Blood Bank
The optimum storage temperature for platelets is 1) 20-24 2) 1-6 3) -12 4) -18
1) 20-24
The optimum storage temperature for cryoprecipitate after thawing is 1) 20-24C 2) 1-6 C 3) -12C 4) -18C
1) 20-24C
According to AABB standards, Fresh frozen plasma must be infused within what period of time following thawing? 1) 24 hours 2) 36 hours 3) 48 hours 4) 72 hours
1) 24 hours
What techniques are necessary for weak D testing 1) 37 C incubation + IAT 2) Albumin or LISS + 37C incubation 3) Saline + 37 C incubation 4) Saline + 22C incubation
1) 37 C incubation + IAT
HLA typing is important in screening for 1) A kidney donor 2) A blood donor 3) ABO incompatiblity 4) Rh incompatibility
1) A kidney donor
The most serious acute hemolytic transfusion reactions are due to incompatibility to which of the following blood group systems 1) ABO 2) Duffy 3) MN 4) Rh
1) ABO
A group A, Rh-positive infant of a group O, Rh positive mother has a weakly positive direct antiglobulin test and a moderately elevated bilirubin at birth. The most likely cause is 1) ABO incompatibility 2) Blood group incompatibility 3) Neonatal jaundice NOT associated with blood group incompatibility 4) Rh incompatibilty
1) ABO incompatibility
All of the following infectious disease tests on donor units are required except 1) Anti-Epstein Barr 2) Anti-HTLV 3) HbsAg 4) Anti-HCV
1) Anti-Epstein Barr
In addition to routine infectious disease testing, what disease is tested on the donor unit before transfusing it to an immuno compromised patient or a newborn 1) CMV 2) Sickle cell trait or disease 3) Lyme disease 4) Syphillis
1) CMV
Which storage period and anticoagulant/preservative system are incorrectly paired 1) CP2D 35 days 2) CPD: 21 days 3) CPDA-1 35 days 4) CPD-AS 42 days
1) CP2D 35 days
The antibody screen 1) Detects most clinically signficant antibodies 2) helps distinguish between allo and auto antibodies 3) Detects all clinically significant antibodies 4) Can be omitted if the patient has no history of antibodies, transfusion, or pregnancies
1) Detects most clinically signficant antibodies
A sample gives the following results Cells with: AntiA: 3+ AntiB: 4+ Serum with A1 cells: 4+ B cells: negative What lectin should e used first to resolve this discrepancy 1) Dolichos biflorus 2) Arachis hypogaea 3) Vicia graminea 4) Ulex europaues
1) Dolichos biflorus
The process of separation of antibody from its antigen is known as 1) Elution 2) Absorption 3) Lyophilization 4) Diffusion
1) Elution
A blood component used in the treatment of hemophilia A is 1) Factor VIII concentrate 2) Whole blood 3) fresh frozen plasma 4) platelets
1) Factor VIII concentrate
Which of the following best reflects the discrepancy seen in a sample demonstrating the acquired B like phenomenon? 1) Forward group appears to be AB, but reverse group seems to be A 2) Forward group appears to be O, but reverse group seem s to be B 3) Forward group appears to be B, but reverse group seems to be AB 4) Forward group appears to be B, reverse group seems to be O
1) Forward group appears to be AB, but reverse group seems to be A
Which component has the longest expiration date? 1) Frozen RBCs 2) FFP 3) Cryoprecipitate 4) Platelet concentrate
1) Frozen RBCs
Cells fo the A3 subgroup will 1) Give a mixed field reaction with anti-A,B 2) React with dolichos biflorus 3) Not be agglutinated by anti-A 4) Not be agglutinated by anti-H
1) Give a mixed field reaction with anti-A,B
The blood sample of choice for the pretransfusion testing of neonates with HDN is 1) Maternal serum 2) Cord Blood eluate 3) Maternal eluate 4) Cord blood serum
1) Maternal serum
Criteria determining post partum Rh immune globulin eligibility include 1) Mother does not have immune anti-D 2) Infant is Rh-negative 3) Mother is Rh-positive 4) Infant has a positive direct antiglobulin test
1) Mother does not have immune anti-D
What ABO- RH type may donate red cells to any other ABO type 1) O negative 2) AB negative 3) A negative, B negative, AB negative, or O negative 4) AB negative, A negative, B negative
1) O negative
A blood specimen from a pregnant woman is found to be group B, Rh negative and the serum contains anti-D with a titer of 215. What would be the most appropriate type of blood to have available for a possible exchange transfusion for her infant? 1) O, Rh-negative 2) O, Rh-positive 3) B, Rh-negative 4) B, Rh-positive
1) O, Rh-negative
An obstetrical patient has had three previous pregnancies. Her first baby was healthy; the second was jaundiced at birth and required an exchange transfusion, while the third was stillborn. Which of the following is the most likely cause 1) Rh incompatibility 2) immune deficiency disease 3) ABO incompatibility 4) congenital spherocytic anemia
1) Rh incompatibility
A patient who has been typed as Rh negative has a negative antibody screen. However, crossmatching reveals an antibody that reacts 4+ in the AHG phase with 1 of 10 Rh negative donors. What is the most likely cause of this incompatibility 1) The patient has an antibody to a low frequency antigen 2) the donor has been mistyped for ABO 3) The donor is actually Rh positive 4) the donor red blood cells are polyagglutinable
1) The patient has an antibody to a low frequency antigen
One of the most effective methods for the elution of IgG antibodies from RBCs utilizes 1) Weak acid solution 2) Disitilled water 3) LISS 4) 10% sucrose
1) Weak acid solution
Can crossmatching be performed on October 14, using a patient sample drawn on October 12? The units are to be given that day 1) Yes, a new sample is not needed 2) No, a new sample is needed becaeu the 2 day limit has expired 3) No, a new sample is neded for each testing 4) Yes, but only if the previous sample has no alloantibodies
1) Yes, a new sample is not needed
Which blood component is most effective in treating a patient with coagulopathy due to multiple factor deficiences from massive transfusion 1) fresh frozen plasma 2) stored plasma 3) whole blood 4) platelets
1) fresh frozen plasma
Situation: An emergency trauma patient requires transfusion. Six units of blood are ordered stat. There is no time to draw a patient sample. O negative blood is released. When will compatibility testing be performed? 1) Compatibility testing is not neccesary when blood is released in emergency situation 2) Compatibility testing will be performed when a patient sample is available 3) Compatibility testing may be performed immediately using donor serum 4) Compatibililty testing must be performed before blood is issued
2) Compatibility testing will be performed when a patient sample is available
Which of the following antigens gives enhanced reactions with its corresponding antibody following treatment of red cells 1) Fya 2) E 3) S 4) M
2) E
Proteolytic enzyme treatment of red cells usually destroys which antigen 1) E 2) Fya 3) K 4) Jka
2) Fya
Polyspecific reagents used in the direct antiglobulin test should have specificity for 1) IgM and IgA 2) IgG and C3d 3) IgG and IgA 4) IgM and C3d
2) IgG and C3d
Which of the following blood group systems is most commonly associated with delyaed hemolytic transfusion reactions 1) Lewis 2) Kidd 3) MNS 4) I
2) Kidd
Which of the following patients would be a candidate for RhIg? 1) AB negative mother; B postive baby, second pregnancy, anti-D in mother 2) O negative mother; A positive baby; second pregnancy; no anti-D in mother 3) A negative mother; O negative baby; fourth pregnancy; anti-D in mother 4) B positive mother; B negative baby; first pregnancy; no anti-D in mother
2) O negative mother; A positive baby; second pregnancy; no anti-D in mother
A mother is group A, with anti-D in her serum. What is the preferred blood product if any intrauterine transfusion is indicated (138)? 1)O,Rh-negative Red Blood cells 2) O,Rh-negative Red blood cells, irradiated, CMV negative 3) A, Rh-negative Red blood cells 4) A, Rh-negative red blood cells, irradiated, CMV negative
2) O,Rh-negative Red blood cells, irradiated, CMV negative
Which procedure would help to distinguish between an anti-e and anti-Fya in an antibody mixture 1) Run a regular panel 2) Run an enzyme panel 3) Use a thiol reagent 4) Lower pH of test serum
2) Run an enzyme panel
In a delayed transfusion reaction, the causative antibody is generally too weak to be detected in routine compatibility testing and antibody screening tests but becomes detectable at what point after the transfusion 1) 3 to 6 hours 2) 1 to 5 days 3) 60 - 90 days 4) after 120 days
2) 1 to 5 days
The optimum storage temperature for whole blood is 1) 20-24 2) 1-6 3) -12 4) -18
2) 1-6
A 42 year old male of average body mass has a history of chronic anemia requiring transfusion support. Two units of Red blood cells are transfused. If the pretransfusion hemoglobin was 7.0 g/dl, the expected post transfusion hemoglobin concentration should be 1) 8.0 g/dl 2) 9.0 g/dl 3) 10.0 g/dl 4) 11.0 g/dl
2) 9.0 g/dl
which situation is NOT a cause for indefinite deferral of a donor? 1) Lived in the United Kingdom for 3 years (1985-1988) 2) Accidental needle stick 1 year ago; negative for infectious disease 3) Donation of a unit of blood that transmitted hepattis B virus to a recipient 4) Diagnosis with Babesiosis 1 year ago
2) Accidental needle stick 1 year ago; negative for infectious disease
While performing routine postpartum testing for an Rh immune globlin candidate, a weak positive antibody test was found. Anti-D was identified This antibody is most likely the result of 1) Mother having a positive direct Coombs test 2) Antental administration of RhIg at 28 weeks gestation 3) Massive fetal maternal hemorrhage occuring at the time of this delivery 4) Contamination of the blood sample with Wharton's jelly
2) Antental administration of RhIg at 28 weeks gestation
A specimen of cord blood is submitted to the transfusion service for routine testing. The following results are obtained Anti-A: 4+ Anti-B: 0 Anti-D: 3+ Rh control: 0 DAT: 2+ IT is known that the father is group B, Rh negative with the genotype of cde/cde. Of the following antibodies, which one is the most likely cause of the positive direct antiglobulin test 1) Anti-D 2) Anti-c 3) Anti-A 4) Anti-C
2) Anti-c
All of the following are part of the preliminary evaluation of a transfusion reaction except 1) DAT on the post transfusion sample 2) Antibody panel on pre and post transfusion sample 3) check pre and post transfusion samples for hemolysis 4) clerical check
2) Antibody panel on pre and post transfusion sample
When testing is performed on a cord sample, all of the following tests are routinely performed except 1) DAT 2) Antibody screen 3) Rh typing 4) Forward typing ABO
2) Antibody screen
An individual's Red Blood Cells given the following reactions with Rh antisera (60): Antisera Reaction Anti-D 4+ Anti-C 3+ Anti-E 0 Anti-c 3+ Anti-e 3+ Rh control 0 The most probable genotype of this individual is : 1) cDe/cde 2) CDe/cde 3)Cde/cDE 4) cDE/cde
2) CDe/cde
A unit of blood is returned to the transfusion service after it had been checked out. Which of the following would prevent the transfusion service from accepting the blood back for reissue? 1) Unit has not been opened 2) Unit was received 1 hour after release, it was stored in an unmonitored refrigerator while on the floor 3) Unit is recieved within 30 minutes of release from the transfusion service 4) Unit is <10 C
2) Unit was received 1 hour after release, it was stored in an unmonitored refrigerator while on the floor
Should an O negative mother receive Rh immune globulin RhIg if a positive direct antiglobulin test on the newborn is caused by immune anti-A 1) No, RhIg is given for term pregnancies only 2) Yes, but only if she does not already have anti-D from a previous pregnancy and the baby is D positive 3) Yes but only a mini dose regardless of trimester 4) No, the type of the baby is unknown
2) Yes, but only if she does not already have anti-D from a previous pregnancy and the baby is D positive
Which of the following individuals is acceptable as a blood donor 1) 54 year old man who tested postive for hepatitis C virus last year but has no active symptoms of the disease 2) a 29 year old man who received the hepatitis B vaccine last week 3) a 30 year old man who lived in Zambia for 3 months and returned lst month 4) a 21 year old woman who had her nose pierced last week in an unlicensed facility
2) a 29 year old man who received the hepatitis B vaccine last week
Screen cells, crossmatch, and patient autocontrol are positive in all phases of testing. Identify the most likely cause of the problem 1) specific cold alloantibody 2) abnormal protein or nonspecific autoantibody 3) specific cold autoantibody 4) cold and warm alloantibody mixture
2) abnormal protein or nonspecific autoantibody
Fresh frozen plasma cannot be transfused if 1) the unit is thawed in an FDA approved microwave device 2) an indentation is present at the back of the bag before thawing 3) after thawing it is stored at 4C for 13 hours before transfusion 4) FFP is removed from its package and thawed by submersing in a 25C waterbath
2) an indentation is present at the back of the bag before thawing
AHG (coombs) control cells 1) must be used to confirm all positive Coombs reactions 2) are RBCs coated with human IgG antibody 3) can be used only for the indirect Coombs test 4) can be used as a positive control for anti-C3 reagents
2) are RBCs coated with human IgG antibody
Fever and chills are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions 1) allergic 2) febrile 3) circulatory overload 4) citrate toxicity
2) febrile
What is the most likely explanation when most screen cells and panel cells are positive and the autocontrol is negative 1) nonspecific alloantibodies 2) high frequency alloantibodies or mixture of alloantibodies 3) autoantibodies of abnormal proteins 4) specific IgG and IgM antibodies
2) high frequency alloantibodies or mixture of alloantibodies
which of the following is an advantage of using packed RBCs instead of whole blood 1) increases exposure to large volumes of electrolytes 2) minimize circulatory overload 3) provides all the coagulation factors 4) increases transfusion time
2) minimize circulatory overload
The antibodies of the Kidd blood group system 1) are predominatly IgM 2) react best by the indirect antiglobulin test 3) do not genearlly react with antigen positive, enzyme treated RBCs 4) often cause allergic transfusion reactions
2) react best by the indirect antiglobulin test
How many doses of RhIg are administered for a fetal packed cell bleed of 25 ml
3 ml
How many mL of whole blood will one dose of Rh immune globulin cover to prevent immunization in an Rh negative mother 1) 15 2) 20 3) 30 4) 35
3) 30
A group O mother gives birth to a normal healthy infant. The direct antiglobulin test on cord cells; however, is weakly positive. No unexpected antibodies are detected in the mother's serum. What is the most likely cause of the postive DAT 1) A techinical error has occurred 2) Cord Cells were not properly washed 3) A low titer antibody was below the detection level of screen and panel cells 4) Immune anti-A or anti-B fromthe mother has coated cord cells
3) A low titer antibody was below the detection level of screen and panel cells
Rh immune globulin adminstration would NOT be indicated in an Rh negative woman who has a(n) 1) Infants father who is Rh positive 2) A Rh positive baby 3) Anti-D titer of 4096 4) Positive direct antiglobulin test
3) Anti-D titer of 4096
An antibody that causes in vitro hemolysis and reacts with the red cells in three of ten crossmatched donor units is most likely 1) Anti-s 2) Anti-E 3) Anti-Lea 4) Anti-K
3) Anti-Lea
Which group of antibodies are commonly found as cold agglutinins 1) Anti-Fya, Anti-Fyb 2) Anti-K, Anti-k, Anti-Jsb 3) Anti-M, anti-N 4) Anti-D, anti-e, anti-C
3) Anti-M, anti-N
What ABH substances would be found in the saliva of a Group B secretor? 1) H, A and B 2) H and A 3) H and B 4) H
3) H and B
Cold agglutinin syndrome is best associated with which of the following blood groups 1) Rh 2) P 3) I/i 4) Duffy
3) I/i
The following compatibilty results were obtained Donor: Negative Screenign Cells: Negative Autocontrol: 3+ at AHG The most probable explanation for these findings is that the 1) Patient has an antibody directed against an antigen present on donor RBCs 2) Donor has an antibody directed against an antigen present on patient RBCs 3) Patient has a positive direct antiglobulin test 4) Donor has a positive direct antiglobulin test
3) Patient has a positive direct antiglobulin test
What is a special condition for the storage of platelets 1) Platelets must be stored upright in separate containers 2) No other components may be stored with platelets 3) Platelets require constant agitation at 20-24 C 4) Room temperature, 20-24 C
3) Platelets require constant agitation at 20-24 C
The purpose of a low dose irradiation of blood componenets is to 1) Sterilize components 2) Prevent noncardiogenic pulmonary edema 3) Prevent graft versus host disease 4) prevent posttransfusion purpura
3) Prevent graft versus host disease
Refer to the following data anti-C: + anti-D + anti-E + anti- c + anti-e + given the reactions above what is the most probable genotype 1)Ror'' 2) R,r' 3) R1R2 4) R1R1
3) R1R2
Quality control tests must be performed daily on 1) Centrifuge timers 2) Banked whole blood 3) Reagent red blood cells 4) Oral thermometeres
3) Reagent red blood cells
What is the first step in a crossmatch after identification of a specific allo antibody 1) adsorb any antibodies from the patient serum 2) perform a DAT on patient cells and donor units 3) antigen type patient cells (if not transfused in last 3 months) and any compatibble donor cells 4) obtain a different enhancement medium for testing
3) antigen type patient cells (if not transfused in last 3 months) and any compatibble donor cells
In the direct antiglobulin test, the antiglobulin reagent is used to 1) precipitate anti-erythrocyte antibodies 2) measure antibodies in a test serum by fixing complement 3) detect pre-existing antibodies on erythrocytes 4) mediate hemolysis of indicator red blood cells by providing complement
3) detect pre-existing antibodies on erythrocytes
which of the following statements is true concerning the MN phenotype 1) Both M or N antigens are impossible to detect due to cross interference 2) antigen typing is enhanced when both antigens are present 3) dosage effect may be seen for both M and N antigens 4) MN is a rare phenotype seldom found in routine antigen typing
3) dosage effect may be seen for both M and N antigens
A patients serum contains a mixture of antibodies. One of the antibodies is identified as Anti-D, Anti-Jka, or anti-Fya and possibly another antibody are present. What technique may be helpful to identify the other antibody? 1) Using albumin as an enchancement media in combination with selective adsorption 2) lowering the pH and increasing the incubation time 3) enzyme panel; select cell panel 4) thiol reagents
3) enzyme panel; select cell panel
What may be done if HDFN is caused by maternal anti-K 1) monitor by high resolution ultrasound MCA doppler flow 2) not a problem, anti-K will not cause HDFN 3) monitor the mothers antibody level 4) give Kell immune globulin
3) monitor the mothers antibody level
Postpartum D (Mom neg, newborn 4+) Rh Control ( Mom/newborn neg) weak D (Mom micro, newborn NT) weak d control (mom neg, newborn NT) Rosette fetal screen (mom, 20 rosette/field newborn NT) what is the best interpretation for the laboratory data given above 1) mother is Rh positive 2) mother is weak D variant 3) mother has had a fetal maternal hemorrhage 4) mother has a positive DAT
3) mother has had a fetal maternal hemorrhage
What is the most appropriate control for a positive direct antiglobulin test 1) check cells and antihuman globulin 2) check cells and saline 3) patient cells and saline 4) patient cells and antihuman globulin
3) patient cells and saline
What would be the result of group A red blood cells given to a group O patient? 1) Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction 2) non immune transfusion reaction 3) no problem 4) immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction
4) immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction
ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn 1) frequently results in stillbirth 2) rarely occurs in first pregnancy 3) usually required an exchange transfusion 4) is usually seen only in the newborns of group O mothers
4) is usually seen only in the newborns of group O mothers
a patient types as O positive. All three screen cells and red cells from two O positive donor units show agglutination after incubation at 37 C and increase in reactivity at the IAT phase of testing what action should be taken next 1) perform a panel and autocontrol on the patient 2) choose another two units and repeat the crossmatch 3) perform an elution 4) perform an enzyme panel
1) perform a panel and autocontrol on the patient
What should be done when a woman who is 24 weeks pregnant has a positive antibody screen 1) perform an antibody identification panel; titer if necessary 2) no need to do anything until 30 weeks of pregnancy 3) administer prophylactic Rh immune globulin 4) adsorb the antibody onto antigen positive cells
1) perform an antibody identification panel; titer if necessary
The Kell (K1) antigen is 1) strongly immunogenic 2) absent from the red cells of neonates 3) has a frequency of 50% in the random population 4) destroyed by enzymes
1) strongly immunogenic
What is the purpose of adding antibody coated red cells (check cells) to all negative AHG tubes 1) to ensure proper cell washing and addition of AHG reagent 2) to check for attachment of additional antibody 3) to ensure proper tube reading 4) to check for hemolysis or reaction of complement
1) to ensure proper cell washing and addition of AHG reagent
A blood specimen was found to be A, Rh-positive with a negative antibody screen. Six units of group A, Rh positive red blood cells were crossmatched and one unit was incompatible in the antiglobulin phase. The same result was obtained when the test was repeated. Which should be done first 1) obtain a new specimen and repeat the crossmatch 2) perform a direct antiglobulin test on the donor unit 3) test a panel of selected red cells that possess low frequency antigens 4) repeat the ABO grouping on the incompatible unit using a more sensitive technique
3) test a panel of selected red cells that possess low frequency antigens
Each of the following require quality control checks daily EXCEPT 1) refrigerator temperature, manual reading 2) refrigerator temperature, recorder reading 3) timers 4) heat block temperature
3) timers
The optimum storage temperature for Red Blood cells, Frozen (40% glycerol) is 1) 20-24 2) 1-6 3) -20 4) -65
4) -65
A Kleihauer-Betke acid elution test is performed to determine the dosage of Rh-immune globulin. Once the cells have been counted, the percentage of fetal cells in the maternal circulation is determined to be 2.2%. The procedure manual directs the use of the following formula to calculate the Rh immune globulin dosage. How many doses of RhIg should this woman receive? 1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
4) 5
Which of the following could produce ABO discrepancies in the serum (reverse) testing 1) Newborn testing 2) Patient with hypogammaglobulinemia 3) Cold Alloantibody 4) All of the above
4) All of the above
a 56 year old female with cold hemagglutinin disease has a positive direct antiglobulin test DAT. When the DAT is repeated using monospecific antiglobulin sera, which of the following is most likely to be detected 1) C4d 2) IgM 3) IgG 4) C3d
4) C3d
Using known antisera to detect ABO antigens on a patients red cells is known as 1) Serum or reverse type 2) DAT 3) Rh typing 4) Cell or forward type
4) Cell or forward type
Which of the following tests is most commonly used to demonstrate antibodies that have become attached to a patients red cells in vivo 1) Immunofluoreescence 2) Indirect antiglobulin 3) Complement fixation 4) Direct antiglobulin
4) Direct antiglobulin
A patient who is group AB, Rh negative needs two units of fresh frozen plasma. Which of the following units of plasma would be MOST acceptable for transfusion. 1) Group O, Rh-negative 2) Group A, Rh-negative 3) Group B, Rh-positive 4) Group AB, Rh-positive
4) Group AB, Rh-positive
Which of the following would be cause for deferral? 1) Pulse of 90 beats per minute 2) Temperature of 99.2 3) Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg 4) Hematocrit level of 35%
4) Hematocrit level of 35%
an individual has produced anti-k after receiving 2 units of leukocyte reduced RBCs. What is her most probable Kell genotype 1) KK 2) Kk 3) kk 4) KoKo
4) KK
Which of the following antigens is most likely to be involved in hemolytic disease of the newborn. 1) P1 2) M 3) Lea 4)Kell
4) Kell
What sample is best for detecting complement dependent antibodies 1) serum heated at 56C for 30 minutes 2) Serum stored at 4C for no longer than 48 hours 3) either serum or plasma stored at 20C-24C no longer than 6 hours 4) Plasma stored at 4C for no longer than 24 hours
4) Plasma stored at 4C for no longer than 24 hours
A patient types as AB Rh-positive. What additional test should be performed? 1) Direct antiglobulin test (DAT) 2) Low protein Rh antisera 3) NO additional testing is needed 4) Rh control
4) Rh control
What gene controls the presence of soluble H antigens in the saliva 1) A 2) H 3) Lea 4) Se
4) Se
When obtaining a patient history for a transfusion problem workup, which of the folllowing is NOT helpful 1) previous transfusions 2) vital signs 3) pregnancies 4) drug therapy
4) drug therapy
A 10 year old girl was hospitalized because her urine had a distinct red color. The patient had recently recovered from an upper respiratory infection and appeared very pale and lethargic. Tests were performed with the folllowing results Hemoglobin: 5 g/dl Retic count: 15% DAT: weak reactive with poly specific and anti-C3d; anti-IgG was negative Ab screen: negative Donath Landsteiner test: Positive: P cells showed no hemolysis The patient probably has 1) warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia 2) hereditary erythroblastic multinuclearity with a positive acidified serum test (HEMPASS) 3) paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria PNH 4) paroxsymal cold hemoglobinuria PCH
4) paroxsymal cold hemoglobinuria PCH
The major crossmatch will detect a(n) 1) Rh negative 2) irregular antibody in the donor unit 3) group A patient mistyped as group O 4) recipient antibody directed against antigens on the donor red cells
4) recipient antibody directed against antigens on the donor red cells
Under extreme emergency conditions when there is no time to determine ABO group for transfusion, the technologist should 1) Release O, Rh positive red blood cells 2) release O, Rh negative whole blood 3) Refuse to release any blood until the patients sample has been typed 4) release O, Rh negative red blood cells
4) release O, Rh negative red blood cells
