BSC- Final

Chapter 28 https://quizlet.com/172595439/bsc2086-ch28-flash-cards/ https://quizlet.com/112193868/bsc-2086l-chapters-25262829-flash-cards/ https://quizlet.com/284537332/bsc-chapter-28-reproductive-system-flash-cards/

1- Explain the main structures of the male reproductive system and their functions. 2- Name the layers of the testis. 1. Scrotum - the testes - It is the skin sac or fleshy pouch below the perineum and anterior to the anus encloses the testes and provides proper temperature for normal sperm development. Normal sperm develop at temperatures 1.1°C (2°F) lower than body temperature. Muscles relax or contract to move the testis to maintain appropriate testicular temperature. - The scrotum is divide into two chambers or scrotal cavities marked by the raphe, a thickening in the scrotal surface. The scrotum has a wrinkled appearance caused by muscle tone of the dartos muscle, a thin layer of smooth muscle in the dermis. The scrotum is pulled closer to the body during sexual arousal or when the ambience temperature is lower than necessary for proper development. This movement is caused by the cremaster muscle, which lies deep to the dermis and it is a layer of skeletal musc - Testes are the egg shaped male main reproductive organs. Septa divide the testis into lobules. - They contain seminiferous tubules, which produce the sperm or spermatozoa, and large interstitial or Leydig cells, produce the hormone testosterone (androgen). 3- What are the seminiferous tubules, explain the function. - Seminiferous tubules connect to the rete testis, passageways that carry the sperm to the efferent ductules. These carry sperm to the epididymis. - The seminiferous tubules contain gametes in different stages of differentiation, the sperm stem cells, and the sustentacular or Sertolini cells, which play a key role in sperm production. - Males produce large quantities of gametes, ½ a billion sperm per day. 4- What is the function of Leydig cells or interstitial cells? ANDROGEN -Leydid cells or interstitial cells produce the hormone testosteron (androgen). Androgen's Primary effects: Establish and maintain male secondary sex characteristics and sexual behavior, promote maturation of spermatozoa, inhibit GnRH secretion. 5- What is the function of Sertoli cells or sustentacular cells? (Nurse cells) - attached to the tubular capsule and extend to the seminiferous tubule lumen. - They surround the spermatocytes, nourish, and anchor them. - - -- They affect mitosis, meiosis , and spermiogenesis in the seminiferous tubules. - Nurse cells have six functions: 1- Maintain the blood testis barrier that prevents the destruction of the secondary spermatocytes by the body's immune system; 2- Support mitosis and meiosis stimulated by FSH and testosterone which promote division of spermatogonia, and spermatocyte meiotic divisions; 3- Promote spermiogenesis; 4- Secrete the hormone inhibin that inhibits the production of FSH and may be of GnRH to help regulate spermatogenesis; 5- Secrete androgen-binding protein (ABP) that binds to androgen or testosterone to elevate its concentration and thus stimulate spermiogenesis; 6- Secrete the Mullerian inhibiting factor that prevents the formation of the mullerian tubes or ducts, which give origin to fallopian tubes in females, and prevent the testis descend into the scrotum. Quizlet The function(s) of the sustentacular cells (Sertoli cells) in the male is (are): all of the choices are correct support of spermiogenesis secretion of inhibin secretion of androgen-binding protein secretion of the Mullerian inhibiting factor all of the choices are correct 6- Explain the process of spermiogenesis. Name the main steps of meiosis. a. Explain the process of spermiogenesis - Spermiogenesis is the process of transforming spermatids into spermatozoa. - The spermatids are non motile, round small relatively unspecialized cells, with a large cytoplasm, which are attached to large nurse cell also called sustentacular or Sertoli cells. - During spermiation spermatozoa cells detach for nurse cells and enter the lumem of the seminiferous tubule, lose most of the cytoplasm, acquire a tail, and enter the lumen of the seminiferous tubule. - At this point, they are called spermatozoa or sperm. - Mature sperm have: 1- A head that contains a genetic region with nucleus and chromosomes and an acrosome, or cap-like compartment at the tip, necessary for fertilization; 2- A middle piece attached to the head by a short neck with numerous mitochondria for ATP production to move the tail; 3- a tail formed by the only flagellum in the human body to propel the sperm b. Name the main steps of meiosis. (reduce the number of chromosomes to 1/2 = 23) - Meiosis it is a special cell division that reduces the number of chromosomes to half of the original amount. - It is involved only in the production of gametes. It consists of two consecutive nuclear divisions that produce 4 haploid (n) cells with 23 chromosomes each. - During spermatogenesis, primary spermatocytes begin the process of meiosis to eventually become spermatids. - During prophase I of meiosis I, homologous chromosomes align and synapse to form tetrads that exchange of genetic material during the process of crossover. This process introduces genetic variability. - During Metaphase I tetrads line up along the metaphase plate and independent assortment takes place as each tetrad split and maternal and paternal chromosomes are randomly distributed. - The primary spermatocytes go through meiosis I and form 2 secondary spermatocytes. These go through meiosis II to form four spermatids, which are immature spermatozoa which lose contact with the seminiferous tubule and enter the lumen. - Meiosis II is called an equation division, because the number of chromosomes does not change. Meiosis II is similar to mitosis, but the chromosomes do not replicate before this division occurs, and the chromatids separate to form 4 daughter cells. - The spermatids become physically mature spermatozoa during the process of spermiogenesis Quizlet - The reproduction in the number of chromosomes to hold the normal count occurs during---------- MEIOSIS 7- What are the differences between sperm and semen? - It is a mixture of sperm and glands secretions that transport, nourishes, protect and activate sperm, and facilitate their movement. - An average ejaculation consists of 2 ml to 5 ml of semen with 20 to 100 million spermatozoa/mL. - Abnormally low semen volume may indicate prostrate or seminal glands problems. Quizlet - 39. Semen is C A. produced solely by the testis. B. a vaginal secretion needed to activate sperm. C. sperm cells plus the secretions of accessory glands. D. responsible for engorgement of erectile tissue of the penis. E. is composed only of sperm cells. 8- Name the different part of the sperm and their functions. - Mature sperm have: 1- A head that contains a genetic region with nucleus and chromosomes and an acrosome, or cap-like compartment at the tip, necessary for fertilization; 2- A middle piece attached to the head by a short neck with numerous mitochondria for ATP production to move the tail; 3- a tail formed by the only flagellum in the human body to propel the sperm 9-Explain the function of the following structures epididymis, ducts deferens, prostate gland, and seminal vesicle. a. EPIDIDYMIS - head - body - tail - forms the first part of the reproductive tract. It is a highly coiled duct, bound to the posterior border of the testis. It has a head, body and tail. - Functions: 1- monitoring and adjusting the composition of the seminiferous tubules fluid; 2- recycling damaged spermatozoa; 3- stores, protects, and facilitates the functional maturation of the spermatozoa; 4- transport mature sperm to ductus deferens by way of fluid movement and peristaltic contractions because they immobile. Quizlet I- In the male the important function(s) of the epididymis is (are): all choices are correct. monitors and adjusts the composition of the tubular fluid acts as a recycling center for damaged spermatozoa the site of physical maturation of spermatozoa all choices are correct b. DUCTUS DEFERENS / VAS DEFERENS - they are long tubes that start at the tail of the epididymis, and ascend through the inguinal canal as part of the spermatic cord. - They extend posteriorly, and curve inferiorly along the urinary bladder. Near the end, as they get close to the seminal vesicles and prostate gland, they expand in to the ampulla. - The wall contains a thick layer of smooth muscle that propels the spermatozoa and fluid to the ejaculatory duct by way of peristaltic movements. - Sperm can be stored in the ductus deference for several months. c. THE EJACULATORY DUCT it is a short passageway at the junction of the ampulla and seminal gland duct that penetrates the muscular wall of the prostate gland and carries the fluid and sperm into the urethra Quizlet In the male, sperm cells, before leaving the body, travel from the testes in the sequence: C A ductus deferens, epididymis, urethra, ejaculatory duct B epididymis, ejaculatory duct, ductus deferens, urethra C epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra D ejaculatory duct, epididymis, ductus deferens, urethra d. PROSTATE GLAND - it is a small muscular organ that surrounds the urethra inferior to the bladder. - It consist of 30 to 50 compound tubuloalveolar glands surrounded by smooth muscle fibers. It produces a fluid that is milky and slightly acidic and contributes about 20% to 30 % of the semen volume. - This contains several substances including: 1- seminalplasmin, an antibiotic believed to help prevent urinary tract infections; 2- acid phosphatase, which plays a role in activating the sperm; 3- citric acid, which can be used for energy production; and 4- several proteolytic enzymes such as hyaluronidase, protease, and fibrinolysin, which are believed to help the sperm move more easily by dissolving the thick substances surrounding it. Prostatic fluid is ejected by peristalsis of the prostrate wall. Quizlet The accessory organs in the male that secrete into the ejaculatory ducts and the urethra are: seminal vesicles, prostate gland, bulbourethral glands adrenal glands, bulbourethral glands, seminal glands epididymus, seminal vesicles, vas deferens seminal vesicles, prostate gland, bulbourethral glands prostate gland, inguinal canals, raphe none of the choices are correct e. SEMINAL GLAND - they are located in the posterior wall of the bladder, embedded in connective tissue. - They are tubular glands that produce about 60% of the semen volume. Seminal fluid is viscous and slightly alkaline to neutralize the acids from the prostrate gland and vagina - It gives motility to the sperm which is the first step in sperm capacitation. - This fluid contains fructose, which nourishes the sperm; prostaglandins, which cause peristalsis in male and female reproductive tracts; and fibrinogen, which forms a temporary clot in the vagina after ejaculation. - This fluid initiates the first step in capacitation as spematozoa begin to beat the flagella and become highly motile. Seminal fluid is discharged into the ejaculatory duct at emission when peristaltic contractions are under way controlled by the sympathetic nervous system. Quizlet 20. Which of the following structures would be found in the spermatic cord? ductus deferens A. epididymis B. ductus deferens C. seminal vesicle D. ejaculatory duct E. interstitial cells 25. Smooth muscle contractions help to propel sperm in the ductus deferens A. rete testis. B. ductus deferens. C. seminal receptacle. D. seminiferous tubule. E. ejaculatory duct. 26. The duct from the seminal vesicle joins the ductus deferens to form the ejaculatory duct A. prostatic urethra. B. epididymis. C. sperm cord. D. ejaculatory duct. E. spongy urethra. ejaculatory 37. Which of the following statements is false? A A. The seminal vesicles open into the membranous urethra. B. The prostate gland surrounds the prostatic urethra and ejaculatory ducts. C. The bulbourethral glands enter the spongy urethra at the base of the penis. D. The prostate gland contains smooth muscle partitions covered with columnar epithelium. E. The seminal vesicles are sac-shaped glands located next to the ampullae of the ductus deferentia. 38. The accessory glands located near the membranous urethra are the C A. seminal vesicles. B. inguinal glands. 'C. bulbourethral glands. D. seminal receptacles. E. penal glands. 40. Most of the seminal fluid is produced B A. by the testes. B. by the seminal vesicles. C. by the prostate gland. D. by the bulbourethral glands. E. by the ejaculatory duct. 43. Which of the following glands is correctly matched with its function? A A. seminal vesicles - provide nutrients for sperm B. prostate - lubricates the penis during intercourse C. bulbourethral glands - produce a thin, sweet fluid D. testes - produce most of the semen E. prostate - contributes most of the fluid 44. Given the following glands, choose the arrangement that represents the order in which the glands release their secretions to form semen. (1) prostate gland (2) bulbourethral glands (3) seminal vesicles C. 3, 1, 2 A. 1, 2, 3 B. 2, 1, 3 C. 3, 1, 2 D. 3, 2, 1 E. 2, 3, 2 10- Function of seminalplasmin. - antibiotic believed to help prevent urinary tract infections; 11- Name the regions of the male urethra. -prostatic -membranous -penile urethras / spongy urethra directs urine and semen outside of the body. It extends from the urinary bladder to the tip of the penis. It is divided into 3 regions, the prostatic, membranous, and penile urethras. 12- What is the prepuce? - The prepuce or foreskin is a fold of skin that surrounds the glans Quizlet 33. Which of the following is mismatched? B A. prepuce - skin that covers the glans penis B. corpora cavernosa - forms the foreskin C. glans penis - contains external urethral opening D. corpus spongiosum - expands to form the glans penis E. membranous urethra - between prostatic and spongy urethra 34. Circumcision is the surgical removal of the A A. prepuce. B. crus penis. C. glans penis. D. corpora cavernosa. E. bulb of penis. 93. Which of the following pairs is mismatched? D A. clitoris - erectile tissue B. labia minora - unite anteriorly to form the prepuce C. vestibular glands - maintain moistness of vestibule D. mons pubis - vaginal orifice E. pudendal cleft - space between labia majora 94. Both the vagina and the urethra open into a space called the C A. urogenital sinus. B. pudendal cleft. C. vestibule. D. prepuce. E. mons pubis. 13- What are the corpora cavernosa and the corpora spongiosum? Quizlet - The three masses of erectile tissues that comprise the body of the penis are: none of the choices is correct two corpora cavernosa and a preputial gland two slender corpora spongiosa and a cylindrical corpus cavernosum One cylindrical corpora cavernosa and a slender corpus spongiosum preputial glands, a corpus cavernosum, and a corpus spongiosum none of the choices is correct - The three masses of erectile tissues that comprise the body of the penis are: C A two corpora cavernosa and a preputial gland B two slender corpora spongiosa and a cylindrical corpus cavernosum C two cylindrical corpora cavernosa and a slender corpus spongiosum D preputial glands, a corpus cavernosum, and a corpus spongiosum - 33. Which of the following is mismatched? B A. prepuce - skin that covers the glans penis B. corpora cavernosa - forms the foreskin C. glans penis - contains external urethral opening D. corpus spongiosum - expands to form the glans penis E. membranous urethra - between prostatic and spongy urethra 14- What is capacitacion? - Process where sperm gain the "capacity" to fertilize the egg and Occurs in the female reproductive tract - Capacitation is a functional maturation of the spermatozoon. The changes take place via the sperm cell membrane in which it may be that receptors are made available through the removal of a glycoprotein layer. The area of the acrosomal cap is also so altered thereby that the acrosome reaction becomes possible. - Decapacitation factor" What happens in the female tract that allows for the coating added in the epididymis True acrosome reaction - Occurs on contact with the egg in mammals in only those sperm that are capacitated - It is reversible: possible to remove sperm from the female tract, place back in seminal plasma, then put back in the female: must allow 5 to 6 hours for capacitation to occur - Sperm Capacitation The process of "stripping" the coating of seminal plasma proteins from the sperm by the environment of the F tract -these components coat the plasma membrane with surface substances that prevent or inhibit interaction of sperm with the egg -all sperm are not capacitated at the same rate -happens over a relatively long period of time (several hours) -reflects individual sperm differences as well as location within the tract - 15- Name the main parts of the female reproductive system and their functions: ovaries, uterine tube, uterus - Structural support of female reproductive organs: the ovaires, uterine tubes, and uterus are enclosed in the broad ligament. a. Ovaries: They are the female main reproductive organs, which function to 1- produce the female gametes, 2- secrete sex hormones estrogens, progestins, 3- secrete the hormone inhibin - These small almond shaped organs are found at each side of the uterus, near the lateral walls of the pelvic cavity. - They are held in place by ligaments (broad, ovarian, and suspensory) and the parietal peritoneum called the mesovarium. - They are surrounded by a fibrous capsule or tunic or albuginea, which is covered by the superficial germinal epithelium. The outer part or cortex is deep to the tunica albuginea, and contains the ovarian follicles where the ova are produced. The inner part or medulla contains blood and lymphatic vessels, and nerves. The ovarian follicles contain immature eggs or oocytes in various stages of development. b. Uteine/ Fallopian Tubes - These oviducts are hollow muscular tubes that receive and transport the oocyte from the ovary to the uterus. This is also the place where fertilization takes place. - They are long tubes (13 cm) and lie between the broad ligament and the uterus. - They are formed by 3 segments. : INFUNDIBULUM, AMPULLA, ISTHMUS 1- the infundibulum or expanded funnel shaped opening bear the ovary, with finger like called frimbiae that extend into the pelvic cavity. The infundibulum inner surface is lined with cilia that help move the ovum along the tube toward the ampulla. 2- The ampulla or middle segment is the widest, longest portion of the oviducts which has the thickest smooth muscle layer that produces peristaltic contractions to help move the ovum along toward the isthmus. 3- The isthmus is a short, narrow portion that connects the oviducts to the uterus. The epithelium contains scattered mucin-secreting cells. c. UTERUS receives, protects and nourishes the fertilized egg. - It is the site of menstruation, development of the embryo and fetus during pregnancy, and of labor. - It is also a passageway for the sperm. - The uterus is a pear-shaped muscular organ supported by the uterosacral, round, and cardinal or lateral ligaments. Normally bends anteriorly near the base. - The two major regions of the uterus are the body and the cervix. 1- The body or largest portion of the uterus has a rounded part, superior to the oviducts called the fundus, and a narrow end called the isthmus. 2- The cervix is the narrow tube or canal that opens and projects into the vagina. It contains cervical glands that produce mucus that block entrance of bacteria into the uterus. The cervical canal opens into the uterine cavity at the internal os, and into the vagina at the external os. Receives blood from the uterine arteries and ovarian arteries. It is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers. Quizlet - 2. What are the female gametes? A A. oocytes B. ovaries C. sperm D. uterus - 67. The ovaries and uterus are held in position within the pelvis by bands of tissue called D A. follicles. B. muscles. C. endometrium. D. ligaments. E. tendons. - 70. Of the two million primary oocytes in the ovaries at birth, only about _____ are ovulated. 400 A. 40 B. 400 C. 2,000 D. 4,000 E. 400,000 - 105. Which of the following events in the menstrual cycle occur at the same time? D A. maximal LH secretion and menstruation (menstrual flow) B. early follicular development in the ovaries and maximum thickening of the uterus C. ovulation and menstruation (menstrual flow) D. uterine wall begins to thicken and increased estrogen production by the follicles E. proliferation and secretion - 85. Trace the pathway of an egg as it passes through the uterine tube. (1) ampulla (2) fimbriae (3) infundibulum (4) isthmus D A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 2, 4, 1, 3 C. 3, 4, 1, 2 D. 2, 3, 1, 4 E. 3, 1, 2, 4 - 87. The cervix is a portion of the A. vagina. E B. external genitalia. C. oviduct. D. uterine tube. E. uterus. - 88. Which of the following statements concerning the uterine tube is true? B A. The outer layer of the tube is formed by the ampulla. B. The oocyte is moved along the tube by peristaltic contractions of the muscular layer. C. The opening of the uterine tube is the mesosalpinx. D. The portion of the uterine tube closest to the uterus is the infundibulum. E. Fimbria are associated with the lining of the tube. 127. Fertilization usually occurs in the _____ while fetal development occurs in the _____. B A. uterus, vagina B. uterine tube, uterus C. uterine tube, fimbriae D. vagina, uterus E. ovary, uterus 138. Which of the following can cause infertility in females? A. PMS B. heavy, prolonged menses C. blockage of the uterine tubes D. an increased libido E. psychological factors C. blockage of the uterine tubes 78. The secondary oocyte completes the second meiotic division when B A. the mature follicle ruptures. B. it is penetrated by a sperm cell. C. it is implanted in the uterus. D. it receives both estrogen and progesterone. E. ovulation occurs. B. it is penetrated by a sperm cell 16- Explain the differences between implantation and fertilization. Quizlet - 79. Fertilization occurs when the D A. oocyte ruptures from the ovary. B. oocyte is implanted in the uterus. C. sperm head enters the zygote. D. nuclei of the secondary oocyte and the sperm cell unite. E. sperm enter vagina. D. nuclei of the secondary oocyte and the sperm cell unite. - 131. Implantation B A. occurs prior to fertilization. B. normally occurs in the uterus. C. assists sperm motility in the uterus. D. occurs in the vagina. E. occurs in the cervix. - 132. In an ectopic pregnancy, B A. no fertilization occurs. B. implantation does not occur in the uterus. C. a fetus never develops. D. no placenta forms. E. implantation occurs in the uterus. B. implantation does not occur in the uterus. - 76. The release of the secondary oocyte from the ovary is called OVULATION A. ovulation. B. fertilization. C. sporulation. D. implantation . E. oocyte release. - 120. Which of the following statements is false? C A. Estrogen causes endometrial cells to proliferate. B. After ovulation, the endometrium becomes thicker. C. Rising progesterone levels cause the myometrium to contract. D. The uterine cycle makes the endometrium a hospitable environment for implantation. E. The endometrium receives the trophoblast. - 137. The contraceptive method that not only prevents fertilization but also provides protection against sexually transmitted diseases is A A. the condom. B. oral contraceptives. C. spermicidal agents. D. coitus interruptus. E. the diaphragm. 1. Which function of the reproductive system is solely a function of the female reproductive system? D A. production of reproductive hormones B. fertilization C. production of gametes D. development and nourishment of a new individual - 80. "Zygote" is the term used to describe the A. Graafian oocyte. B. primary oocyte . C. secondary oocyte. D. fertilized oocyte. E. sperm just before fertilization. - 91. Which of the following is a function of the vagina? B A. oocyte production B. reception of penis during intercourse C. site of fertilization D. production of estrogen E. female hormone secretion - 104. The LH surge initiates B A. menses. B. ovulation. C. fertilization. D. the second trimester of pregnancy. E. follicle development. - 121. During the female sex act, A. the clitoris becomes engorged with blood. B. vaginal mucoid secretions are reduced. C. vaginal, uterine, and perineal muscles relax. D. an orgasm always occurs to insure fertilization. E. an orgasm always occurs. - 23. Assume a couple has just completed intercourse and sperm have been deposited in the woman's reproductive tract. Trace the pathway of the sperm through the female reproductive tract to the point where fertilization will most likely occur. (1) cervix (2) fallopian tubes (3) cavity of uterus (4) vagina B A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 4, 1, 3, 2 C. 4, 3, 1, 2 D. 4, 3, 2, 1 E. 1, 3, 2, 4 126. Fertilization can only occur B A. if orgasms occur in both the male and female. B. when a sperm cell penetrates a secondary oocyte. C. when there is no menstrual flow. D. after oxytocin is released from the hypothalamus. E. on day 14 of the cycle. 127. Fertilization usually occurs in the _____ while fetal development occurs in the _____. B A. uterus, vagina B. uterine tube, uterus C. uterine tube, fimbriae D. vagina, uterus E. ovary, uterus 17- Name the layers of the uterus.: perimetrium, myometrium, endometrium - the perimetrium or visceral peritoneum that covers some surfaces of the uterus; - the myometrium, a thick smooth muscle layer that contracts to move the baby out into the vagina during birth and contains the branches of the uterine arteries; - the endometrium or mucousal lining that helps form the placenta and where the egg implants. The endometrium contains glandular and vascular tissues and the opening of numerous uterine glands that help to support the growing fetus. - Estrogen causes the uterine glands, blood vessels, and epithelium to change. -The endometrium is divided into a thick functional zone and a basilar zone. + The functional zone or outermost zone is shed during menstruation, and contains most of the uterine glands. +The innermost basilar zone produces a new functional zone after menstruation, and contains terminal branches of the tubular endometrial glands. Quizlet - 89. The layer of the uterine wall that is shed during menstruation is the A. perimetrium. D B. myometrium. C. hymen. D. endometrium. E. vasometrium. - 90. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? A A. broad ligaments - help support the uterus B. cervix - lined with rugae C. basal layer - layer of endometrium closest to uterine cavity D. perimetrium - muscular coat of uterus E. endometrium - connective tissue layer 18- What is the cervix? The cervix is the narrow tube or canal that opens and projects into the vagina. It contains cervical glands that produce mucus that block entrance of bacteria into the uterus. The cervical canal opens into the uterine cavity at the internal os, and into the vagina at the external os. Receives blood from the uterine arteries and ovarian arteries. It is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers. Quizlet 84. Which of the following statements concerning the uterus is true? A A. The inferior portion is the cervix. B. The isthmus separates the body and the fundus. C. The fundus forms the major portion of this organ. D. The uterine wall is composed of four layers. E. The cervical canal is in the superior portion of the uterus. 87. The cervix is a portion of the A. vagina. E B. external genitalia. C. oviduct. D. uterine tube. E. uterus. 90. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? A A. broad ligaments - help support the uterus B. cervix - lined with rugae C. basal layer - layer of endometrium closest to uterine cavity D. perimetrium - muscular coat of uterus E. endometrium - connective tissue layer 19- Name the different regions of the uterine tubes, where is the fertilization process? 1- the infundibulum or expanded funnel shaped opening bear the ovary, with finger like called frimbiae that extend into the pelvic cavity. The infundibulum inner surface is lined with cilia that help move the ovum along the tube toward the ampulla. 2- The ampulla or middle segment is the widest, longest portion of the oviducts which has the thickest smooth muscle layer that produces peristaltic contractions to help move the ovum along toward the isthmus. 3- The isthmus is a short, narrow portion that connects the oviducts to the uterus. The epithelium contains scattered mucin-secreting cells. 20- What is oogenesis? - It is the production of ovum (egg) , or the series of events that lead to the female gamete formation. - It begins before birth when the diploid (2n) oogonia or female stem cells through mitosis are converted to primary oocytes in their primordial follicles. - It is accelerated during puberty and ends at menopause. Like spermatogenesis involves meiosis, but unlike spermatogonia, oogonia complete their mitotic divisions before birth. - The primary oocytes start meiosis between the 3rd and 7th month of fetal development. They go as far as prophase of meiosis I and remain in this stage until puberty. - At puberty, triggered by a surge in FSH, meiosis resumes and each month one primary oocyte becomes a secondary oocyte at the time of ovulation. - Atresia is the degeneration of the primordial follicles (nang trung) . At birth there are 2 million primordial follicles each one with a primary oocyte. By puberty there are only about 400,000 primordial follicles. - The secondary oocyte remains in suspended development at metaphase II until fertilization. - During oogenesis only one viable ovum forms at the end of meiosis, because the cytoplasm divides unevenly producing only one functional ovum and two to three polar bodies that disintegrate. - This original cytoplasm provides initial nourishment of the fertilized egg. This is quite different from spermatogenesis in which 4 functional sperms form. From puberty to menopause only part of oogenesis takes place once a month during the ovarian cycle. 21- Name the main functions of the ovaries. 1- produce the female gametes, 2- secrete sex hormones estrogens, progestins, 3- secrete the hormone inhibin

Chapter 26- Urinary - https://quizlet.com/173233570/bsc-2086-ch26-flash-cards/

1. Name the main the functions of the following structures kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder and urethra. a. the kidneys: The kidneys produce urine, which then moves out of the kidneys into the urinary tract organs. b. ureters: They are slender pair of muscular tubes that carry urine from kidneys to the urinary bladder by peristalsis. They are retroperitoneal and are attached to the posterior abdominal wall. They take different paths in the male and female. They go from the pelvis to the bladder, where they open by way of slit-like openings, which helps prevent the back flow of urine. They can be closed due to increase blood pressure c. urinary bladder: It is a smooth muscle collapsible sac that stores about 1 liter of urine temporarily. Its position is stabilized by several peritoneal folds and ligamentous bands anchor it to the pelvic and pubic bones. In males it is anterior to the rectum and in females anterior to uterus and vagina. d. urethra: It is thin wall muscular tube that drains the bladder to carry the urine outside the body. It extends from the neck of the urinary bladder Quizlet - What is/are the main excretory organ/s of the body? D A. skin B. lungs C. intestines D. kidneys - 2. The kidney functions in D A. preventing blood loss. B. white blood cell production. C. synthesis of vitamin E. D. excretion of metabolic wastes. E. production of the hormone aldosterone. -3. Which of the following functions would not be performed by the kidney? A A. urine storage B. excretion of waste C. maintenance of fluid balance D. regulate synthesis of vitamin D E. regulate synthesis of RBCs - 4. Urine is carried from the kidneys to the urinary bladder by the A. urethra. B. ureter. C. calyces. D. renal columns. E. renal tubules. - 5. Arrange the following structures in correct sequence: 3, 2, 1, 4, 5 (1) ureter (2) renal pelvis (3) calyx (4) urinary bladder (5) urethra - 6. The kidney is protected from mechanical shock by the C A. hilum. B. renal fascia. C. renal fat pad. D. renal capsule. E. renal cortex. - 7. Blood vessels, nerves, and the ureter enter and leave the kidney at the A A. hilum. B. renal fascia. C. renal pelvis. D. renal capsule. E. renal pyramid. - 8. The ureter expands into the substance of the kidney as the B A. hilum. B. renal pelvis. C. renal capsule. D. renal pyramid. E. renal corpuscle. - 39. The urinary bladder A A. stores urine until it is voided. B. empties to the exterior via the ureters. C. contains a muscle called the trigone. D. is superior to the kidney. E. filters urine. 134. Urine flows through the ureters to the bladder as the result of D A. gravity. B. a pressure gradient. C. a concentration gradient. D. peristaltic contractions. E. osmotic gradient. - 135. Where do the ureters enter the urinary bladder? D A. the anterosuperior surface B. the anteroinferior surface C. the posteromedial surface D. the posterolateral surface - 136. What part of the urinary bladder expands very little during bladder filling? B A. the fundus B. the trigone C. the neck D. transitional epithelium -137. What muscle is responsible for contraction of the urinary bladder during micturition? D A. trigone B. internal urinary sphincter C. micturition mucle D. detrusor muscle 138. What type of tissue is responsible for the expansion of the urinary bladder during filling? A A. transitional epithelium B. stratified squamous epithelium C. pseudostratified columnar epithelium D. stratified columnar epithelium 140. How much urine would be in the urinary bladder to increase the pressure to an uncomfortable point? D A. 100 mL B. 300 mL C. 400 mL D. 500 mL 2. Explain the differences between the urethra in males and females. Explain the relationship with UTIs.v: urinary tract infections - The mucosa is mostly pseudostratified columnar epithelium and the rest is the same as ureters. In males the prostate gland surrounds its entrance. - Urethra in males is 20 cm long and divided into prostatic urethra, membranous urethra through urogenital diaphragm and penile urethra - In females urethra is only 3 to 5 cm long so more susceptible to infections by fecal bacteria. - UTIs: Urinary Tract infections 3. What are urethritis, cystitis, nephritis and pyelonephritis? - urethritis: Urethritis is inflammation of the urethra. That's the tube that carries urine from the bladder to outside the body. Pain with urination is the main symptom of urethritis. Urethritis is commonly due to infection by bacteria. It can typically be cured with antibiotics. - cystitis: Cystitis (sis-TIE-tis) is the medical term for inflammation of the bladder. Most of the time, the inflammation is caused by a bacterial infection, and it's called a urinary tract infection (UTI). - nephristis : Nephritis is inflammation of the kidneys and may involve the glomeruli, tubules, or interstitial tissue surrounding the glomeruli and tubules. - pyelonephritis: Pyelonephritis is inflammation of the kidney, typically due to a bacterial infection. Symptoms most often include fever and flank tenderness. Other symptoms may include nausea, burning with urination, and frequent urination. Complications may include pus around the kidney, sepsis, or kidney failure. 4. Name and explain the different structures of the kidneys. Renal pyramids, renal columns, renal papilla, renal lobe, minor calyx, major calyx and renal pelvis, be able to identify these structures in an illustration. - renal pyramids: cone shaped, The base of the pyramids faces the cortex and the apex pointing toward the renal pelvis forms the renal papillas. The pyramids contain parallel bundles of collecting ducts. - renal columns: The areas extending between the pyramids, which are similar to the cortex in color and texture, are called the renal columns, and they are for the passage of blood vessels. - renal papilla: the medulla's apex pointing toward the renal pelvi -renal lobe: produces urine and it is formed by a pyramid, its overlying area or renal cortex and the adjacent tissues of renal columns. - minor calyx - major calyx - renal pelvis: it is the expanded end of the ureter is the funnel shaped area within the renal sinus. This collects urine that is first released within each renal papilla, then drained into cuplike structures called minor calyxes and finally into 2 or 3 major calyxes. These are large branches of the renal pelvis. 5. What is the renal corpuscle? Explain the function of the following structures: Bowman's capsule, podocytes, renal glomerulus, afferent arteriole, efferent arteriole; macula densa and juxtaglomerular cells, be able to identify these structures in an illustration. - Renal Corpuscle: it consist of the glomerular or Bowman's capsule, a cup-shaped chamber, and the glomerulus, a capillary network. It is a spherical structure which main function is filtration. -Bowman's capsule (glomerular): the capsule surrounds or encapsulates the glomerulus. Fluid forced out of the glomerular capillaries flows into the capsular space or space between the capsule and the glomerulus. The capsular space separated the parietal and visceral epithelia. - podocytes: visceral layer of the capsule cover the glomerulus. It is composed of large epithelial cells called podocytes. - podocytes are cells in the Bowman's capsule in the kidneys that wrap around capillaries of the glomerulus. Function: together with endothelial cells of the glomerular capillary loop and glomerular basement membrane they form a filtration barrier. Podocytes cooperate with mesangial cells to support the structure and function of the glomerulus. - renal glomerulus: a knot of about 50 fenestrated capillaries forms the glomerulus. There are supporting (mesangial) cells between adjacent capillaries. It is surrounded by the glomerular or Bowman's capsule. It receives blood from the afferent arteriole and drains through the efferent arteriole which drains into the peritubular capillaries. - afferent arteriole: The afferent arterioles are a group of blood vessels that supply the nephrons in many excretory systems. They play an important role in the regulation of blood pressure as a part of the tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism. The afferent arterioles branch from the renal artery, which supplies blood to the kidneys. - Remember that the afferent arteriole brings blood to the glomerulus and the efferent arteriole takes blood away from the glomerulus. The efferent arterioles either 1) carry blood to capillaries in the medulla (Vasa recta) or 2) form anastomotic capillaries in the cortex (peritubular plexus). - The afferent arterioles have a larger diameter than the efferent arterioles - macula densa :it is formed by tall cells with densely clustered nuclei near the renal corpuscle, which are chemoreceptors or osmoreceptors. These cells monitor and respond to changes in solute or osmotic concentration in the tubule lumen. The solute concentration of sodium ions is closely monitored by these receptors. - Juxtaglomerular Cells: they are smooth muscle fibers in the wall of the afferent arteriole. They contain granules of renin. These cells are mechanoreceptors, which monitor changes in blood pressure and volume. They respond to renal decreased blood flow due to lower blood volume (from dehydration or bleeding), lower systemic pressure, or to renal arterial blockage. 6. What is the juxtaglomerular apparatus? Juxtaglomerular Apparatus or JGA: found at the bifurcation of the afferent and efferent arterioles. It consists of the macula densa and the juxtaglomerular cells. The JGA secretes he hormones erythropoietin and the enzyme renin, which help to regulate the rate of filtrate formation and the systemic blood pressure. 7. Explain the functions of Renin ( and EPO. - Renin is released by JG cells when 1- decrease in blood pressure at the glomerulus due to decline in blood volume, fall in systemic blood pressure, or blockage in the renal artery or its tributaries; 2- stimulation or the JG cells by sympathetic innervation; and 3- decline in osmotic concentration of tubular fluid. Renin converts the protein angiotensinogen, a plasma protein, to angiotensin I. This in turn is converted to angiotensin II by the angiotensin-converting enzyme in the capillaries of the lungs. 8. What is the nephron? They are the filtering units of the kidney that form the urine (each kidney has about 1.25 million nephrons). They consist of a renal corpuscle and renal tubule. Most nephrons are cortical (85%) with a relatively short loop of Henle, the rest are juxtamedullary nephrons or with a long loop of Henle that extends deep into the medulla. 9. Explain the function of the following structures in the nephron: PCT, Loop of Henle, DCT and collecting duct. - The Proximal Convoluted Tubule or PCT: it is the first part extending from the renal corpuscle to the loop of Henle. This is highly coiled tube where most of the useful materials such as water, ions, and organic nutrients are reabsorbed into the peritubular fluid. The peritubular fluid is the interstitial fluid surrounding the renal tubule. The PCT is composed of simple cuboidal epithelium which cells are called brush border cells due to the numerous microvilli projecting into the lumen to increase the absorptive area. - The Loop of Henle: it is the U or horse shoe shaped hairpin loop of the renal tubule after the PCT. This loop is divided into descending and ascending limbs, each one with a thick and a thin segment. The epithelium in these segments is different. The thick segment consists of cuboidal epithelium, and the thin segment is simple squamous epithelium. The descending loop contains fluids that move (down) toward the renal pelvis. Most of the descending limb is thin segment, which is permeable to water but not to solutes, so water moves out of the tubular filtrate helping concentrate the tubular fluid. The thick segment is the same as the pct where sodium and chloride ions are reabsorbed out of the tubular fluid. The ascending loop contains fluid moving (up) toward the renal cortex. Most of ascending loop is part of the thick segment. This is not permeable to sodium and chloride ions, or to water. But these ions are pumped out especially from the ascending limb of the juxtamedullary nephrons, a very high solute concentration is created in peritubular fluid of the medulla. - DCT- Distal Convoluted Tubule or DCT: It extends from the end of the loop of Henle, to the collecting ducts. At the beginning, the DCT passes between the afferent and efferent arterioles. The DCT is smaller in diameter that the PCT but there is no microvilli in its epithelium. The DCT functions to secretes ions, acids, drugs and toxins into the tubular fluid. It selectively absorbs sodium and calcium ions from the tubular fluid. It also selectively reabsorps water to concentrate the tubular fluid. Water reabsorption in the DCT is regulated by the hormones ADH and aldosterone and it can help form concentrated urine - Collecting System: consists of series of tubes that carry the tubular fluid away from the nephrons. It is formed by collecting ducts which begin in the cortex and descends into the medulla. They empty into papillary ducts. The collecting ducts permeability characteristics are regulated by hormones (aldosterone and ADH). Each collecting duct receives tubular filtrate from several nephrons, and modify its composition, thus they determine the final solute concentration, and volume of urine. Each DCT open into a collecting duct. Individual nephrons drain in to nearby collecting ducts. Several collecting ducts converge into a larger papillary duct which empties into a minor calyx. 10. Explain the functions and the target action for the following hormones ADH (water) and aldosterone. (sodium) - ADH: This hormone causes water channels or aquaporins to appear in the apical cell membranes of the DCT and colleting ducts. Higher levels of ADH cause an increase in the number of water channels increasing the permeability of the DCT and collecting system. Without ADH water is not reabsorbed and all the fluid reaching the DCT is lost in the urine, so large amounts of dilute urine are produced. - the hormones ADH and aldosterone and it can help form concentrated urine. - Aldosterone: Sodium is reabsorbed by way of the sodiumpotassium exchange pumps in the presence of aldosterone 11. Explain the blood supply to the kidneys. Abdominal aorta-> Renal artery-> segmental arteries->interlobar arteries -> arcuate arteries -> cortical radiate arteries -> afferent arterioles-> glomerulus-> efferent arteriole -> peritubular capillaries-> venules -cortical radiate veins-> arcuate veins- > interlobar veins -> renal vein -> inferior vena cave Renal Arteries and Veins: the renal arteries supply oxygenated blood to the kidneys. They branch from the abdominal aorta. Then renal arteries carry blood to the segmental arteries which then branch into interlobar arteries that pass between the pyramids and arch over the base of the pyramids to form arcuate arteries which arch between cortex and medulla. These arteries branch and radiate to the cortex as cortical radiate or interlobular arteries. They supply the cortical portions and branch into numerous afferent arterioles, which branch to deliver blood to the capillaries that supply each individual nephron. The renal veins follow the same path with the same names as the arteries to drain into the renal vein and into the inferior vena cava. The kidneys receive 20 to 25% of the total cardiac output. 12. Explain the filtration process. The endothelium of the glomerulus is fenestrated to allow passage of fluid and solutes from the glomerulus to the capsular space. Special supporting cells between adjoining capillaries help to control the diameter of the capillaries, and thus control the capillary flow rate. The fenestrated endothelium, lamina densa, and filtration slits form the filtration membrane. Blood pressure forces water and small solutes out of the blood in the process of filtration. Blood cells and large proteins stay behind, so the filtrate is a protein-free solution similar to blood plasma. 13. Explain the main organic waste products. Urea, Creatinine and Uric Acid. Urine: is the result of the processes of filtration, reabsorption, and secretion at the nephrons. - Urine Physical Characteristics: Normal urine is a clear, sterile solution which does not contain bacteria. 1- Color and transparency: normal urine is clear amber to deep yellow in color due to the pigment urobilin. Concentrated urine is darker in color. A pink, brownish or smoky tint in the urine can be caused by a type of food, pigment, vitamin or blood in the urine. Cloudy urine indicates some type of infection. 2- Odor: it varies with its chemical composition. An ammonia odor can be produced by bacterial activity after standing. Drugs and some vegetables also can change the natural odor. People with diabetes may have a fruity odor in their urine, because of acetone or glucose in the urine. 3- pH: normal urine pH is slightly acidic or about 6, but it can vary between 4.5 and 8.0 due to metabolic changes. Following certain diets can make it more acidic or alkaline. Bacterial infections also can change the pH. Urine Chemical Composition 93% to 97% water and the rest are solutes. The osmotic concentration is 855 to 1335 mOms/ml. The solutes are mostly urea from amino acid breakdown; uric acid from nucleic acid metabolism; and creatinine from creatin phosphate metabolism; and ions such as Na+, K+, PO4-, SO4- etc. Changes in composition of urine are used to diagnose various disease conditions. 14. Explain the differences between solute concentrations in urine and plasma. - urine compare to plasma 93% to 97% water and the rest are solute (ion: almost the same excepted K+(>), HCO3- (<<); Metabilites and nutrients (<<<<); nitrogenous wastes (>>>>>) 15. Name the different characteristics and composition of a NORMAL Urine test. - Normal urine is a clear, sterile solution which does not contain bacteria. - normal urine pH is slightly acidic or about 6, but it can vary between 4.5 and 8.0 due to metabolic changes. Following certain diets can make it more acidic or alkaline. Bacterial infections also can change the pH. 16. What is transport maximum? exceeds reabsorptive abilities of nephron - some material will remain in the tubular fluid and appear in the urine • Determines the renal threshold - the plasma concentration at which: - a specific compound or ion begins to appear in urine Transport Maximum is the _____ rate at ______ point. transport , saturation 17. What is renal Threshold? Please, know the normal values for glucose and aminoacids. The renal threshold of glucose is the amount of glucose that can be reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubules. If the blood glucose level gets too high, the amount of glucose that is filtered through the glomerulus exceeds the amount that can be reabsorbed (the renal threshold) and the excess is lost in urine. Fortunately, the renal threshold exceeds the normal amount of glucose found in blood, so 100% of the glucose filtered through the glomerulus is reabsorbed back into the body, and no glucose is lost in the urine. Renal Threshold: Plasma concentration of a substance is measured in what? at which what occurs? mg/ml at which it begins to spill over into urine. Tm has been surpassed Explain renal threshold for glucose? Is approximately 180 mg/dl • If plasma glucose is greater than 180 mg/dl: - Tm of tubular cells is exceeded - glucose appears in urine 18. Explain the urine formation. 19. Explain the different factors that affect the Glomerular Filtration rate. - Glomerular Filtration Rate or (GFR): it is the total amount of filtrate produced per minute and it averages (125 ml/min). This means that about 10% of the fluid delivered to the kidneys leaves the bloodstream and enters the capsular space. The creatinine clearance test is used to estimate the GFR but the inulin clearance test is more accurate. - The glomeruli produce about 180 liters of filtrate per day and 99% of it is reabsorbed at the renal tubules. The glomerular filtration depends on the filtration pressure and any factor that changes the filtration pressure changes the GFR. a. Renal Autoregulation: main purpose is to maintains GFR despite changes in local blood pressure and blood flow. Primarily controls the diameter of the afferent arterioles and secondarily controls the diameter of the efferent arteriole and the glomerular capillaries. A decrease in blood flow or blood pressure causes: 1- dilation of the afferent arterioles; 2- relaxation of the supporting cells which help control the diameter of the capillaries and the rate of capillary blood flow, and dilation of the glomerular capillaries; and 3- constriction of the efferent arterioles. b. Hormonal regulation: includes the renin-angiotensialdosterone system, and the natriuretic peptides ANP or BNP. Renin is released by JG cells when 1- decrease in blood pressure at the glomerulus due to decline in blood volume, fall in systemic blood pressure, or blockage in the renal artery or its tributaries; 2- stimulation or the JG cells by sympathetic innervation; and 3- decline in osmotic concentration of tubular fluid. Renin converts the protein angiotensinogen, a plasma protein, to angiotensin I. This in turn is converted to angiotensin II by the angiotensin-converting enzyme in the capillaries of the lungs. The effects of angiotensin II are: 1- constriction of the efferent arteriole of nephron which elevates glomerular pressures and filtration rates; c. Neural or Autonomic Regulation of GFR: mostly consist of sympathetic postganglionic fibers. Sympathetic activation restrict blood flow to kidneys during extreme emergency situations by causing vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles, which decreases the GFR and by reducing filtrate production. Blood flow to the kidneys can be significantly reduced during sympathetic activation when blood is diverted to other areas like the skeletal muscles and heart. Strenuous exercise is one of those situations. Sympathetic stimulation may be opposed by autoregulation at the local level. 20. Explain the renin angiotensin system. -The renin-angiotensin system or RAS regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. When blood volume or sodium levels in the body are low, or blood potassium is high, cells in the kidney release the enzyme, renin. Regulates blood pressure by releasing renin, which activates the renin-angiotensin mechanism that raises blood pressure, and by releasing erythropoietin which indirectly also raises blood pressure. 21. What is pyelogram? Name the different structures that can be identified in a pyelogram. (renal pelvis, ureter) - yelogram (or pyelography or urography) is a form of imaging of the renal pelvis and ureter. Types include: Intravenous pyelogram In which a contrast solution is introduced through a vein into the circulatory system. 22. What is the detrusor muscle? compresses the urinary bladder and expels urnine through the urethra 23. Explain the micturition reflex. It controls urination or emptying of the bladder. The reflex occurs when 500 ml of urine accumulates. As stretch receptors in the urinary bladder stimulate sensory fibers in the pelvic nerves with increasing pressure, the bladder distends. This produces a visceral reflex, which causes the bladder to contract, and then to feel the urge to urinate as the internal sphincter relaxes. 24. What is incontinence? (dai dam - khong tu chu) Incontinence: It is normal in infants up to 3 years old which lack voluntary control because of lack of corticospinal connections. Involuntary incontinence can be caused by emotional problems, physical pressure in pregnancy, spinal cord injury and strokes, or trauma to internal of external sphincters.

Chapter 27- Electrolytes and p.H 1- A decrease in blood CO2 levels leads to __________.C) an increase in blood pH A) a drop in blood pH B) an increase in carbonic acid C) an increase in blood pH D) an increased respiratory rate C) an increase in blood pH 2- The most common cause of acid-base imbalance is __________B) respiratory acidosis . A) metabolic acidosis B) respiratory acidosis C) respiratory alkalosis D) metabolic alkalosis 3- Which buffer system is the most abundant in the body?B) protein A) hydrogen B) protein C) phosphate D) carbonic acid-bicarbonate 4- What is the effect of hyperventilation on pH? C) respiratory alkalosis A) metabolic acidosis B) metabolic alkalosis C) respiratory alkalosis D) respiratory acidosis 5- Which age group most commonly has fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance issues? D) infants A) growing children B) young adults C) the elderly D) infants 6- Hypersecretion of aldosterone results in hypokalemia, which causes hyperpolarization of neurons; this in turn results in ______.C) the need for a stronger than normal stimulus in order to trigger an action potential A) increased speed of sodium-potassium pump activity in order to compensate for the reduced concentration of potassium ions B) decreased plasma membrane permeability to potassium ions C) the need for a stronger than normal stimulus in order to trigger an action potential D) a craving for more salt in the diet C) the need for a stronger than normal stimulus in order to trigger an action potential 7- Which of the following is the only logical explanation for why hypocalcemia increases neuromuscular excitability and causes muscle tetany?C) Low plasma calcium ion concentration increases the permeability of neuron membranes to sodium ions, thereby causing depolarization that in turn increases the likelihood of action potentials being generated. A) Low plasma calcium ion concentration decreases the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. B) Low plasma calcium ion concentration decreases the rate of exocytosis of synaptic vesicles. C) Low plasma calcium ion concentration increases the permeability of neuron membranes to sodium ions, thereby causing depolarization that in turn increases the likelihood of action potentials being generated. D) Low plasma calcium ion concentration increases the likelihood of acetic acid and choline being formed in the synaptic cleft when a neuron is stimulated to the threshold level. 8- The fluid link between the external and internal environment is ________.D) plasma A) intracellular fluid B) cerebrospinal fluid C) interstitial fluid D) plasma 9- Which of the following describes the distribution of sodium and potassium between cells and body fluids? A) K+ mainly in the cells, Na+ in the body fluids A) K+ mainly in the cells, Na+ in the body fluids B) equal amounts of each ion in the cells and body fluids C) Na+ mainly in the cells, K+ in the body fluids D) little of either in the cells, but large amounts of each in the body fluids A) K+ mainly in the cells, Na+ in the body fluids 10- The movement of fluids between cellular compartments ________.B) is regulated by osmotic and hydrostatic forces A) requires ATP for the transport to take place B) is regulated by osmotic and hydrostatic forces C) involves filtration D) requires active transport 11- Whereas sodium is found mainly in the extracellular fluid, most ________ is found in the intracellular fluid.B) potassium A) chloride B) potassium C) iron D) bicarbonate 12- The fluid that bathes the cells found in tissues is called __________.C) interstitial fluid A) plasma B) intracellular fluid C) interstitial fluid D) electrolytic fluid 13- Which of the following is an electrolyte?C) potassium A) glucose B) cholesterol C) potassium D) phospholipid 14- What is the most common cation found in the interstitial fluid?D) Na+ A) K+ B) HPO42- C) Cl- D) Na+ 15- What is the most abundant intracellular cation? C) K+ A) Na+ B) Cl- C) K+ D) HPO42- 16- What is the most abundant intracellular anion? C) HPO4 2- A) Na+ B) Cl- C) HPO4 2- D) K+ 17- Which of the following would NOT be expected to lead to edema?A) hyponatremia A) hyponatremia B) incompetent venous valves C) hypoproteinemia D) inflammation 18- Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for dehydration?B) increased muscle mass A) a high rate of insensible water loss B) increased muscle mass C) vomiting D) inefficient kidneys 19- Which of the following conditions promotes edema? A) hypoproteinemia A) hypoproteinemia B) diabetes mellitus C) hemorrhage D) hyponatremia 20- Respiratory acidosis can occur when ________.B) a person's breathing is shallow due to obstruction A) a runner has completed a very long marathon B) a person's breathing is shallow due to obstruction C) the kidneys secrete hydrogen ions D) a person consumes excessive amounts of antacids 21- The term alkaline reserve is used to describe the ________ buffer system.B) bicarbonate A) protein B) bicarbonate C) phosphate D) hemoglobin 22- A falling blood pH and a rising partial pressure of carbon dioxide due to pneumonia or emphysema indicates ________.A) respiratory acidosis A) respiratory acidosis B) metabolic acidosis C) respiratory alkalosis D) metabolic alkalosis 23- Blood analysis indicates a low pH, and the patient is breathing rapidly. Given your knowledge of acid-base balance, which of the following is most likely? A) respiratory acidosis A) respiratory acidosis B) metabolic acidosis C) respiratory alkalosis D) metabolic alkalosis 24- A patient is breathing slowly and blood pH analysis indicates an abnormally high value. What is the likely diagnosis? C) respiratory alkalosis A) metabolic alkalosis B) metabolic acidosis C) respiratory alkalosis D) respiratory acidosis 25- A patient is admitted to the hospital in complete collapse. His blood pH is 6.8, and his HCO3- is 20 mEq/L. A medical history reveals that this patient is a chronic alcoholic. What diagnosis would you give, and what prognosis? A) The pH and bicarbonate levels and the history of alcoholism indicate metabolic alkalosis. The patient will require dialysis to remove the bicarbonate ions. B) The pH and bicarbonate levels and the history of alcoholism indicate respiratory acidosis. The patient will require dialysis to remove the bicarbonate ions. C) The pH and bicarbonate levels and the history of alcoholism indicate respiratory acidosis. The patient will go into a coma and death soon follows. D) The pH and bicarbonate levels and the history of alcoholism indicate respiratory alkalosis. The patient will require dialysis to remove the bicarbonate ions. E) The pH and bicarbonate levels and the history of alcoholism indicate metabolic acidosis. The patient will go into a coma and death soon follows. E) The pH and bicarbonate levels and the history of alcoholism indicate metabolic acidosis. The patient will go into a coma and death soon follows. After traveling from Los Angeles to Denver, Claire finds she is not feeling well and checks into a clinic for help. What is the diagnosis, and what has caused this problem?A) Respiratory alkalosis caused by hyperventilation. Claire is experiencing the effect of the high altitude, breathing faster and deeper to raise her oxygen levels in her blood. A) Respiratory alkalosis caused by hyperventilation. Claire is experiencing the effect of the high altitude, breathing faster and deeper to raise her oxygen levels in her blood. B) Respiratory acidosis caused by hyperventilation. Claire is experiencing the effect of the high altitude, breathing faster and deeper to raise her oxygen levels in her blood. C) Respiratory acidosis caused by hyperventilation. Claire is experiencing the effect of the high altitude, breathing slower and shallower to raise the oxygen levels in her blood. D) Respiratory alkalosis caused by hyperventilation. Claire is experiencing the effect of the high altitude, breathing slower and shallower to raise the oxygen levels in her blood. A patient's anxiety caused her to develop respiratory alkalosis. What breathing technique did the nurse recommend, and why? A) The nurse instructed the patient to breathe faster and deeper. This will increase the patient's blood levels of carbon dioxide by eliminating less carbon dioxide from the lungs, resulting in a decrease in the blood pH. B) The nurse instructed the patient to breathe more shallowly. This will decrease the patient's blood levels of carbon dioxide by eliminating more carbon dioxide from the lungs, resulting in a decrease in the blood pH. C) The nurse instructed the patient to breathe slower and deeper, and to breathe into a paper bag. This will increase the patient's blood level of carbon dioxide by eliminating less carbon dioxide from the lungs, and by breathing in the expired air which has a higher concentration of carbon dioxide. As a result, the blood pH will decrease. D) The nurse instructed the patient to breathe faster and deeper. This will decrease the patient's blood levels of carbon dioxide by eliminating more carbon dioxide from the lungs, resulting in a decrease in the blood pH. C) The nurse instructed the patient to breathe slower and deeper, and to breathe into a paper bag. This will increase the patient's blood level of carbon dioxide by eliminating less carbon dioxide from the lungs, and by breathing in the expired air which has a higher concentration of carbon dioxide. As a result, the blood pH will decrease. Which organs are the ultimate acid-base regulatory organs?A) kidneys A) kidneys B) lungs C) cardiovascular organs D) GI tract organs The primary buffer of the extracellular fluid (ECF) is the __________.B) bicarbonate buffer system A) protein buffer system B) bicarbonate buffer system C) phosphate buffer system D) sodium-potassium buffer system The most important renal mechanism for regulating acid-base balance of the blood involves __________.A) maintaining HCO3- balance. A) maintaining HCO3- balance. B) maintaining phosphate balance C) maintaining water balance D) maintaining CO2 balance - Which chemical buffer system is the only important system in the extracellular fluid (ECF) that resists short-term changes in pH? C) bicarbonate buffer system A) phosphate buffer system B) protein buffer system C) bicarbonate buffer system D) physiological buffering systems - In order to buffer a strong acid into a weak acid, which has a less dramatic effect on pH, what chemical should be used as the buffer?C) weak base A) salt B) weak acid C) weak base D) water - Problems with fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance are particularly common in infants because of their ________.B) inefficient kidneys A) low daily rate of fluid exchange B) inefficient kidneys C) comparatively low metabolic rates D) low rate of insensible water loss - Newborn infants have a relatively higher ________ content in their ECF than do adults.A) sodium A) sodium B) magnesium C) bicarbonate D) iron - Which of the following two organs function as the most important physiological buffer systems? the lungs and the kidneys - Respiratory acidosis can occur when ________. a person's breathing is shallow due to obstruction

1. Name the most important cations of the intracellular and extracellular fluids. The ICF and ECF have the same osmotic concentrations, because osmosis helps to eliminate differences. However, the amount of specific ions in the ICF and ECF is quite different. a. Extracellular fluid (ECF): The ECF contains more Na+, Cl-and, HCO3-, and plasma contains more proteins than the interstitial fluid. b. The ICF contains more the K+, and some Mg2+, and PO4-, and negatively charged proteins 2. Explain the following definitions: hypernatremia, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, and hypercalcemia. - hypernatremia: increase sodium concentration: It causes severe thirst, dryness, wrinkling of the skin and reduced plasma volume and blood pressure. If not resolved as soon as possible it can quickly lead to circulatory shock especially in children and the elderly. - hyponatremia: decreased sodium concentration. It causes dilution of body fluids and swelling of cells with water. It produces major effects in the CNS similar to alcohol drinking, and it can lead to hallucinations, convulsions, coma, and finally death - hypokalemia: is when blood's potassium levels are too low. Potassium is an important electrolyte for nerve and muscle cell functioning, especially for muscle cells in the heart. Your kidneys control your body's potassium levels, allowing for excess potassium to leave the body through urine or sweat. - hyperkalemia: Hyperkalemia is the medical term that describes a potassium level in your blood that's higher than normal. Potassium is a chemical that is critical to the function of nerve and muscle cells, including those in your heart. - hypocalcemia: Hypocalcemia is a condition in which there are lower-than-average levels of calcium in the liquid part of the blood, or the plasma. Calcium has many important roles in your body: Calcium is key to the conduction of electricity in your body. - hypercalcemia: Hypercalcemia is a condition in which the calcium level in your blood is above normal. Too much calcium in your blood can weaken your bones, create kidney stones, and interfere with how your heart and brain work. Hypercalcemia is usually a result of overactive parathyroid glands 3. Explain the following abnormalities: Respiratory Alkalosis, Respiratory Acidosis, Metabolic Acidosis, and Metabolic Alkalosis. - Respiratory Alkalosis: hyperventilation. results when CO2 elimination is faster than formation. low PCO2 or hypocapnia and high blood pH. It can be produced by hyperventilation. Signs of it include low PCO2 or hypocapnia and high blood pH. It is can be brought on by stress physical or psychological and by adaptation to high altitudes, mechanical respirators, or brain steam injuries. Main signs are high pH and decreased PCO2. - Respiratory Acidosis: hypoventilation The main signs of it are low blood pH and elevated PCO2 or hypercapnia it is the result of CO2 retention or lack of its elimination to keep up with tissue production. It can be brought on by hypoventilation or when a person breathing is shallow due to respiratory obstruction, which results in inadequate gas exchange. It is can occur in chronic conditions such as pneumonia, emphysema, cystic fibrosis, and congestive heart failure, or acute conditions such as cardiac arrest and drowning. The main signs of it are low blood pH and elevated PCO2 or hypercapnia. It can result in cardiac arrhythmias, heart failure, kidney failure, coma, and death. - Metabolic Acidosis: (exercise, renal failure, diarrhea) there are three major causes of metabolic acidosis. 1- the accumulation of fixed or organic acids that produces H+ which overloads the buffer system. Lactic acidosis is caused by anaerobic respiration such in strenuous exercise or prolonged tissue hypoxia and ketoacidosis produced by excess ketone bodies (from fat break down). 2- Renal failure also can produce metabolic acidosis, because of inability of excrete H+. also create this condition. 3- Another cause of metabolic acidosis is the loss of HCO3 - due to persistent diarrhea, excessive alcohol consumption or certain drugs. It produces low blood pH, rapid breathing, increased heart rate and blood pressure, and no change in PCO2. Respiratory and metabolic acidosis are commonly linked as hypoventilation leads to low PO2 and low oxygen generates lactic acid - Metabolic Alkalosis: vomiting it is uncommon. It caused by high concentration of HCO3- from vomiting the acid content of the stomach which reduces H+ and by consuming large doses of antacids. Bicarbonate ions interact with H+ in solution forming H2CO3. It produces low breathing, high pH, and high HCO3- in the urine. Signs include high pH and normal PCO2. The detection of Acidosis or Alkalosis includes blood tests for pH, PCO2 , and HCO3 - levels. These parameters help to recognize the proper homeostatic disturbance of the acidbase balance. With these parameters it can be determined whether the condition is acidosis or alkalosis and classify the condition as respiratory or metabolic. 4. Explain how hypoventilation, hyperventilation, vomiting and diarrhea can affect the pH in blood. - hyperventilation - (Respiratory Alkalosis:) : The body normally attempts to compensate for this homeostatically but if this fails or is overridden, the blood pH will rise, leading to respiratory alkalosis. The symptoms of respiratory alkalosis include: dizziness, tingling in the lips, hands or feet, headache, weakness, fainting and seizures. - hypoventilation: Respiratory acidosis is a medical emergency in which decreased ventilation (hypoventilation) increases the concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood and decreases the blood's pH (a condition generally called acidosis). - vomiting: repeated vomiting causes the blood to become more alkaline pH will rise -> metabolic alkalosis - diarrhea: . pH will reduce-> metabolic acidosis. 5. What are buffers, name some buffers in our body - Buffering systems are a set of molecules that act to resist drastic changes in pH by releasing or binding H+. These are the first activated and the fastest way to regulate blood pH. -The 3 main buffering systems in the body are: 1. the protein buffer system, 2. the carbonic acidbicarbonate buffer system, and 3. the phosphate buffer system.