Blood Bank MediaLab Questions
A ficin (enzyme) treated panel can be a useful tool for determining the identity of an antibody. On a ficin-treated panel, reactions with which system would be enhanced? A. Rh B. Duffy C. MNS D. Kell
A. Rh
How long after potential donors have been diagnosed with malaria should they be deferred from doing a blood donation? A. 6 months B. 1 year C. 2 years D. 3 years
D. 3 years
A newborn presents with neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia. What is the most likely cause of this condition? a. Maternal antibodies to neonatal platelet antigens b. Maternal antibodies to neonatal ABO antigens c. Maternal antibodies to neonatal white cell antigens d. Maternal antibodies to neonatal D antigen
a. Maternal antibodies to neonatal platelet antigens
How many milliliters of Rh positive whole blood is one dose of Rh immune globulin capable of neutralizing? A. 15 B. 30 C. 45 D. 450
B. 30
Which of the following methods are a non-invasive way to reliably predict anemia in the fetus? A. Antibody titer B. Color Doppler middle cerebral artery peak systolic velocity (MCA-PSV) C. Cordocentesis D. Amniocentesis
B. Color Doppler middle cerebral artery peak systolic velocity (MCA-PSV)
Which procedure used to fetal blood sample to monitor severity of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) can also be used to deliver intrauterine transfusions? A. Amniocentesis B. Cordocentesis C. Doppler sonography D. Exchange transfusion via maternal circulation
B. Cordocentesis
You receive a call in the blood bank, reporting a transfusion reaction. You ask the nurse to stop the red blood cell transfusion immediately and return the unit of blood and all related forms to the blood bank. You also ask for a new patient blood specimen to be drawn and sent to the blood bank. You receive the requested items 15 minutes later. A. Perform an antibody screen and DAT on the pre-transfusion specimens B. Perform a clerical check, centrifuge the pre-transfusion and post-transfusion patient specimens and examine the plasma for hemolysis and icterus C. Issue a different unit of blood to this patient but only after the original unit has been returned to blood bank. D. Do nothing, as you issued an O Negative red blood cell unit to the patient and that proves that the unit is compatible.
B. Perform a clerical check, centrifuge the pre-transfusion and post-transfusion patient specimens and examine the plasma for hemolysis and icterus
Why is Rh immune globulin (RhIg) administered within 72 hours of delivery to an Rh negative mother if the newborn is found to be D-positive or weak-D positive? A. Prevent future children from producing antibodies B. Prevent fetal cells from initially sensitizing the mother C. Prevent antibody response in a previously sensitized mother D. Neutralize any natural maternal antibodies present
B. Prevent fetal cells from initially sensitizing the mother
Which of the following accurately represents reverse typing? A. Reverse typing is performed using known reagent antisera to detect ABO antigens on the patient's red blood cells. B. Reverse typing is performed using known reagent red blood cells to detect ABO antibodies in the patient's serum or plasma C. Reverse typing is performed using known reagent screening cells to detect clinically significant antibodies in the patient's serum or plasma D. Reverse typing is performed using known reagent antisera to phenotype donor red blood cells for clinically significant antigens.
B. Reverse typing is performed using known reagent red blood cells to detect ABO antibodies in the patient's serum or plasma
A 28 year old female patient is experiencing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) following the delivery of her newborn. Her Complete Blood Count (CBC) results are normal. What would be the best blood product for this patient to receive? A. Apheresis platelets B. Leukocyte-reduced packed red blood cells C. Cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor D. Fresh frozen plasma
C. Cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor
A patient, who recently received a transfusion units of red cells, is DAT-positive with an IgG specificity. What would be the best method to identify the patient's phenotype? A. Adsorption and elution B. Type and Screen C. Polymerase chain reaction-based assay D. Antigen typing
C. Polymerase chain reaction-based assay
Which of the following tests has been recommended by the FDA to replace the HIV-1 p24 antigen test in the screening of donated blood for infectious diseases? a. HIV-1 NAT b. Anti-HIV-1 c. Anti-HIV-2 d. HCV NAT
a. HIV-1 NAT
Frozen red cells that have been prepared with high glycerol methods (40% glycerol) can be stored up to 10 years if held at which of the following temperatures? a. -65C or lower b. -20C or lower c. -10C or lower d. 0C or lower
a. -65C or lower
In the Kleihauer-Betke test, a maternal blood smear is treated with acid and then stained with counterstain. The fetal cells contain fetal hemoglobin, which is resistant to acid and will remain pink. Since the calculated volume of fetomaternal hemorrhage is an estimate, how many additional RhIg vials need to be added for the dose? a. 1 b. 1.5 c. 2 d. 3
a. 1
What are the possible ABO genotypes of offspring of parents whose genotype is AA and BB? a. AB b. AO c. BO d. OO
a. AB
The direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is most unreliable when diagnosing hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn due to which blood group system? a. ABO b. Duffy c. Rh d. Kidd
a. ABO
What antibody is best described as common autoantibody that can be found in virtually all sera? a. Anti-I b. Anti-K c. Anti-Jk d. Anti-M
a. Anti-I
In providing crossmatch-compatible blood units, all of the following antibodies are most often clinically insignificant EXCEPT: a. Anti-Jkb b. Anti-P1 c. Anti-M d. Anti-Lea
a. Anti-Jkb
Which of the following groups of antibodies generally reacts most strongly at room temperature or 4C? a. Anti-P1, anti-Leb, anti-M b. Anti-K, anti-Lua, anti-Fya c. Anti-S, anti-Jka, anti-Leb d. Anti-K, anti-Lub, anti-s
a. Anti-P1, anti-Leb, anti-M
What is the MOST common infective agent to be transmitted through blood transfusion that results in morbidity and mortality? a. Bacteria b. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) c. Hepatitis A virus (HAV) d. Malarial parasites
a. Bacteria
Which cluster of differentiation (CD) is used for the quantification of hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPC) after an HPC-apheresis collection? a. CD34 b. CD4 c. CD8 d. CD2
a. CD34
A D-positive mother a D-negative fetus eliminates the possibility of HDFN due to the: a. D antigen b. ABO antigen system c. Lewis antigen system d. Rh antigen system
a. D antigen
In which of the following cases should Rh Immune Globulin (RhIG) be given? a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Rh positive mother carrying an Rh negative fetus c. Rh positive mother carrying an Rh positive fetus d. Rh negative mother with anti-D formed from previous pregnancy
a. Ectopic pregnancy
When performing the rosette test to screen for Fetal Maternal Hemorrhage, what is considered the correct combination to avoid false positives and/or false negatives? a. Fetal cells D positive & mother is D negative b. Fetal cells D positive & mother is weak D positive c. Fetal cells weak D positive & mother is D negative d. Any combination could cause false positive and/or false negative results with the rosette test
a. Fetal cells D positive & mother is D negative
What blood group are the RBC screening cells that are used for antibody screens? a. Group O b. Group A c. Group B d. Group AB
a. Group O
Can an autologous donor donate blood at 4 PM on Monday if she is having surgery at 10 AM on Wednesday? a. No, the minimal allowable time between the last donation and surgery is 72 hours b. No, the minimal allowable time between the last donation and surgery is eight weeks c. Yes, the patient can donate, but only half a unit d. Yes, an autologous donor can donate up to 24 hours prior to surgery
a. No, the minimal allowable time between the last donation and surgery is 72 hours
Which procedure should be followed when one cross-matched unit out of five is INCOMPATIBLE at the antiglobulin (AHG) phase? a. Perform a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on the incompatible unit b. Check for high-frequency antigens c. Wash the donor cells and use the washed cells for testing d. Perform an antibody panel using donor serum
a. Perform a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on the incompatible unit
What is the deferral period from donating blood for someone who is or has taken Tegison for severe psoriasis? a. Permanent deferral b. 1 month following last dose c. 2 weeks d. No deferral
a. Permanent deferral
What procedure utilizes leukapheresis to collect the buffy coat from whole blood? a. Photopheresis b. Plasmapheresis c. Therapeutic apheresis d. Erythrocytapheresis
a. Photopheresis
Antibodies in the Rh system typically exhibit which one of the following characteristics? a. Reacts best at 37C and AHG b. Reacts best at room temperature c. Shows hemolysis better than agglutination d. Reacts best at 4C
a. Reacts best at 37C and AHG
In the Coombs phase of a crossmatch, what is the proper procedure to follow if the Check Cells give a negative reaction? a. Repeat procedure with new AHG reagent and check the cell washer b. Add additional Check Cells and dilute with 100% distilled water c. Add additional AHG reagent plus proteolytic enzymes to enhance the reaction d. Accept the crossmatch results as correct- nothing further needs to be done
a. Repeat procedure with new AHG reagent and check the cell washer
Which of the following is true of the classic Bombay phenotype? a. Two h genes are inherited at the H locus b. H substance is present c. A antigen is present d. B antigen is present
a. Two h genes are inherited at the H locus
Approximately what precent of the Caucasian population is Rh negative? a. 10% b. 15% c. 25% d. 35%
b. 15%
What is the required storage temperature for thawed cryoprecipitate? a. 4-8C b. 20-24C c. 35-37C d. -20C or colder
b. 20-24C
Frozen red blood cells that have been thawed, deglycerolized and reconstituted in an open system must be used within_____. a. 1 hour b. 24 hours c. 14 days d. 7 days
b. 24 hours
How soon must granulocyte concentrates be administered after donation? a. 12 hours b. 24 hours c. 3 days d. 30 days
b. 24 hours
The lectin Dolichus biflorus agglutinates which types of cells? a. B b. A1B c. A2 d. Both A1B and A2
b. A1B
Which of the following is a possible type for an offspring from the mating of an O and an AB (non-cis) individual? a. AB b. AO c. BB d. OO
b. AO
Which of the following blood components contains the most factor VIII concentration relative to the unit volume? a. Whole Blood b. Cryoprecipitated AHF c. Fresh Frozen Plasma d. Platelet Concentrate
b. Cryoprecipitated AHF
What is considered the definition of allogeneic blood? a. Donated by the donor for self-use b. Donated by a donor for a recipient other than the donor to use c. Blood salvaged during surgery d. Blood collected through normovolemic hemodilution
b. Donated by a donor for a recipient other than the donor to use
Which of the following is the MOST likely discrepancy seen when a person demonstrates an "acquired B-antigen" phenomenon? a. Forward typing appears to be B, but reverse group type is A b. Forward typing appears to be AB, but reverse group type is A c. Forward typing appears to be AB, but reverse group type is B d. Forward typing appears to be B, but reverse group type is AB
b. Forward typing appears to be AB, but reverse group type is A
In which system are DR antigens found? a. Kell system b. HLA system c. Duffy system d. ABO system
b. HLA system
What kind of immunoglobulins are predominantly found in Rh immune globulin? a. IgM anti-D b. IgG anti-D c. IgM anti-A,B d. IgG anti-A,B
b. IgG anti-D
FLASE-NEGATIVE results at the indirect antiglobulin phase of an antibody screening test using a tube method (i.e., not a Gel-method) are usually caused by which of the following? a. Excessive washing of the red cells b. Inadequate washing of the red cells c. Warm autoantibody present in the patient's serum d. Cold autoantibody present in the patient's serum
b. Inadequate washing of the red cells
Which occurrence is a medical error? a. Technologist drops and breaks a bottle of chemistry reagent. b. Incompatible blood is transfused into a patient during surgery. c. Analyzer malfunctions and test results are rejected as invalid. d. Several laboratory tests are performed on a patient and all results confirm a diagnosis of acute leukemia.
b. Incompatible blood is transfused into a patient during surgery.
Which of the following tests is suitable for quantifying the size of fetomaternal hemorrhage (FMH)? a. DAT b. Kleihauer-Betke test c. Rosette test d. IAT
b. Kleihauer-Betke test
Which patient population benefits from HLA matching to provide patients with the best outcomes? a. Transfusion recipients b. Organ transplant recipients c. Neonates d. Patients with high-incidence antibodies
b. Organ transplant recipients
A pregnant female has been injected with Rh Immune Globulin (RhIG) antenatally (28 weeks gestation) and has a positive antibody screen at delivery. The antibody has been confirmed as anti-D alone and reacts only weakly (1+ in the indirect antiglobulin test). This antibody may be the result of: a. Massive fetomaternal hemorrhage at delivery b. Passive anti-D (RhIg) received at 28 weeks c. Wharton's jelly contaminating the sample d. Patient has an autoantibody
b. Passive anti-D (RhIg) received at 28 weeks
What is his MOST likely genotype for a white male who has the following Rh antigens C,c,D,E,e? a. R1r b. R1R2 c. Ror d. r'r''
b. R1R2
When performing an antibody screen, both the screen cells are 4+ at immediate spin and W+ at AHG. The antibody panel shows 4+ reactions at immediate spin and W+ reaction at AHG and there is no specific match to the reaction pattern. The auto control is negative. What would be a logical next step? a. Have patient redrawn b. Repeat testing using warmed patient sample/reagent and just do AHG reading c. Run an enzyme panel d. Use acidified reagents
b. Repeat testing using warmed patient sample/reagent and just do AHG reading
As a student in a blood bank laboratory, you are tasked with determining the identification of an antibody as part of your practical exam. You are asked to use an enzyme treated red cell panel during the process of antibody identification. Which of the following antibodies is enhanced by enzyme treatment of red cells? a. MN and Duffy antibodies b. Rh, Lewis, and Kidd antibodies c. Rh, A, B, and S antibodies d. Duffy, A, and B antibodies
b. Rh, Lewis, and Kidd antibodies
Which subset of effector lymphocytes is predominantly responsible for regulation of antibody production? a. TH1 b. TH2 c. TH17 d. CD8+
b. TH2
A patient who demonstrates a history of an allergic reaction from red blood cell transfusions will benefit from receiving which red cell component? a. Frozen red blood cells b. Washed red blood cells c. Irradiated red blood cells d. Leukocyte-reduced red blood cells
b. Washed red blood cells
A potential apheresis platelet donor must be deferred for how long following the use of aspirin? a. 4 weeks b. 2 weeks c. 48 hours d. No deferral- can donate immediately given they meet all other requirements
c. 48 hours
The primary antibody response takes an average of how many days? a. 1-3 days b. 3-4 days c. 5-10 days d. 14-21 days
c. 5-10 days
Anti-A **** Anti-B (front type) 4+ 4+ Back type not tested Given the above results, what is the newborn's ABO group? a. O b. A c. AB d. Invalid because the reverse testing was not performed
c. AB
Using an exclusion protocol that requires only one homozygous cell to exclude antibodies, three antibodies have not been excluded in the panel shown below. Two of the antibodies are anti-E and anti-K, what is the third antibody that is possible (has not been excluded)? a. Anti-c b. Anti-Jka c. Anti-Jkb d. Anti-C
c. Anti-Jkb
In which group is Type B blood found in higher frequency? a. African Americans b. Caucasians c. Asians d. Hispanics
c. Asians
A 9-year-old male in Alaska presents with hemolysis and hematuria. The patient history reveals that he recently recovered from a flu-like virus. The ABO type is A+, and the DAT reacts at 1+. What blood group antibody should be suspected? a. Autoanti-i b. Anti-M c. Autoanti-P d. Anti-H
c. Autoanti-P
An aliquot of AS-1 red blood cells is being prepared from an intact packed cell unit using a sterile connection device. During the process of preparing an aliquot, the sterile device fails and blood drips onto the counter from the product tubing. What should be done with the primary unit? a. Destroy the unit b. Keep the original expiration date c. Change the expiration date to 24 hours d. Change the expiration date to 48 hours
c. Change the expiration date to 24 hours
Which of the prospective donors below would be an acceptable blood donor? a. Donor 1: BP: 90/55 Pulse: 105 Temp: 36.4 C (97.6 F) b. Donor 2: BP: 200/90 Pulse: 72 Temp: 37 C (98.6 F) c. Donor 3 BP: 110/72 Pulse: 66 Temp: 37.2 C (99.0 F) d. Donor 4 BP: 100/70 Pulse: 98 Temp: 38.3 (101.0 F)
c. Donor 3 BP: 110/72 Pulse: 66 Temp: 37.2 C (99.0 F)
For which of these reasons would a molecular method not be used? a. Determine blood type when the DAT is positive b. Complex Rh genotypes (weak D expression) c. Donor antibody screening d. Type fetal blood
c. Donor antibody screening
When performing a transfusion reaction investigation, what is the clerical check used to detect? a. The type of reaction that occurred b. The patient's hemoglobin and hematocrit c. Errors that may cause an ABO-incompatibility due to patient or donor unit mix up d. Medication errors
c. Errors that may cause an ABO-incompatibility due to patient or donor unit mix up
Which blood group is considered the "universal" donor when transfusing Red Blood Cells? a. Group A b. Group B c. Group O d. Group AB
c. Group O
Based on the evaluation of hematocrit (Hct), blood pressure (BP), pulse, age, and gender, which of the following individuals represents an acceptable allogeneic donor? a. Hct is 39%, BP is 160/105, Temp is 99.8, Pulse is 75, Age is 40, and Sex is female b. Hct is 37%, BP is 135/85, Temp is 98.6, Pulse is 80, Age is 15, and Sex is male c. Hct is 41%, BP is 110/80, Temp is 99.4, Pulse is 65, and Sex is male d. Hct is 32%, BP is 120/80, Temp is 98.9, Pulse is 70, Age is 22, and Sex is female
c. Hct is 41%, BP is 110/80, Temp is 99.4, Pulse is 65, and Sex is male
What section of an immunoglobulin molecule is responsible for the differences between immunoglobulin classes? a. Fc b. Fab c. Heavy chains d. Light chains
c. Heavy chains
Which class of antibody can agglutinate erythrocytes (RBCs) after anti-human globulin (AHG) is added to the test tube? a. IgA b. IgE c. IgG d. IgM
c. IgG
A primary immune response is generally associated with which antibody? a. IgG b. IgA c. IgM d. IgD
c. IgM
In theory, how difficult is it to find a compatible blood unit and to identify the antibody in a patient with an antibody to a low-frequency antigen, such as Kpa or Jsa? a. It is difficult to find compatible blood and difficult to identify the antibody b. It is difficult to find compatible blood but not difficult to identify the antibody c. It is not difficult to find compatible blood but difficult to identify the antibody d. It is not difficult to identify the antibody and not difficult to find compatible blood
c. It is not difficult to find compatible blood but difficult to identify the antibody
Which of the following antigens are well developed on fetal cells? a. Lewis b. ABO c. Kell d. I
c. Kell
Lewis Blood Group System is a human blood group unlike most others. The antigen is produced and secreted by exocrine glands, eventually absorbing to the surface of red blood cells. Its expression is based on the genetic expression of the Lewis and Secretor genes. Based on the following genotype (Le) (Se), what would you predict the Lewis antigen phenotypic expression to be? a. Le (a- b-) b. Le (a+ b+) c. Le (a- b+) d. Le (a+ b-)
c. Le (a- b+)
Almost all individuals possess which Lutheran antigen profile? a. Lu (a-b-) b. Lu (a+b-) c. Lu (a-b+) d. Lu (a+b+)
c. Lu (a-b+)
Which of the following set of conditions would NOT allow HDFN to occur as a result of Rh incompatibility? a. Mother Rh-negative, father Rh-positive b. Mother Rh-negative, baby Rh-positive c. Mother Rh-negative, father Rh-negative d. Mother Rh-negative, father Rh-unknown
c. Mother Rh-negative, father Rh-negative
What is the acceptable way to thaw Fresh Frozen Plasma? a. Leaving it at room temperature away from agitation b. Refrigerating the FFP on a bottom rack c. Placing the FFP in a 37C water bath d. Placing the FFP in a 121C or higher in a steam sterilizer
c. Placing the FFP in a 37C water bath
Which one of the following blood components would be MOST appropriate for a 9-year old girl who is suspected of having immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)? a. Packed red blood cells b. Cryoprecipitate c. Platelets d. Fresh frozen plasma
c. Platelets
An urticarial transfusion reaction is characterized by which of the following? a. Rapid rise in temperature b. Difficulty breathing c. Rash and hives d. Blood in the urine
c. Rash and hives
What would be considered a common characteristic of anti-Jka and anti-Jkb? a. The immunoglobulin class is IgM b. Agglutination reactions are best observed by DAT c. The antibodies show dosage with Kidd antigens on red cells d. The antibodies are naturally occurring
c. The antibodies show dosage with Kidd antigens on red cells
Generally speaking, infant RBCs demonstrate the presence of the ___ antigen, which gradually decreases as one ages. Conversely, the ___ phenotype is not expressed at birth, but the amount of this antigen increases as one ages. a. M; N b. K; k c. i; I d. M; K
c. i; I
Based on the following results obtained against a patient's red cells, what will the genotype look like in this example? Anti-C= 4+ Anti-c= 4+ Anti-E= 0 Anti-e= 4+ Anti-D= 0 a. R0R0 b. rr c. r'r d. R1R2
c. r'r
What is the increase in the risk for developing antibodies against red cell antigens (RBC alloimmunization) for patients who are characterized as chronically transfused patients? a. 1-4% b. 2-8% c. 5-10% d. 30% or greater
d. 30% or greater
A platelet component prepared from a unit of whole blood (random donor platelet) must contain at least how many platelets? a. 3.8 x 10^10 platelets/unit b. 4.0 x 10^10 platelets/unit c. 4.5 x 10^10 platelets/unit d. 5.5 x 10^10 platelets/unit
d. 5.5 x 10^10 platelets/unit
A false-negative reaction while performing the DAT technique may be the result of: a. Red cell/AHG tube is over centrifuged b. Blood collected in tube containing silicone gel c. Saline used for wash stored in glass or metal container d. AHG addition delayed for 40 minutes
d. AHG addition delayed for 40 minutes
When would unexpected positive reactions be encountered during ABO forward typing? a. A or B subgroups b. Antigen depression due to leukemia c. Hypogammaglobulinemia d. Acquired B antigen
d. Acquired B antigen
A 54-year-old woman has just braved a winter snow storm in North Dakota to see her doctor for a general checkup. She indicates no complaints but does mention how difficult the cold weather is for her. The doctor notices bluish coloring of her ears and fingers. She states that this has been happening for years whenever it is cold and that the problem subsides during the warm summer months. What abnormal test results might be noted in this patient's blood tests? Choose the BEST answer. a. Negative Donath-Landsteiner test b. Agglutination on blood smear c. Positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT) d. Agglutination on blood smear and positive DAT
d. Agglutination on blood smear and positive DAT
Red blood cells with a positive DAT cannot be tested accurately with blood typing reagents that require an indirect antiglobulin technique unless they have been treated with all of the following (to dissociate IgG from the RBC membrane) EXCEPT: a. Chloroquine diphosphate b. Ficin c. ZZAP d. Albumin
d. Albumin
All of the following are possible causes of the positive antibody screen EXCEPT? Chart in Medialab a. Anti-D (passive, from RhIg administration) b. Anti-D (immune) c. Anti- Fya d. Anti- Lua
d. Anti- Lua
Why would a unit of group O blood never be administered to a Bombay patient? a. Anti-A in donor b. Anti-B in donor c. Anti-H in donor d. Anti-H in recipient
d. Anti-H in recipient
Which of the following antibodies is most often implicated as a cause of a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction (DHTR)? a. Anti-S b. Anti-M c. Anti-Fya d. Anti-Jka
d. Anti-Jka
The immediate spin phase of an indirect antiglobulin test (antibody screen and antibody identification) could most likely lead to the detection of which of the following? a. Clinically significant warm antibodies b. Clinically significant cold anitbodies c. Clinically insignificant warm antibodies d. Clinically insignificant cold antibodies
d. Clinically insignificant cold antibodies
Which of the following types of WHOLE BLOOD is the only one to be transfused to a type AB patient? a. Group O b. Group A c. Group B d. Group AB
d. Group AB
Which of the following blood group antigen-antibody reactions is enhanced by using enzymes: a. Fya b. Fyb c. M d. Jka
d. Jka
An individual with group AB blood does not have which of the following antigens present on their blood cells? a. A b. B c. H d. O
d. O
All of the following are required to be in a machine-readable format on a blood component label, EXCEPT: a. ABO & Rh of the donor b. Product code c. Collection facility d. Outdate
d. Outdate
A specimen from a 23-year-old female patient who is a Bombay phenotype arrives in the blood bank. You observe the following reactions upon tube testing. Which of the following statements is true? Front type: Anti-A: 0 Anti-B: 0 Back type: A cells: 4+ B cells: 4+ a. Type AB red blood cells can be transfused to this patient b. Type O red blood cells can be transfused to this patient in an emergency c. Type O NEG blood can be transfused to this patient d. Patient can receive only Bombay phenotype blood
d. Patient can receive only Bombay phenotype blood
Which characteristic best describes IgG antibodies produced against red blood cells? a. Are naturally occurring b. Cannot be identified using the AHG test c. React best at room temperature d. React best at 37 Celsius
d. React best at 37 Celsius
Rh antibodies generally: a. React best at 4C b. React best at room temperature c. Generally do not react at any temperature d. React best at 37C
d. React best at 37C
What characteristic is usually associated with IgM antibodies directed against red cells? a. React best at 37C b. Appear after heated incubation c. Are identified using the AHG test d. React best at room temperature
d. React best at room temperature
False negative results may occur with indirect antiglobulin tests as a result of all of the following EXCEPT: a. undercentrifugation b. Delay in adding antiglobulin reagent c. Failure to adequately wash cells d. Red blood cells have a positive DAT
d. Red blood cells have a positive DAT
An elution is a technique that is used to release, concentrate, and purify antibodies that are bound to red blood cells. In preparing red cells for any elution method, one must be particularly careful to: a. Leave a small amount of serum in the test system so complement will be present b. Add albumin to decrease zeta potential c. Pretreat the cells with enzymes d. Thoroughly wash sensitized red cells
d. Thoroughly wash sensitized red cells
Transfusion of which blood product is most likely to cause circulatory overload in patients? a. Platelets b. Fresh frozen plasma c. Red blood cells d. Whole blood
d. Whole blood