BOC Blood Banking
Cryoprecipitated AHF, pooled 1. 20° to 24° C, 4 hours 2. 1° to 6° C, 24 hours 3. 20° to 24° C, 6 hours 4. < -18° C, 1 year from collection 5. 1° to 6° C, < 5 days 6. < -65° C, 7 years 7. 20° to 24° C, 48 hours
1
Deficiency of factor XIII and von Willebrand's factor 1. Cryoprecipitated AHF 2. Fresh frozen plasma 3. Red blood cells 4. Platelets 5. Leuko-reduced blood components 6. Washed red blood cells 7. Albumin/plasma protein fraction 8. Factor concentrates 9. Plasma, cryoprecipitate reduced 10. Irradiated blood products
1
Avoid graft-versus-host disease 1. Cryoprecipitated AHF 2. Fresh frozen plasma 3. Red blood cells 4. Platelets 5. Leuko-reduced blood components 6. Washed red blood cells 7. Albumin/plasma protein fraction 8. Factor concentrates 9. Plasma, cryoprecipitate reduced 10. Irradiated blood products
10
Fresh frozen plasma (thawed) 1. 20° to 24° C, 4 hours 2. 1° to 6° C, 24 hours 3. 20° to 24° C, 6 hours 4. < -18° C, 1 year from collection 5. 1° to 6° C, < 5 days 6. < -65° C, 7 years 7. 20° to 24° C, 48 hours
2
Cryoprecipitated AHF (thawed) 1. 20° to 24° C, 4 hours 2. 1° to 6° C, 24 hours 3. 20° to 24° C, 6 hours 4. < -18° C, 1 year from collection 5. 1° to 6° C, < 5 days 6. < -65° C, 7 years 7. 20° to 24° C, 48 hours
3
Intravascular volume expansion 1. Cryoprecipitated AHF 2. Fresh frozen plasma 3. Red blood cells 4. Platelets 5. Leuko-reduced blood components 6. Washed red blood cells 7. Albumin/plasma protein fraction 8. Factor concentrates 9. Plasma, cryoprecipitate reduced 10. Irradiated blood products
3
Bleeding due to thrombocytopenia 1. Cryoprecipitated AHF 2. Fresh frozen plasma 3. Red blood cells 4. Platelets 5. Leuko-reduced blood components 6. Washed red blood cells 7. Albumin/plasma protein fraction 8. Factor concentrates 9. Plasma, cryoprecipitate reduced 10. Irradiated blood products
4
Cryoprecipitated AHF (frozen) 1. 20° to 24° C, 4 hours 2. 1° to 6° C, 24 hours 3. 20° to 24° C, 6 hours 4. < -18° C, 1 year from collection 5. 1° to 6° C, < 5 days 6. < -65° C, 7 years 7. 20° to 24° C, 48 hours
4
Reduce the risk of allergic reactions 1. Cryoprecipitated AHF 2. Fresh frozen plasma 3. Red blood cells 4. Platelets 5. Leuko-reduced blood components 6. Washed red blood cells 7. Albumin/plasma protein fraction 8. Factor concentrates 9. Plasma, cryoprecipitate reduced 10. Irradiated blood products
6
A 44-year-old woman has a hemoglobin level of 6.1 g/dL. White blood cell and platelet counts are within normal levels. The patient is group O D-negative with a negative antibody screen. Crossmatches are compatible. However, 15 minutes after the first transfusion is started, she experiences erythema and hives. What type of transfusion reaction is occurring? A. Urticarial B. Febrile nonhemolytic C. Delayed hemolytic D. Acute hemolytic
A
A tube was received in the blood bank for crossmatching. The label was torn and the only information that was visible was the patient's last name and the medical record number. Which of the following is an acceptable procedure? A. Request a recollection of the specimen. B. Call the phlebotomist back to relabel the tube. C. Reprint a label using the MRI as the identifier. D. Use the tube since the MRI is visible.
A
An anaphylactic transfusion reaction is caused by __________ antibodies. A. IgA B. IgG C. IgE D. All of the above
A
Antibodies to Lub antigen are not commonly detected because: A. Lub antigen is of high incidence. B . the antibodies do not cause transfusion reactions. D. Lub antigen is not present on screening cells. C. the antibodies react best at 4° C.
A
Antibody screening cells are positive at the antihuman globulin phase of testing. The first step of the investigation should be to: A. Check transfusion and pregnancy history. B. Perform a direct antiglobulin test using anti-C3. C. Repeat the ABO typing. D. Crossmatch units until one is compatible.
A
DCce A. R1r B. R1R1 C. R2R2 D. rr
A
Febrile, nonhemolytic A. Prevented by leukocyte-reduced components B. Prevented by irradiation of components C. Symptoms include hives and itching D. Associated with ABO incompatibilities E. Caused by donor white cell antibodies F. Alloantibodies to red cell antigens G. Can be prevented by transfusion slowly
A
Found in secretions, such as breast milk A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE
A
In an antibody identification panel, only one red cell was negative at the antihuman globulin phase. On ruling out and matching the pattern, an anti-k was identified. What further testing is necessary to confirm the antibody? A. Two more k-negative cells should be tested. B. Two more K-negative cells should be tested. C. Treat the panel cells with enzymes and perform the panel again. D. Perform an adsorption using "k"-positive cells.
A
In relationship testing, a "direct exclusion" is established when a genetic marker is: A. present in the child but absent in both the mother and alleged father. B. present in the child, absent in the mother, and present in the alleged father. C. absent in the child, present in the mother, and the alleged father. D. absent in the child, present in the mother, and absent in the alleged father
A
In which type of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn is the first-born affected? A. ABO B. D C. E D. M
A
K1-positive donor red cells were mistakenly transfused to a recipient with anti-K. The patient's post-transfusion blood sample has a positive direct antiglobulin test with polyspecific antihuman globulin. The direct antiglobulin test is positive because anti-K is an __________ antibody that has sensitized the __________ cells in vivo. A. IgG, donor's B. IgM, donor's C. IgG, recipient's D. IgM, recipient's
A
Reagent to identify the specificity of a red cell antibody antisera A. Panel cells B. Screening cells C. A1 and B cells D. ABO antisera
A
System associated with glycophorin A and B A. MNSs B. Kidd C. Kell D. Duffy
A
The children of an AB mother and a B father could phenotype as all of the following except: A. O. B. A. C. B. D. AB.
A
What component is indicated for patients who receive directed donations from immediate family members to prevent graft-versus-host transfusion reactions? A. Irradiated red blood cells B. Packed red blood cells C. Washed red blood cells D. Cytomegalovirus-negative red blood cells
A
What is meant by the term autosomal? A. A trait that is not carried on the sex chromosomes B. A trait that is carried on the sex chromosome C. A trait that is expressed only in the parents D. A gene that does not express a characteristic
A
What is the approximate probability of finding a compatible unit of blood for a D-positive patient with antibodies to C, E, and K, if the frequency of C is 70%, E, 30%, and K is 10%? A. 2 out of 10 units B. 4 out of 10 units C. 2 out of 100 units D. 4 out of 100 units
A
What reagent contains antibodies to multiple antigenic epitopes? A. Polyclonal-based B. Monoclonal-based C. Heterophile antibody-based D. Alloantibody-based
A
What substances are found in the saliva of a group A person who also inherited the secretor gene? A. A, H B. H C. A, Se D. A, B, H
A
Which of the following best describes the principle of the Kleihauer-Betke test A. Fetal hemoglobin is resistant to acid elution and remains in the cell to stain pink, whereas adult cells appear as ghost cells. B. Adult hemoglobin is resistant to acid elution and remains in the cell to stain pink, whereas fetal cells appear as ghost cells. C. D-positive cells from the fetus form rosettes around the IgG-coated mother's cells. D. Indicator cells form rosettes around the fetal D-positive cells.
A
Which of the following situations is most likely to cause intravascular hemolysis when an incompatible transfusion is given? A. Group B packed cells to a group O recipient B. Group A packed red cells to a group AB recipient C. Group AB plasma to a group A recipient D. Group AB plasma to a group O recipient
A
Whole blood collected from a donor should remain at what temperature before the separation and preparation of platelet concentrates? A. 20° to 24° C B. 1° to 6° C C. 1° to 10° C D. Varies with the facility
A
r' A. Ce B. CE C. DCE D. Dce
A
A 29-year-old female was admitted to the emergency room with severe bleeding. The blood type was tested and determined to be AB, D negative. Six units of RBCs are ordered STAT. Of the following types available in the blood bank, which would be the most preferable for crossmatch? A. AB, D positive B. A, D negative C. A, D positive D. O, D negative
B
A hepatitis B virus carrier is defined as a: A. hepatitis B surface antigen-positive person who has liver disease as a result of a previous hepatitis exposure. B. person who can transmit hepatitis B virus but may not be outwardly affected by it. C. hepatitis B surface antibody-positive person, negative for hepatitis B surface antigen. D. hepatitis B core antibody-positive person, negative for hepatitis B surface antigen.
B
A patient phenotypes as D+C+E-c-e+. The most likely genotype is: A. R1r B. R1R1 C. R1r' D. R1R0
B
Able to cross the placenta A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE
B
All of the following are common characteristics of ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn except: A. weak positive direct antiglobulin test. B. mother is group A. C. the antibody on the infant's cells is anti-A,B. D. mild clinical symptoms.
B
An antibody screen on a patient with a prior history of transfusion was negative. The crossmatch was incompatible with 1 unit selected at AHG phase. The next step in the investigation would be to: A. perform a prewarm procedure for crossmatching B. perform a direct antiglobulin test on the incompatible unit. C. redraw the patient and begin a new crossmatch. D. crossmatch a new unit and discard the incompatible unit.
B
Antibodies detected in the immediate spin crossmatch are usually of which of the following immunoglobulin classes? A. IgA B. IgM C. IgG D. IgD
B
Antibodies in this system often fall below detectable levels and are associated with delayed transfusion reactions A. MNSs B. Kidd C. Kell D. Duffy
B
Autologous donors may not donate if they: A. have a positive test for syphilis. B. are on antibiotics for an infection. C. are taking aspirin. D. are over 65 years old.
B
DCe A. R1r B. R1R1 C. R2R2 D. rr
B
Graft-versus-host disease A. Prevented by leukocyte-reduced components B. Prevented by irradiation of components C. Symptoms include hives and itching D. Associated with ABO incompatibilities E. Caused by donor white cell antibodies F. Alloantibodies to red cell antigens G. Can be prevented by transfusion slowly
B
How many units of red blood cells are required to raise the hematocrit of a 70-kg nonbleeding adult man from 24% to 30%? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
B
If an emergency exists and there is not enough time to perform a crossmatch for red cells, what is the correct procedure? A. Release group O, D-negative whole blood. B. Release group O, D-negative red blood cells. C. Release group AB fresh frozen plasma until the blood type is performed. D. Release ABO-compatible blood based on the patient's prior record in the computer.
B
If anti-M was reacted with red cells that are M+N+, how would they compare with red cells that are M+N-? A. Stronger B. Weaker C. The same D. Varies with the method
B
Most Rh system antibodies are of which immunoglobulin class? A. IgM B. IgG C. IgA D. IgE
B
Reagent to detect the presence of red cell antibodies A. Panel cells B. Screening cells C. A1 and B cells D. ABO antisera
B
The test procedure that combines patient's serum with commercial A1 and B reagent red cells is called: A. ABO forward grouping. B. ABO reverse grouping. C. antibody screen. D. antibody panel.
B
To be considered a candidate for Rh immune globulin, the mother is __________ and the infant is __________. A. D-positive, D-negative B. D-negative, D-positive C. D-negative, D-negative D. D-positive, D-positive
B
What are the two components of the major crossmatch? A. Recipient red cells and donor serum B. Donor red cells and recipient serum C. Reverse ABO cells and recipient serum D. Screening cells and donor serum
B
Which of the following transfusion reactions has the highest incidence? A. Hemolytic reactions due to ABO incompatibility B. Urticarial C. Graft-versus-host disease D. Transfusion-related acute lung injury
B
ry A. Ce B. CE C. DCE D. Dce
B
A group A man marries a group AB woman. The father of the group A man was group O. What possible ABO phenotypes could be expected in the offspring? A. Group A, B, AB, and O B. Group A and B C. Group A, B, and AB D. Group A and AB
C
A large fetomaternal bleed in a D-negative woman who delivered a D-positive infant should be suspected if the: A. direct antiglobulin test on the infant is positive. B. infant is premature. C. fetomaternal hemorrhage screen result is positive. D. maternal antibody screen is positive postpartum.
C
A weakly reactive anti-D was detected in a sample from a D-negative mother one day following delivery of a D-negative baby. Based on these results the lab should: A. titer the anti-D. B. perform a rosette test. C. review records for prenatal RhIG administration. D. administer RhIG.
C
An anti-Fya was identified in a patient's serum. The patient's red cells phenotyped as Fya positive using commercial antisera. The next step is to: A. repeat the panel to confirm the antibody. B. report the antibody because this result is normal. C. investigate a recent transfusion history. D. wash the cells and use monoclonal anti-Fya antibodies.
C
An anti-Fya was identified in a patient's serum. The patient's red cells phenotyped as Fya positive using commercial antisera. The next step is to: A. repeat the panel to confirm the antibody. B. report the antibody because this result is normal. C. investigate a recent transfusion history. D. wash the cells and use monoclonal anti-Fya antibodies.
C
Associated with immediate-spin in vitro reactions A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE
C
Associated with intravascular cell destruction A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE
C
DcE A. R1r B. R1R1 C. R2R2 D. rr
C
Extravascular destruction of blood cells occurs in the: A. blood vessels. B. lymph nodes. C. spleen. D. thymus.
C
How would you interpret the results if both the anti-D reagent and the Rh control were 2+ agglutination reactions? A. D-positive B. D-negative C. Unable to determine without further testing D. Depends on whether the sample was from a patient or a blood donor
C
In a serologic test, the term prozone is also known as: A. equivalence B. antigen excess. C. antibody excess. D. serum-to-cell ratio.
C
Reagent used in the identification of ABO antibodies A. Panel cells B. Screening cells C. A1 and B cells D. ABO antisera
C
Rz A. Ce B. CE C. DCE D. Dce
C
System associated with McLeod phenotype A. MNSs B. Kidd C. Kell D. Duffy
C
System associated with chronic granulomatous disease A. MNSs B. Kidd C. Kell D. Duffy
C
Testing for the weak D expression is performed by: A. using anti-Du antisera with an extended incubation. B. using monoclonal anti-D. C. performing the indirect antiglobulin test with anti-D. D. performing the direct antiglobulin test with anti-D.
C
What forward typing reagent can be used to confirm group O units before placing them in inventory? (Think easiest and quickest) A. Anti-A B. Anti-B C. Anti-A,B D. Anti-H
C
What is the minimum hemoglobin level for a potential allogeneic donor? A. 11 g/dL B. 12 g/dL C. 12.5 g/dL D. 14 g/dL
C
Which of the following facts is not a characteristic of Kell system antibodies? A. Usually clinically significant IgG antibodies B. Best detected in indirect antiglobulin test phases C. Lose reactivity with proteolytic enzyme reagents D. Do not bind complement proteins
C
Which of the following phenotypes is heterozygous? A. Fy(a-b+) B. Jk(a+b-) C. Fy(a+b+) D. Le(a+b-)
C
Which of the following products is tested for bacterial contamination following storage? A. Cryoprecipitated AHF B. Red blood cells, frozen C. Platelets D. Fresh frozen plasma
C
Which one of the following histories represents an acceptable donor? Hematocrit Blood Pressure (mm Hg) Temperature Pulse (beats/min) Age A. 39 110/70 99.8° F 75 40 B. 37 136/86 98.6° F 80 18 C. 41 90/60 98.9° F 65 65 D. 45 190/90 98.6° F 78 56
C
Why is incubation omitted in the direct antihuman globulin test? A. The direct antiglobulin test can be used in an emergency to replace the indirect test. B. Incubation will cause hemolysis. C. The antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo. D. IgM antibodies are detected in the direct antiglobulin test.
C
A 58-year-old woman revealed that she had experimented with intravenous drugs as a teenager. What would be the acceptable deferral period, if any, for this potential donor? A. She is an acceptable donor because testing will pick up evidence of hepatitis. B. She will need to be deferred for 12 months. C. She is an acceptable donor if she has had the hepatitis B vaccine. D. She is deferred.
D
A blood sample from a 90-year-old man was submitted to the blood bank for a type and screen before surgery. The forward type demonstrates as a group A, whereas the reverse type appears to be group AB. The most likely cause of the discrepancy is: A. contaminated reagent antisera. B. rouleaux formation. C. that the patient has autoantibodies. D. that patient has low-titer isoagglutinins.
D
A recipient with group A phenotype requires a transfusion of 2 units of frozen plasma. Which of the following types are appropriate to select for transfusion? A. AB and B B. B and A C. O and A D. AB and A
D
An individual's blood cells gave the following reactions with antisera: Anti-D Anti-C Anti-E Anti-c Anti-e Rh control 4+ 3+ 0 3+ 3+ 0 The most probable genotype is: A. R1R2 B. R2r C. R0r D. R1r
D
Anti-D, anti-K, and anti-Jka are the antibodies that are tentatively identified on a panel after initially ruling out on negative cells. What selected cell from another panel should be chosen to confirm the presence of anti-K? A. K-, D+, Jk(a+) B. K+, D+, Jk(a+) C. K+, D-, Jk(a+) D. K+, D-, Jk(a-)
D
Antibodies to which blood group system is often implicated in delayed transfusion reactions? A. Kell B. Rh C. Duffy D. Kidd
D
Associated with allergic reactions and mast cell activation A. IgA B. IgG C. IgM D. IgE
D
Delayed hemolytic A. Prevented by leukocyte-reduced components B. Prevented by irradiation of components C. Symptoms include hives and itching D. Associated with ABO incompatibilities E. Caused by donor white cell antibodies F. Alloantibodies to red cell antigens G. Can be prevented by transfusion slowly
D
Hepatitis A virus transmission in blood is unusual because: A. hepatitis A virus is usually transmitted by the enteric route. B. hepatitis A virus is usually an acute hepatitis. C. infectivity after a hepatitis A virus infection is usually only 2 weeks. D. all of the above.
D
If a donor is found to be positive for hepatitis C virus by nucleic acid testing, the process of "look-back" is initiated to: A. quarantine units in the blood center that may exist from prior donations from the inventory. B. notify recipients who may have previously received blood from this donor. C. locate and quarantine units that have been sent to transfusion facilities from this donor in the past. D. all of the above.
D
In a family study, it was determined that all four siblings in the family had a different blood type: A, B, O, and AB. The parents were most likely ____________. A. AA and BB B. AO and BB C. OO and AB D. AO and BO
D
In the process of identifying an antibody, the technologist observed 2+ reactions with 3 of the 10 cells in a panel at the immediate spin phase. These reactions disappeared following incubation at 37° C and the antihuman globulin phase of testing. The antibody most likely to be responsible is: A. anti-E. B. anti-D C. anti-I. D. anti-Lea.
D
Lewis system antibodies have not been implicated in hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn because: A. the antigens are not fully developed at birth. B. Lewis system antibodies do not cross the placenta. C. the antibodies are not clinically significant. D. all of the above are correct.
D
R0 A. Ce B. CE C. DCE D. Dce
D
Reagent used to determine the ABO antigenic composition of a patient's red cells A. Panel cells B. Screening cells C. A1 and B cells D. ABO antisera
D
Red cells that phenotype as S-s- are also: A. M-negative. B. N-negative. C. Tja-negative. D. U-negative.
D
Rh immune globulin should be given within how many hours following delivery? A. 12 B. 24 C. 48 D. 72
D
System associated with resistance to malaria A. MNSs B. Kidd C. Kell D. Duffy
D
The clinical sequelae of a hemolytic transfusion reaction may include all of the following except: A. disseminated intravascular coagulation. B. renal failure. C. shock. D. graft-versus-host disease.
D
The correct storage temperature and time limit for pooled platelets are: A. 20° to 24° C, 5 days. B. 1° to 6° C, 7 days. C. 1° to 10° C, 24 hours. D. 20° to 24° C, 4 hours.
D
The weak D test detects: A. The Du antigen. B. the missing D mosaic. C. a weak D antibody. D. a weak D antigen.
D
Which of the following blood group systems has been implicated in transfusion reactions on the first exposure to incompatible red blood cells? A. Rh B. Kell C. Kidd D. ABO
D
ce A. R1r B. R1R1 C. R2R2 D. rr
D
Transfusion-related acute lung injury A. Prevented by leukocyte-reduced components B. Prevented by irradiation of components C. Symptoms include hives and itching D. Associated with ABO incompatibilities E. Caused by donor white cell antibodies F. Alloantibodies to red cell antigens G. Can be prevented by transfusion slowly
E
Acute hemolytic A. Prevented by leukocyte-reduced components B. Prevented by irradiation of components C. Symptoms include hives and itching D. Associated with ABO incompatibilities E. Caused by donor white cell antibodies F. Alloantibodies to red cell antigens G. Can be prevented by transfusion slowly
F
Circulatory overload A. Prevented by leukocyte-reduced components B. Prevented by irradiation of components C. Symptoms include hives and itching D. Associated with ABO incompatibilities E. Caused by donor white cell antibodies F. Alloantibodies to red cell antigens G. Can be prevented by transfusion slowly
G
