, lightening skull, all drain into nasal cavity,

In which bone is the foramen ovale found?

sphenoid bone

A fracture of a bone that is the result of a twisting of the bone is called a

spiral fracture

Concerning diarthroses, one may speculate that as mobility increases, ___ decreases.

stability

tertiary bronchi

still contains cartilage

oxytocin

stimulates milk production

cholecystokinin

stimulates secretion by the liver and increase of pancreatic juice

mesenchyme

stop the bone from growing wide, so it only grows long

The shapes of epithelial cells include all of the following except

stratified

What kind of tissue lines the oral cavity

stratified squamous epithelium

Shedding of dead skin cells (desquamation) occurs from the

stratum corneum

The greatest amount of keratin is found where:

stratum corneum

collagenous fibers

strong, flexible -blue, tensile strength, resist breaking - gives flexibility to bone, capsules of joints, tendons, ligament,

Mucous gland

sublingual salivary gland; below tongue; mostly mucus.

salivary gland whole ducts open on either side of the lingual frenulum

submandibular gland

mixed gland

submandibular salivary gland. a mixture of mucus and saliva.

which blood vessel supplies the most blood to the small intestine

superior mesenteric artery

A fibrous joint may be a:

suture, gomphosis, syndesmosis

A cartilagenous joint that does not permit movement is a

synchondrosis

transdermal medicine

take chemical, put on surface, we want it to move though the dermis into the hypodermis - ex. scopolamine, estrogen patches, nicotine

The rotator cuff includes tendons of all of the following muscles except

the biceps brachii

interior surface of stomach is protected against acids and enzymes by

the carpet of mucus secreted by the columnar epithelium lining

Ribs 1-10 articulate with the bodies of the thoracic vertebrae and the ______________.

transverse processes of the thoracic vertebrae

Parasympathetic innervation of the digestive tract

vagus nerve

The part of the vertebra that transfers weight along the long axis of the vertebral column is the ____________.

vertebral body

Bones have a vascular supply that is

very extensive, including many arteries and veins branching throughout the bone

false vocal cords are called

vestibular folds

thin membrane that covers the surface of the lung

visceral pleura

intrinsic factor facilitates the absorption of

vitamin B12

ceruminous glands

wax glands of the external ear canal (apocrine)

In the skeletal system, compact bone is located

where bones are most heavily stressed

articular surface

where is connects to the other bone/body

wormian bones

where sagittal suture and lambdoidal suture come together. more than normal # ossification centers (os incae)

Image falls further away from the fovea centralis on the retina

your ability to detect color and detail decreases

Which feature goes with the coxal joint?

zona orbicularis

The blind spot in each visual field is a region in which a. There are cone cells but no rod cells b. Bipolar cells block light from reaching the rods and cones c. The iris casts a shadow on part of the retina d. The optic nerve leaves the eye e. There are rod cells but no cone cells

d

The body labyrinth, a shell of dense bone that surrounds and protects the membranous labyrinth can be subdivided into: a. No subdivisions; it is all a single structure b. The perilymph, endolymph, saccule and utricle c. Cochlear duct and pharyngotympanic tube d. Vestibule, semicircular canals and the cochlea e. None of the above

d

The bulbar conjunctiva is found a. Lining the choroid layer b. Lining the eyeball anteriorly c. Lining the eyelid d. Lining the eyeball anterior except over the cornea e. Lining the posterior 5/6th of the eye

d

The canal of Schlemm a. Reabsorbs vitreous humor b. Causes blindness c. Is the blind sot d. Reabsorbs aqueous humor e. Produces aqueous humor

d

The cardiac notch is a feature of the: a. Right lung b. Heart c. Diaphragm d. Left lung

d

The chamber posterior to the space between uvula and base of the tongue is the a. Nasopharynx b. Oral cavity c. Larynx d. Oropharynx e. None of the above

d

The features of a gomphosis help actively anchor a tooth to its socket a. Pulp and dentine b. The periodontal ligament c. Enamel and dentine d. The periodontal ligament and the cementum e. Cementum

d

The functions of the esophagus include: a. Mixing of food and secretions b. Absorption of H2O and small nutrients c. Secretion of enzymes d. None of the above

d

The histology of this salivary gland shows the presence of approximately equal amounts of serous and mucous cells. It is the a. Palatine gland b. Sublingual gland c. Submaxillary gland d. Submandibular gland e. Parotid gland

d

The ileum joins the colon at the a. Descending colon b. Rectum c. Sigmoid colon d. Cecum e. Vermiform appendix

d

The iris adjusts to lower levels of ambient light by a. Increasing its production of rhodopsin b. Reversing the bleaching reaction c. Contracting circular muscles d. Contracting radial muscles e. The iris cannot adjust to changes in ambient light levels

d

The kinocilia and stereocilia of the hair cells in the semicircular ducts are embedded in a gelatinous structure called the a. Ampulla b. Organ of corti c. Crista d. Cupula e. None of the above

d

The larynx is composed of _____ cartilages a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 9 e. 12

d

Which of the following is NOT associated with the duodenum? a. Opening for the common bile duct as the Hepatopancreatic ampulla b. Presence of many microvilli and villi c. Encloses head of the pancreas d. Lies entirely within the peritoneal cavity e. Shortest portion of the small intestine

d

Which of the following is NOT part of the esophageal wall? a. Esophageal glands b. Muscularis externa c. Mucosa d. Serosa e. Submucosa

d

The convexity of the lens is increased for near vision by contraction of which muscle? a. Superior oblique b. Lateral rectus c. Dilatory d. Medial rectus e. Ciliary

e

The energy of sound waves first becomes translated into neural impulses in the a. Tympanum b. Semicircular canals c. Ampulla d. Pinnae (auricle) e. Cochlea

e

The external ear includes all the following except the a. Tympanic membrane b. External auditory canal c. Ceruminous glands d. Pinna e. Pharyngotympanic tube

e

The lining of the stomach a. Is covered by thick, viscous mucus b. Is constantly replaced c. Is composed of simple columnar cells d. Has folds called rugae e. Has all of the attributes above

e

The mucous membrane or mucosa of the respiratory system a. Consists of respiratory epithelial cells overlying a layer of loose connective tissue, the lamina propria b. Contains an epithelium that differs from that of the larynx c. Is present as the lining of the trachea d. Surrounds a thick layer of connective tissue, the submucosa e. Has the attributes of A and C

e

The only cells that can generate action potentials are a. Rods and cone b. Rods c. Amacrine cells d. Cones e. Ganglion cells

e

The posterior limit of the nasal cavity is/are a. The conchae b. The nasal septum c. The vestibule d. The fossae e. The choanae

e

The release of bile into the duodenum is controlled by a. The gastroesophageal sphincter b. GIP c. Ptyalin d. Pepsin e. Increases in CCK and secretin

e

The ridge found at the bifurcation of the trachea is called the a. Hilum b. Extra-pulmonary ridge c. Root of the lung d. Trachealis e. Carina

e

production of acid and enzymes by the gastric mucosa can be directly controlled by

enteroendocrine cells of the gastric mucosa

Human hair is derived from

epithelial cells

Epidermis

epithelial tissues, keratinized squamous epithelium make of keratinocytes (not keratin yet, but will develop and kill cell), melanocytes, merkel cells, langerhans cells,

Which bones form the nasal septum?

ethmoid and vomer bones

Which of the following bones contain the cribiform foramina?

ethmoid bone

Glands that release their product via ducts rather than directly into the bloodstream are

exocrine

Serous gland

exocrine gland; parotid salivary gland; anterior to ear.

glassy membrane

external and dermal root sheath. is the basement membrane of the hair

endochondral

facial continues the way of intramembranous bone development but with chondrin and then chondrin turns into osteocytes and grows bone. this starts at the diaphysis.

the otolith is located in the ___ of the ____-

masculae, utricle and saccule

Which of the following lists includes only facial bones?

maxillae, palatines, mandible, zygomatics, lacrimals

the air passages beneath the conchae that create turbulence within the nasal cavity

meatuses

Which feature goes with the knee joint?

medial and lateral menisci

melanocytes

melanin production, epidermis

Hair turns gray or white as people age because

melanocytes die out

The only type of a cell seen in a fibroblast is a

fibroblast

The only type of cell seen in a tendon is

fibroblasts

Fixed cells

fibroblasts, macrophages, adipocytes, undifferentiated cells, melanocytes

intersticial osteons

fill gaps between osteons

sebaceous ciliary glands

found at base of the follicles of the eyelashes

floor

frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, occipital

roof and walls

frontal, temporal, parietal, occipital

first to receive a light ray as it travels through the retina

ganglion cell

only cells that can generate action potentials

ganglion cells

Parietal cells chief cells G cells are located in the

gastric glands

osteoprogenitor cells

give rise to osteoblasts, cannot produce bone

Cytogenic

gives rise to germ cells

ciliary and meiobomian

glands of the eyelid (holocrine)

elevated pressure within the eyeball due to inadequate reabsorption of aqueous humor

glaucoma

the scleral venous sinus is blocked. The most likely consequence will be

glaucoma

Which feature goes with the humeroscapular joint?

glenoid labrum

basic functions of the liver

glucose metabolism production of bile production of cholesterol

unicellular glands

goblet cells in respiratory epithelium enteroendocrine cells in digestive system

the peridontal ligament is part of a strong joint known as

gomphosis

The unstructured portion of the matrix that fills the space between cells in connective tissue is called the ______.

ground substance

appositional growth

growth around blood vessels and creates a new osteon. adds to this remodeling

Apocrine sweat glands are, for the most part, associated with

hair follicles in the axilla, groin, around the nipples

Sebaceous glands are often associated with

hairs

Hemidesmosomes

half a desmosome located at the basement membrane.

a retroperitoneal structure

has only its anterior surface covered by peritoneum

Exocrine glands

have ducts. look up structure

Functions of the respiratory system

helps to expel abdominal contents during defecation and childbirth allows exchange of oxygen and CO2 between blood and air it permits vocalizations it contributes to maintenance of pH balance

red bone marrow / myeloid tissue

hemopoietic tissue, defend bodies and carry oxygen

most nutrients absorbed from digestion pass directly into the liver via

hepatic portal vein

Marfan syndrom

hereditary defect in individuals elastin, lead to weakness in heart valves and blood vessels

medullary cavity

hollowish space in long bone where blood vessels, bone marrow reside. provides nutrients and support

Which best describes the palatine bone

horizontal plate forms the posterior portion of the hard palate

Endochondral ossification begins with

hyaline cartilage

articular cartilage

hyaline cartilage in joints. reduces friction and releases synovial fluid

not true of diaphragm

in the relaxed state, the diaphragm is a flat, horizontal sheet

the release of bile into the duodenum is controlled by

increases in CCK and secretin

Lamellated (Pacinian) corpuscles and Meissner's corpuscles are structures associated with

informing the brain about the position of body joints

The areas between neighboring osteons contain

interstitial lamellae

Fibrocartilage

intervertebral discs, pubic symphasis

stem cells of the small intestine are located

intestinal crypts

The word that best describes the position of the gallbladder relative to the ascending colon is

ipsilateral

A transverse plane

is also known as a horizontal plane or cross-sectional plane

The joint between the parietal and frontal bones ___.

is classified functionally as a synarthrosis

Pharynx

is shared by the digestive and respiratory systems

Which of the following statements about the hypodermis is correct?

it consists of loose connective tissue and adipocytes

uremic frost

kidney failure, salt is excreted onto skin

scurvy

lack of vitamin C needed for two amino acids, proline and lysine, needed for collagen. teeth fall out, sailors, often called limees.

adipocytes

large swollen fat cells

Connective tissue

largest group of tissues in the body; located below the basement membrane, never exposed.

visual information from the retinas first arrives for processing at the

lateral geniculate nuclei

cardiac notch is a feature of

left lung

inner and outer hair cells are components of the

organ of corti

Which skull bone contains the mandibular fossa, mastoid process, styloid process, and zygomatic process?

Temporal

What pair of skull bones contribute to the only freely movable joint of the head?

Temporal and mandible

All of the following are part of the rotator cuff except the

Teres major

c

The H-shaped mass in the center of the spinal cord is mostly a. Black matter b. White matter c. Gray matter d. Axons e. None of the above

d

The _____ band becomes _____ when the sarcomere contracts a. H, larger b. A, smaller c. I, larger d. I, smaller e. A, larger

b

The _____ muscle covers most of the surface area of the upper back a. Infraspinatus b. Trapezius c. Rhomboid d. Teres major e. None of the above

c

The ___________ protein has direct contact with actin in a muscle in the resting state, while the ____________ protein has direct contact with actin in a muscle in the contracting state a. titin; tropomyosin b. myosin; troponin c. tropomyosin; myosin d. troponin; myomesin

c

The anterior gray horns of the spinal cord contain a. myelin b. dorsal roots c. motor neurons d. interneurons e. dorsal root ganglia

d

The corpus callosum is composed of a. ascending fibers b. long association fibers c. short association fibers d. commissural fibers e. projection fibers

c

The cortical surface of the cerebral hemispheres forms a series of elevated ridges called a. Nuclei b. Lobes c. Gyri d. Sulci e. None of the above

b

The deepest muscle of the abdominal wall is a. latissimus dorsi b. transversus abdominus c. the rectus abdomens d. erector spinae e. internal oblique

Basement membrane

composed of collagen, adhesive glycoproteins and heparan sulphate - anchors epithelium - selectively permeable

An exocrine gland whose duct branches is ___

compound

layer of dense connective tissue that covers all the eyeball except the corea

conjuctiva

Dermis

connective tissues, majority of skin, dense irregular connective tissue.

canaliculi

connects osteocytes and functions to diffuse nutrition to the osteocytes

papillary layer

contain capillary loops (provides nutrients) and sensory receptors - where the papillary ridges are, - made of areolar connective tissue - contains meisner's corpuscles - light touch

lesser omentum

contains and forms a pathway for the hepatic portal vein and its tributaries

compact bone

contains osteons composed of concentric lamellae

the iris adjusts to lower levels of ambient light by

contracting radial muscles

LASIK typically changes the structure of

cornea

The depression on the distal end of the anterior humerus is the

coronoid fossa

Hyaline cartilage

costal cartilage, nose

Paired cartilages

cueiform coriculte arytenoid

We sense rotary movements of the head when the endolumph pushes on gelatinous cap called the

cupula

The outermost layer of the hair shaft if the

cuticle

Hair

cuticle(outermost), cortex, medulla(innermost) -hair made of stratified squamous - all located in the subcutaneous layer

osteons

cylinders of bone

1. The presence of submucosal mucous glands in this area would indicate that it is the a. Stomach b. Large intestine c. Ileum d. Duodenum e. The appendix

d

A layer of dense connective tissue that covers all of the eyeball except the cornea is called a. Conjunctiva b. Uvea c. Choroid d. Sclera

d

A villus consists of a. Single layer of epithelial cells b. A capillary network c. A lacteal d. All of the above e. B and C only

d

Accommodation would occur when a. The zonular fibers become taut b. Objects have further away from the eye c. The lateral rectus muscle contracts d. The muscles of the ciliary body contract

d

A touch receptor has a rather large receptive field a. It is located on the back of an individual b. It is located on the posterior surface of the upper arm c. It is not very easy to localize a stimulus using this receptor d. The receptor is located on the tongue e. All except D

e

Accommodation is the a. Ability to see distant objects clearly b. Ability to see near objects clearly c. Helping out someone in trouble d. Result of the presence of a concave lens e. Change in the shape of the lens when looking at an object that is less than 20 feet away

e

At normal daylight intensities, the ____ cells are nonfunctional. a. Amacrine b. Bipolar c. Mitral d. Cone e. Rod

e

Blood supply to the large intestine is from the a. Celiac trunk b. The inferior mesenteric artery c. The superior mesenteric arteries d. A,B, & C e. A and B

e

Endolymph has a. Relatively high potassium levels b. Low sodium levels c. The same ions as extracellular fluid anywhere else in the body d. The same ions as CSF e. A and B

e

Examples of receptors that are always active are a. Phasic receptors b. Tonic receptors c. Photoreceptors d. Tactile receptors e. B & C

e

Following is a list of some of the tissue layers of the digestive tract. Which answer has them in correct order form lumen to external surface? A) serosa B) muscularis mucosae C) muscularis externa D) submucosa E) lamina propria a. E,b,d,a,c b. E,c,b,a,d c. E,d,c,b,a d. E,d,a,b,c e. E,b,d,c,a

e

Hemidecussation of the optic axons takes place at the a. Optic cupula b. Retina c. Visual cortex d. Visual radiation e. Optic chiasma

e

How many deciduous teeth does a person normally have? a. 40 b. 22 c. 32 d. 10 e. 20

e

If the aqueous humor fails to drain freely into the canal of Schlemm this situation could lead to a. Hypermetropia b. Astigmatism c. Presbyopia d. Detachment of the retina e. Glaucoma

e

Middle ear infections are carried into the middle ear cavity through a. The tympanic membrane b. The external acoustic meatus c. Nasolacrimal duct d. The antrum e. The auditory tube

e

Most of the tooth is composed a. Pulp b. Cementum c. Periodontal ligaments d. Enamel e. Dentin

e

Organs of the respiratory system do not include the: a. Nose b. Nasal cavity c. Cranial sinuses d. Pharynx e. No exceptions; all of the above are included

e

Our ability to localize a stimulus depends upon a. The type of stimulus b. The intelligence of the individual c. The intensity of the stimulus d. The size of the sensory structure e. The size of the receptive filed of the receptor

e

Parietal cells, chief cells, and G cells are located in (the) a. Rugae b. Gastric pits c. Villi d. Small intestine e. Gastric glands

e

Pulmonary surfactant is produced by a. S cells b. Goblet cells c. Type 1 alveolar cells d. Alveolar macrophages e. Type 2 alveolar cells

e

Select the best description for the lacrimal glands: a. In connective tissue underneath the olfactory epithelium b. At the base of the follicles of the eyelashes c. Near the external opening of the external auditory canal d. Embedded in tarsal plate of eyelid e. Superior and lateral to the eyeball

e

Sensations coming from the general sensory receptors ultimately arrive at a. The medulla oblongata b. The corticospinal tract c. Specific sensory sites located in all the lobes of the brain d. The post-central gyrus e. The pre-central gyrus

e

Sound produced by adult men is lower in pitch than that produced by women because a. Men have larger lung volumes than women b. The larynx in more vertical in men c. The glottis is wider in men d. The vocal folds are thinner and shorter in men e. The vocal folds are thicker and longer in men

e

Sphincters located at the beginning and the end of the small intestine are, respectively a. Lieberkuhn's and Brunner's sphincters b. The upper and lower intestinal sphincters c. There are no anatomical sphincters at these locations d. The gastric and the colonic sphincters e. The pyloric sphincter and the ileocecal valve

e

The area of most acute and detailed vision where the cones are concentrated for daytime visualization, is the a. Stratum optimum b. Optic papilla c. Pupil d. Ciliary body e. Macula lutea

e

The auditory tube connects the ____ to the _____. a. Oval window, round window b. Nasopharynx, oropharynx c. Middle ear cavity, internal ear d. Middle ear cavity, laryngopharynx e. Middle ear cavity, nasopharynx

e

The cochlear duct is filled with ____ and the scala vestibuli is filled with ____ a. Perilymph; endolymph b. CSF, perilymph c. Perilymph, perilymph d. Endolymph, endolymph e. Endolymph, perilymph

e

spongy bone

(cancellous, trabecular) no haversian canals, nerves and blood vessels run randomly through the loose meshwork of bone - the epiphyses of long bones are cancellous and the inner bony lining of the medullary cavity

Volkman's canal

(communicating or perforating) connect adjacent osteons and carry blood vessels

osteonic canal

(haversian canal) blood vessels and nerves are here

red bone marrow

(hemopoietic) responsible for generating red blood cells / maintain concentration of blood cells in tissue

Eccrine sweat gland

(merocrine) - all over body, watery, thermoregulatory, antibacterial (lysozyme) - open directly at the skins surface

Intercellular junction: tight junction

(zonula occludens) cell membrane of adjacent cells bind together here.

A new miracle skin cream recently hit the beauty counters which is suppose to stimulate collagen production. Which cells is it supposedly stimulating?

Fibroblast

Which of these cells is found in the dermis?

Fibroblast

The pectoral girdle consists of: 1) scapula and clavicle 2) scapula and humerus 3) humerus, radius, ulna, carpal, and hand bones 4) sternum and ribs 5) none of the above

1) scapula and clavicle

A tissue viewed under the microscope displays cells in little holes, densely packed fibers and no blood vessels. This describes:

Fibrocartilage

e

A woman who is in labor during childbirth might be given anesthesia in what area? a. Lumbar cistern b. Lumbar enlargement c. Subarachnoid space d. Cervical enlargement e. Epidural space

d

All of these are major nerves of the arm EXCEPT a. Median b. Ulnar c. Musculocutaneous d. Cutaneous e. Radial

Fibrous connective tissue firmly holds the articular surfaces of bones together in:

Fibrous joints

dermis

- elastic reticular and collagenous fibers - Blood vessels, lymph, nerves, glands, sensory structures. - papillary layer - reticular layer

hairfollicle: epithelial

- internal root sheath and external root sheath

stratum corneum

- no nucleus - keratinization complete - 15-30 layers of dead cells - stratified squamous keratinized epithelial cells, there are transitions where it will not be keratinized ******you can find melanin in keratinocytes

stratum lucidum

- only in thick skin- palms and soles - flattened cells filled with eleidin (keratin precussor)

stratum granulosum

- skin appears more granular - presence of keratohyalin and keratin granules in the cytoplasm- the granules are sharp, breaking the nucleus and killing the cell.

___ connective tissue is usually found under epithelia. It contains both elastic and collagen fibers and a large amount of ground substance.

Areolar

Which suffix implies "growth" or "formation"

-blast

Stratum basale

-mitosis- pushes up and gradually goes to surface-28days -nutrition for mitosis from the dermis -contains keratinocytes, melanocytes, merkel cells (receptor) -attached to basal lamina of the basement membrane - binds the epidermis, but only in this layer. other layers use desmosomes.

follical

-organ which gives rise to hair. - internal epithelial root sheath, innermost structure is the hair shaft

tension lines

-orientation of fibers, helps during surgery - c-section- cut horizontally so less scar and not so much connective tissue damage

Which of the following statements about the dermis are true? 1) The two regions include the superficial papillary regions and the deeper reticular region 2) It contains fibroblasts, macrophages, and keratinocytes. 3) Dermal papillae, which project superficially into the epidermis, commonly contain capillaries and corpuscles of touch (Meissner corpuscles).

1 and 3

The basic functional unit of mature compact bone is the: 1) Haversian system 2) canaliculus 3) lamella 4) osteoclast 5) Haversian canal

1) Haversian system

A movement away from the longitudinal axis of the body in the frontal plane is: 1) abduction 2) flexion 3) extension 4) rotation 5) gliding

1) abduction

Which of the following is true regarding the glenohumeral joint? 1) it permits the greatest range of movement of any joint in the body 2) it is one of the least frequently dislocated joints in the body 3) it is primarily a hinge joint 4) it has the greatest stability of any joint in the body 5) none of the above are true

1) it permits the greatest range of movement of any joint in the body

Functions of sebum include: 1) lubrication of the skin and preventing the growth of bacteria on it 2) cooling of the skin 3) sensing pressure on the surface of the skin 4) promotion of production of new skin cells

1) lubrication of the skin and preventing the growth of bacteria on it

The cell type of which the epidermis is composed is: 1) stratified squamous epithelium 2) cuboidal epithelium 3) simple squamous epithelium 4) transitional epithelium 5) none of the above

1) stratified squamous epithelium

A joint which does not permit movement is a(n): 1) synarthrosis 2) hinge joint 3) synovial joint 4) diarthrosis 5) amphiarthrosis

1) synarthrosis

A shoulder dislocation results in damage to which structures? 1) the glenohumeral joint 2) the interclavicular joint 3) the clavicosternal joint 4) the acromioclavicular joint 5) none of the above

1) the glenohumeral joint

Put the following in correct order for endochondral ossification 1) Mesenchymal cells of the embryo develop into cartilage-producing cells 2) The periosteum (formerly perichondrium) begins to produce a thin layer of compact bone 3) A hyaline cartilage model of the future bone is formed 4) Cartilage in the midregion of the model becomes calcified 5) Spongy bone tissue develops at the primary ossification center 6) Secondary ossification centers produce spongy bone tissue of the epiphyses 7) Medullary cavity is formed

1,3,4,2,5,7,6

morphology of hair

1. an infolding of epidermal cells into dermis 2. papilla at the deep end of the follicle; receive nutrients from capillary loops 3. cells surrounding the papilla (matrix) are mitotically active 4. cells undergo keratinization as they are pushed up and out 5. hair root - hair bulb to point where internal organization of hair is complete 6. hair shaft - complete hair through part which protrudes outside 7. arrector pili muscle

three types of skin

1. normal-thin and hairy 2. thick and hairless- glabrous: palms and soles-have friction ridges 3. thin and hairless- transition zones: lips, glanspenis, la labia minora, glansclitorus

intramembranous bone development

1. osteoblast 2. aggregate and start depositing collagenous fibers 3. interdisposing bony tissue (minerals) between fibers 4. osteoblasts become osteoclasts

periosteum

1. outer fiberous layer attachment of muscle, limiting membrane from too much bone growth 2. inner osterogenic (osteoclasts and osteoblasts) sharpey's fibers attach periosteum to bone and creates bone essentially

function of CT

1. protection- cranium,ribs, sternum 2. movement- bones working with muscles 3. support- bones and cartilage 4. binding of organs - tendons, ligaments, fat, fibrous tissue 5. storage of energy - adipocytes 6. immune protection - under skin and mucous membranes 7. heat production - brown fat in infants (located inbetween scapuli, more mitochondia that produce heat. 8. transportation of nutrients, waste, hormones, blood cells, --blood and lymph

function of the skin

1. resistance to trauma and infection 2. water retention- not in or out 3. vitamin D synthesis-UV radiation 4. Sensation- body position, bodily limits, 5. thermoregulation- sweating 6. nonverbal communication- facial expressions

endosteum

1. simple squamous epithelial cells 2. lines the medullary cavity 3. contains osteoclasts and osteoblasts

Layers of the skin

1. stratum basale 2. stratum spinosum 3. stratum granulosum 4. stratum lucidum 5. stratum corneum

Cells in the deepest layer of the epidermis divide to produce all other epidermal cells. What is the order, from deepest to most superficial, the cells pass through the layers? (1-5)

1. stratum basale 2. stratum spinosum 3. stratum granulosum 4. stratum lucidum (only in palms and soles) 5. stratum corneum

Bone function

1. support 2. lipid and mineral storage (lipid=marrow) yellow bone marrow- storing fats; calcium salts make up bone and stores minerals 3. protection - red bone marrow 4. blood cell formation 5. movement and leverage - muscle moves bone 6. electrolyte and acid-base balance - maintenance.

Two ways in which bones may form are: 1) synovial development and osteoporosis 2) intramembranous and endochondral formation 3) trabecular and endochondral formation 4) synovial and symphyseal formation 5) none of the above

2) intramembranous and endochondral formation

Which type of vertebra has the best structure for weight bearing and transference? 1) coccygeal 2) lumbar 3) thoracic 4) cervical 5) none of the above

2) lumbar

The number of phalanges in one hand is:

14

face

14 bones

The structure of a hair from the starting point of growth within the dermis in correct order toward the outside of the skin is: 1) cortex, medulla, shaft 2) bulb, root, shaft 3) follicle, bulb, cuticle, and cortex 4) hard keratin, bulb, root 5) none of the above

2) bulb, root, shaft

The outermost layer of a hair shaft is the: 1) cortex 2) cuticle 3) medulla 4) soft keratin 5) hard keratin

2) cuticle

The physical mechanism that is responsible for blushing is: 1) cyanosis 2) dilation of superficial blood vessels carrying highly oxygenated blood 3) an increased amount of melanin 4) decreased amounts of carotene 5) none of the above

2) dilation of superficial blood vessels carrying highly oxygenated blood

Hormones, such as oxytocin and sex steroids, are examples of what type of secretion? 1) exocrine 2) endocrine 3) holocrine 4) merocrine 5) apocrine

2) endocrine

Primary tissue types exclude which of the following? 1) epithelial tissue 2) germinative tissue 3) connective tissue 4) muscle tissue 5) nervous tissue

2) germinative tissue

Bones are classified according to their: 1) length to breadth ratios 2) individual shapes 3) proportions of compact to spongy bone 4) developmental history 5) none of the above

2) individual shapes

undifferentiated mesenchymal cells

3 layers: ectoderm, nesoderm, endoderm - stem cells, can turn into any type of cell

Which of the following events do not occur in the process of intramembranous ossification? 1) differentiation of osteoblasts within a mesenchymal or fibrous connective tissue 2) osteoblasts secrete the organic component of the matrix 3) as bone is formed, the living osteoblasts leave the area and it becomes exclusively matrix 4) blood vessels enter the spaces between bone spicules to supply nutrients and oxygen to the growing tissues 5) all of the processes listed above occur in intramembranous bone formation

3) as bone is formed, the living osteoblasts leave the area and it becomes exclusively matrix

Which of the following pairs of anatomical terms are correctly associated with their opposites? 1) distal, coronal 2) proximal, lateral 3) cranial, caudal 4) cephalic, posterior 5) all of the above are paired correctly

3) cranial, caudal

Cells that receive pigments transferred from pigment-producing cells are called: 1) melanocytes 2) melanin 3) keratinocytes 4) lymphocytes 5) Merkel cells

3) keratinocytes

The cranial movement that occurs at the atlanto-occipital joint is: 1) rotating the head as if to say 2) no movement occurs at this joint; it is supportive only 3) nodding the head as if to say 4) none of the above

3) nodding the head as if to say

Even though ultraviolet light can cause skin damage, some exposure is essential for good health. What is the importance of ultraviolet light exposure to the skin? 1) a slight tan is essential for good health 2) a mild sunburn once in a while is good to renew underlying layers of the skin, as it promotes sloughing of the old outer layers 3) the skin needs ultraviolet light to convert a steroid related to cholesterol to vitamin D1 4) all of the above are correct

3) the skin needs ultraviolet light to convert a steroid related to cholesterol to vitamin D1

Which of the following is true of the inferior nasal conchae? 1) they are a part of the ethmoid bones 2) they form a part of the bridge of the nose 3) they are located on either side of the nasal septum 4) they support the olfactory epithelium 5) all of the above are true

3) they are located on either side of the nasal septum

The worst type of burn is classified as a: 1) first-degree burn 2) second-degree burn 3) third-degree burn 4) fourth-degree burn 5) none of the above

3) third-degree burn

The best description of a bone fracture that does not break the skin and is otherwise entirely internal is: 1) a Pott's fracture 2) a compound fracture 3) a displaced fracture 4) a simple or closed fracture 5) none of the above

4) a simple or closed fracture

Factors that determine the color of hair include: 1) the structure of the pigments produced by melanocytes at the papilla 2) age of the individual 3) air bubbles in the medulla of the hair shaft 4) all of the above

4) all of the above

In addition to bone tissues, the typical bone also contains: 1) connective tissues 2) blood 3) neural tissues 4) all of the above 5) none of the above

4) all of the above

Why is a periosteum that surrounds a bone important? 1) it assists in attaching the bone to surrounding tissues 2) it assists in the production of new bone cells during growth 3) it assists in repair of bone after injuries 4) all of these are correct

4) all of these are correct

The occipital bone is or does all of the following except: 1) covers the occipital lobes of the brain 2) contains the foramen magnum 3) bears the condyles 4) is paired in the adult 5) no exceptions; all of the above are true

4) is paired in the adult

Which of the following statements does not apply to a living bone? 1) it contains openings for nutrient blood vessels 2) it may have both compact and cancellous regions 3) it can undergo remodelling during life 4) it is inert, hard, and dry 5) all of the above are correct

4) it is inert, hard, and dry

Q 11 : Which of the following do not apply to the reticular layer? 1) it is an interwoven meshwork of dense irregular connective tissue 2) it contains many collagen fibers 3) it has an indistinct boundary with the overlying papillary layer 4) it is the most heavily keratinized layer of the skin 5) it is vascular

4) it is the most heavily keratinized layer of the skin

The component of bone structure that occupies the lacunae is the: 1) nerve that innervates the spongy bone 2) osteon 3) osteoblast 4) osteocyte 5) none of the above

4) osteocyte

Which of the pairs of the following terms is incorrectly associated? 1) pubic symphysis-pectoral girdle 2) femur- linea aspera 3) anterior superior iliac spine- sacrum 4) patella- endochondral bone 5) olecranon process- radius

4) patella- endochondral bone

A cartilaginous joint which does not permit movement is a(n)? 1) syndesmosis 2) synovial joint 3) synostosis 4) synchondrosis 5) none of the above

4) synchondrosis

a

Due to lack of use, a muscle will lose size, tone, and power through the process of a. Atrophy b. Reduced tone c. Recruitment d. Hypertrophy e. None of the above

Which of the following factors may be responsible for a person becoming partially or mostly bald? 1) hormonal changes 2) aging 3) illnesses 4) genetic (inherited) factors 5) all of the above

5) all of the above

The secretory product produced by ceruminous glands is: 1) milk 2) odoriferous sweat 3) watery sweat 4) sebum 5) earwax

5) earwax

Which of the following skin conditions is the most dangerous kind of cancer? 1) basal cell carcinomas 2) squamous cell carcinomas 3) freckles 4) moles 5) malignant melanomas

5) malignant melanomas

All of these are a type of connective tissue except: 1) bone 2) fat 3) blood 4) cartilage 5) no exceptions; all of the above are connective tissues

5) no exceptions; all of the above are connective tissues

Q 13 : The structural difference between thick and thin skin is in the: 1) thickness of the papillary layer 2) thickness of the dermis 3) thickness of the stratum germinativum 4) thickness of the stratum granulosum 5) presence of the stratum lucidum

5) presence of the stratum lucidum

The components of a freely moveable joint cavity are lubricated by secretions produced by a: 1) superficial fascia 2) cutaneous membrane 3) sarcolemma 4) mucous membrane 5) synovial membrane

5) synovial membrane

larynx is composed of

9 cartilages

The word that best describes the position of the gallbladder relative to the ascending colon is _______. A) ipsilateral B) intermediate C) inferior D) contralateral

A - ipsilateral

Alternating the turning of the palm of the hand toward the ceiling and then turning it toward the floor is a movement of the forearm, which: A) occurs at the radiocarpal joint B) includes pronation C) includes supination D) all except C

A - occurs at the radiocarpal joint

If a joint is enclosed in a tough connective tissue capsule and contains a joint cavity, it is classified as: A) synovial B) fibrous C) cartilaginous D) all of the above

A - synovial

All of the following are paranasal sinuses except: A) the temporal B) the sphenoid C) the maxillary D) the ethmoid E) the frontal

A - the temporal

A(n) _________ section of the body would reveal the location of the heart with respect to the sternum. A) transverse B) coronal C) oblique D) any of the above

A - transverse

a

A bipolar neuron has a. one axon and one dendrite arising from the soma b. two dendrites arising from the soma c. two axons arising from the soma d. two somas e. two axons and multiple dendrites arising from the soma

a

A bundle of muscle cells within a muscle belly is called a a. Fascile b. Perimysium c. Myofiber d. Myofilament e. Muscle sheath

a

A gap junction acts to facilitate a. Passage of ions between cells b. Change in permeability of the postsynaptic membrane c. Passage of neurotransmitters between cells d. Growth of Schwann cells e. All of the above

d

A main difference between neurons and neuroglia is a. neurons are generally smaller than neuroglia b. neurons are more numerous than neuroglia c. neuroglia are found only in the central nervous system d. mature neurons do not normally divide; neuroglia do

d

A midsagittal section of the brain would pass through which of the following a. corpus callosum b. falx cerebri c. longitudinal fissure d. all of the above

d

A motor unit in skeletal muscle is activated by a/an __________ a. parasympathetic motor neuron b. afferent motor neuron c. sympathetic motor neuron d. somatic motor neuron

c

A patient is experiencing muscle weakness. The physician prescribes an AChE inhibitor. Based on this information you can reasonably conclude that his symptoms emerge from problems in a. Sarcomere b. Spinal cord c. Neuromuscular junction d. Cerebral cortex e. Cuneate fasciculus

d

A sensory homunculus a. Is the location of sensory inputs in the thalamus b. Is proportioned the same as the size of the body represented c. Is the site that determines the intensity of a pain stimulus d. Is a functional map of the primary sensory cortex e. None of the above

A gland may consist of

A single epithelial cell A cluster of epithelial cells

b

A specialized region that connects the initial segment of the axon to the soma is known as the a. Neurofibril b. Axon hilock c. Axoplasm d. Nissl body e. Centrosome complex

An osteon is

A structural unit of compact bone

d

A synapse is a junction between a. a neuron and a glandular cell b. two neurons c. a neuron and a muscle cell d. all of the above

e

A the neuromuscular junction, curare _____ muscle contraction by _____. a. Prevents, blocking the active site in a sarcomere b. Facilitates, increasing the amount of AChE c. Facilitates, interfering with the release of ACh d. Prevents, blocking the nerve impulse in the axon e. Prevents, blocking ACh receptors on the post-synaptic membrane

d

A typical reflex arc involves the following components 1) sensory neuron 2) motor neuron 3) receptor 4) one or more interneurons 5) effector the correct order is: a. 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 b. 3, 1, 2, 5 c. 3, 4, 2, 5 d. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5

a

A typical skeletal muscle fiber has about 300 of these, more of them than any other body cells. These are a. Mitochondria b. ATP molecules c. Thin filaments d. Ribosomes e. Glycogen granules

The cup-shaped depression formed by all three portions of the coxal bone is the ___

Acetabulum

d

Acetylcholinesterase is found a. The sarcomere b. The postsynaptic membrane c. The sarcoplasmic reticulum d. The synaptic cleft e. The presynaptic membrane

An exocrine gland whose secretory units are round is ___

Acinar

c

Action potentials are propagated from the surface to the interior of a muscle fiber by way of a. myofibrils b. endomysium c. the T tubules d. sarcoplasmic reticulum e. sarcomeres

b

Action potentials result from a. Opening of calcium gates b. Abrupt changing of the transmembrane potential c. neurons transporting neurotransmitters d. Closing of ion channels e. All of the above

d

Adductors of the thigh are controlled by the a. Iliohyograstric nerve b. Fibular nerve c. Tibial nerve d. Obturator nerve e. Femoral nerve

Which of the following cell junctions anchor or connect adjacent cells to one another?

Adherens junctions Desmosomes Gap junctions Tight junctions

d

After flowing through the dural sinuses, CSF and blood flow into the a. External jugular vein b. Subdural space c. Carotid artery d. Internal jugular vein e. None of the above

Epiphyseal plates of growing bones may be classified as:

All of the above: synchondroses, cartilaginous joints, synarthrotic joints

c

All of the following are actions of the axial musculature EXCEPT a. Moving the rib cage b. Positioning the spinal column c. Stabilizing the pectoral girdle to allow more precise forelimb movements d. Positioning the head e. There are no exceptions; all of the above are true

d

All of the following are true of fast muscle fibers EXCEPT a. They contain densely packed myofibrils b. They are large in diameter c. They have large glycogen reserves d. They have many mitochondria e. No exceptions; all of the above are true

a

All of the following brain regions lack the blood-brain barrier EXCEPT a. The endothelial linings of the brain capillaries b. No exceptions c. Capillaries in the pituitary gland d. Portions of the hypothalamus e. The choroid plexus

b

All of the following move the mandible except a. lateral ptyergoid b. thyrohyoid c. medial ptyergoid d. masseter e. temporalis

Which of the following are incorrect/correct? 1) Cartilage heals slower than skin because cartilage is a deeper tissue 2) The inside lining of the intestine has a large surface area because of the presence of cilia 3) Adipose is a type of connective tissue because that is where fat is stored

All the statements are incorrect

What is a gland called if the secretory portion is flask shaped?

Alveolar

d

An accumulation of blood (hematoma) found between the cranial dura mater and the frontal bone as a result of a head injury is termed a: a. pial hematoma b. subarachnoid hematoma c. subdural hematoma d. epidural hematoma

c

An excitatory response a. Makes an action potential less likely b. Causes ACh release c. Makes an action potential more likely d. Directly causes an action potential e. None of the above

c

An increase (hypertrophy) or decrease (atrophy) in muscle size is due to a. increased or decreased numbers of muscle cells b. increased or decreased deposition of adipose tissue c. increased or decreased size of skeletal muscle fibers d. both a & c

Hyperextension of the knee is prevented partially by the

Anterior cruciate ligament

Examination of the ___ could allow a nurse to determine issues such as dehydration levels in a baby.

Anterior fontanelle

___glands are sudoriferous glands that are found in the axillary and anogenital regions of adults, and which secrete a nutrient broth for bacteria.

Apocrine

c

Arachnoid granulations a. Are projections of the dura mater into the arachnoid b. Line the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone c. Absorb CSF into the venous circulation d. Occur along the inferior sagittal sinus

d

Areas of the nervous system that are dense in myelinated axons are referred to as a. Arachnoid mater b. Gray matter c. Dura mater d. White matter e. It doesn't matter

Which best describes a typical cervical vertebra?

Has a bifid spinous process

All 3 types of fibers (collagen, elastic, reticular) are found in which of the following tissues? A) reticular CT B) areolar CT C) hyaline cartilage D) tendons

B - areolar CT

Orientation of which dermal fibers is responsible for "lines of cleavage" (tension lines) seen in the skin? A) reticular B) collagen C) elastic D) none of the above

B - collagen dermal fibers

Which of the following are true of yellow marrow? (more than one answer possible) A) It is the main site of blood cell production B) It is located in the medullary cavities of long bones C) It is located in hipbones, sternum, ribs, and vertebrae D) It is a site of energy storage in the form of triglycerides E) It becomes more abundant relative to red marrow with increasing age, due to red marrow conversion to yellow marrow

B, D, E Yellow marrow: B-It is located in the medullary cavities of long bones D-It is a site of energy storage in the form of triglycerides E-It becomes more abundant relative to red marrow with increasing age, due to red marrow conversion to yellow marrow

e

Because of an absence of __________, damaged nerve fibers in the CNS cannot regenerate a. neuroglia b. epineurium c. axolemma d. myelin sheath e. neurilemma

Which of the following is a false statement about epithelium?

Epithelial tissue is a highly vascular tissue

What word foes the letter "B" stand for in the American Cancer Society's ABCD guidelines for detecting malignant melanoma?

Border is irregular

c

Brachial plexus is made up of a. C7-T6 b. C6-T1 c. C5-T1 d. C5-T4 e. C4-T1

The base of the stapes attaches to the A) malleus B) tympanic membrane C) oval window D) round window E) incus

C

A major change in bone tissue occuring with aging and leading to increased brittleness is: A) increased bone remodeling B) demineralization C) decreased protein synthesis D) all of the above

C - decreased protein synthesis

An epithelial membrane consists of: A) epithelium plus blood vessels B) epithelium only C) epithelium plus connective tissue D) epithelium plus nervous tissue

C - epithelium plus connective tissue

Structures most responsible for holding bones together at a synovial joint are: A) articular cartilages B) tendons C) ligaments D) synovial membranes

C - ligaments

The articular capsule of the hip joint is one of the strongest in the body, consisting partially of: A) glenoid labrum B) transverse humeral ligament C) pubofemoral ligament D) all of the above

C - pubofemoral ligament

Which of these is NOT associated with the shoulder joint? A) labrum B) glenoid cavity C) radial (lateral) collateral ligament D) coracohumeral ligament E) transverse humeral ligament

C - radial (lateral) collateral ligament (in elbow joint)

Concerning diarthroses, one may speculate that as mobility increases, ________ decreases: A) amount of synovial fluid B) # of ligaments C) stability D) range of motion (ROM)

C - stability

Which feature contributes least to the stability of the hip joint? A) the pubofemoral ligament B) the shape of the acetabulum C) the ligamentum teres D) the iliofemoral ligament E) all of these features contribute equally to hip stability

C - the ligamentum teres (out of fovea capitis of head of femur)

cranial nerves responsible for gustatory discrimination

CN VII, IX, and X

damage to which nerve would make it impossible for a person to protrude the tongue

CN XII- hypoglossal

b

Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle differes in that it: a. has a different arrangement of thick and thin filaments b. has branching cells c. has a short refactor period d. contracts for shorter periods of time

b

Components of the diencephalon include the a. Pons and cerebral peduncles b. Hypothalamus and thalamus c. Cerebral nuclei and hippocampus d. Fornix and corpora quadrigemina e. Both C and D

b

Components of the metencephalon include the a. Medulla oblongata b. Cerebellum and pons c. Thalamus and cerebellum d. Cerebrum and cerebellum e. C and D

What is a gland called if it has a branched duct?

Compound Gland

c

Compounds that diffuse passively across the blood-brain barrier a. Move equally freely in both directions b. Do so in proportions equal to their presence c. Are lipid soluble d. Are water soluble e. Do all of the above

Which best describes the term spina bifida?

Congenital defect in which the laminae fail to unite at the midline

The tissue that contains erythrocytes, leukocytes, and plasma belongs to which tissue group?

Connective tissue

d

Connective tissue covers a. Muscle cell b. Fasicle c. Entire muscle d. All of the above (a-c) e. Sarcomere

e

Contraction of a sarcomere also causes narrowing of the a. A band b. I band c. H band d. Zone of overlap e. Both B and C

c

Covering a muscle fasicle is a. Sarcolemma b. Epimysium c. Perimysium d. Superficial fascia e. Enodmysium

c

Cranial nerve VII supplies the muscles of a. Anterior neck b. Tongue c. Facial expression d. Eyes e. Mastication

Which of the following pairs consists of anatomical opposites?

Cranial, caudal

A fibrous joint cannot also be: A) a gomphosis B) a synarthrosis C) a suture D) a diarthrosis E) an amphiarthrosis

D - a diarthrosis

Which of the following would be most likely to penetrate the intact skin

Fat-soluble vitamins

The mandible has condylar processes and coronoid processes. A) both are articular in function B)The condylar process = for muscle attachment, coronoid process = articular C) both are for muscle attachment D) Condylar process = articular, coronoid process = for muscle attachment

D - the condylar process is articular, and the coronoid process is for muscle attachment

The glenoid cavity is a point of articulation between: A) the humerous and radius B) the femur and tibia C) the os coxae and femur D) the scapula and humerus E) the humerus and ulna

D - the scapula and humerus

Connective tissue and epithelial tisse are similar because: A) they both line body surface to help resist abrasion B) they both contain large amounts of extracellular material C) they are both vascular and innervated D) they each perform a variety of functions

D - they each perform a variety of functions

Melanocytes synthesis melanin from which amino acid? A) tryptophan B) tropomyosin C) thyroxine D) tyrosine

D - tyrosine

Intramembranous ossification is the process that: A) results in bone growth in lenth of long bones B) produces most bones C) produces only flat bones of the cranium D) none of the above

D- none of the above (Intramemb. ossificaiton = bone fracture repair and develops directly from fibrous tissue, not cartilage)

A major change in bone tissue that occurs with aging and that leads to increased brittleness is ___.

Decreased protein synthesis

d

Dendrites are processes of a neuron that a. are usually longer than axons b. carry nerve impulses away from the neuron cell body c. are usually myelinated d. none of the above

In ___ connective tissue, the fibers are tightly packed and very little ground substance is present.

Dense

What type of tissue makes up the dermis of the skin?

Dense Irregular Connective Tissue

Which type of movement has the most movement?

Diarthrosis

The patellar surface, with which the patella articulates, is located on the ___ end of the ___.

Distal, femur

d

Diverging circuits allow for transmission of nerve impulses from ________ neurons to _______ neurons a. multipolar, unipolar b. unipolar, multipolar c. several, one d. one, several

The matrix of connective tissue is composed of

Fibers and ground substance

c

During contraction in a skeletal muscle fiber a. the sarcomere length does not change b. actin and myosin molecules contract, causing filaments to shorten c. myosin cross bridges move the thin filaments so that their ends meet or overlap in the center of the sarcomere d. thick filaments meet at the center of the sarcomere

The synthesis of ______ depends on the penetration of ultraviolet light through the epidermis. A) keratin B) cholesterol C) collagen D) carotene E) vitamin D

E - Vitamin D

The sphenoid has all of the following except: A) a foramen spinosum B) a foramen ovale C) lesser wings D) an optic foramen E) a pterygoid canal

E - pterygoid canal

b

Each end of a sarcomere is marked by a a) an A band b) a Z disc c) terminal cisternae d) an I band e) an H band

b

Each skeletal muscle fibers is controlled by a. Tendon extending form the end of the fascicle b. The terminal branch of a motor neuron c. An individual T tubule d. A motor end plate

d

Each skeletal muscle is controlled by a single a. Motor end plate b. Synaptic terminal c. Transverse tubule d. Neuromuscular junction e. Brain cell

The epidermis derives from which layer?

Ectoderm

Two of the types of cartilage are hyaline and

Elastic

The ability of skin to stretch and recoil is due to the presence of ___ in the ___.

Elastic Fibers, dermis

__ is a very strong and resilient cartilage which is extremely flexible and will spring back to its original shape after bending

Elastic cartilage

a

Electrical events that occur at the surface of the sarcolemma ultimately cause a contraction by a. Altering the chemical environment around every sarcomere in muscle fiber b. Releasing stored ATP c. Moving thin filaments d. Binding myosin heads to the actin molecule body e. None of the above

What do you call the simple squamous epithelium that lines the blood vessels?

Endothelium

The hair follicle is composed of cells from the ___ (which tissue layer in general?) but deep within the follicle, at the hair matrix, only cells of the ___ (which layer specifically) are present.

Epidermis, papillary

Developmental stages and changes in the ___ of various long bones allow a forensic pathologist to quite accurately estimate the age of a skeleton below the age of 25.

Epiphyseal regions

Intervertebral articulation of lumbar vertebrae allows ___ (what motions)

Flexion and extension

Which movements are possible at both shoulder and elbow joints?

Flexion and extension

Membrane-filled spaces between cranial bones of an infant skull are called:

Fontanels

d

From superficial to deep, the meninges occur in the order a. Pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater b. Pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid c. Arachnoid, pia mater, dura mater d. Dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater e. Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid

b

From which plexus does the axillary nerve arise? a. sacral b. brachial c. thoracic d. lumbar e. cervical

"Sutures" would be found connecting which bones?

Frontal and occipital

a

Gluteus maximus is innervated by (the) a. Inferior gluteal nerve b. Sciatic nerve c. Pudendal nerve d. Superior gluteal nerve e. All of the above

c

Gracile fasciculus is located in the a. Pyramidal pathways b. Grey commissure c. Entire dorsal column d. Dorsal column below T6 e. Dorsal column above T6

d

Groups of muscle cells bound by perimysium are known as a. Myofilaments b. Myofibrils c. Sarcomeres d. Fasciles e. Motor units

Which of the following is not a tarsal bone?

Hamate

The flexible connective tissue that joins the anterior extremity of a rib to the breast bone (sternum) is

Hyaline cartilage

What forms the epiphyseal growth plate?

Hyaline cartilage

__ has a featureless matrix in which individual fibers can't be clearly seen

Hyaline cartilage

c

If a muscle has a tendon that branches within the muscle tissue, it is a a. Parallel fibered muscle b. Circular muscle c. Multipennate muscle d. Sphincter muscle e. None of the above

c

If a nerve becomes less efficient at transmitting impulses, this might indicated damage to which of the following a. Satellite cells b. Ependymal cells c. Schwann cells d. Astrocytes e. Microglia

e

If the name of a spinal tract begins with the root spino a. It is a motor pathway b. Its fibers don't extend beyond the spinal cord c. It consists of descending fibers d. Its fibers forma spinal nerve e. It is a sensory pathway

c

Impulses in a neuron typically arise closest to the a. Neurofibril b. Dendrite c. Axon hillock d. Centriole e. Nucleus

b

In Duchenne muscular dystrophy, a. More females are affected than males b. There is a defective gene for the protein called dystrophin c. There is a defective gene for the protein called duchennase d. Muscles atrophy due to loss of fat and scar tissue e. Muscles atrophy due to lack of response to Ach

e

In Duchenne muscular dystrophy, a. muscles atrophy due to lack of response to acetylcholine b. there is a defective gene for the protein called duchennase c. muscles atrophy due to loss of fat and scar tissue d. more females are affected than males e. there is a defective gene for the protein called dystrophin

c

In a ___________ neuronal circuit, input to one neuron leads to output from multiple neurons a. facilitated b. converging c. diverging d. reverberating e. parallel after-discharge circuit

b

In a relaxed muscle fiber, active sites of actin are blocked by a. elastic fibers b. tropomyosin c. troponin d. calcium ions e. myosin heads

d

Nerve fiber tracts that cross over from one side of the body to another are said to _________ a. contraindicate b. diverge c. converge d. decussate e. convert

d

In contrast to slow oxidative fibers, fast glycolytic fibers a. contain more mitochondria b. contract more slowly c. have more capillaries d. fatigue more quickly e. contain more myoglobin

c

In order to flex your fingers, what type of impulse will the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle need to receive? a. afferent b. sensory c. efferent d. visceral

b

In skeletal muscle, the sarcoplasmic reticulum a. is similar to the Golgi complex b. releases Ca2+ to trigger contraction c. forms transverse tubules d. contains extracellular fluid

d

In the case of most neurons, the arrival of a nerve impulse at the synaptic knob immediately triggers. a. Generation of an action potential in the axon b. Change in the permeability of the postsynaptic cell membrane c. Long-lived effects at the synaptic membrane d. Release of ACh at the presynaptic membrane e. Both A and C

Which best describes the maxilla bone

Inferior and posterior portion of nasal septum

The ethmoid bone does not contain:

Inferior nasal conchae

b

Inferior portion of the prosenchephalon becomes the a. Medulla b. Diencephalon c. Cerebrum d. Pons e. Cerebellum

The rotator cuff tendons enclose the shoulder joint on all sides except ___, which partially explains the nature of most shoulder dislocations.

Inferiorly

c

Injury of skeletal muscle is repaired by the a. Epimysium b. Other nearby muscle fibers c. Satellite ells d. Neuromuscular junction e. A and C from above

d

Isometric contractions a. Are characteristic of cardiac musculature b. Produces no movement while the muscle contracts c. Are restricted to smooth muscle cells only d. Produce no movement while the muscle relaxes e. Produce movement without the muscle involved contracting

Which of the following is not true of periosteum?

It covers and protects the articular cartilages

Which of the following are true of yellow marrow?

It is located in the medullary cavities of long bones It is a site of energy storage in the form of triglycerides It becomes more abundant relative to red marrow with increasing age due to the conversion of red marrow to yellow marrow

Which is not true of synovial fluid

It is produced by cells in the fibrous capsule

Which of the following is found in the epidermis

Keratinocyte, Merkel cell, Langerhans' cell

An abnormal increase in the thoracic curvature of the vertebral column is called ___.

Kyphosis

Which of the following is not considered an epidermal derivative?

Lamellated corpuscles

Which of the following is an epidermal cell with immunological properties?

Langerhans cells

Immune cells in the stratum spinosum which protect against invaders are the ___

Langerhans' cells (or dendritic cells)

Which of the following is an articular feature of the tibia

Lateral condyle

c

Lateral outgrowths of the ________ develop into the cerebral hemispheres a. neural tube b. diencephalon c. telencephalon d. metencephalon e. mesencephalon

___ are common inclusions in the cytosol of fat cells

Lipid droplets

Which of the following is not true for paranasal sinuses? They are:

Located in the zygomatic bones

Connective tissue can be sub-classified as either ___ or ___.

Loose; dense

c

Loss of sensation and motor control of the supper and lower limbs is called a. Aplegia b. Paraplegia c. Quadriplegia d. Hemiplegia e. None of the above

b

Loss of taste in the anterior region of the tongue may be an indication of damage to which cranial nerve? a. Trigeminal V b. Facial VII c. Glossopharyngeal IX d. Vagus X

The spinous processes on ___ are short and flat, like an axe blade.

Lumbar vertebrae

What is the half moon shaped white area on a nail called?

Lunula

Which of the following does not assist a cell in connecting to others?

Lysosome

e

Main nerves and blood vessels supplying the individual muscle fibers are contained within and branch through which of the following? a. Epimysium b. Endomysium c. Perimysium d. Myoblasts e. A and C

What is the growing part of the nail?

Matrix

Which of the following is a receptor for fine touch which is located in the dermis?

Meissner's corpuscle

the papillary layer of the dermis contains ___ to sense gentle contact with objects in the environment.

Meissner's corpuscles

Which of the following is most unique to the knee?

Menisci

Which of these cells is a mechanoreceptor?

Merkel Cell

Which is the most common type of exocrine gland?

Merocrine glands

___ is the embryonic tissue type that gives rise to all connective tissue in the adult body

Mesenchyme

Which of the following sutures is found in the infant but sometimes has no evident marking in the adult?

Metopic

What forms the brush border?

Microvilli

Apical features:

Microvilli- provides more surface area for excretion and absorption. Cilia- movement Flagella- sperm, movement

The superior orbital fissure and the foramen rotundum open into the ___ of the cranium

Middle cranial fossa

c

Most lower motor neurons are located in a. the medulla oblongata b. primary motor cortex c. ventral horns of the spinal cord d. the diencephalon e. dorsal horns of the spinal cord

C

Most of the functions of muscles emerge from their ability to a. Maintain their synapses with other muscle cells b. Extend c. Contract d. Multiply E. Relax

b

Motor fibers travel in the _____ of the spinal cord a. Posterior tract b. Descending tract c. Ascending tract d. Medial tract e. None of the above

The epithelial membranes which line body cavities which are open to the exterior are called ___ membranes.

Mucous

c

Muscles of the posterior compartment of the thigh _____ the thigh and _____ the leg. a. Abduct, extend b. Flex, extend c. Extend, flex d. Adduct, flex

b

Muscles store energy in their a. terminal cisternae b. glycogen c. troponin d. myoglobin e. mitochondria

b

Muscular dystrophy is a condition resulting from dysfunction associated with a. Motor nerve sclerosis b. AChE depletion c. Neurotransmitter release d. Dysfunctional muscle protein e. Problems with function of substantia nigra

d

Myelin consists mainly of a. Cholesterol b. Lipofuscin c. Carbohydrate d. Phospholipid e. Protein

b

Myelin is (a) a. Special cell that protects neurons b. Multilayered membrane around an axon c. Cell body d. Special area of the brain e. None of the above

e

Nerve signals a. Travel fastest in large unmyelinated fibers b. Travel fastest in small myelinated fibers c. Travel at the speed in all nerve fibers d. Travel fastest in small unmyelinated fibers e. Travel fastest in large myelinated fibers

d

Nerves which bring in info fro the thoracic and abdominopelvic region to the CNS belong to the a. Somatomoter division of the PNS b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Somatosensory portion of PNS d. Visceral sensory portion of PNS e. Parasympathetic nervous system

a

Neurotransmitter receptors are found where on the sarcolemma? a. motor end plate b. muscle filaments c. transverse tubules d. sarcoplasmic reticulum

c

Neurotransmitter receptors are found where on the sarcolemma? a. sarcoplasmic reticulum b. muscle filaments c. motor end plate d. transverse tubules

b

Nissl bodies are another name for a. The Nucleolus b. Rough ER c. Centrioles d. The nucleus e. Telodendria

b

Nissl bodies are located in the ______ of a neuron a. synaptic knobs b. soma c. dendrite d. myelin sheath e. telodendria

The frontal bone:

None of the above (articulates with the mandible, contributes to the sagittal suture, forms part of the floor of the orbit)

e

Of these, a member of the infrahyoid muscles a. stylohyoid b. geniohyoid c. mylohyoid d. digastric e. thyrohyoid

a

One role of the astrocytes is to a. help form the blood-brain barrier b. produce cerebrospinal fluid c. phagocytize tissue debris d. form myelin in the CNS e. circulate the cerebrospinal fluid

c

One sarcomere contains all of the following EXCEPT: a. the H zone b. the M line c. myofibrils d. myosin

d

Organelle(s) unique to muscle that give(s) it contractile capabilities is (are) the a. Golgi apparatus b. Ribosomes c. Mitochondira d. Myofibril e. Endoplasmic reticulum

Osteocytes are the mature bone cells that develop directly from ___.

Osteoblasts

What cell type is involved in cell resorption?

Osteoclast

All of these except ___ originate from osteoprogenitor cells Osteoblasts, Osteoclasts, Osteocytes

Osteoclasts

The dermis consists of two layers: the ___, which is characterized by a dimpled interface with the epidermis, and the ___, which accounts for 80% of the skin's thickness

Papillary, reticular

a

Parkinson's disease is caused by inadequate secretion of dopamine in a. Basal ganglia b. Internal capsule c. Diencephalon d. Cerebral cortex E. Corpus callosum

d

Pathways that connect the CNS with effectors are a. Descending pathways b. Efferent pathways c. Motor pathways d. All of the above e. None of the above

d

Pennate muscles: a. have relatively small range of movement but a greater power than parallel or fusiform muscles b. have a large number of fascicles attached to the tendon c. have short muscle fibers attached to a tendon that is almost as long as the entire muscle d. all of the above

Most specifically, the heart is located in the

Pericardial cavity

c

Place the following events in the correct order 1) ACh is released into the synaptic cleft 2) Synaptic vesciles fuse with the plasma membrane 3) A muscle action potential is triggered 4) An action potential arrives at the synaptic end bulb 5) ACh binds to receptors in the motor end plate a. 1, 2, 4, 3, 5 b. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3 c. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3 d. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5

B

Place the following events in the correct order 1. Synaptic vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane 2. ACh is released into the synaptic cleft 3. A muscle action potential is triggered 4. An action potential arrives at the synaptic end bulb 5. ACh binds to receptors in the motor end plate A. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3 B. 4, 1, 2, 5, 3 C. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3 D. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3

e

Portion of a neuron that carries information in the form of a nerve impulse is called a. Nissl body b. Soma c. Myelin d. Dendrite e. Axon

c

Portion of a sarcomere that contains the thick filaments and the zone of overlap is the a. I band b. Z line c. A band d. H band e. M line

e

Portion of sarcomere that contains the thick filaments and the zone of overlap is the a. M-line b. I band c. H band d. Z-line e. A band

Which joint shows the motion called rotation?

Radioulnar

a

Receptors may be classified as a. Somatic and visceral b. Effectors and muscles c. Glands and muscles d. Voluntary and involuntary e. Subconscious and conscious

a

Regarding a muscle insertion, which of the following is TRUE? a. The insertion moves more than does the origin b. As the force of muscle contraction increases, the origin moves toward the insertion c. As the speed of the muscle movement increases, the insertion moves further from the origin d. The insertion is proximal to the origin e. All of the above are true

c

Regeneration of nerve cells in the peripheral nervous system is assisted by a. Astrocytes b. Bipolar neurons c. Schwann cells d. Oligodendrocytes e. Synaptic clefts

A course of study in which you learn about the bones of the forearm along with associated blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves would most appropriately be called

Regional anatomy

e

Regulating motor output in the cerebral nuclei is the function of which midbrain center(s)? a. Amygdaloid body b. Inferior colliculi c. Cerebral peduncles d. Red nucleus e. Substantia nigra

c

Sensory information that arrives in the brain from tracts in the spinal cord is relayed by the thalamus along _____ fibers to the cerebral cortex a. Association b. Commissural c. Projection d. None of the above

a

Sensory information that arrives in the brain from tracts in the spinal cord is relayed by the thalamus along ______ fibers to the cerebral cortex a. projection b. association c. commissural d. none of the above

Organs in the ventral body cavity are surrounded by double-layered membranes called ___. The layer closest to the organ is the ___ membrane, and that which lines the body wall is called the ___ membrane. The layers are separated by ___fluid.

Serous; Visceral; Parietal; Serous

Which of the following parts of a hair are usually seen because they are located outside the body?

Shaft

What are the spicules on spongy bone called?

Sharpey's fibers

The articular cartilage:

Shields the surfaces of the articulating bones at a synovial joint Helps absorb shock and reduces friction at a synovial joint

The tissue lining the outer wall of small intestine of the digestive tract is called

Simple columnar epithelium

What tissue type is found in the serous membranes that form the surface of the stomach and intestines?

Simple columnar epithelium

What type of epithelium is associated with goblet cells

Simple columnar epithelium

Microvilli are most likely to be found in which type of tissue?

Simple squamous epithelium

a

Skeletal muscle fibers arise from embryonic cells called a. Myolasts b. Myotomes c. Epimysium d. Myomeres e. None of the above

e

Slow fibers primarily use which of the following for energy? a. Anaerobic metabolism b. Protein c. Lipids d. Glycogen e. Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins through the aerobic pathway

d

Slow oxidative (SO) fibers (slow-twitch fibers) have more __________ and less _________ than fast glycolytic (FG) fibers (fast-twitch fibers) a. glycogen, myoglobin b. lactic acid, ATP c. capillaries, mitochondria d. myoglobin, glycogen e. ATP, mitochondria

d

Small ridges on the surface of the cerebellar cortex are called a. vermis b. sulci c. folia d. gyri

d

Smooth but steady increase in muscular tension produced by increasing the number of active motor units in a contracting muscle is called a. Activation b. Peak tension c. The all or none principle d. Recruitment e. C and D from above

e

Smooth muscle cells are characteristic of musculature of the a. Blood vessels b. Antagonistic muscle pairs c. Postural muscles d. Heart e. The gut

Why would a skin graft have to include some cells from the stratum basale?

So these cells can undergo mitosis to replenish cells which will be shed

b

Spinal nerves extending distal to the conus medullaris are collectively referred to as the a. Denticulate ligaments b. Cauda equina c. Motor neurons d. Filum terminale e. Spinal meninges

The least malignant and most common skin cancer is ___.

Squamous cell carcinoma

Which kind of tissue would you expect to find in an area of the body that experiences friction and wear and tear?

Stratified squamous epithelial tissue

The internal lining to the esophagus and adult vagina is

Stratified squamous epithelium

The layer of the epidermis that contains dividing cells (which produce the more superficial layers) is the ___.

Stratum basale (or stratum germinativum)

In the ___ of the epidermis, keratinocytes begin to accumulate keratohyalin, which is necessary for keratin production, and to degrade their nuclei and organelles in their final living actions

Stratum granulosum

e

Structure most likely damaged by a herniated dis is a. Spinal cord b. Epidural space c. Central canal d. Grey commissure e. Spinal nerve root

c

Structures at the ends of the telodendria that form the synaptic terminals are the a. Axon hillocks b. Axons c. Synaptic knobs d. Collaterals e. None of the above

e

Structures formed by the dura mater include all of the following EXCEPT the a. Falx cerebri b. Superior sagittal sinus c. Tentorium cerebelli d. Diaphragm sellae e. Cavernous sinus

e

Subdivisions of the PNS include a. Special sensory receptors b. Somatic nervous system c. Visceral sensory receptors d. Autonomic nervous system e. All of the above

A ___ is a type of joint in which two bones are held together by a disc of fibrocartilage

Symphysis

A part of the body that contains a broad, flat disc of fibrocartilage would be classified as a:

Symphysis

If a joint is enclosed in a tough connective tissue capsule and if it contains a joint cavity, it is classified as:

Synovial

T/F: The girdles attach the limbs (extremities) to the axial skeleton. T/F: The girdles are considered to be part of the axial skeleton.

T F

a

The arachnoid mater lies between two fluids: ________ on its outer surface and ______ fluid on its inner surface a. interstitial, cerebrospinal b. interstitial, blood c. cerebrospinal, interstitial d. blood, cerebrospinal

The dermis of the skin is

The area that contains loose connective tissue, collagenous fiber, nerves, and blood vessels

e

The botulinum toxin (Botox) is able to prevent muscular contraction by a. Increasing the amount of curare in the NMJ b. Increasing the amount of AChE at the NMJ c. Blocking ACh receptors at NMJ e. Preventing the release of ACh at NMJ

e

The brain and spinal cord constitute the _____ nervous system. a. Afferent b. Indifferent c. Autonomic d. Peripheral e. Central

d

The bright red color of skeletal muscle is due mainly to its a. myosin b. tropomyosin c. troponin d. myoglobin e. A bands

a

The cauda equina a. is a bundle of nerve fibers that occupies the vertebral canal from L2 to S5 b. innervates structures of the anterior and medial thigh c. is a bundle of connective tissue fibers that extends from the medullary cone d. part of the lumbar enlargement e. is synonymous with the medullary cone

d

The central canal is a remnant of what embryonic structure? a. The telencephalon b.The rhombencephalon c. The neural folds d. The neural tube e. The neural crest

a

The central canal of the spinal cord is continuous with a. Ventricle of the brain b. Jugular vein c. Superior sagittal sinus d. Confluence of sinuses e. Cavernous sinus

d

The central canal of the spinal cord is located in the a. anterior white commissure b. posterior white column c. anterior gray horn d. gray commissure

c

The central portion of the diaphragm is an aponeurosis that serves as the tendon of insertion for the diaphragm; the tendon is called: a. rectus sheath b. linea alba c. central tendon d. intermediate tendon

e

The cerebellum develops from the embryonic a. myelencephalon b. telencephalon c. diencephalon d. mesencephalon e. metencephalon

b

The cerebral cortex concerned with hearing is an a. occipital lobe b. temporal lobe c. frontal lobe d. precentral gyrus e. the parietal lobe

b

The cerebral hemispheres are separated by the a. Coronal fissure b. Longitudinal fissure c. Lateral ventricle d. Central sulcus e. None of the above

a

The close association of sarcoplasmic reticulum and transverse (T) tubules is called a a. triad b. cistern c. cross bridge d. sarcomere

a

The complex known as the triad consists of a. One transverse tubule and two terminal cisternae b. Myofilaments, myofibrils, and sarcomeres c. Actin, myosin, and myofilaments d. One sarcomere, one sarcoplasmic reticulum, and one sarcoplasm e. One A band, one H zone, and one I band

e

The complex known as the triad, in cardiac muscle, consists of a. Myofilaments, myofibrils, and sarcomeres b. One transverse tubule and two terminal cisternae c. Actin, myosin, myofilaments d. One a band, one H zone, and one I band e. There are no triads in cardiac muscle

a

The connective tissue surrounding a single fascicle is called a. Perimysium b. Aponeurosis c. Epimysium d. Tendon e. Enomysium

a

The conus medullaris is a. the tapering end of the spinal cord inferior to the lumbar enlargement b. the inner portion of the spinal cord, seen in cross section c. the attachment of a spinal nerve to the spinal cord d. the junction between the medulla and the spinal cord

a

The following are all functions of astrocytes except: a. they synthesize neurotransmitters b. they help maintain proper K+balance c. they help maintain the blood-brain barrier d. they participate in brain development

d

The following is true of fast muscle fibers a. The diameter is thin b. Myoflobin content is high c. Tension generated is low d. Mitochondria are relatively scarce e. Dense capillary supply

The ligamentum teres arises from

The fovea capitus

b

The function of T-tubules is to a. Bind actin and myosin molecules together b. Help distribute the electrical signal to contract throughout the muscle fiber c. Separate one muscle fiber from another to facilitate partial contraction of a muscle d. Bind muscle fibers together at the neuromuscular junction e. None of the above

c

The geniohyoid muscle extends between the a. Mandible and the thyroid cartilage b. The hyoid and the scapula c. Mandible and the hyoid d. Maxilla and the hyoid e. The thyroid cartilage and teh scapula

c

The gluteus medius and gluteus minimus are innervated by the a. Inferior gluteal nerve b. Femoral nerve c. Sciatic nerve d. Tibial nerve

d

The gray matter of the spinal cord a. is surrounded by white matter b. contains neuroglia, neuron cell bodies, and unmyelinated axons and dendrites c. is subdivided into regions called horns d. all of the above

c

The greater the number of muscle fibers in each motor unit a. The longer each contraction will last b. The slower the contraction of the muscle will be c. The less precise the control will be d. The greater the number of stimuli required to produce a contraction e. None of the above

c

The groove between the frontal and parietal lobes of the brain is the a. Longitudinal fissure b. Lateral sulcus c. Central sulcus d. Parieto-occipital sulcus e. None of the above

a

The hypothalamus, thalamus, and the epithalamus develop from the a. Diencephalon b. Mesencephalon c. Telencephalon d. Prosencephalon e. metencephalon

a

The insertion of a muscle 1. in a limb is usually proximal to the origin 2. does not more when the muscle contracts 3. is the movable point of attachment of a muscle 4. attaches a muscle to a bone or skin a. 3, 4 b. 1, 3 c. 1, 2, 3, 4 d. 1, 2, 4

e

The patterns of interactions between neurons include all of the following EXCEPT a. Parallel processing b. Convergence c. Reverberation d. Divergence e. No exceptions; all of the above are correct

d

The peripheral nervous system carries ________ (or motor) impulses from the _______ to the ________ a. afferent, muscles, central nervous system b. afferent, central nervous system, muscles c. efferent, muscles, central nervous system d. efferent, central nervous system, muscles

d

The postcentral gyrus is in the _____ lobe of the cortex; it contains the primary _____ area. a. Frontal, motor b. Parietal, motor c. Frontal, somatosensory d. Parietal, somatosensory

d

The process of reverberation involves a. Several neuronal pools processing information at one time b. A single repeat of a stimulus prior to extinction c. Negative feedback loops through nerve circuits d. Extension of collateral axons back toward the source of an impulse and further stimulation of the presynaptic neurons e. All of the above

e

The pterygoid muscles insert on the a. Lateral pterygoid plate b. Neck of mandible c. Sphenoid d. Hyoid e. Mandible

b

The quadriceps femoris include all of the following except a. Vastus intermedius b. Vastus femoris c. Vastus lateralis d. Vastus medialis e. Rectus femoris

e

The ratcheting action that occurs between the actin and myosin during contraction a. Don't affect the size of the H-zone b. Makes the A band larger c. Causes calcium ions to be secreted into the sarcoplasmic reticulum d. Keeps the distance between the Z-lines constant e. Narrow the I-band

d

The rate of conduction of a nerve impulse depends upon a. Properties of the soma of the neuron b. The number of cell dendrites c. The type of neurotransmitter present d. The presence of absence of a myelin sheath e. All of the above

a

The roots of which spinal nerves make up the cauda equine? 1. thoracic 2. lumbar 3. sacral 4. coccygeal a. 2, 3, 4 b. 4 only c. 1, 2, 3, 4 d. 3, 4

Which of the following is true for the sacrum?

The sacral canal is the extension of the vertebral canal

c

The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores a. Glycogen b. Oxygen c. Calcium ion d. Glucose e. ATP

b

The series of elastic components of a muscle include all of the following except a. the epimysium b. myofilaments c. tendons d. endomysium e. perimysium

c

The skeletal muscle fibers that fatigue most easily are a. red muscle fibers b. slow oxidative fibers c. fast glycolytic fibers d. both a and c

d

The somas of the sensory neurons of spinal nerves are found a. in the ventral horns b. the thalamus c. the dorsal horns d. in the dorsal root ganglion e. in the spinothalamic tracts

a

The somatic motor association area, also called the premotor cortex, is responsible for a. Patterned, learned activity b. Involuntary motor skills c. Voluntary skeletal activity d. Subconscious, voluntary activity e. None of the above

c

The space just outside the dura mater is called the a. Subarachnoid space b. Subdural space c. Epidural space d. Peridural space e. Supradural space

d

The spinal cord is surrounded by which vertebral structures? a. pedicle b. lamina c. body d. all of these

e

The spinothalamic tract is a. Efferent b. Transverse c. Descending d. Motor e. ascending

d

These neuroglial cells originate in bone marrow a. No neuroglial cells originate in bone marrow b. Astrocytes c. Oligodendrocytes d. Microglia e. Ependymal cells

The most significant reason the hip joint is less mobile than the shoulder joint is

They almost complete bony socket enclosing the head of the femur

Connective tissue and epithelial tissue are similar because

They each perform a variety of functions

b

The structural classification of a neuron is based up a. Type of chemical neurotransmitter is secretes b. Number of processes that project from the cell body c. Number of axons d. Size of dendrites e. A and D

b

The structures within the muscle fiber that shorten to cause skeletal muscle fiber contraction are the a. Sarcoplasm b. Myofibrils c. Myoneural junctions d. A and C from above e. None of the above

e

The subarachnoid space is a. Between the arachnoid and the underlying dura mater b. A potential space only c. Between the arachnoid and the periosteum d. Filled with fat e. Filled with CSF

c

The superior and inferior colliculi process information coming from a. Only visual b. Auditory and visual, respectively c. Visual and auditory, respectively d. Only auditory e. None of the above

d

The supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles are both innervated by the a. Thoracodorsal nerve b. Musculocutaneous nerve c. Axillary nerve d. Suprascapular nerve e. None of the above

a

The surface of the brain is called the a. Neural cortex b. Neuronal nuclei c. Basal nuclei d. Higher center e. White matter

d

The swellings outside of the CNS where somas of sensory neurons are clustered are a. nuclei b. ventral horns c. ventral root swellings d. ganglia e. dorsal horns

b

The tectum of the midbrain bears four round elevations a. that transmit all sensory and motor information between the upper and lower brain regions b. that control reflex movements in response to visual and auditory stimuli c. that control subconscious muscle activities d. called substantial nigra

b

The telencephalon becomes the a. Pons b. Cerebrum c. Diencephalon d. Midbrain e. Medulla

d

The teres major and teres minor originate on the _____ and insert on the _____. a. Tibia; calcaneus and talus b. Humerus; scapula c. Femur; tibia d. Scapula; humerus e. Os coxae; femur

d

The terms upper and motor neurons refer to components of a. Spinothalamic tract b. Tracts in the dorsal column c. Gracile fasiculus d. Coricospinal tract e. Cuneate fasciculus

a

The triceps brachii and biceps brachii are good examples of a. An agonist-antagonist pair b. Muscles that flex the elbow c. Antagonists d. Synergists e. Agonists

d

The trigeminal nerve controls which group of muscles a. Muscle of pharynx b. Muscles of facial expression c. Muscles of eye d. Muscles of mastication e. Muscles of tongue

c

The trigger zone of a neuron includes a. the dendrites b. each node of Ranvier c. axon hillock d. each internode e. the synaptic knobs

Which of the following statements about the dermis are true?

The two regions include the superficial papillary region and the deeper reticular region Dermal papillae, which project superficially into the epidermis, commonly contain capillaries and corpuscles of touch (meissner corpuscles)

e

The ulnar nerve is found in the _____ plexus a. Lumbar b. Thoracic c. Sacral d. Cervical e. Brachial

c

The upper motor neurons that control the skeletal muscles are found in a. the motor association cortex of the cerebrum b. the ventral horn of the spinal cord c. the pre central gyrus of the cerebrum d. the post central gyrus of the cerebrum e. the dorsal horn of the spinal cord

a

Thickest muscle fiber type is a. Fast twitch b. Smooth fibers c. Cardiac fibers d. Slow twitch e. Intermediate fibers

a

This embryonic structure gives rise to the adult medulla oblongata a. Myelencephalon b. Telencephalon c. Rhombencephalon d. Diencephalon e. Metencephalon

e

This glial cell is found in the PNS a. Ependymal cell b. Microglia c. Astrocyte d. Oligodendrocyte e. Satellite cell

a

The ventral root of a spinal nerve transmits ______ information _____ the spinal cord. a. Motor; away from b. Sensory; toward c. Motor; toward d. Sensory; away from e. Both A and D

a

The white matter of the CNS is largely made up of a. Myelinated axons b. Nerve cell bodies c. Neuronal nuclei d. Sensory neurons only e. None of the above

b

There is a "homunculus" on the precentral gyrus. The reason why the hand region of the homunculus is so large relates to the fact that a. our arms require great muscle control b. we have numerous motor units associated with finger movement c. the hand is a proportionally large part of the body d. we have very mobile wrists e. we have very sensitive fingertips

A

These muscles can elevate, depress, and move the mandible side-to-side a. the ptyergoids b. the master only c. the temporals and the master d. strap muscles e. suprahyoid muscles

The presence of large numbers of microvilli on the exposed surfaces of epithelial cells indicates that

This is the area where absorption and secretion take place These cells are transportation specialists These cells are probably located along portions of the digestive and urinary tracts

c

This is true of the occipitofrontalis muscle a. They DON'T contribute to facial expressions b. They are connected by a tendon c. An aponeurosis connects them d. They both insert on the temporal bone e. They help with elevation of the jaw

e

This muscle has attachments to the scapula and the skull a. Digastric b. Stylohyoid c. Geniohyoid d. Deltoid e. Omohyoid

e

This muscle is an elevator and depressor of the mandible a. Masseter b. Medial pterygoid c. Temporalis d. Digastric e. Lateral pterygoid

c

This muscle is an elevator of the mandible a. Omohyoid b. Sternocleidomastoid c. Lateral pterygoid d. Digastric e. Mylohyoid

b

This muscle is said to form the floor of the oral cavity a. Digastric b. Mylohyoid c. Geniohyoid d. Genioglossus e. Stylohyoid

Which of the knee ligaments function to reinforce the medial and lateral surfaces of the joint, tighten only at full extension of the joint, and, in this position act to stabilize the joint?

Tibial and fibular collateral ligament

d

To contact a Schwann cell, where would a microprobe have to be inserted in the nervous system? a. Anywhere in the CNS b. Near or at a neuron cell body c. Alongside an unmyelinated axon in the CNS d. Along any axon in the PNS, myelinated or not e. In none of the locations above

Appearance of the epiphyseal line means:

Total replacement of epiphyseal plate by bone All chondrocytes of the epiphyseal plate are dead The end of the lengthwise growth of that bone

Which of the following is characteristic of spongy bone tissue, but not of compact bone tissue

Trabeculae

Which type of epithelium lines the renal pelvis, ureters, and urinary bladder?

Transitional

What cell type makes up the inner lining of the urinary bladder?

Transitional epithelium

___ is a tissue which is easily stretched. It consists of several layers of cells which separate an open space from a basal or reticular lamina, and the surface cells are usually dome shaped if the tissue is not stretched at the time of fixation

Transitional epithelium

A __________ section of the body would reveal the location of the heart with respect to the sternum.

Transverse

Distinguishing features of the cervical vertebrae include the ___ which provide a bony channel for blood vessels supplying the brain

Transverse foramen

Which portion of a vertebrae DOES NOT surround the spinal cord to keep it protected from injury?

Transverse process

Using the following directional terms decide which bone is being described: proximal to metacarpal I, distal to the scaphoid bone; lateral to the trapezoid bone.

Trapezium

The nasal concha create___, which increases the ability of the nose to trap dust, preventing it from reaching the lungs.

Turbulence

a

Which is not an infrahyoid muscle? a. Mylohyoid b. Thyrohyoid c. Omohyoid d. Sternohyoid e. Sternothyroid

c

Two muscles that insert on the angle and rams of the mandible, and that elevate the mandible are: 1) masseter 2) medial pterygoid 3) lateral pterygoid 4) temporalis a. 1, 4 b. 3, 4 c. 1, 2 d. 2, 3

a

Two prominent tendons you can palpate at the popliteal fossa arise from a. semitendinosus and biceps femoris b. pectorals major and latissimus doors c. trees major and triceps brachii d. adductor magnus and biceps femoris e. sartorius and gracilis

e

Types of synapses include all of the following EXCEPT a. Axoaxonic b. Axosomatic C. Neuromuscular junction d. Axodendritic e. None of the above are exceptions

cranial nerves that transmit sensory impulses from the taste buds

VII, IX, X

Of the following structures, which is not covered or lined by the integumentary system?

Vaginal canal

a

Voluntary skeletal muscle fibers in the leg are innervated by a. Somatic motor fibers b. Visceral motor fibers c. Postganglionic fibers d. Preganglionic fibers e. All of the above

The facial bone that is not paired either during development or in the adult is the

Vomer

a

What are the gaps between myelinated segments of an axon? a. nodes of Ranvier b. synaptic clefts c. satellite gaps d. tangled plaques e. myelin gaps

c

What condition is associated with decreased production of dopamine? a. glioma b. tic douloureux c. Parkinson disease d. Alzheimer disease e. meningitis

e

What does the lateral horn of the spinal cord contain? a. Somas of somatic motor neurons b. Sensory (afferent) neuron somas c. Spinothalmic tracts d. Interneurons e. Neurons of the sympathetic nervous system

d

What immune disorder results in deterioration of the myelin sheath in the CNS? a. Anencephaly b. Parkinson's disease c. Spina bifida d. Mutliple sclerosis e. Tay-Sachs disease

b

What information is carried in the gracile fasciculus? a. sensory signals from level T6 and up for pain, touch, and proprioception b. sensory signals from below level T6 for visceral pain, touch, and proprioception from the lower limbs c. signals for light touch, tickle, and temperature from the upper limbs d. descending motor commands to limb muscles for balance and posture e. motor commands for fine control of limb muscles

a

What is found in the central canal of the spinal cord? a. cerebrospinal fluid b. meningeal fluid c. blood plasma d. astrocytes e. oliodendrocytes

d

What is the best description of epidural space? a. between arachnoid mater and pia mater b. Contains blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the spinal cord c. Between pia mater and spinal cord d. Contains a layer of adipose tissue e. Consists of collagen and elastic fiber network; has no blood vessels

d

What is the best description of the epidural space? a. between arachnoid mater and pia mater b. contains blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the spinal cord c. between pia mater and spinal cord d. contains a layer of adipose tissue e. consists of collagen and elastic fiber network; has no blood vessels

b

What is the neurilemma? a. Body of a Schwann cell b. Outermost layer of a Schwann cell c. Entire cell membrane of a neuron d. Outermost layer of an oligodendrocyte e. Another name for the endoneurium

b

What is the result of the loss of the centrioles in neurons during the process of differentiation? a. These cells cannot manufacture additional ribosomes b. These cells become incapable of division to replace damaged or lost cells c. The mitochondria produce more energy than with centrioles present d. These cells lose other colors and begin to appear gray e. Both B and C

c

What muscle inserts on the lesser trochanter of the femur? a. Vastus medialis b. Adductor longus c. Iliopsoas d. Adductor magnus e. Rectus femoris

b

Which muscle has three attachments to bone? a. Thyrohyoid b. Sternocleidomastoid c. Stylohyoid d. Sternohyoid e. Mylohyoid

b

Which muscle inserts on the coronoid process of the mandible? a. Masseter b. Temporalis c. Omohyoid d. Zygomaticus major e. Lateral pterygoid

e

What role does a first-order neuron play in the passage of a sensory signal to the brain? a. The first-order neuron carries the signal to the sensory area of the cerebral cortex. b. The soma of the first-order neuron in the cerebral cortex and the axon terminates in the spinal cord. c. The first-order neuron has no role in sensory signal transmission. d. The first-order neuron carries the sensory signal to the thalamus. e. The first-order neuron detects the stimulus and transmits a signal to the spinal cord or brain-stem.

a

What structure does cerebrospinal fluid flow through as it passes from the third to the fourth ventricle? a. cerebral aqueduct b. interventricular foramen c. corpus callosum d. central canal e. dural sinus

c

What structure does cerebrospinal fluid flow through as it passes from the third to the fourth ventricle? a. interventricular foramen b. corpus callosum c. cerebral aqueduct d. central canal e. dural sinus

d

What structure stores calcium ions that trigger contraction? a. synaptic vessicles b. mitochondria c. T tubules d. sarcoplasmic reticulum e. myofibrils

d

When a muscle contracts only enough to produce tension without movement, this is an example of a. Hypertrophy b. Activation c. Twitch d. Muscle tone e. Atrophhy

c

When a muscle joins a bone and has no visible tendon, it is said to have a. an indirect attachment b. an aponeurosis c. a direct attachment d. a hidden insertion e. a retinaculum

e

When contraction occurs, a. The I band begins to disappear b. The Z lines move closer together c. The H band gets smaller d. The A band remains constant e. All of the above

a

When one motor neuron fires a single action potential the result affects one a. Motor unit b. Sensory unit c. Upper motor neuron d. Lower motor neuron e. Synaptic cleft

b

When skeletal muscles contract involuntarily it is usually the result of a. Autonomic reflex b. Spinal reflex arc c. Accidental signal from the brain d. Chemical imbalance e. None of the above

e

Where are upper motor neurons located? a. Spinothalamic tract b. Spinocerebellar c. Cuneate fasciculus d. Gacile fasciculus e. Cerebral cortex or brainstem

b

Where does one find a neuromuscular junction? a. Smooth muscle b. Each skeletal muscle cell c. Each fascicle d. On the heart e. Cardiac muscle

b

Where does the spinal cord end? a. the cauda equina b. the medullary cone c. the lumbar enlargement d. the dorsal median sulcus e. the filum terminale

e

Which best describes the sartorius? a. "workhorse" of the elbow flexors b. lateral hamtring c. boxer's muscle d. swimmer's muscle e. tailor's muscle

a

Which cells have the most mitochondria? a. slow oxidative (SO) fibers b. single-unit smooth muscle myocytes c. cardiac myocytes d. fast glycolytic (FG) fibers e. multi-unit smooth muscle myocytes

e

Which condition occurs when the vertebrae fail to develop a complete neural arch and part of the spinal cord is exposed? a. Microcephaly b. Multiple sclerosis c. Spinal meningitis d. Anencephaly e. Spina bifida

a

Which does not extend the knee? a. biceps femoris b. rectus femoris c. vastus lateralis d. vastus medialis e. vastus intermedius

d

Which glial cells convert glucose to lactate and contribute to the nourishment of neurons? a. microglia b. ependymal cells c. oligodendrocytes d. astrocytes e. Schwann cells

c

Which group of muscles can bring the thighs together, causing the knees to touch? a. Quadriceps femoris b. Hamstrings c. Adductors d. Abductors e. Lateral rotators

d

Which is correct statement? a. thick and thin filaments are arranged into sarcomeres b. a myofiber contains myofibrils c. a myofibril contains thick and thin filaments d. all of the above

e

Which is not a function of skeletal muscle? a. stability b. communication c. heat production d. movement e. all of these are functions of skeletal muscle

c

Which is not an infra hyoid muscle? a. thyrohyoid b. omohyoid c. mylohyoid d. sternohyoid e. sternothyroid

a

Which of the following features are unique to smooth muscle fibers? a. They are involuntary and found in the walls of hollow organs b. They are involuntary and found in the heart c. They are voluntary and responsible for the coordinate movements of the body d. They are involuntary and contain many nuclei e. They are voluntary and control digestion

b

Which of the following is NOT gray matter? a. Centers b. Tracts c. Higher centers d. Neural cortex e. Nuclei

c

Which of the following is NOT true for skeletal muscle fibers? a. a skeletal muscle fiber may be up to 30 cm long b. they contain many peripheral nuclei c. the myofibrils are arranged at right angles to the long axis of the cell, creating cross-striations d. the cells are cylindrical and are arranged in parallel fashion

d

Which of the following is a voluntary muscle? a. cardiac muscle b. all the choices are correct c. none of the choices are correct d. skeletal muscle e. smooth muscle

e

Which of the following is considered to by the "functional unit" of skeletal muscle fibers? a. The myofilaments b. The neuromuscular junction c. The sarcoplasmic reticulum d. The Z disc e. The Sarcomere

a

Which of the following is not a feature of the cranial meninges? a. epidural space b. falx cerebri c. tenrotium cerebelli d. falx cerebelli

b

Which of the following is not a neurotransmitter? a. serotonin b. lipofuscin c. gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) d. glutamate e. acetylcholine

e

Which of the following is not an ascending tract? a. Spinothalamic b. Spinocerebellar c. Cuneate fasciculus d. Gracile fasciculus e. Coricospinal

a

Which of the following is not part of the floor of the oral cavity? a. Thyrohyoid b. Genioglossus c. Diagastric d. Geniohyoid e. Mylohyoid

d

Which of the following is true of myosin? 1) It is located in the A band of the sarcomere 2) it binds to tropomyosin during contraction 3) it forms thick filaments 4) the molecules are helix shaped a. 2, 4 b. 1, 2, 3, 4 c. 1, 2, 4 d. 1, 3

d

Which of the following is true of the dura mater? a. It contains the subarachnoid spaces b. It follows precisely and adheres closely to the contours of the brain tissue. c. It consists of three layers around the brain only. d. The outer (endosteal) layer is fused to the periosteum of the cranial bones e. None of the above are true

c

Which of the following is/are true? 1. synergists are muscles that appose the agonist 2. agonists contract while the antagonists relax 3. the quadriceps femoris and the hamstrings are antagonists a. 1, 2 b. 2 only c. 2, 3 d. 1, 2, 3

d

Which of the following muscles belongs to the group known as "hamstrings"? a. Semimembranosus b. Semitendinosus c. Biceps femoris d. All of the above e. None of the above

b

Which of the following muscles is NOT involved in the process of chewing or manipulating food in the mouth? a. Hyoglossus b. Omohyoid c. Pterygoid d. Masseter e. Temporalis

c

Which of the following muscles is part of the rotator cuff? a. subclavius b. pectoralis minor c. teres minor d. serratus anterior e. rhomboideus major

d

Which of the following nervous system activities don't apply to the neuroglia? a. They isolate neurons They provide a supportive framework for the nervous tissues c. They act as phagocytes d. They transmit electrical signals to axons e. A and B from above

c

Which of the following neuroglia produce cerebrospinal fluid? a. Astrocyte b. Oligodendrocytes c. Ependyma d. Satellite cells e. Microglia

a

Which of the following selections lists only types of glial cells? a. Microglia, oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells b. Apocrine and exocrine cells c. Astrocyte and parenchymal cells d. Merocrine, platelet and ependymal cells e. None of the above

d

Which of the following statements about the ventricles of the brain is FALSE? a. the walls of the all the ventricles contain choroid plexuses that produce cerebrospinal fluid b. a membrane called the septum pellucidum separates the anterior portions of the two lateral ventricles c. the third ventricle is between the left and right halves of the thalamus d. the lateral ventricles connect to the third ventricle via the lateral apertures

b

Which of the following statements is not true regarding oligodendrocytes? a. they form myelin sheaths around central nervous system axons b. they line the fluid-filled ventricles of the brain c. one oligodendrocyte can myelinated several axons d. they are smaller than astrocytes

e

Which of these orders of muscle structures progresses from the largest to smallest in diameter? a. Muscle, muscle fiber, myofibril, fascicle b. Fascicle, myofibril, muscle fiber, filament c. Muscle, myofibril, fascicle, muscle fiber d. fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril, muscle e. Muscle, fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril

e

Which of these processes occurs during the contraction of skeletal muscle? a. myofibrils slide over each other b. calcium ions are taken up by the terminal cisternae c. calcium ions dissociate from troponin d. the myofilaments become shorter e. Z discs move closer together

a

Which part of the nervous system is responsible for maintaining day to day, restful activities? a. parasympathetic division b. sympathetic division c. sensory (afferent) division d. somatic motor division e. central nervous system

b

Which structure of the neuron is included in the neuromuscular junction? a. the dendrites b. the axon terminal c. the axon hillock d. the perikaryon

a

Which two major muscles provide good examples for use of the term "synergists"? a. biceps femoris and semitendinosis b. latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major c. gastrocnemius and tibialis anterior d. flexor carpi ulnaris and extensor carpi ulnaris

The ____ and the ____ optically refract (bend) light a. Lens, cornea b. Lens, ciliary body c. Iris, lens d. Lens, pupil e. Cornea, ciliary body

a

c

Which unique function of the brain occurs in the postcentral gyrus? a. Provides visceral motor responses, serving as center of autonomic nervous system b. Provides voluntary motor control to the skeletal muscle c. Receives primary sensory information of touch, pressure, pain, taste and temperature d. Returns CSF into circulatory system e. None of the above

b

Which white matter fibers connect adjacent gyri? a. Commissural fibers b. Arcuate fibers c. Projection fibers d. Association fibers e. Longitudinal fasiculi fibers

b

White matter includes a. thin outer layer of most of the brain b. tracts in the spinal cord c. ganglia d. nuclei in the brain

c

Why are skeletal muscles called voluntary? a. These muscles maintain a constant rhythm of contraction b. Only these muscles are stimulated to contract by the CNS c. The individual can make a conscious decision to contract these muscles d. A and C are correct e. None of the above are reasons skeletal muscles are "voluntary"

a

Why does skeletal muscle fiber have more than one nucleus? a. During development, groups of embryonic cells fuse together to form a single muscle fiber b. During development, the nucleus of each myoblast replicates several times c. During development, the cell membranes of newly formed muscle fibers disintegrate, making many muscle cells into one d. During muscular activity, parts of each muscle fiber break down, and the remaining parts, including nuclei, fuse into new combination fibers e. All of the above

Extra bones that develop between the usual bones of the skull are called

Wormian bones

e

You are working with a stroke patient who can understand you when you tell her to do something but she is not able to produce grammatical, comprehensible speech. What specific area of the brain is damaged? a. globus pallidus b. limbic system c. language cortex of the occipital lobe d. broca area e. wernicke area

a

Your comprehension of these written words involves a. Wernicke area b. the precentral gyrus c. the Purkinje cells of the cerebellum d. the post central gyrus e. occipital lobe

1. Muscle spindle and Golgi tendon organs are a. Proprioceptors b. Nociceptors c. Chemoreceptors d. Mechanoreceptors e. None of the above

a

A cylindrical lens is used to correct? a. Astigmatism b. Emmetropia c. Presbyopia d. Hyperopia e. Myopia

a

A premature baby born at 27 weeks' gestation is suffering from respiratory distress syndrome. What is the cause? a. There is not enough surfactant to keep the alveoli from collapsing b. The breath was not vigorous enough to op open the alveoli c. The foramen ovale failed to close at birth d. The alveoli are not adequately developed by 27 weeks e. The fluid in the lungs was not adequately reabsorbed by the blood and lymphatic capillaries

a

Another name for: a. Wax in the ear is cerumen b. The external auditory meatus is the Eustachian tube c. Tympanic membrane is the vestibular membrane d. The oval window is the fenestra rotundum e. Middle ear is otitis media

a

Chief cells secrete a. Pepsinogen b. HCl c. Parietal cells d. Secretin e. CCK

a

Deep pressure and vibration are detected by ____, which have onion-like layers of Schwamm cells wrapped around sensory fibers. a. Lamellated (Pacinian) corpuscles b. Tactile (Meissner) corpuscles c. Ruffini corpuscles d. Krause end bulbs e. Free nerve endings

a

Different types of taste buds include a. Fungiform and circumvallate b. Sour and salty c. Sweet and bitter d. Proprioceptors e. None of the above

a

Factors which protect the stomach from self-digestion include all of these EXCEPT a. Desmosomes b. Epithelial cell replacement c. Tight junctions d. Mucous coat

a

Gastrin, which is secreted by the mucous of the stomach, acts to: a. Increase the secretions of the gastric glands b. Inhibit the production of hydrochloric acid c. Initiate the cephalic phase of digestion d. Change pepsin into pepsinogen

a

Identify the membrane that does NOT belong with the others in the list a. Frenulum b. Mesentery c. Falciform ligament d. Greater omentum e. Parietal peritoneum

a

In what order do the following structures vibrate as sound is transmitted? 1) stapes 2) tympanic membrane 3) oval window 4) incus 5) malleus a. 2,5,4,1,3 b. 2,1,5,4,3 c. 5,1,4,2,3 d. 3,4,5,1,2

a

Liver cells called ____ produce bile a. Hepatocytes b. Stellate reticuloendothelial cells c. Phagocytes d. Endothelial cells

a

Nociceptors detect a. Pain b. Pressure c. Positon d. Compression e. Stretch

a

Peyer's patches are found in a. The ileum b. The pancreas c. The duodenum d. The appendix e. The sigmoid colon

a

Place the following in the correct order, as found in the muscularis layer of the stomach, from the outermost to innermost: 1) oblique layer 2) circular layer 3) longitudinal layer a. 3,2,1 b. 2,1,3 c. 1,2,3 d. 3,1,2

a

Select the best description for sebaceous ciliary glands a. At the base of the follicles of the eyelashes b. Embedded in tarsal plate of eyelid c. Near the external opening of the external auditory canal d. In connective tissue underneath the olfactory epithelium e. Superior and lateral to the eyeball

a

The fact that cone cells exhibit less neuronal convergence than rod cells do is part of the reason that a. Cone cells are responsible for high resolution images, but require bright light to function b. Rod cells do not function in bright light c. Cone cells do not see in black and white d. No images are perceived within the optic disc e. Rod cells cannot distinguish different colors from each other

a

The false vocal folds are also called (the) a. Vestibular folds b. Functional folds c. Vocal ligament d. Glottis e. None of the above

a

The final stage of conduction of a sound vibration from the middle ear to the inner ear is by movement of: a. The stapes in the oval window b. The stapes against the scala tympani c. The malleus against the tympanic membrane d. The incus in the round window

a

The floor of the internal nose: a. Is also the hard palate b. Is formed entirely by the palatine processes of the maxillae c. Is also called the nasal septum d. Separates the internal nose form the external nose

a

The function of surfactant is to: a. Reduce the surface tension in the fluid coating alveolar fluid to prevent alveolar collapse b. Phagocytize particulate matter that has eluded the respiratory defenses and reaches the alveoli c. Cause capillaries to adhere closely to the alveolar surface to promote gas exchange d. Cause diffusion e. None of the above

a

The hilum of the lung is on its a. Mediastinal surface b. Cupola c. Costal surface d. Base e. Cardiac notch

a

The lacrimal glands a. Produce watery, slightly alkaline secretions b. Produce less fluid than the ocular conjunctiva c. Function only during stress d. Are located in pockets of lacrimal bone e. Have all of the above attributes

a

The large cartilage of the larynx with an expansive posterior surface is the a. Cricoid cartilage b. Thyroid cartilage c. Arytenoid cartilage d. Corniculate cartilage e. None of the above

a

The largest of the following is a. Thyroid cartilage b. The epiglottic cartilage c. The Corniculate cartilage d. The arytenoid cartilage e. The cricoid cartilage

a

The muscular layer nearest the lumen is the a. Muscularis mucosae b. Longitudinal layer of the muscularis externa c. Oblique layer of the muscularis externa d. Circular layer of the muscularis externa e. None of the above

a

The outer ear includes all of these except the a. Ear ossicles b. Pinna c. Ceruminous glands d. External auditory canal e. Tympanic recess

a

The physically smallest of these surface area increasing structures of the small intestine is a. The microvilli b. The rugae c. The ciliated cells d. The villi e. The plicae circulares

a

The principal muscles of inspiration are the ____ and ____. a. Diaphragm, external intercostals b. Diaphragm, sternocleidomastoid c. Diaphragm, internal intercostals d. Internal intercostals, external intercostals

a

The rapid control of equilibrium (as when running) is maintained primarily as a result of the sensory information coming from a. The vestibular apparatus b. The ears c. The proprioceptors in the neck d. The eyes e. The proprioceptors in the body

a

The semicircular ducts are filled with a. Endolymph b. Aqueous humor c. Cerumen d. Perilymph e. Vitreous humor

a

The semicircular ducts lie within a. The membranous labyrinth b. The semicircular canals c. The middle ear d. The auditory tube e. The vestibule

a

The size difference between the tympanic membrane and the oval window causes vibrations to a. Amplify b. Become faint c. Become more frequent d. Change tone e. Do none of the above

a

The tympanum responds to vibrations (in a child) in the range of a. 20-20,000 Hz b. 20-200 Hz c. 200-2,000 Hz d. 200-20,000 Hz e. 2-2,000 Hz

a

There are total of ____ lobes in BOTH lungs a. 5 b. 2 c. 4 d. 3 e. 6

a

Tightening the vocal cords during sound production will result a. A higher pitch to the sound produced b. Increased pressure on the glottis c. No effect on volume or pitch of the sounds produced d. A lower pitch to the sound produced e. Increased volume of sounds produced

a

Visceral pain that is sometimes felt in more superficial areas of the body is called a. Referred pain b. Fast pain c. Nociceptive pain d. Slow pain e. All of the above

a

Visual information from the retinas first arrives for processing at a. The lateral geniculate nuclei b. The temporal lobes c. The hippocampus d. The occipital lobes e.None of the above

a

What aspect of hearing will be lost if the base of the cochlea is damaged? a. High-frequency sounds will not be heard b. Sound interpretation and pattern recognition will be difficult or impossible c. Tones and patterns will become incomprehensible d. Low frequency sounds will not be heard e. The individual will respond to sounds and have normal acoustic reflexes

a

What is the function of the converting enzyme secreted by the alveolar capillaries? a. It assists in the hormonal regulation of blood volume and pressure b. It causes an increase in the secretion of surfactant c. It activates parasympathetic nervous components of the autonomic nervous system to cause alveolar smooth muscles to contract d. It makes the respiratory membrane more soluble to gases e. All of the above are true

a

What is the function of the saccule and utricle? a. They perceive static equilibrium b. They perceive sound c. They detect low frequency vibrations d. They detect change in the rate of rotation e. They detect linear acceleration

a

What is the significance of the C-shaped cartilages that reinforce the tracheal rings? a. The incomplete portion of the C-shaped cartilages are located at the posterior of the tracheal cartilages, to permit the esophagus to bulge anteriorly into the tracheal lumen in transient fashion to permit a large bolus to pass b. These cartilages hold the trachea rigidly open at the same diameter at all times c. They form a solid cartilaginous tube d. The open region permits passage of the nerves that stimulate the muscles of the laryngeal region e. None of the above are true

a

When air is drawn in through the nose, a. It is swirled to provide the turbulence that brings airborne compounds to the olfactory organs b. Sniffing repeatedly increases the intensity of the olfactory stimulation and permits sampling of virtually all of the air taken in at each inspiration c. In a normal, relaxed inspiration approximately 80% of the air passes the olfactory organs d. Lipid-soluble materials are absorbed into the mucus prior to being able to be smelled, while water-soluble molecules are sampled directly e. None of the above happen

a

Where are stem cells of the small intestine located? a. Intestinal crypts b. Duodenal (Brunner) glands c. Peyer patches d. Intestinal sinusoids e. Gastric pits

a

Which is not true of nasal conchae? a. They reduce turbulence inside the nasal cavity b. There are superior, middle, and inferior nasal conchae c. They help warm the air d. They help cleanse the air e. They help moisten the air

a

Which of the following correctly indicates the direction of travel of sound waves? a. Tympanic membrane, ossicles, oval window, perilymph, vestibular membrane, endolymph, basilar membrane b. Tympanic membrane, ossicles, round window, basilar membrane, perilymph, oval window c. Tympanic membrane, oval window, perilymph, basilar membrane, round window d. Tympanic membrane, round window, perilymph, basilar membrane

a

Which of the following cutaneous receptors are responsible for fine touch? 1) type 1 cutaneous mechanoreceptors 2) end organs of ruffini 3) type 2 cutaneous mechanoreceptors 4) corpuscles of touch (Meissner's) a. 1,4 b. 2,4 c. 1.3 d. 1.2.3.4

a

Which of the following develop as specialized muscle fibers? a. Muscle spindles b. Joint kinesthetic receptors c. Tendon organs d. Hair cells of the inner ear

a

Which of the following does not form part of the nasal septum? a. Inferior nasal conchae b. Cartilage c. Vomer d. Ethmoid

a

Which of the following is NOT associated with the duodenum? a. Lies entirely within the peritoneal cavity b. Presence of many microvilli and villi c. Encloses head of the pancreas d. Shortest portion of the small intestine e. Opening of the common bile duct at the Hepatopancreatic ampulla

a

Which of the following is NOT filled with perilymph? a. Cochlear duct b. Scala tympani c. Vestibule d. Scala vestibuli

a

Which of the following is NOT true of the trachea? a. It is a tubular passageway, posterior to the esophagus b. The outer layer of the wall of the trachea, the adventitia, is a layer of areolar connective tissue that joins the trachea to surrounding tissues c. It is lined by a mucous membrane containing pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium, goblet cells and basal cells d. Its wall contains 16-20 C shaped rings of hyaline cartilage

a

Which of the following is an anatomical feature of the small intestine that serves the surface area for digestion and absorption? a. Microvilli b. Rugae c. Lacteals d. All of the above

a

Which one of the following is the correct sequence for the passage of nerve impulse? 1) lateral geniculate nucleus 2) optic tract 3) optic nerve 4) optic chiasma 5) optic radiation a. 3,4,2,1,5 b. 1,2,3,4,5 c. 4,3,2,5,1 d. 2,3,4,1,5 e. 5,1,2,4,3

a

Which one of the following would be pierced second by the point of a pin entering a tooth from the surface of the crown? a. Dentin b. Root canal c. Pulp d. Enamel

a

Which one of the following would be pierced third by the point of a pin entering a tooth from the surface of the crown? a. Pulp b. Root canal c. Dentin d. Enamel

a

A fibrous joint cannot also be

a diarthrosis

LCT: Areolar tissue

a general covering found on muscle and other organs. all cell types, all three types of fibers

Intervertebral compression in an abnormal direction can cause

a herniated disk

hypodermis

adipocytes, blood vessels. optimal absorption.

The sphenoid has all of the following features except

a pterygoid canal (it does have lesser wings, a foramen spinosum, a foramen ovale, and an optic foramen)

gap junction

a spot like junction between adjacent cells allows free movement of small molecules between cells. Provides fluent nutrient transport. Has bigger passages for nutrients and ions.

If two bones are joined so firmly together they cannot move, they form

a synostosis

Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

abnormally loose and long collagen fibers, joints= hyperflexible

eosinophils

acidic dye

Which of the following ligaments attaches the clavicle to the scapula?

acromioclavicular

heparin

anticoagulant- increases blood flow so it can bring nutrients to infected area.

Langerhan cells

antigen systems, identifies infect cells and removes them from the body. UV radiation can decrease, kill these and that is how skin cancer happens.

parts or structures located within or on the auricle include

antitragus

blood pressure is monitored by

aortic sinus carotid sinus baroreceptors

Both exocrine and endocrine glands

are derived from epithelial tissues

All diarthrotic joints

are enclosed by a synovial lined capsule and always have ligaments uniting the bones of the joint

Calluses form in areas that

are subject to friction

A typical long bone has

articular cartilage on the epiphysis

function of the converting enzyme secreted by the alveolar capillaries

assists in the hormonal regulation of blood volume and pressure

erythopoetin

athletic advantage increases volume of blood cells and allows you to carry a long of oxygen. "blood doping" - thicken blood difficulty to pump, enhances marrow

Protection for the interior surface of the stomach against the acids and enzymes in the gastric lumen is afforded by: a. The shallow depressions called gastric pits b. The carpet of mucus secreted by the columnar epithelium lining all portions of the stomach c. The rapid rate of mechanical mixing of the stomach contents which exposes the lining to chyme for a short time d. The esophageal sphincter e. None of the above

b

Structures that unite to form the common bile duct include 1) Hepatopancreatic sphincter 2) porta hepatis 3) cystic duct 4) common hepatic duct 5) duodenal papilla a. 1,2 b. 3,4 c. 1,3,5 d. 2,4 e. 1,2,3

b

Tears are produced by a. The lacrimal sac b. The lacrimal glands c. The tarsal glands d. The lateral canthi e. The puncta lacrimalia

b

The Eustachian tube which connects to the nasopharynx and the a. Inner ear b. Middle ear c. Cochlea d. External ear e. None of the above

b

The Falciform ligament a. Is a remnant of the umbilical vein b. Attaches the liver to the abdominal wall c. Attaches the stomach to the diaphragm d. Attaches the liver to the diaphragm e. Attaches the gallbladder to the liver

b

The ____ is an internal feature of the lower respiratory tract located at the bifurcation of the trachea into bronchi a. Cupula b. Carina c. Epiglottis d. Rimi vestibule

b

The _____ is shared by the digestive and respiratory systems a. Larynx b. Pharynx c. Nasal septum d. Esophagus e. Nasal cavity

b

The auditory tube a. Spirals around the modiolus of the cochlea b. Leads from the nasopharynx to the middle ear c. Leads from the tympanic membrane to the oval window d. Includes the vestibule and semicircular ducts e. Leads from the pinna to the tympanic membrane

b

The auditory tube connects the ____ to the _____. a. Nasopharynx, oropharynx b. Middle ear cavity, nasopharynx c. Middle ear cavity, laryngopharynx d. Middle ear cavity, internal ear e. Oval window, round window

b

The basic functional unit of the liver is the a. Hepatocyte b. Liver lobule c. The stellate reticuloendothelial cells d. The Falciform, round, and coronary ligaments e. None of the above

b

The epithelium covering the inner surface of the eyelids and the outer surface of the eye except the cornea is called the a. Lacrimal gland b. Conjunctiva c. Cornea d. Lacrimal caruncle e. None of the above

b

The epithelium covering the inner surface of the eyelids and the outer surface of the eye is called (the): a. Cornea b. Conjunctiva c. Lacrimal gland d. Lacrimal caruncle e. None of the above

b

The external acoustic meatus is surrounded by a. The oval window b. The auricle c. The cochlear duct d. The round window e. The tympanum

b

The fat covered membrane protecting the large and small intestine anteriorly is the a. Meninges b. Greater omentum c. Pleura d. Mesentery e. Peritoneum

b

The fat-covered membrane protecting the large and small intestine anteriorly is the: a. Peritoneum b. Greater omentum c. Meninges d. Mesentery e. Pleura

b

The footplate of the stapes covers an opening called a. The auditory canal b. Oval window c. Round window d. Auditory tube e. Crista ampullaris

b

The function of the Eustachian tube is to: a. Magnify sounds b. Equalize air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane c. Help us maintain our equilibrium d. Equalize blood pressure in all parts of the body during exercise Drain off extra secretions from the lacrimal gland

b

The fundus of the stomach a. Is the canal in the pyloric portion of the stomach b. Is the upper portion which balloons to the left and superior to the entrance of the esophagus c. Is the relatively constricted portion at the terminal end of the stomach d. Is the lower leg of the l-shaped stomach e. Is the central portion

b

The fundus of the stomach a. Is the relatively constricted portion at the terminal end of the stomach b. The upper portion which balloons to the left and superior to the entrance of the esophagus c. Is the lower leg of the I shaped stomach d. Is the central portion e. Is the canal in the pyloric portion of the stomach

b

The head of pancreas is located closest to the: a. Inferior surface of the liver b. Curve the duodenum c. Lesser curvature of the stomach d. Medial surface of the spleen

b

The ileum joins the colon at the a. Sigmoid colon b. Cecum c. Vermiform appendix d. Rectum e. Descending colon

b

The middle lobar bronchus is found a. In the left lung only b. In the right lung only c. Only in males d. In both lungs e. Only in very large individuals

b

The most important skeletal muscles involved in making unstressed respiratory movements include the a. Serratus anterior and levator scapulae b. Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles c. Rectus abdominus, external and internal oblique, and the transverses abdominus d. Intrinsic back muscles and the scalenus anterior and medius e. All of the above

b

The openings of the auditory tubes are located in the a. Laryngopharynx b. Nasopharynx c. Larynx d. Oropharynx e. Nasal cavity

b

The organs of equilibrium, the semicircular canals: a. Are described by none of the above b. Are located within the petrous portion of the temporal bone c. Are also called the malleus, incus, and stapes d. Are found in the cerebellum, or hind brain e. Rest on the occipital condyles

b

The partially digested fluid that passes from the stomach into the small intestine is a. Bile b. Chyme c. Saliva d. Mucus e. Feces

b

The primary physiological function of the iris of the eye is to a. Focus the visual image onto the optic disc b. Control light levels entering the eye c. Provide the coloring of the eye d. Focus the visual image on the retinal photoreceptors e. Maintain the shape of the eye

b

The release of bile into the duodenum is controlled by a. Pepsin b. Increases in CCK and secretin c. The Gastroesphageal sphincter d. GIP

b

The respiratory centers regulate the activities of the respiratory muscles by: a. Responding to the changes the conscious mind dictates to them during periods of physiological stress only b. Adjusting the frequency and depth of pulmonary ventilation c. Acting directly to change heart rate and cardiac output d. Stimulating the nuclei of the parasympathetic nervous system e. Doing none of the above

b

The shortest portion of the small intestine is the a. Jejunum b. Duodenum c. Appendix d. Ileum e. Colon

b

The structure attached to the soft palate that helps close off the nasopharynx during swallowing is the ____. a. Tongue b. Uvula c. Fauces d. Epiglottis

b

Vibrations of the cochlear membrane lead to the production of electrical impulses which stimulate sensory neurons because: a. They create vibrations in the cochlear duct b. They bend hair cells of the organ of corti c. None of the foregoing d. They cause the round window to vibrate

b

We sense rotary movements of the head when the endolymph pushes on the gelatinous cap called the ____ in a semicircular duct. a. Utricle b. Cupula c. Saccule d. Papilla e. Otolith

b

What is likely to happen if the epiglottis fails to fold over the glottis during the act of swallowing food or liquid? a. Air may enter the trachea b. Food or liquid may enter the trachea c. The person may be induced to sneeze d. Nothing is likely to happen e. None of the above are true

b

What is the function of the bony hard palate that forms a portion of the roof of the nasal cavity? a. It acts as a vertical strut to separate the left and right nasal cavities b. It forms the floor of the nasal cavity and separates the oral and nasal cavities c. It stiffens and reinforces the soft palate d. It contains more ciliated epithelial cells than soft tissues because of the stiffness of the support it provides e. None of the above are correct

b

What is the hepatic flexure? a. The boundary between the liver and duodenum b. The boundary between the ascending and transverse colon c. The boundary between the transverse and descending colon d. The curve in the diaphragm that accommodates the liver e. A curve in the caudate lobe of the liver

b

What is the source of most of the parasympathetic innervation of the digestive tract? a. Phrenic nerve b. Vagus nerve c. Enteric nerves d. Splanchnic nerves e. Glossopharyngeal nerve

b

What structure corresponds the "Adam's apple"? a. Epiglottis b. Thyroid cartilage c. The Corniculate cartilage d. The arytenoid cartilage e. The cricoid cartilage

b

What would be affected if bile secretion was inhibited? a. Protein digestion b. Fat digestion c. Glucose absorption d. Starch digestion e. Cholesterol production

b

Which muscles(s) contract during forced expiration? a. Sternocleidomastoid b. Rectus abdominus c. Diaphragm d. Pectoralis minor e. External intercostals

b

Which of the following cartilages are NOT paired? a. Arytenoid b. Thyroid c. Corniculate d. Cuneiform e. All of the above are paired

b

Which of the following cell types secrete gastrin? a. Chief cells b. Enterendocrine cells c. Mucous cells d. Regenerative cells e. Parietal cells

b

Which of the following correctly lists the order in which air flows through the respiratory tract? a. Larynx; pharynx; trachea; bronchi; bronchioles b. Pharynx; larynx; trachea; bronchi; bronchioles c. Larynx; pharynx; trachea; bronchioles; bronchi d. Pharynx; trachea; larynx; bronchi; bronchioles e. Larynx; pharynx; bronchi; trachea; bronchioles

b

Which of the following does not form part of the nasal septum? a. Ethmoid b. Inferior nasal conchae c. Cartilage d. Vomer

b

Which of the following is not a feature of the external ear? a. Tympanic membrane b. Lobule c. Auditory (Eustachian) tube d. Helix

b

Which of the following is not a proprioceptor? a. Tendon organ b. Hair root plexus c. Muscle spindle d. Hair cells in the inner ear

b

Which of the following is part of the fibrous tunic of the eye? a. Choroid b. Sclera c. Retina d. Vitreous body e. Rods

b

Which of the following is/are not (an) accessory structure(s) of the eye? a. Lacrimal apparatus b. Intrinsic muscles c. Eyelashes d. Palpebrae

b

structures that form the respiratory membrane include

basement membrane of the alveolar epithelium and capillary walls

basophils

basic dye

How would damage or removal of parts of the mesentery interfere with normal function of the small intestine? a. It would cause an increase in peristalsis b. Hormone secretion would increase c. The blood and nerve supply would suffer interference d. The intestines would lose some of their mobility e. None of the above are true

c

Identify the incorrect statement about the respiratory tract a. It consists of airways that carry air to and from the exchange surface of the lungs b. It consists of a respiratory and conducting portion c. It has respiratory bronchioles in the conducting portion d. Alveoli occurs where gas exchange actually takes place e. The conducting portion is dependent upon receiving lubricating fluid secreted by the respiratory surfaces

c

If the upper respiratory tract becomes blocked, it might be necessary to perform a procedure called _____. a. Laryngectomy b. Bronchodilation c. Tracheostomy d. Bronchiostomy e. Atelectasis

c

In humans, chemical breakdown of starch begins in the a. Stomach b. Food before it enters our mouths c. Mouth d. Small intestine e. Esophagus

c

In response to the hormone cholecystokinin, the pancreas secretes a. A fluid rich in bicarbonate b. Bile c. A fluid rich in enzymes d. Proteinases e. All of the above

c

In what order do the following structures vibrate as sound is transmitted? 1) stapes 2) tympanic membrane 3) oval window 4) incus 5) malleus a. 2,1,5,4,3 b. 3,4,5,1,2 c. 2,5,4,1,3 d. 5,1,4,2,3

c

Inner and outer hair cells are components of the a. Tectorial membrane b. Cochlea c. Organ of corti d. Saccule e. Crista ampullaris

c

Kupffer cells are found in sinusoids of a. The appendix b. The intestinal crypts c. The liver d. The pancreas e. The gastric glands

c

Most nutrients absorbed form digestion pass directly into the liver via the: a. Renal artery b. Hepatic vein c. Hepatic portal vein d. Descending aorta e. Common bile duct

c

Most nutrients absorbed from digestion pass directly into the liver via the a. Hepatic vein b. Renal artery c. Hepatic portal vein d. Descending aorta e. Common bile duct

c

Muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs are a. Chemoreceptors b. Mechanoreceptors c. Proprioceptors d. Nociceptors e. None of the above

c

Of these, which is (are) a tonic receptor(s)? a. Pacinian corpuscle b. Meissner's corpuscle c. Ruffini corpuscle d. A and B from above e. B and C from above

c

Pigment in the ___ prevents ____ of light rays landing on the retina. a. Retina, accommodation b. Sclera, corrosion c. Choroid, reflection d. Iris, inversion e. Cornea, convergence

c

Place the following in the correct order for the transmission of olfactory information that results in odor perception. 1) olfactory bulbs 2) olfactory tract 3) temporal cortex 4) olfactory nerves 5) frontal cortex a. 4,2,1,3,5 b. 2,4,1,3,5 c. 4,1,2,3,5 d. 2,1,4,3,5

c

Segmentation movements differ from those of peristalsis because segmentation movements: a. Depend on coordinated contractions of the circular and longitudinal muscle layers b. Propel contents along the length of the digestive tract c. Churn and mix the digestive tract contents but produce no net movement in a particular direction d. Require electrical stimulation of each smooth muscle fiber individually e. Differ in all of the manners described above

c

Select the best description for the ceruminous glands a. Embedded in tarsal plate of eyelid b. In connective tissue underneath the olfactory epithelium c. Near the external opening of the external auditory canal d. At the base of the follicles of the eyelashes e. Superior and lateral to the eyeball

c

Sensory nerve impulses may be integrated at all of the following levels of the CNS. Perception, however, occurs when sensory impulses reach which region? a. Brain stem b. Thalamus c. Cerebral cortex d. Spinal cord

c

Sensory receptors of the ear are a. Merkel cells b. The ossicles c. Hair cells d. The tympanic membrane e. None of the above

c

Taste cells detect all of the following tastes except a. Bitter b. Umami c. Spicy d. Sweet e. Salty

c

The Valsalva maneuver a. Prevents food and drink from entering the trachea b. Protects the lungs from over inflation c. Increases pressure in the abdominal cavity helps to expel abdominal contents d. Is used to dislodge foreign matter from the airway

c

The ____ is/are the first portion(s) of the respiratory tract to enter lung tissue a. Tertiary bronchi b. Secondary bronchi c. Primary bronchi d. Trachea

c

The auditory tube a. Lends from the tympanic membrane to the oval window b. Includes the vestibule and semicircular ducts c. Leads from the nasopharynx to the middle ear d. Leads from the pinna to the tympanic membrane e. Spirals around the modiolus of the cochlea

c

The contractile activities of the muscularis externa are regulated primarily by the a. Neurons of Meisser's plexus b. Somatic motor neurons c. Neurons of the myenteric plexus d. Parasympathetic stimulation e. Sympathetic stimulation

c

The correct order of digestive tube layers, from lumen outward is 1) mucous 2) muscularis externa 3) serosa 4) submucosa a. 1,4,3,2 b. 4,1,2,3 c. 1,4,2,3 d. 4,2,3,1 e. 3,1,2,4

c

The epiglottis a. Consists of a leaf-shaped piece of hyaline cartilage b. Is attached posteriorly to the thyroid cartilage c. Serves to rout food and liquids into the esophagus d. All of the above

c

The epithelium covering the inner surface of the eyelids and the outer surface of the eye except the cornea is called (the) a. Cornea b. Lacrimal caruncle c. Conjunctiva d. Lacrimal gland e. None of the above

c

The esophagus: a. Has muscular walls made up of cartilaginous rings b. Contains permanent circular folds c. Extends from the pharynx to the stomach d. Contains microscopic glands which secrete HCl e. Lies anterior to the trachea and heart

c

blood supply to the large intestine is from

celiac trunk and inferior mesenteric artery

hypotrophic

cell growth, individual cells get bigger and bigger

Characteristics of epithlium

cellular, little intercellular matrix polar: apical and basal surfaces, attached to the connective tissue by a basement membrane; avascular; regenerative properties

each hepatic lobule consists of plate of epithelial cells radially arranged around a blood vessel called

central vein

chemoreceptor reflexes regulate the response to

changes in the pH of the blood

the iris is attached to the anterior region of the

ciliary body

Orientation of which dermal fibers is responsible for "lines of cleavage" (tension lines) seen in the skin?

collagen

The most significant organic component of the matrix of bone is

collagenous fibers

three connective tissues produced by fibroblasts

collagenous fibers, elastic fibers, reticular fibers

organic

collagenous fibers, glycosaminos glycans, proteoglycans, glycoproteins

Components of the external ear in correct order from the outside to the inside include: 1) tympanum 2) external auditory canal 3) ceruminous glands 4) external auditory meatus 5) pinna 6) pharyngotympanic 7) tensor tympani muscle a. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 b. 2,4,5,1,3,6 c. 7,6,5,4,3,2,1 d. 5,4,3,2,1 e. 1.3,5,7

d

Distention of the gastric mucosa is permitted by the: a. Relaxation of the pyloric sphincter b. Circular folds c. Cardiac sphincter d. Rugae e. Villi

d

Each tertiary bronchus leads to one a. Lung b. Lobe c. Septum d. Bronchopulmonary segment e. None of the above

d

Expansion and inflation of the lungs during inspiration is a result of: a. Atmospheric pressure b. Contraction of the main inspiratory muscles c. Surface tension between the parietal and visceral pleura d. All of the above

d

Food is prevented from moving into the nasal cavity during swallowing by the a. Fauces b. Palatine tonsils c. Tongue d. Soft palate e. Epiglottis

d

Hemi-decussation occurs at a. The lateral geniculate nucleus b. The retina of each eye c. Medical geniculate nucleus d. The optic chiasma e. The optic nerve

d

How do the tensor tympani and stapedius muscles affect the ability of the ear to amplify sounds? a. They do not affect this ability b. They enhance the ability of the tympanum to respond to vibration produced by sounds in the auditory canal c. They regulate the opening and closing of the pharyngotympanic tube d. They reduce the movement at the tympanum and oval window respectively, dampen excessively loud sounds e. None of the above are true

d

Human cells obtain energy primarily a. To assist in the movement of blood by decreasing its density by the addition of gases b. By anaerobic respiration c. Through gas exchange, gain of O2, and elimination of CO2 d. Through metabolic process known as aerobic respiration e. None of the above are ways or reasons contain energy

d

In correct order the pathway followed by tears cleaning the eyes is 1) entering the nasolacrimal duct 2) accumulating at the medial canthus 3) passing through the lacrimal puncta 4) entering the lacrimal sac 5) entering the lacrimal canals a. 1,2,3,4,5 b. 5,4,3,2,1 c. 1,3,5,2,4 d. 2,3,5,4,1 e. 3,4,1,2,5

d

In correct order, the pathway followed by tears cleaning the eyes is: 1) entering the nasolacrimal duct 2) accumulating the medial canthus 3) passing through the lacrimal puncta 4) entering the lacrimal sac 5) entering the lacrimal canals a. 3,4,1,2,5 b. 5,4,3,2,1 c. 1,2,3,4,5 d. 2,3,5,4,1 e. 1,3,5,2,4

d

Lacteals are located in a. Villi in the large intestine b. The liver lobe c. The large intestine d. Villi in the small intestine e. The stomach

d

Light sensations form the temporal half of the left retina are interpreted in a. Both occipital lobes of the cerebrum b. The right occipital lobe due to decussation c. Both parietal lobes of the cerebrum d. The left occipital lobe of the cerebrum e. The left parietal lobe of the cerebrum

d

Mesenteries that are attached to the stomach include a. The greater omentum b. The lesser omentum c. The mesentery proper d. A and B e. B and C

d

Mucus found on the surface of the olfactory epithelium a. Makes it possible for odorant gases to react with the olfactory receptors b. Is produced in increased amounts in response to stimulation by the facial nerves c. Is produced by glands beneath the olfactory epithelium d. All of the above

d

Obstruction or blockage of the nasolacrimal duct will prevent drainage of tears into the: a. Vitreous humor b. Ciliary body c. Aqueous humor d. Nasal cavity

d

Receptors that detect the sense of position or movement of the body are specifically known as a. Nociceptors b. Interoceptors c. Exteroceptors vessel d. Proprioceptors e. Mechanoreceptors

d

Select the best description for the circumvallate papillae: a. Distributed in V-shape row on the anterior portion of the tongue b. Mushroom shaped; evenly distributed over the tongue c. Contain no taste buds d. Largest type; all contain taste buds

d

Select the best description for the filiform papillae a. Distributed in V shape row on the anterior portion on the tongue b. Mushroom shaped; evenly distributed over the tongue c. Largest type; all contain taste buds d. Contain no taste buds

d

Smell and taste involve specialized epithelial cells called: a. Pacinian corpuscles b. Stretch receptors c. All of the above d. Chemoreceptors e. Kinesthetic receptors

d

Structures which comprise the triad in a liver lobe include all of these except a. A branch of the hepatic artery b. A branch of the hepatic portal vein c. A branch of the bile duct d. The SR e. All of these are parts of the triad in the liver

d

Taenia coli are part of the ____ musculature of the _____. a. Circular, large intestine b. Oblique, stomach c. Circular, small intestine d. Longitudinal, large intestine e. Longitudinal, esophagus

d

Taste buds of a young adult are located on the a. Tongue and soft palate b. Epiglottis of the larynx c. Pharynx d. All of the above

d

Tears produced in the lacrimal gland ultimately reach the ____ by the way of the ____. a. Lens-pupil b. Cornea-anterior chamber c. Retina-vitreous humor d. Nose-nasolacrimal duct e. Canal of Schlemm-posterior chamber

d

The air passages beneath the conchae that create turbulence within the nasal cavity are a. Chonae b. Fossae c. Nares d. Meatuses e. Conchae

d

The arrival of ____ in the ___ triggers the release of CCK and secretin a. Chyme, small intestine b. Food, stomach c. Chyme, stomach d. Chyme, duodenum e. Acids, stomach

d

The auditory ossicles connect the a. Cochlea to the tympanic membrane b. Cochlea to the round window c. Tympanic membrane to the round window d. Tympanic membrane to the oval window e. None of the above

d

The base of the lung is a. Just superior to the diaphragm b. The inferior surface c. Concave d. All of the above

d

The major functions of the stomach include all of the following except: a. Storage of the bulk of ingested food b. Mechanical breakdown of ingested food c. Acidic and enzymatic breakdown of chemical bonds of food materials d. Absorption of nutrients from foods e. No exceptions; all of the above occur in the stomach

d

The olfactory epithelium occupies the superior part of the a. Superior nasal conchae b. Nasal cavity c. Nasal septum d. All of the above

d

The outer openings of the nasal cavity are called a. The nasal septum b. Internal nares c. The apex of the nose d. External nares e. None of the above

d

The passageway between the oral cavity and the oropharynx is (the) a. Uvula b. Palatopharyngeal arch c. Palatoglossal arch d. Fauces e. None of the above

d

The portions of the respiratory system that are capable of gas exchange include: a. Alveoli b. Respiratory bronchioles c. Alveolar ducts d. All of the above

d

The primary function of the lens of the eye is to: a. Provide the coloring of the eye b. Maintain the shape of the eye c. Focus the visual image onto the optic disc d. Focus the visual image on the retinal photoreceptors e. A and B are correct

d

The receptors for pain a. Respond to any type of stimulus if it is of sufficient intensity b. Are free nerve endings called nociceptors c. May be stimulated by chemicals released by injured tissues d. All of the above

d

The salivary glands whose ducts open on either side of the lingual frenulum are the: a. Buccal glands b. Parotid glands c. Sublingual glands d. Submandibular glands

d

The sensory cells of hearing are stimulated by the ____ resting on their stereocilia. a. Basilar membrane b. Vestibular membrane c. Crista ampullaris d. Tectorial membrane e. Cupula

d

The small intestine is suspended from the dorsal body wall by a. The epiploic appendages b. The Falciform ligament c. The lesser omentum d. The mesentery proper e. The greater omentum

d

The sphincter of the Hepatopancreatic ampulla directly controls the flow of bile between: a. The liver and the common bile duct b. The gallbladder and the cystic duct c. The liver and the gallbladder d. The common bile duct and the duodenum

d

The stomach occupies the following abdominal region(s): a. Umbilical b. Left hypochondriac c. Epigastric d. All of the above

d

The tears that moisten and clean the eyes are produced by the: a. Conjunctiva b. Tarsal glands c. Meibomian glands d. Lacrimal glands e. None of the above

d

The term "diphyodont" refers to a. The fact that we have two jaws with teeth on them b. The fact that we have more than one type of tooth c. The fact that we can grind and bite our food with our different types of teeth d. The fact that we have a primary and an adult set of teeth e. The fact that mastication occurs in more than one location in our body, the mouth and the stomach

d

The vitreous body: a. Is produced by the ciliary processes b. Undergoes constant replacement c. Is the main contributor to intraocular pressure d. None of the above

d

Vibrations of the cochlear membrane lead to the production of the electrical impulses which stimulate sensory neurons because: a. They cause the round window to vibrate b. They create vibrations in the cochlear duct c. None of the foregoing d. They bend hair cell of the organ of corti

d

Vibrissae are a. Nasal cartilages b. Cilia of the nasal mucosa c. Air passages between the nasal conchae d. Nasal guard hairs e. Folds in the larynx

d

Visual reflexes would be impaired by damage to the a. Red nucleus b. Inferior colliculi c. Medial geniculate nuclei d. Superior colliculi

d

What are the nerve endings that respond to tissue injury or noxious stimulation that produce sensations of pain? a. Merkel discs b. Tactile corpuscles c. Lamellated corpuscles d. Nociceptors e. Free nerve endings

d

What happens during adaptation of a receptor? a. Lactic acid accumulates reducing the action potentials b. The brain gets fatigued and is less responsive to the same stimuli c. The stimulus level decreases causing less stimulation of the receptor d. Sensitivity is reduced even though a constant level of stimulus is present

d

What is the effect of sympathetic innervation to the lungs? a. Contraction of smooth muscle in the bronchioles b. Increased diameter of the bronchi c. Constriction of bronchioles d. Dilation of bronchioles e. Increased activity of the muscociliary elevator

d

What is the superior opening into the stomach? a. Pyloric sphincter b. Ileocecal sphincter c. Gastric portal d. Cardiac orfice e. Esophageal constrictor

d

What is the terminal portion of the small intestine? a. Duodenum b. Jejunum c. Pylorus d. Ileum e. Cecum

d

What muscles(s) is/are NOT involved with inspiration? a. Pectoralis major b. Internal intercostals c. External intercostals d. Sternocleidomastoid e. Diaphragm

d

What structure is not part of the eyelid? a. Tarsal plate b. Tarsal glands c. Eyelashes d. Lacrimal glands e. Orbicularis oculi

d

Which of the following are openings into the nasopharynx? 1) auditory tube 2) fauces 3) internal nares 4) external nares 5) nasolacrimal duct a. 4,5 b. 1,2,3 c. 2,3 d. 1,3

d

Which of the following blood vessels supplies the most blood to the small intestine? a. Lumbar artery b. Inferior mesenteric artery c. Celiac artery d. Superior mesenteric artery e. None of the above

d

Which of the following features of the lungs face(s) the heart? 1) costal surface 2) hilus 3) base 4) mediastinal surface a. 1 only b. 1,2 c. 3,4 d. 2,4

d

The common opening of the pancreas to the liver into the stomach is the a. Hepatopancreatic duct b. Bile duct c. Hepatopancreatic ampulla d. Ampulla e. None of these answers

e

Which of the following is NOT true of the diaphragm? a. It is striated (skeletal muscle) b. When contracted, it decreases the vertical dimension of the abdominopelvic cavity c. It receives innervation for the cervical spine nerves 3,4, and 5 via the phrenic nerve d. In the relaxed state, the diaphragm is a flat, horizontal sheet

d

Which of the following is not filled with perilymph? a. Scala tympani b. Scala vestibuli c. Vestibule d. Cochlear duct e. B and C only

d

Which of the following is primarily responsible for sensation of hearing? a. Ampulla b. Saccule c. Utricle d. Spiral organ

d

Which of the following is true for olfactory hairs? a. They are dendrites of olfactory neurons b. They produce mucus in the olfactory glands c. They are cilia of the supporting cells d. They are cilia of olfactory receptors

d

Which of the following statements about the cornea is TRUE? a. The outer surface is non-keratinized simple squamous epithelium b. The outer surface is keratinized simple squamous epithelium c. It contains proteins called crystallins d. The connective tissue layer of the cornea is avascular

d

Which of the following types of cells is the last to receive a light ray as it travels through the retina? a. Ganglion cell b. Bipolar cell c. Photoreceptor cell d. Pigmented epithelium

d

Which of these nutrients is absorbed by the lacteal of the small intestine a. Glucose b. Amino acids c. Glucose d. Fats e. Water-soluble vitamins

d

Which of these nutrients is absorbed by the lacteals of the small intestine? a. Water-soluble vitamins b. Glucose c. Glucose d. Fats e. Amino acids

d

Which statement concerning the physiology of hearing is correct? a. The amplitude of sound waves determines their loudness b. High frequency sound waves stimulate receptors located at the base of the cochlear duct c. The ossicles transmit vibrations across the middle ear to the oval window d. All of the above e. B and C only

d

Which type of cell in the stomach secretes pepsinogen? a. Mucous cell b. Enteroendocrine cell c. Parietal cell d. Chief cell e. Goblet cell

d

the act of moving food from the oral cavity to the stomach

deglutition

hairfollicle: dermal

dermal root sheath

Dense irregular connective tissue

dermis of skin, fibrous capsules of kidney

lymphocytes

develop into plasma cells- produce antibodies. 2000/sec

the principal muscles of unforced inspiration

diaphragm and internal intercostals

lamellar bone

diaphyses of long bones are compose of this

Which type of joint has the most movement?

diarthrosis

the right medial recuts is damaged to the point of being paralyzed

diplopia

The nutrient artery of a long bone:

divides into branches that supply the marrow and the inner portion of the diaphysis

The structure of the meati and conchae creates the appropriate conditions for a. Smooth airflow that helps move mucous with trapped dust/ germs towards the pharynx b. Development of vocal tone conducive speech c. Cross-ventilation patterns of airflow which allow CO2 to exit at the same time that O2 enters the respiratory tract d. Smooth slow air flow conducive to protecting the delicate alveoli e. Turbulent airflow that promotes warning and humidifying air prior to entering the lungs

e

The three tiny bones (ossicles) of the ear are: a. Located in the mastoid process of the temporal bone b. Named the malleus, incus, and stapes c. Derived from the jaw bones of primitive vertebras d. Located in the inner ear cavity e. B and c

e

The transportation of absorbed fats from the intestine is a function of a. The lamina propria b. Arterioles and venules c. The capillary network in a villus d. Tenia coli e. Lacteal

e

The tympanic cavity contains a. Air b. Auditory ossicles c. Fluid d. Cochlea, saccule and utricle e. A and B

e

The vestibular complex consists of a. The utricle, saccule, and the cochlea b. The utricle and the saccule c. The ampulla, the crista, and the hair cells d. The cochlea and the vestibule e. The utricle, saccule, and semicircular canals

e

The visceral peritoneum would: a. Cover the viscera b. Line the outer wall of the abdominopelvic cavity c. Cover the ileum and jejunum d. Attach to the abdominal organs e. All but B

e

This structure separates the esophagus from the respiratory tracts along their length a. The upper esophageal sphincter b. The laryngopharynx c. Trachea d. The oropharynx e. The trachealis muscle, and ligament

e

To free the transverse colon from the posterior abdominal wall, which of the following would have to be cut? a. Mesentery proper b. Mesentery c. Lesser omentum d. Falciform ligament e. Mesocolon

e

Virbrissae a. Cilia of the nasal mucosa b. Air passages between the nasal conchae c. Folds in the larynx d. Nasal cartilages e. Nasal guard hairs

e

Vitreous humor is produced by a. The ora serrata b. The vitreous humor c. The ciliary body d. The lacrimal gland e. None of these structures

e

What cartilaginous structure surrounds the external auditory meatus? a. Otitis media b. Cochlea c. Ear drum d. Auditory ossicles e. Pinna

e

What condition results from elevated pressure within the eyeball due to inadequate reabsorption of aqueous humor? a. Astigmatism b. Myopia c. Cataracts d. Macular degeneration e. Glaucoma

e

Which of the following are true of the mesenteries? 1) they are sheets of serous membrane 2) they suspended portions of the digestive tract within the peritoneal cavity 3) they are double sheets of peritoneal 4) they provide an access route to digestive structures for nerves, lymphatics, and blood vessels 5) they provide proprioceptive information to the spinal cord regarding the digestive organs a. All of the above are true b. None of the above are true c. 1,3,5 d. 2,4,5 e. 1,2,3,4

e

Which of the following bones is not involved in making up the border of the nasal cavity? a. Sphenoid b. Frontal c. Maxillary d. Ethmoid e. Temporal

e

Which of the following cells are not found in the gastric glands? a. Chief cells b. Enteroendocrine cells c. Mucous neck cells d. Parietal cells e. Goblet cells

e

Which of the following is a function of the stomach? a. It stores food in the form of fat b. It digests lipids c. It churns food into a paste by mechanical means d. It absorbs most of the nutrients in food e. Most chemical digestion takes place in the stomach

e

Which of the following is primarily responsible for the mechanism of equilibrium? a. Utricle b. Cochlea c. Saccule d. Ampulla e. The vestibular apparatus

e

Which of the following is/are correct? a. No image is seen form the blind spot of the retina because it does not contain rods or cones b. The pupil is the area on the inner edge of the iris through which light enters c. An abnormal elevation of intraocular pressure may lead to a condition called glaucoma d. The tissue that comprises the white of the eye is the sclera e. All of the above

e

Which structure is responsible for peristalsis? a. Muscularis mucosae b. Mesothelium c. Gastric rugae d. Pharyngeal constrictors e. Muscularis externa

e

Why is our perception of a particular stimulus an interpretation and not always a reality? a. Sense organs mare be stimulated by something other than their typical sensation b. Conditions such as "refereed pain" may indicate that pain is coming from an area other than that actually experiencing the sensation c. The brain uses different neurotransmitters based upon whether the interpretation is true or not d. All of the above e. A and B only

e

elastic fibers

elastin, yellow, protein elastin, goes back to og shape, vocal cords

bile helps accomplish

emulsification

epiphyseal line

end of long bone where growth used to occur. compact bone

semicircular ducts are filled with

endolymph

Neutrophils

neutral dye

The structure that attaches the patella to the fibula is called (the)

none of the above

The structure that attaches the patella to the fibula is the

none of the above

eupnea

normal breathing

nutrient foramen

opening in long bone, where nutrients passes

C shaped cartilages that reinforce the tracheal rings

permit esophagus to bulge anteriorly into tracheal lumen in transient fashion to permit a large bolus to pass

One important function of macrophages is

phagocytosis

The deepest cells of the retina are the

photoreceptors

Which of these does not belong to the distal row of carpal bones?

pisiform

A condition that results from infection and causes the alveoli to fill with fluid

pneumonia

The sigmoid sinus is located in the ___ and leads in to the ___.

posterior cranial fossa, jugular foramen

Which is not a feature of osteoarthritis?

presence of autoantibodies

mast cells

produce histamine, heparin

Melanin is...

produced by melanocytes, cells which are also found in individuals which are true albinos

Muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs are

proprioceptors

Pigments embedded in the skin during tattooing are found in

the dermis

the loweer respiratory tract begins at

the glottis

d

the meninges are layers of connective tissue that: a. are called in order from external to internal: dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater b. surround the brain and spinal cord c. cover the spinal nerveless up to where they exit through the intervertebral foramina d. all of the above

the blind spot in each visual field is a region in which

the optic nerve leaves the eye

If a long bone found at an archeological dig contained functional epiphyseal plates, what inference is most accurate?

the person was prepubertal

The so-called "unhappy triad" of injuries involves damage to all of these except:

the posterior cruciate ligament

The formen ovale is found in which bone?

the sphenoid

this structure seperates the esophagus from the respiratory tracts along their length

the trachealis muscle and ligament

Where are taste buds located

the vallate papilae

The vertebral arch encloses

the vertebral foramen

accessory structures

they are invaginated in the epidermis in the dermis. ex. hair follicle, mostly located in the dermis but is derived from epidermis

As keratinocytes move to the surface:

they eventually die and are sloughed off

Purpose of the cartilaginous rings in the trachea

they maintain an open passageway for air

reticular fibers

thin and short; form network, lending structure to organs - pink, branched, pancreas, liver, spleen

taste buds are located on

tongue and soft palate epiglottis of larynx pharynx

Spongy bone is made up of a network of bony spines called

trabeculae