C176 PM Pre-Assessment

Risk analysis includes all of the following except for which one? Probability and impact, Quantitative risk analysis, Qualitative risk analysis

"Avoid, transfer, mitigate, and accept" are negative risk strategies used in risk response process.

You're a manager of the HJH project for your company. You've created the probability-impact risk matrix as shown in the figure below: Risk Probability Impact A 0.55 -10,000 B 0.4 -65,000 C 0.3 -90,000 D 0.6 -25,000 E 0.45 -30,000 F 0.7 -245,000 If Risk D happens in this project, how much will be left in the contingency reserve?

$233,500 To answer this question, you need to calculate the contingency reserve to be used at the project manager's discretion to deal with anticipated, but uncertain, events. These events are "known unknowns" and are part of the project scope and cost baselines. The contingency reserve is calculated by multiplying the probability and the impact for the risk event value for each risk event. The sum of risk events equals the project's contingency reserve. In this case, Risk contingency fund = (0.55*10,000)+(0.4*65,000)+(0.3*90,000)+(0.6*25,000)+(0.45*30,000)+(0.7*245,000) = 258,500 Therefore, when Risk D happens, it will cost the project $25,000. This $25,000 is subtracted from the contingency reserve of $258,500, leaving a balance of $233,500 for all other risks. Answer option D is incorrect because it's not a correct calculation of the risk reserve minus Risk D. Answer option C is incorrect because $440,000 is the sum of the risk exposure minus the exposure for Risk D. Answer option B is incorrect because it's not a correct value for the balance of the risk reserve.

You're a manager of the GHG project, which has a budget at completion of $456,000 and is expected to last one year. You're currently at month six of the project, though you've only completed 40 percent of the work. The actual project cost to date is $175,000. What's the project's cost variance? A There is no cost variance. B 1.04 C-$45,600 D $7,400

$7,400 The cost variance is a positive value in this scenario, as the project has spent less than what it's worth. The cost variance is found by subtracting the actual costs from the earned value; in this instance, it's $182,400 minus $175,000. Answer C is incorrect; this is the value of the cost variance assuming that the project is to be 50 percent complete at this point in the schedule. Answer B is incorrect; 1.04 is the project's cost performance index. Answer A is incorrect; for this project, there's a positive cost variance of $7,400.

Mike is manager of the WAM project, which has a budget at completion of $295,000. The project is currently 40 percent complete; however, it should have been 50 percent complete by now. Mike has spent $125,000 on the project, and management has asked him about its schedule performance. Which of these values best represents its schedule performance?

.80 In this scenario, the schedule performance index (SPI) is .80. Find the SPI by dividing earned value by planned value (in this case, $118,000 divided by $147,500). Schedule performance index (SPI) is the measure of project schedule efficiency. It is used in trend analysis to predict future performance. SPI is the ratio of earned value to planned value and is calculated using the formula: SPI = Earned value (EV) / Planned value (PV) If the SPI is greater than 1, performance is better than expected; if less than 1, it's poorer than expected. An SPI of 1 indicates the project is right on target. Answer D is incorrect; .94 represents the project's cost performance index. Answer B is incorrect; -$7,000 is the project's cost variance. Answer A is incorrect; -$17,500 is the predicted variance at completion based on current performance.

You have $400,000 for the budget at completion (BAC). The estimate at completion (EAC) is $200,000. What is the variance at completion (VAC)?

200,000

Given the following values: PV = 85, AC = 89, EV = 85, BAC = 90, ETC = 2, what's the TCPI?

5 The formula for TCPI (to-complete performance index) is (BAC - EV) / (BAC - AC), so the formula looks like this: (90 - 85) / (90 - 89) = 5. Lesson: Controlling the Project

Tom works as a project manager for BlueWell, Inc. He's determining which risks can affect his project. Which of the following inputs of the "identify risks" process is useful in doing so and provides a quantitative assessment of likely cost to complete scheduled activities?

Activity cost estimates An activity-cost-estimates review is valuable in identifying risks, as it provides a quantitative assessment of expected cost to complete scheduled activities and is expressed as a range, with range width indicating degrees of risk. Answer option A is incorrect. A risk management plan is a document arranged by a project manager to estimate project effectiveness, predict risks, and build response plans to mitigate them. It also consists of a risk assessment matrix. Answer option C is incorrect. The activity-duration-estimates review is valuable in identifying risks associated with time allowances for activities or projects as a whole, with range width indicating degrees of risk. Answer option D is incorrect. The cost management plan sets how project costs are managed during its life cycle. It defines a format and principles by which project costs are measured, reported, and controlled. The cost management plan identifies the person responsible for managing costs, those with the authority to approve changes to the project or its budget, and how cost performance is quantitatively calculated and reported upon.

When should the project kickoff meeting ideally occur?

After a project charter is signed The project kickoff meeting should be held after the project charter is signed and ideally before the project scope statement is written.

Which of the following involve looking at previous projects to obtain a high-level picture of potential project cost?

Analogous, Top-down Analogous estimation involves looking at previous projects to obtain a high-level picture of potential project cost. Analogous estimating is also called top-down estimating. incorrect because it's a method of estimating a component of work. is incorrect because it's an average of an activity's most likely, optimistic, and pessimistic estimates.

You're a project manager at uCertify Inc. You and your team are working on your project's executing process group. There are several actions that occur during executing processes, including managing project quality, managing risks, preparing performance reports and information, and more. Which of the following actions does not start in earnest during this phase?

Approving corrective actions The various actions that start in earnest during the executing process group are as follows: Scheduling meetings Managing costs within the budget Following a communications plan Managing scope Corrective actions are approved during the monitoring and controlling phase but are implemented in the executing process phase. This exemplifies the iterative nature of project management, because actions might be approved in one process group but actually implemented in another.

You're a manager of a complex IT project that's well underway. A current team member was once a star performer but has now begun to slack off. As a result, the tasks she's been working on are behind schedule; thus, you're now concerned. How will you deal with this issue?

Ask the team member why her work is falling behind schedule. Ask her whether you can help her return to her former level of productivity, or whether there are other unresolved issues of which you should be aware.

All of the following describe types of project endings except for which one?

Attrition Integration occurs when resources are distributed to other areas of an organization, and addition occurs when projects evolve into ongoing operations. Starvation is a project ending caused by project resources being cut off. Extinction occurs when project work is completed and accepted by its stakeholders.

All of the following describe the purpose for the information distribution process except for which one?

Barriers such as cultural differences, geographical locations, and technology should be taken into account during this process.

What's the most important reason why you should immediately deal with a disgruntled employee when in the executing process of a project?

Because you run the risk of that person bringing the entire team's morale down The other answers are certainly applicable, but the main reason you should deal with disgruntled employees as soon as possible is simply because their attitude can poison the morale of other team members. Once that happens, task work begins to slow, deliverables slip, and the project could be in trouble.

One of the most common and necessary activities performed during the closing process is project closure. What is the advantage of formal project closure?

Collection of the historical information The advantage of formally closing a project is the collection of historical information that describes what went well and what went poorly on the project. This information is used to analyze project management's strengths and weaknesses. Thus, it provides a reference used to improve future project performance. Answer options C, D, and A are incorrect because these are the advantages of a final performance review.

This process defines what people or groups need project information, when and how often it should be distributed, and its format.

Communications planning Communications planning defines the type of project information, as well as the frequency, format, and method of its distribution to project stakeholders throughout its duration. incorrect. Information distribution provides stakeholders with project information in a timely manner via status reports, project meetings, review meetings, e-mails, and so on. incorrect. Organizational planning is the process of addressing factors that may impact how you manage a project team, define team members' roles and responsibilities, determine your team's organization, and document your staffing management plan. incorrect. Procurement planning is the process of identifying what goods or services will be purchased outside the organization.

You're a project manager for your organization and currently working on a project to create a Web-based order form for clients. Clients will place their orders through your company website, any time of day or night. Larry, your company's CIO, isn't the project sponsor, but he is a key stakeholder, and he has demanded that you add extra website features. How will you handle Larry's request for implementation of the additional features?

Complete and submit a change request form. All change requests must be documented. Even though Larry is the CIO, his change request should first be documented to follow established change control procedures, which always determine the total impact of change on the project. Ideally, Larry would complete the change request form to provide a complete audit of the request. Change requests Change requests are used to expand or reduce project scope; modify policies, processes, plans, or procedures; and modify costs or budgets, or revise schedules. Change requests can be direct or indirect, externally or internally initiated, and legally or contractually imposed, or optional. A project manager must ensure that only formally documented changes requested are processed, and that only approved change requests are implemented. Answer option D is incorrect because implementing the features without documenting Larry's request could cause scope verification problems as well as quality problems, as the scope is changed by their implementation but without documentation or approval. Answer option B is incorrect because sending Larry to the project sponsor might be appropriate, but the best response is to document the change request so there's an opportunity to review the proposed change for its effect on the project's scope, cost, schedule, quality, human resources, communications, risk, and even procurement. Answer option A is incorrect because part of change-request review is to determine a change's effect on the entire project, including cost and time components.

Your project's concluded, and you're now conducting a lessons-learned session with your team. Which of these techniques will you use to get the information you need?

Conduct a formal session with the team, and ask team members to identify successes and failures for each phase. Ask for recommendations regarding how to correct weak areas they've denoted.

You're a project manager at uCertify Inc. You want to reduce affective conflict at all levels, and attain and maintain a reasonable amount of substantive conflict. Which of the following processes will you use to accomplish this task?

Conflict management Conflict management involves implementation of strategies to reduce negative aspects of conflict and to increase its positive ones, at a level equal to or higher than its current level. Conflict management involves activities to reduce affective conflicts at all levels, attain and maintain a reasonable amount of substantive conflict, and use an appropriate conflict management strategy to do so, as well as to match the status and concerns of the two parties in conflict. Answer option D is incorrect. Risk management is the identification, assessment, and prioritization of risks. Answer option C is incorrect. Change management is a structured approach to transitioning individuals, teams, and organizations from a current state to a desired future state. Answer option A is incorrect. A quality management plan is a component of the project management plan. It describes how the project team will implement their organization's quality policy.

Which of the following processes involves monitoring project progress to identify any variances in a project plan?

Controlling

Which of the following is not true of cost estimating?

Cost estimates make up the project budget. Cost estimates don't make up a project budget; they act as an input to the budget. They're provided by team members who will perform the cost-estimated task.

Which of the following indicates whether costs are higher or lower than budgeted?

Cost variance (CV) Cost variance (CV) is a measure of project cost performance. A variance is used to determine if costs are higher or lower than budgeted. Cost variance is calculated by the following formula: CV = Earned value (EV) - Actual cost (AC) A positive value means that spending is less than budgeted, whereas a negative value indicates that project costs are higher than originally planned. Answer B is incorrect. Actual cost (AC) is the total cost actually incurred and recorded in accomplishing work performed during a given period for a schedule activity. It's the cost of work and money spent to date, including direct and indirect costs. AC is sometimes called actual cost of work performed (ACWP). Answer D is incorrect. Estimate at Completion (EAC) is a field that displays the final cost of the project including the actual costs and the forecast of remaining costs based on the cost performance index (CPI) so far. Answer C is incorrect. The CPI is the ratio of earned value to actual cost. It is used to calculate performance efficiencies, as well as predict future performance in trend analysis. The CPI is calculated using the following formula: CPI = Earned value (EV) / Actual cost (AC) If the CPI value is greater than 1, it indicates better than expected performance; if less than 1, it shows poor performance. A CPI value of 1 indicates that the project is right on target.

You work as a project manager for uCertify Inc. You have to implement cost-effective controls and allocate resources and organizations after you identify all likely controls and evaluate their feasibility and usefulness. Which of the following will you use to accomplish your task?

Cost-benefit analysis Cost-benefit analysis is a technique related to the cost effectiveness of different alternatives to assess whether a project's benefits outweigh its costs. Its aim is to gauge the efficiency of intervention in relation to maintaining a status quo. To implement cost-effective controls and allocate resources, organizations, after identifying all possible controls and evaluating their feasibility and usefulness, must conduct a cost-benefit analysis for each new or enhanced control to determine if the control recommended is appropriate. A cost-benefit analysis mainly determines the impact of implementing the new or enhanced control and then determines the impact of non-implementation. Answer option D is incorrect. The cost budgeting process assigns cost estimates to activities and creates a cost baseline, which measures project performance throughout its life cycle Answer option C is incorrect. The cost control process is used to measure the project spending till date. By monitoring the budget, this process helps in determining whether changes have occurred to the cost baseline and takes actions to deal with those changes Answer option A is incorrect. The cost estimating process is used to estimate the cost of resources needed for each project activity.

Your company's IT staff has started a project that was requested by a customer, but they have now found that the project's scope is larger than they had originally anticipated and requires the assistance of a project manager. No formal project documents have been created. You've been asked to take up the role of project manager. What is the first step will you take in assuming responsibility for this project?

Determine the user requirements. First, you need to determine what the customer actually requested that precipitated the project in the first place. You can't put any documentation or personnel into place until you're sure that the efforts the IT team is making are in line with those requirements.

You're a manager of an IT project that's currently in its monitoring and controlling phase. A user approaches you with a change request that you evaluate and find necessary, even though the change will result in a large impact to scope. What's your next step?

Determine whether there's an alternative solution that would have less impact on the scope, and discuss the trade-off with the stakeholder. The best alternative in cases in which there would be large impacts to scope is to determine whether there's a trade-off or alternative that would meet stakeholder needs while reducing impact to project scope.

According to industry rules and regulations, an organization should retain all its project-related documents for a minimum of seven years. Which of the following policies should the project manager implement to best address this action?

Document retention A document retention policy provides systematic review, retention, and eventual destruction of documents received or created in the course of doing business. It identifies such documents and provides guidelines for how long certain documents should be kept and how they should be destroyed. Answer option B is incorrect; a version control policy manages different versions and datasets of documents that produce the final version of the project document. Answer option D is incorrect; an auditing policy provides evidence in the event of a security breach. Answer option C is incorrect; a standard compliance policy provides instructions for conducting a desk audit that is performed by an assigned compliance officer.

You're a project manager for your organization. A vendor has told you that the cost of resources you'll use in your project will increase by 40 percent, but they can deliver the product within 10 days. Another vendor has a substantially lower price, but they can only deliver the product in 21 days. How should you document the increase in price?

Document the scenario consideration in both the schedule change control system and the cost change control system. The best solution is to consider which is more important in your context—cost or schedule. Cost change and schedule change control systems can help you determine the driving factor for your project. Change control system A change control system is a collection of formal documented procedures that define how project deliverables and documentation will be controlled, changed, and approved. Change control is a part of the configuration management system. Answer option A is incorrect because price may not be a driving factor of a project. Project time could be the most important element in project decisions. Answer option B is incorrect because entering a vendor's price into the cost change control system is correct, but you should also determine whether the delay in acceptance of resources from the second vendor is worth the price difference. Answer option C is incorrect because, although project team consideration is an example of using expert knowledge, it's not the best solution in this scenario.

Who among the following stakeholders possesses detailed, in-depth knowledge of a particular topic or problem area of a solution scope or business need?

Domain subject matter expert

Which of the following represents the value of the work completed to date as compared to the budget?

EV EV (earned value) is the value of the work completed to date as compared to the budget (AC is actual cost, PV is planned value, and BAC is budget at completion).

As a project manager for uCertify, Inc., you are currently working on some high-level project milestones and timelines. One of your team members wants to know the purpose of high-level milestones and timelines. How will you reply?

Ensuring validation and allowing the project to move on to the next step if the milestone is met, or taking corrective actions if the milestone is not met Providing measurement, showing that tangible progress has been made on the project Providing support for staff resource planning and budget preparation The purpose of high-level milestones and timelines is to: Provide measurement, showing that tangible progress has been made on the project Ensure validation and allow the project to move on to the next step if the milestone is met, or take corrective actions if it is not met Provide support for staff resource planning and budget preparation

Which of the following project management process groups utilizes the most project time?

Executing

In which of the following type of contracts does the seller bear the most risk?

Fixed Price

Which of the following tools is a sequential visual representation of process activities and decision points?

Flowchart A flowchart is a sequential visual representation of process activities and decision points that's used during quality control. It also shows how individual system elements interrelate. Answer option D is incorrect. Control chart displays the variance of several samples of the same process over time. Answer option C is incorrect. Ishikawa diagram shows the relationship between cause and effect. Answer option B is incorrect. Pareto diagram ranks the importance of problems by their frequency of occurrence.

Which of the following tools lists all project tasks on the vertical axis with units of time on the horizontal axis?

Gantt chart A Gantt chart is a very useful tool for visualizing project tasks over time, as all project tasks are listed on the vertical axis with units of time on the horizontal axis. Markers are used to note estimated and actual start and end times. Answer option B is incorrect. A PERT (program evaluation review technique) chart is a project management tool used to schedule, organize, and coordinate project tasks. Answer option C is incorrect. In project management and systems engineering, a work breakdown structure (WBS) is a tool that defines a project and groups its discrete work elements in a way that helps to organize and define its total work scope. Answer option A is incorrect. Critical path method, abbreviated CPM, or critical path analysis, is a mathematically based algorithm for scheduling a set of project activities.

What are the three types of matrix organization?

Here are the three types of matrix organization: Balanced matrix: Shares equal emphasis between projects and functional work. The project manager and the functional manager share power. Strong matrix: Emphasizes project work over functional duties. The project manager has most of the power. Weak matrix: Emphasizes functional work over project work and operates more like a functional hierarchy. The functional mangers have most of the power.

Which of the following terms refers to a project team comprised of people from different cultures?

Heterogeneous A heterogeneous project team is comprised of team members from different cultures. Answer option D is incorrect; a homogeneous project team comprises members from the same culture. Answer option B is incorrect; an ethnocentric project team consists of members of the same ethnic group. Answer option A is incorrect; an attributed project team comprises members with similar qualities.

A project manager needs to know costs incurred and steps introduced by a third party to complete certain deliverables. What should the project manager do to get this information from the third party?

Issue an RFP. A project manager should issue a request for proposal (RFP). An RFP is a procurement document that asks the third party to provide solutions, ideas, price, and detailed information about the outsourced function. (B is incorrect). An invitation for bid (IFB) invites vendors into a bidding process to submit a proposal to furnish a product or service. ( D is incorrect.) Creating a work breakdown structure (WBS) defines the project's total work. ( A is incorrect). A project statement of work (SOW) is a narrative description of the project and its deliverables.

Which of the following are tasks performed by a work breakdown structure (WBS)?

It provides a mechanism for performance measurement and control., It distributes major project deliverables into smaller components to improve accuracy of cost estimates., It provides a mechanism for collecting and organizing actual costs. *************WBS tasks are as follows It distributes major project deliverables into smaller components to improve accuracy of cost estimates. It provides a mechanism for collecting and organizing actual costs. It provides a mechanism for performance measurement and control. Answer option B is incorrect because an RBS defines assignable resources, such as personnel, from a functional point of view.

All of the following statements represents the final approved version of a project schedule except for which one?

It will prevent future schedule risk. The schedule baseline is the final, approved version of the schedule and is signed by stakeholders, sponsor, and functional managers. Having a schedule baseline will not prevent future schedule risk.

Gary is project manager for his company. He's working with project stakeholders on its requirements, and examining how risks might affect their project. One of the stakeholders is confused about what constitutes project risk. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of project risk?

It's an uncertain event that can affect at least one project objective. Risk is an uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has an effect on at least one project objective. Project risk is concerned with expected value of one or more results of one or more future project events. It's an uncertain condition that, if it occurs, has an effect on at least one project objective. Objectives can be scope, schedule, cost, or quality. Project risk is always projected into the future. Answer C is incorrect because risk is not unknown, it's uncertain. In addition, an event can affect at least one project objective, not just project scope. Answer B is incorrect because, although it would seem true, the event doesn't have to happen during project execution. Answer A is incorrect because risks can affect time, costs, or scope, not just costs.

Which of the following describes both tangible and intangible benefits to an organization for undertaking a project, as well as reasons for bringing it about?

Justification for a project Justification for a project defines the advantages to an organization for undertaking a project. It includes tangible and intangible benefits, and reasons for bringing about the project. Answer option B is incorrect because alignment to the strategic plan is also included in the business case and helps to describe how the project and its outcomes will align to the organization's overall strategic plan. If the reason for the project doesn't support the strategic plan, there is no reason to undertake the project. Answer option D is incorrect because a feasibility study is a formal endeavor undertaken to determine whether there is a compelling reason to perform a proposed project. Feasibility studies help to examine the viability of a product, service, or project result. Answer option A is incorrect because a stakeholder is a person with a vested interest in the project. Stakeholders consist of individuals as well as organizations; both the project sponsor and the project manager are considered stakeholders.

During the planning process, a project scope document provides a description of the work necessary to complete a project. Which of the following components would be included in the project scope document?

Key performance indicators (KPIs), Detailed project objectives, Project constraints The project scope documents product description, key deliverables, success and acceptance criteria, key performance indicators, exclusions, assumptions, and constraints. The scope statement is used as a baseline for future project decisions.

When preparing a project charter, which three elements listed below should you always include?

Key project deliverables, List of stakeholders, General project approach

What component of a project's documentation do team members typically want to keep out of project archives?

Lessons learned Lessons learned are something that project team members don't typically want to include in project archives for fear of being perceived as not having performed adequately. It's important to document lessons learned without placing blame. It can be very helpful to review project archives and pick up some pointers on what not to do.

Which of the following project documents created during its closing process describes what went well and what went poorly on the project?

Lessons learned Lessons learned describe what went well and what went poorly on a project. They're included in a project close report, post-mortem report, and post-project review.

What's the best way to prevent "scope creep"?

Make sure project requirements are thoroughly defined and documented. The best way to avoid scope creep is to make sure that project requirements have been thoroughly defined and documented.

You would use this type of analysis during procurement planning to determine cost effectiveness.

Make-or-buy You would use make-or-buy analysis during procurement planning to determine the cost effectiveness of either making goods and services in-house or procuring them from an outside vendor. Answer options B, C, and A are incorrect because more advanced techniques for computing quantitative risk analysis include sensitivity analysis, decision tree analysis, simulation using the Monte Carlo technique, and interviewing.

Which of the following can convey the completion of an interim key deliverable?

Milestone

You're a new project manager for your company. The previous project manager left abruptly. While reviewing your predecessor's last project, you find that the project scope document is poorly formulated and missing several key requirements. What's your next step?

Notify and meet with the sponsor. The first and most important step whenever there are problems or issues (including missing documentation, additional requirements, and so on) is to notify and meet with your project sponsor. It's a good idea to take your ideas for next steps to the meeting, but you will want direction from the sponsor before doing anything further.

This element of the executing process group encompasses standards compliance, internal process compliance, decision oversight, and phase-gate approval.

Organizational governance Organizational governance includes standards compliance, internal process compliance, decision oversight, and phase-gate approval.

Jeff is manager of a project to install 8,000 editions of a software package onto computers in his company. He's estimated that with the cost of the software license, the time to install and verify the software, and the software training for each user, the total cost of the software license per recipient is $450. He estimates the total cost of the project will be $3,600,000. What type of cost estimation is Jeff using in this example?

Parametric estimate This is an example of a parametric estimate, as the parameter is $450 per recipient of software. A parametric estimate uses a parameter to predict project costs, such as cost per network drop or cost per software license. Parametric estimation utilizes the statistical relationship between a series of historical data and a particular delineated list of other variables. Answer option C is incorrect because a top-down estimate is a fast and unreliable estimate that uses historical information to predict likely cost of a project. Answer option B is incorrect because a bottom-up, or definitive, estimate considers the cost of each element in a WBS. Answer option A is incorrect because a definitive, or bottom-up, estimate considers the cost of each element in a WBS.

Roberta is manager of the KJL project for her company. She's creating a chart that will help categorize problems discovered during the quality control inspection process. She wants to categorize the number of instances of problems and rank by frequency of occurrence. Which chart should Roberta create?

Pareto chart A Pareto chart is a histogram used to rank problems, defects, or issues by their frequency of occurrence. It helps show where the majority of project effort should be applied, as well as identify smaller problems that can be addressed later. A Pareto chart is both bar chart and line graph; it uses bars to plot values in descending order and a line to graph cumulative totals for each category from left to right. Answer option A is incorrect; a fishbone diagram, also called an Ishikawa diagram or cause-and-effect diagram, shows an effect and its contributing causes. Answer option D is incorrect; a control chart doesn't show categories of failure but rather project trends over time. Answer option C is incorrect; a scatter diagram shows the relationship between two or more variables and is used in trends analysis.

You're a new project manager entrusted with a project to develop a machine that produces auto components. The machine has been developed, but is consistently producing defective parts. You suspect a small set of reasons for the majority of defects. Which of the following would you use to analyze and validate your suspicion?

Pareto chart A Pareto chart is a type of histogram ordered by the frequency of occurrence. It's related to the Pareto law, which holds that a relatively small number of causes will typically produce a majority of problems or defects. It's also called the 80/20 principle. Answer options D and B are incorrect; although control charts and scatter diagrams help in performing quality control, they don't address the project manager's suspicion described in the question. incorrect; prioritization matrices provide a method of ranking a diverse set of problems and/or issues by their importance. They're not a tool used for quality control.

Which of the following is the least precise cash-flow technique?

Payback period estimate The payback period is a cash-flow technique for identifying the length of time it takes for the organization to recover all the costs of producing the project. It compares the initial investment to the expected cash inflows over the life of the project and determines how many time periods elapse before the project pays for itself. Payback period is the least precise of all cash-flow techniques. Net present value is the most conservative cash-flow technique and discounted cash flow and internal rate of return will generally bring you to the same accept/reject conclusion.

Who makes "go/no-go" decisions during phase-gate review?

Program Governance Board

Which of the following uses boxes to represent project activities and arrows to connect the boxes and show dependencies?

Precedence diagramming method (PDM) Precedence diagramming is the most-used diagramming method. PDM uses boxes to represent project activities and arrows to connect the boxes and show dependencies.

You're working on a project to launch a new product line for your client. Incorporating market research, you're required to increase your project's scope. Which of the following factors are most likely affected if your project's completion date can't be changed?

Project cost, Project quality As you know, the project completion date is its deadline. Thus, to increase its scope without changing its completion date, its cost and quality will likely be affected. This is because increasing project scope without changing its target date involves additional resources, thus requiring additional funding. Likewise, adding requirements in the allotted time will adversely affect work quality. Answer options B and C are incorrect; deployment plan and project milestone summarizes mandatory project information, including variance analysis, forecast of completion (time and cost), current values of costs, and so on.

: Who is responsible for assembling project's team members?

Project manager The project manager assembles team members for the project. The sponsor, stakeholders, or customers may suggest team members, but the final decision rests with the project manager

You are working on a large software development project for your organization. Due to some problems, the project was cancelled before completion. You now need to finalize a meeting on what went wrong in the project. What is this meeting typically called?

Project post-mortem

While creating a new project, which of the following contains final project acceptance criteria?

Project scope document A project scope document should be of most interest to a new project manager. The scope statement describes the product, key deliverables, success and acceptance criteria, key performance indicators, exclusions, assumptions, and constraints, and thus contains final project acceptance criteria. Answer D is incorrect. A transition plan is used to provide a brief overview of transition goals, assumptions on which the plan is based, and any risks identified that can severely limit your capability to complete the transition on schedule. Answer B is incorrect. A project charter is the document that formally authorizes a project. The project charter provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. Answer C is incorrect. A quality metric is a standard of measurement defined in a quality management plan that defines what will be measured and how it will be measured. In the quality planning process, the quality metric is defined as quality checklists and exit criteria.

Management wants Jen to create a project scope baseline as part of her project management plan. Beth reports that there's already a project scope baseline and it's comprised of three documents in the project plan. All of the following are part of the project scope baseline except for which one?

Project statement of work A project statement of work is often used during project initiation, especially when the project is part of a contractual relationship. The project statement of work is not, however, one of the three documents that create the scope baseline. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because these are the three documents that comprise the scope baseline

Your project is nine months into the executing process. While preparing to review your team members' performance, all of the following are appropriate except for which one?

Provide feedback about past inadequate performance behaviors for the first time at the next performance meeting.

Which of the following two options describe the role of a project sponsor?

The final decision maker on the project, Approving and signing the project charter A project sponsor approves and signs a project charter and serves as a project's final decision maker. Generally, a project manager is responsible for all other tasks listed in this question.

A quality audit is the process of an audit team systematically inspecting product quality. During which of the following is a quality audit implemented?

Quality assurance Quality assurance is a prevention-driven process of systematically inspecting project activities to reduce error yet meet all project requirements. incorrect. Quality planning identifies quality standards applicable to a project and determines how the project will meet these standards. incorrect. Quality control is a review of project results to determine whether they comply with standards documented in a quality management plan, for the purpose of removing causes of unacceptable quality when standards are not met. incorrect. A quality checklist is used to list a series of necessary steps to complete an activity or process.

What type of chart is represented in the figure below? Task Juliette Mike Kelley Programming R A C Test I R C Technical writer C I R A Assignment matrix B RACI chart C RAC chart D Responsibility assignment matrix

RACI chart A RACI chart is a responsibility assignment matrix that details tasks and resources and indicates whether they are responsible, accountable, consulted, or informed about a task. Answer option C is incorrect. There's no such chart. Answer options D and A are incorrect. A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) allows you to denote types of skills you require in your project team, how many members you'll require for each, and in which project tasks they'll be needed.

A feasibility test was performed to determine whether a critical project could be successfully completed. The test indicated that there are insufficient human resources to complete the project. What should the project manager suggest in this case?

Raise the budget to hire contractors. Because the project's human resources are insufficient to complete it, the project manager should suggest raising the budget to hire contractors, who will be responsible for testing and validating project quality, and its budget will track actual expenses incurred against estimates. Answer options A, D, and C are incorrect because suspending the project until more resources become available, extending the project completion date, and decreasing the project scope will drastically affect the quality of deliverables, thus preventing successful project completion

You and your project team are about to create a WBS for your project. You'll need three components as inputs to WBS creation. Which one of the following is not an input you'll need for the creation of your project's WBS?

Requirements traceability matrix A requirements traceability matrix is a table that maps requirements to project stakeholders and actual creation of project deliverables. It is not an input you'll need for the creation of your project's WBS. Answer options D, C, and B are incorrect because you need project scope statement, requirements documentation, and organizational process assets to create the WBS.

The work breakdown structure (WBS) is a deliverables-oriented hierarchy that defines a project's total work. Which of the following directly utilizes WBS?

Resource assignment, Activity estimation The final element of scope planning is a WBS. The WBS is a deliverables-oriented hierarchy that defines all project work. Each WBS level is a further breakdown of the levels above it. Once work is broken down to its lowest level, one can establish time estimates, resource assignments, and cost estimates that directly utilize the WBS. Answer option B is incorrect. A communication plan is used for exchanging information between sender and receiver. It can be very simple; one can easily construct a template using a spreadsheet or other tabular format. Answer option C is incorrect. Variance analysis is used for controlling product quality. It examines the difference between a performance cost baseline and actual performance.

What's the name of the resource requirement tool shown in the table below? Task Programmer Tester Tech Writer DBA Infrastructure 2.3.1 3 2 2 1 2.3.2 2 2 1 1 2.3.3 2 1 1 2.3.4 4 3 2 1 2.3.5 1 1 2 1 Table A

Responsibility assignment matrix A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) allows you to denote the types of skills required in your project team, how many members you'll require for each, and the project tasks for which they'll be needed. Answer D is incorrect because a resource requirement matrix addresses various sustainability issues related to energy, human factors, materials, and resource management. Answers A and B are incorrect because these are invalid options.

During the monitoring and controlling process, a quality manager indicates that certain project requirements can't be fulfilled during quality testing. Thus, to keep the project on schedule, some requirements will have to be modified. Which type of action will this be?

Risk avoidance Risk avoidance is an action taken to mitigate threat. This is done by altering a project management plan to either eliminate risk completely or protect project objectives from its impact. You can remove the risk event entirely by either adding steps to do so or reducing project scope requirements. Answer option D is incorrect. A risk assumption technique can be used to assume previously handled risk, to accept potential risk, and to implement controls for lowering risk to an acceptable level. Answer option B is incorrect. Risk control is the application of controls to reduce risk to an organization's data and information systems. Answer option A is incorrect. Risk transfer is used to shift a threat's impact to a third party, together with ownership of response to it

When analyzing an effect of a scope change, what other project element will require changes?

Schedule A change in scope requires corresponding schedule changes. It's possible—though not inevitable—for new risks to develop and additional costs to be incurred as a result of the scope change. Regardless, scope changes always bring about schedule changes.

You've been assigned as manager for a major IT project. Brett is the functional manager who will provide human resources for your development team; however, he's also supplying resources to other concurrent projects. You have a "dream-team" list of people you want on your team, but you're worried that other project managers may want these same people. What's the best way to approach Brett regarding the assignment of people to your project?

Schedule a meeting with Brett to discuss resources. Explain your project deliverables and the skill sets you need. *****Obtaining the right resources for your project will require good planning and skillful negotiating skills. The best approach is to set up a meeting with each functional manager and negotiate the resources you need and their availability.****

Your project is running late, and management has asked that you remove elements from the project scope that aren't core requirements. This removal of project deliverables will allow your project to reach its predetermined deadline. What document should you update to reflect this decision?

Scope baseline Whenever project scope changes, the scope baseline should be updated to reflect the change. Recall that the scope baseline includes the project scope statement, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary. Answer option C is incorrect because schedule variance reports don't require updating, as changes to project scope don't affect the project schedule variance. Answer option B is incorrect because a schedule baseline isn't updated, as the schedule itself hasn't been changed—the project scope has. Answer option D is incorrect because a quality management plan shouldn't change, as it addresses how quality is planned, executed, and controlled.

You're a manager of the TRT project, now in its execution phase. Rick, a team member, has complained that other team members are isolating him, and that this isolation is bothering him. Which of the following is not a recommended step to resolve the issue? Solicit feedback on Rick from other team members. Apply team building measures to improve team effectiveness.....Solicit more feedback from Rick.

Shift Rick to another project.

Who is responsible for signing off on project closure documents?

Sponsor A sponsor is responsible for signing off on project closure documents. Project closure is a project's final process phase and includes its formal acceptance and ending. Administrative activities include file archiving and documenting lessons learned. ; a project manager is responsible for managing project work. A project manager creates documents and supporting documentation indicating that all deliverables have been successfully produced. ; project team members are the experts who perform project work. ; an end user directly uses the project's deliverable and thus has nothing to do with project closure.

Based on a project management plan, a closure meeting involves gathering and centralizing a project document, performing a post-project review, and writing a final project close report. During which of these events would a project manager conduct a closure meeting?

Stage completion, Project completion, Project cancellation A closure meeting involves gathering and centralizing a project document, performing a post-project review, and writing a final project close report. Its primary purpose is to gather lessons learned and distribute a notice of acceptance. A project manager conducts a closure meeting under the following circumstances: Project completion Stage completion Project cancellation Component completion

Holly is business analyst for her organization. She encourages teamwork and open communication among her business analysis team and stakeholders. She invites stakeholders to drop by her office and freely discuss project requirements, a solution scope, and other issues regarding the solution she's working on. Although Holly prefers informal communication, what is its potential risk? A There is no danger; informal communications is a preferred business analysis technique. B Stakeholders may address the business analysis team and the project team directly rather than communicate through Holly. C Stakeholders may not know who's in charge of the solution.

Stakeholders may miss information and requirements could become ambiguous. Informal communication is fine in some cases, but it can result in stakeholders missing information or requirements becoming ambiguous. Answer option A is incorrect because there is potential danger in informal communications. Answer option C is incorrect because not knowing who's in charge of a solution is not a real danger of informal communications. Holly can communicate this message through informal means. Answer option B is incorrect because stakeholders can address a project team or business analyst team directly through formal communication.

The figure below shows a series of steps in a network diagram. Which of the following is the critical path if the duration of task E is modified to 4 days? ***********saved image in pictures*****************

Start-A-G-E-F-C-end The critical path method is used to estimate minimum project duration and determine the amount of scheduling flexibility on logical network paths within the schedule model. In this figure, the longest path includes tasks A, G, E, F, and C. Therefore, the sequence A-G-E-F-C is the critical path.

Which of the following is involved in risk identification?

Team Brainstorming Brainstorming is a technique for gathering general data. It can also be used to identify risks, ideas, or solutions to issues from team members or subject matter experts. Answer option B is incorrect. Resource loading is a process of assigning project resources Answer option D is incorrect. A project kickoff meeting is a way to formally introduce all project team members, review project goals and deliverables, discuss roles and responsibilities, and review stakeholder expectations. Answer option C is incorrect. Vendor solicitation is a technique of obtaining responses from vendors to complete project work as documented in a statement of work.

During the executing process, a project manager has been asked to create an issue log. Which of the following components are included in an issue log?

The description of the issue, The date the issue was submitted The following components are included in an issue log: The description of the issue The date the issue was submitted The name of the person who raised the issue A priority rating assigned to each issue Answers C and B are incorrect because the "estimate activity resources" process includes a resource breakdown structure and risk register.

Which of the following statements best defines quantitative risk analysis?

The process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives. It's performed on risk that has been prioritized through qualitative risk analysis. Answer option B is incorrect because it's actually the definition of qualitative risk analysis. Answer option A is incorrect because, although somewhat true, it doesn't completely define quantitative risk analysis. Answer option D is incorrect because it's not a valid statement about quantitative risk analysis. Risk response planning is a separate project management process.

Which of the following steps should a project manager take to ensure that product quality matches stakeholder expectations?

The project manager should monitor work performance. Managing stakeholder expectations means satisfying their needs by managing communications with them, resolving issues, improving project performance through implementation of requested changes and management of concerns in anticipation of potential problems. It's the project manager's responsibility to manage stakeholder expectations, and thus mitigate the risk of project failure and increase the chances of meeting project goals. Thus, to ensure that product quality matches stakeholder expectations, the project manager must monitor team members' work performance.

You're a manager of the NGHQ project for your organization. Your project team has 21 members dispersed throughout the US. You've created some ground rules regarding work performance, communications, and working hours for the project team to follow. Who is responsible for enforcing the ground rules once they are established?

The project team Once ground rules are established, it's up to a project manager and project team to enforce them. is incorrect because although a project sponsor might be brought into circumstances in which discipline is needed, but not to enforce ground rules. is incorrect because functional management is not the enforcer of project team ground rules. is incorrect because a team leader, assuming there is one, can verify that the project team is completing their assignments, but it's technically the team itself that must agree to abide by and enforce their own ground rules.

You're preparing a project scope for a new project and need to establish boundaries for what the project is capable of delivering, given an estimated time and cost. Which of the following is the best example of a project boundary? .

The project team will create but not distribute the software A boundary defines where a project scope will end. In this example, a project team will create software but its distribution lies outside the project scope. Boundaries clarify expectations and help remove assumptions. incorrect because it's an example of a cost constraint. incorrect because it's an example of a requirement; the team must adhere to industry standards. In some instances, a requirement could also be a constraint, as constraints limit a project manager's options. is incorrect because it's an example of a constraint.

You're a manager of a small project in its closing phase. You've prepared closure documents and taken them to the project sponsor for sign-off. The project sponsor has said that these documents aren't necessary because the project is so small. What should you tell the sponsor?

The sponsor is the one to sign off on the documents to indicate the project is officially closed. The sponsor must sign off on the project's completion, whether it's been successful or unsuccessful. Just as the sponsor is authorized to expend resources to produce the project's deliverables, the sponsor must also close the project and sign off on it.

You are coaching Mark, a junior project manager, on project management processes. Which of the following statements best defines the process of creating a work breakdown structure (WBS)?

The subdivision of project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components, until work and deliverables are defined at the "work package" level The work breakdown structure breaks down project deliverables into "work packages," the smallest elements of the WBS. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) A work breakdown structure (WBS) is a visual decomposition of project scope. Project scope is further broken down into smaller, more manageable units, each of which can be broken down further to arrive at the "work package," the smallest item in the WBS. Project groups and its discrete work elements are defined in a way that helps organize and define the project's total work scope. A WBS element can be a product, data, a service, or any combination thereof. WBS also provides the necessary framework for detailed cost estimating and control, along with guidance for schedule development and control. Answer B is incorrect because this statement defines a bill of materials. Answer C is incorrect because it defines an organizational breakdown structure. Answer D is incorrect because it defines a project activity list.

A project manager is currently working on an important project. Most of her team members work remotely and each of them must regularly submit a weekly status report at a designated time. However, one team member never submits his status reports on time. To assess this situation, what should the project manager consider first

The time zones of team members' work locations The project manager should first consider the time zones of team members' work locations to properly monitor the status reports of each team member working remotely. As her team members are working in different time zones, it's important for her to keep that in mind, to ensure that her team members are submitting reports on time. The question states that a team member never submits his weekly status report at the designated time, and that most of the team members work remotely. It's possible that the person in question is located at a different time zone than the others. Hence, it's important for the project manager to consider the time-zone differences of team members' work locations. Answer options C and B are incorrect. Performance of team members and status report format has nothing to do with submitting weekly status reports on time. Answer option D is incorrect. As the question specifies the team members are submitting their weekly status daily, the necessity of weekly status reports should not be considered by the project manager.

According to CompTIA, what are the three constraints common to all projects?

Time, quality, costs According to CompTIA, the triple constraints are cost, time, and quality. Other publications and project management professionals believe they are scope, time, and cost; however, for the CompTIA exam, you should know the constraints as described by CompTIA.

In which of the following conditions should avoidance be used in conflict resolution?

To maintain neutrality, Stakes are high, but you're not prepared, Stakes are low Use the avoidance conflict resolution method under these conditions: Stakes are low Stakes are high, but you're not prepared To maintain neutrality To gain time

What's the purpose of a project manager issuing an RFP?

To request proposals from prospective sellers of products or services An RFP (request for proposal) is a type of procurement document used to request proposals from prospective sellers of products or services. It invites vendors to create a proposal, which can include project ideas, suggestions, and more. In some application areas, it can have a narrower or more specific meaning. Answer C is incorrect because an SOW indicates project requirements and outlines the type of work necessary to complete it. Answers B and A are incorrect because a WBS and WBS dictionary describe all project work and organize project planning, respectively.

You've created a network diagram for the ABC project. You're exploring total float and free float for it. Martin, a project team member, wants to know the difference between total float and free float. What will you tell him?

Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project completion date, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying project successors. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project completion date, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying project successors. Float, or slack, is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without affecting subsequent activities. There are two types of floats: Free Float: The amount of time a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately following schedule activities. Total Float: The total amount of time a schedule activity can be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date or violating schedule constraint. You calculate float using the critical path method technique.

Which of the following items are included in a staffing management plan?

Training needs, Staff acquisition, Recognition and rewards According to the PMBOK guide, the staffing management plan should include the following elements: Staff acquisition Resource calendars Staff release plan Recognition and rewards Compliance Safety Answer option B is incorrect because risk prediction is part of a risk management plan.

You're a project manager at uCertify Inc. You have to describe ownership of project deliverables and authorize someone for their maintenance and upkeep. Which of the following plans will you use to accomplish the above task?

Transition plan Explanation: Answer option A is correct. The objectives of a transition plan are: Transition dates: There needs to be a definite date for deliverables to be transferred to the organization, and an account of conditions for deliverables to be moved from project management to operations management. Ownership: When you've completed a project and created a set of deliverables, someone must now be responsible for management of deliverables. The transition plan describes ownership of project deliverables and designates someone responsible for maintenance and upkeep of deliverables. Training: The project team needs to train recipients of deliverables and define their use and maintenance through training manuals, train-the-trainer sessions, hands-on exercises, or a combination of knowledge transfer events. Extended support: It's important to provide some extended support, depending on the type of project and the deliverables. Extended support requires the project team and operations team to work together as the new technology is applied, so that the operations team can learn about the deliverables and their implementation. Warranties: There must be some warranty information about project deliverables if the project was completed by a vendor for a client. The warranty must be detailed in the project contract and discussed during the operations transfer. Answer option B is incorrect. A risk management plan is a document arranged by a project manager to estimate project effectiveness, predict risks, and build response plans to mitigate them. Answer option D is incorrect. A security management plan is a documented set of policies and procedures that ensures the security of an organization's operations and assets. It consists of guidelines on procedures for minimizing perceived risks to an acceptable level. The security management plan also provides appropriate response measures for disasters. The main objective of the security management plan is establishment of a secured organizational environment by reducing risks. Answer option C is incorrect. A communications management plan documents information required by stakeholders, as well as when and how it is to be distributed. It also describes information delivery needs, format, and level of detail.

You work as a project manager for uCertify, Inc. You're working with your team to validate a project. What will you do?

Validate the business case. Identify and analyze the stakeholders. The following are required to validate a project: Validate the business case, which includes feasibility analysis, justification for the project, and alignment to the strategic plan. Identify and analyze the stakeholders.

In which organizational structure is a project manager often referred to as project coordinator or expeditor?

Weak matrix Weak matrix structures are similar to functional structures; project managers are often called project coordinators or expeditors. Answer options B, D, and A are incorrect because project manager functions remain same in the strong matrix, balanced matrix, and project-based structure.

Which document are you working on when you're decomposing project deliverables?

Work breakdown structure A work breakdown structure is created by decomposing deliverables to a level at which cost and time estimates can be performed. Answer option C is incorrect. A project scope statement documents project objectives, deliverables, and work required to produce the deliverables. Answer option A is incorrect. An activity list includes every activity needed to complete project work, along with an identifier or code for tracking each activity independently. Answer option D is incorrect. A project schedule determines start and finish dates for each project activity.

Which of the following documents will you prepare at last during scope definition?

Work breakdown structure (WBS) WBS is a deliverables-oriented hierarchy that defines all project work and is completed after a scope management plan and scope statements are completed.

Which of these terms describes a critical path task?

Zero float Tasks with zero float are critical path tasks; if delayed, they'll delay the project completion date.

Which of the following statements are true about withdrawal?

lt is considered a lose-lose situation., lt is considered an avoidance technique. Withdrawal—when one party refuses to discuss the conflict—is an avoidance technique; thus, it never results in resolution. It's probably the worst of all conflict resolution techniques because nothing gets resolved, resulting in a "lose-lose" solution. Answers B and D are incorrect because confrontation is the best way to resolve conflict. A key action of this technique is to go on a fact-finding mission to find the one right solution to the problem. Once you uncover the facts, you present them to the parties, thus making the decision clear and rendering it permanent. Project managers use this conflict resolution approach most often; it's an example of a win-win solution.

A table of risks, their probability of occurrence, their impact, and a number representing an overall risk score is called a:

risk matrix. A risk matrix is a tool used in the risk assessment process. It allows the severity of a risk event to be determined. It is table of risks, their probability of occurrence, their impact, and a number representing an overall risk score. Answer option D is incorrect because it doesn't fully answer the question. Answer options B and C are incorrect because a risk matrix can be used in quantitative or qualitative risk analysis.