CH. 19, 20 PCO 2021

As you begin to perform a hip examination on an elderly female patient who has undergone hip surgery, the patient states that she "needs to go to the bathroom." Which of the following should be done? 1. Use a standard bedpan. 2. Provide for the patient's privacy and locate a fracture bedpan. 3. Be sure to wear gloves and wash your hands. 4. If the bedpan is metallic, run it under warm water for patient comfort and discard in a recycling bin. 5. You and an assistant should assist the patient with movement onto the bedpan. 6. Return the patient to the nursing floor for cleanup and patient hygiene. a. 2, 3, and 5 only b. 2, 3, 5, and 6 only c. 1, 5, and 6 only d. 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 only

a. 2, 3, and 5 only If a patient has a fracture or another disability that makes using a standard bedpan unacceptable, then a fracture pan is used. This type of bedpan may be used for those who cannot raise their hips high enough or to roll over onto a regular size bedpan. Fracture pans are shallower and are contoured for patient comfort. Typical bedpan procedures regarding hygiene and cleanliness are used.

It is acceptable to discontinue CPR on a person when a. a qualified medical practitioner calls a halt. b. the rescuers decide it is not working. c. law enforcement arrives and pronounces the victim deceased. d. All of the above

a. a qualified medical practitioner calls a halt. Once begun, basic life support should (and for legal reasons, must) be continued until the victim resumes spontaneous respiration and circulation, a physician or other responsible health care professional calls a halt, or the rescuer is too exhausted to continue.

When comparing a semi-automatic AED device with an automatic device, a. both devices determine the patient's cardiac rhythm. b. the automatic device robotically places the AED paddles on the patient. c. the semi-automatic AED automatically shocks the patient by placing the unit next to their torso. d. None of the above are correct.

a. both devices determine the patient's cardiac rhythm. Increasingly, radiology departments and other public places have AED available. Fully automatic defibrillators, which analyze the patient's cardiac rhythm, determine whether defibrillation is necessary and, if necessary, deliver a shock. Similarly, semi-automatic defibrillators analyze the patient's cardiac rhythm to determine whether defibrillation is necessary and, if necessary, advise the operator to deliver a shock by pushing a button.

A common name for an emergency cart within medical imaging is the _____ cart. a. crash b. code c. first aid d. first call

a. crash Most radiology departments have at least one emergency cart, often referred to as a crash cart, which is typically a wheeled container of equipment and drugs typically required in emergency situations.

To facilitate removal of a nasogastric tube, the patient is a. encouraged to take a deep breath. b. told to drink water through a straw. c. sedated heavily. d. placed in the Trendelenburg position.

a. encouraged to take a deep breath. Identify the patient and explain the procedure. Verify that consent for the procedure has been obtained. Wash your hands and then turn off and disconnect the suction equipment if it is in place. Put on clean gloves and instruct the patient to take in a deep breath as the tube is gently withdrawn.

The type of shock that is a result of severe loss of blood is a. hypovolemic. b. anaphylactic. c. vasogenic. d. septic.

a. hypovolemic. Shock is a general term that indicates a failure of the circulatory system to support vital body functions. Hypovolemic shock is caused by a severe loss of blood or tissue fluid.

The radiographic evaluation of the small and large bowel that has been connected to the skin surface, as a substitute for the urinary bladder with an ostomy, is typically called a(n) a. loopogram. b. fecagram. c. vesiculogram d. stomogram.

a. loopogram. The radiographic evaluation of the small and large bowel that has been connected to the surface of the skin, as a substitute for the urinary bladder, is typically called a loopogram.

The single most important action for the radiographer when administering emergency care is a. providing a competent level of care, recognizing when advanced care is needed, and calling for assistance. b. reacting to the emergent situation and providing any and all care needed to save the patient's life. c. minimally getting involved for fear of medical and professional liability. d. waiting to provide care until any doctor or practitioner arrives.

a. providing a competent level of care, recognizing when advanced care is needed, and calling for assistance. The technologist must be able to recognize emergency situations, maintain a calm and confident presence, and take appropriate action. The recognition of need for assistance is a critical first step; the technologist must be able to recognize when such assistance might be warranted.

A 16-year-old patient comes to the diagnostic imaging department for a CT examination. He is lying on the table in a supine position and suddenly seems to lose consciousness and begins to move violently, with jerking motions. You realize that he is having a generalized seizure. The action that you must take is a. restrain the patient's extremities to prevent orthopedic injuries. b. insert your protected thumbs to prevent damage to teeth. c. place the patient on the floor and begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). d. go to the patient immediately, prevent him from harm and call for help.

a. restrain the patient's extremities to prevent orthopedic injuries. Severe seizures are characterized by involuntary contraction of muscles on either one or both sides of the body. The goal is, to the extent possible, to prevent the patient from being injured. The technologist should certainly call for help and remain by the patient.

When caring for a patient with epistaxis, the patient a. should lean forward and pinch their nostrils against the midline septum for several minutes. b. should sit back with his or her head tilted, and heparin gel should be applied inside the nose. c. should lie down quickly and tilt his or her head back. d. should be given an emesis basin and gauze pads.

a. should lean forward and pinch their nostrils against the midline septum for several minutes. Epistaxis, or nosebleed, can be a common occurrence and requires the patient to lean forward and pinch the affected nostril against the midline nasal cartilage with the fingers.

The medical term for a temporary suspension of consciousness is a. syncope. b. aura. c. epistaxis. d. vertigo.

a. syncope. Syncope is a self-correcting, temporary state of shock and loss of consciousness and the result of lack of blood flow to the brain. Treatment is aimed at increasing blood flow to the head.

Performing fluoroscopic examinations of the colon are scheduled less often than before. The reason for this change in the clinical study of the colon includes a. the sensitivity of colonoscopy has surpassed the results of barium contrast colon studies. b. an increased cost of barium as a contrast agent. c. patient tolerance for barium enemas as diminished. d. the shortage of radiologists has made fluoroscopy of the colon harder to schedule.

a. the sensitivity of colonoscopy has surpassed the results of barium contrast colon studies. The sensitivity for colonoscopy in the detection of cancerous and precancerous lesions has been estimated to be greater than 95%. This is far better than traditional colon studies. A major advantage of colonoscopy is that polyps can be excised during the procedure. Specimens that are removed are taken to the clinical laboratory to diagnose cell type.

When using an AED, a. two AED chest pads are used, one on the upper right side of the chest and the other on the lower left ribs. b. it is used simultaneously with CPR compressions. c. CPR can be terminated since it is of little value after the AED is attached. d. it is important to plug the unit into the correct power source.

a. two AED chest pads are used, one on the upper right side of the chest and the other on the lower left ribs. Death from cardiac arrest has been reduced significantly since the advent of CPR and the more recent availability of AEDs. Attach the defibrillator cables to the pads if not already connected and place the pads on the patient with one pad placed on the upper right area of the chest and the second pad on the lower left ribs. AEDs have an on-board power system.

After the administration of an iodine-based contrast into a patient, it is important for the technologist to observe the patient for a. urticaria, nausea, shortness of breath, tightening in the throat, and cardiac arrest. b. signs of a reaction such as a metallic taste in the mouth, cold extremities, and bladder swelling. c. excessive salivation, dry eyes, and nasal dryness. d. blurred vision, syncope, and epistaxis.

a. urticaria, nausea, shortness of breath, tightening in the throat, and cardiac arrest. Patients develop localized itching and urticaria (hives) and may experience nausea and vomiting. The most serious reactions might include laryngeal edema, shock, and cardiac arrest. All of these conditions are potentially life threatening and should be handled accordingly.

What type of shock can result from a severe reaction to the contrast media used in radiographic examinations? a. Hypovolemic b. Anaphylactic c. Cardiogenic d. Septic

b. Anaphylactic Anaphylactic shock is a type of vasogenic shock and is most commonly encountered in the radiology department in connection with the administration of iodinated contrast media.

What type of shock is caused by loss of blood from a knife or gunshot wound? a. Septic b. Hypovolemic c. Cardiogenic d. Anaphylactic

b. Hypovolemic Shock is a general term that indicates a failure of the circulatory system to support vital body functions. Hypovolemic shock is caused by a severe loss of blood or tissue fluid which drops the body's blood volumes.

Which of the following is most appropriate for a patient to counteract hypoglycemia? a. Diet soda b. Orange juice c. Protein bar d. Buttered toast

b. Orange juice Hypoglycemia is a condition in which excessive insulin is present. Most patients, especially those who have lived with the condition for a time, recognize the condition before it becomes serious. The patient needs a quick form of carbohydrate, which can include orange juice sweetened with sugar, a sugared soft drink, a candy bar, or any form of carbohydrate.

You have come upon a motor vehicle accident as the first person to arrive. As you assess the victim's level of consciousness, you begin to ask questions and encourage the victim to respond. During your efforts to do so, the victim has no verbal response to any stimuli, but his leg moves with your touch and pinch. This person demonstrates what level of consciousness? a. Alert and responsive b. Unconscious but reflexive c. Drowsy but can be aroused d. Comatose and unresponsive

b. Unconscious but reflexive The patient with the least severe injury is classified as alert and conscious. In most instances, this patient can respond fully to questions and other stimuli. A more seriously injured patient is drowsy but can be roused to response with loud speaking or gentle physical contact. Even more serious injury produces a patient who is unconscious and reacts only to painful stimuli. These patients typically do not respond to verbal stimuli but react to stimuli such as pinches and pinpricks. The most serious condition is that of a patient who is comatose and unresponsive to virtually all stimuli.

To confirm the placement of an NG tube in its proper position, a physician may use a. fluoroscopy for visualization. b. a syringe to remove gastric contents as proof and fluoroscopy for visualization c. a device to measure the length of tubing inserted. d. a syringe to remove gastric contents as proof.

b. a syringe to remove gastric contents as proof and fluoroscopy for visualization Verification of tube placement can be obtained through a variety of methods, including fluoroscopy. Additionally, the physician may use a stethoscope to listen for gastric sounds and, with a syringe, aspirate back gastric contents into an emesis basin.

As you are radiographing a patient from the emergency department who has a knife wound to the upper extremity, you notice that his wound dressing is becoming saturated with blood quickly, and he is getting lightheaded. You should a. tell the patient to lean over to get his arm lower than his heart. b. call for help, apply pressure to the wound site, and elevate his arm. c. remove the dressing to assess the degree of bleeding. d. lay the patient down and begin CPR.

b. call for help, apply pressure to the wound site, and elevate his arm. Some patients come to the radiology department with wounds sustained previously or during surgery. Pressure should be applied directly over the saturated dressing, preferably with an additional sterile bandage pressed against it. When a bleeding wound is on an extremity, the affected extremity may be placed above the level of the heart unless other problems that would contraindicate such a procedure exist.

A disorganized cardiac rhythm in which the ventricle "flutters" and loses cardiac output is called a. pallor. b. fibrillation. c. lethargy. d. syncope.

b. fibrillation. Ventricular fibrillation is a fluttering or ineffective cardiac rhythm that results in the heart's inability to pump blood. Effective ventricular rhythm must be restored within a few minutes to preserve life.

After bedpan use, hygiene of the female patient's perineum is important. Proper cleansing of this region requires using gloves and several folded tissues to wipe the region a. transversely between gluteal folds. b. from the mons pubis to the anus. c. from the anus to the mons pubis. d. in circular motions.

b. from the mons pubis to the anus. The patient may require assistance in cleaning the perineum. For female patients, be sure to wipe from the mons pubis toward the rectal area to avoid contaminating the genital area.

As you arrive into a patient's room for transport to radiology, you notice that the patient has an NG tube in place with a syringe upright and pinned to the gown. You should know that this patient a. has a Levine line that is single lumen. b. has a double-lumen NG tube in place. c. must have the line clamped before transport. d. has a double-lumen NG tube in place and must have the line clamped before transport.

b. has a double-lumen NG tube in place. To prevent leakage from a double-lumen type NG tube, the barrel of a piston-like syringe may be inserted into the suction-drainage lumen, and it is then pinned to the patient's gown with the barrel upward. A double-lumen tube must never be clamped closed because to do so might cause the lumina to adhere to each other and destroy the double-lumen effect.

An effective method to handle a patient with an asthmatic attack during a radiographic procedure would be to a. tell the patient to hold his or her breath for 30 seconds to recover. b. have the patient sit down and allow the patient to use his or her aerosol inhaler. c. tell the patient to breathe faster and with less depth to avoid losing consciousness. d. recognize the patient's situation and work faster to get the examination done so they can use their inhaler sooner.

b. have the patient sit down and allow the patient to use his or her aerosol inhaler. Asthma attacks are often triggered in patients with asthma when they are exposed to stressful situations, such as might be experienced in a radiology department. The radiologic technologist should stop the procedure; assist the patient to a sitting position to support easier respiration; and if the patient has medications available, allow the patient to use them.

When working with burn patients, it is critically important to a. position the patient with Teflon-coated positioning aids. b. use an extraordinary level of aseptic technique. c. spray the burn dressing with lidocaine to relieve the pain. d. not encase the detector in plastic to prevent skin peeling.

b. use an extraordinary level of aseptic technique. Because a burn injury disrupts the normal protective function of the skin, maintaining sterile precautions is imperative. Burns are typically extremely painful injuries; therefore, extra gentle care in handling is also indicated.

When performing CPR on a patient, who is lying supine in a patient bed with a soft mattress, you would first look for what item from the emergency crash cart? a. Benadryl b. Firm sponge pillow Hemostat c. Backboard d. Suction bottle

c. Backboard Position the patient on his or her back on a hard surface to facilitate CPR. A radiographic table is suitable. If the patient is lying on a stretcher, then the backboard from the emergency cart should be used.

What type of shock is caused by a failure of the heart to pump enough blood to the vital organs including the brain? a. Neurogenic b. Septic c. Cardiogenic d. Anaphylactic

c. Cardiogenic Shock is a general term that indicates a failure of the circulatory system to support vital body functions. Cardiogenic shock, caused by a variety of cardiac disorders, including myocardial infarction, causes a major circulatory disruption to the body's vital organs.

Which of the following is a true statement regarding cleansing enemas? a. Cleansing enemas are typically not recommended for inflammatory bowel disease. b. Oil retention enemas are used to "harden" stool material for more complete evacuation. c. Diabetic patients require special colon preparation procedures. d. Standardized colonic preparation protocols are used by all departments performing colon studies.

c. Diabetic patients require special colon preparation procedures. Patients with diabetes require special preparation. Diabetic low-calorie drinks may be added to the standard regimen, and patients with insulin-dependent diabetes often forgo their normal morning insulin dose until after the examination has been completed.

When performing CPR as a single rescuer, a. assess circulation using the temporal artery of the forehead. b. the compression rate is performed at 60 compressions per minute. c. after each group of 30 compressions, give 2 quick ventilations. d. sternal compressions should have a maximum depth of 1 inch.

c. after each group of 30 compressions, give 2 quick ventilations. CPR provides external support for circulation and respiration and consists of three primary aspects—historically known as the ABCs: airway, breathing, and chest compressions. A single rescuer should use 30 compressions alternated with 2 ventilations; the compressions are given at a rate of approximately 100 per minute.

To allow tissue healing from a partial colon resection, a. the patient's colon will be clamped off distal to the resection site. b. the patient is encouraged to sleep in the recumbent, prone position. c. an external stoma is created to allow for defecation. d. the patient will be kept on a liquid diet for the entire recovery period.

c. an external stoma is created to allow for defecation. Because of trauma or a pathologic condition such as cancer, diverticulitis, and ulcerative colitis, formation of a stoma (mouth) from the bowel to the outside of the body may be necessary. A permanent colostomy is performed when a portion of bowel is removed. A temporary colostomy is performed to heal or rest a diseased portion of bowel.

All of the following are related except a. breathing. b. chest compression. c. circulation. d. airway.

c. circulation. In October 2010, new guidelines for CPR were released by the American Heart Association (AHA). CPR provides external support for circulation and respiration and consists of three primary aspects—historically known as the ABCs: airway, breathing, and chest compressions. New guidelines have replaced the ABC order with CAB emphasizing the need, particularly for the non-health care provider, to start chest compressions first.

Currently, in most radiology departments, barium studies of the colon a. require no special colon preparation. b. do not use fluoroscopy and utilize the technology of CT. c. employ carbon dioxide and barium as a double-contrast exam. d. are single-contrast studies using Gastrografin.

c. employ carbon dioxide and barium as a double-contrast exam. In almost all facilities, the double-contrast barium enema (the addition of air or carbon dioxide to provide for two contrasts—barium and the air) has become more of a routine as compared to a single-contrast enema. This type is highly recommended for patients experiencing diarrhea and in high-risk patients—for example, the patient who has polyps, a family history of colorectal cancer, or a personal history of cancer or rectal bleeding.

Nasogastric (NG) tubes are inserted with the patient in the _____ position. a. recumbent, prone b. Trendelenburg c. high Fowler d. Sims'

c. high Fowler Nasogastric (NG) tubes are plastic or rubber tubes inserted through the nasopharynx into the stomach. The patient is placed in a high Fowler position with pillows supporting the head and shoulders.

All of the following are true of virtual colonoscopy except a. hundreds of images are obtained in seconds, permitting the processing of a 3D study of the colon. b. they typically require no sedation or referral from the patient's doctor. c. it is performed using MR technology. d. it is considered a minimally invasive diagnostic study.

c. it is performed using MR technology. Virtual colonoscopy involves no scopes, sedation, recovery time, or referral from your doctor or insurance plan. It is performed on a multislice CT scanner that takes up to 600 two-dimensional (2D) and three-dimensional (3D) images of the colon in just 30 seconds. The combination of 2D and 3D images increases the radiologist's ability to detect and analyze areas of concern.

The Heimlich maneuver is a. used to relieve a suspected small bowel obstruction. b. never used on a pregnant patient. c. modified for infants to include back slaps and chest thrusts. d. None of the above are correct.

c. modified for infants to include back slaps and chest thrusts. In infants younger than 1 year old, Heimlich techniques require a combination of back blows and chest thrusts using the back of the hand and fingers.

When comparing hyperglycemia with hypoglycemia, hyperglycemia a. requires the patient receive a quick form of glucose. b. is typically of rapid onset. c. portrays clinical symptoms of excessive thirst and urination as well as dry mouth. d. indicates a low blood glucose level.

c. portrays clinical symptoms of excessive thirst and urination as well as dry mouth. Hyperglycemia is a condition of excessive sugar in the blood and is the characteristic typically associated with diabetes. This condition develops gradually, and patients exhibit excessive thirst and urination, dry mucosa, rapid and deep breathing, and drowsiness and confusion. These patients need insulin.

The administration of glucagon shortly before a double-contrast barium enema is intended to a. cause the gallbladder to empty. b. increase peristalsis to improve bowel motility. c. relieve bowel spasm. d. increase liver function and the release of glycogen.

c. relieve bowel spasm. In almost all facilities, the double-contrast barium has become routine. This type of enema is highly recommended for patients experiencing diarrhea or with suspected colorectal cancer or rectal bleeding. The patient often receives an injection of a smooth muscle relaxant such as glucagon immediately before the examination to relieve bowel spasm.

When performing a single-contrast barium enema examination, a. continue emptying the barium solution as the patient cramps to encourage peristalsis. b. show the patient the entire volume of enema solution to prepare him or her for the study. c. suspend the enema bag above the table at a height no greater than 30 inches. d. encourage the patient to use short breaths or gasps and to tighten abdominal movements, similar to a bowel movement.

c. suspend the enema bag above the table at a height no greater than 30 inches. Because greater pressure is required to secure an adequate flow rate, the bag is usually suspended at a distance, up to 30 inches above the table. Due to gravity, the higher the bag is positioned, the faster the suspension liquid enters the rectum and colon. Severe abdominal cramping may result from excessive height, and rupturing of diverticula in the colon may result from excessive fluid pressure.

When performing two-person CPR, a. compressions are at a rate of 60 per minute. b. compressions are paused briefly to give two ventilations. c. the rescuers remain at their positions to ensure continuity of compressions. d. All of the above are correct.

c. the rescuers remain at their positions to ensure continuity of compressions. The protocol for CPR with two rescuers is similar to single-person CPR, but each rescuer independently performs compressions or ventilations with periodic switches of position.

All of the following are true of cleansing enemas except a. they are complete when bowel contents are clear and free of fecal matter. b. they promote the defecation reflex and discharge. c. they are intended for the administration of enteric medications. d. hydrating patients is a significant concern for patients undergoing a cleansing enema.

c. they are intended for the administration of enteric medications. A cleansing enema is used to promote defecation and naturally is not done to administer medications. For any examination that evaluates the colon, the bowel should be clear and free of fecal material. A diet of clear liquids maintains vital body fluids, salts, and minerals. Consumption of clear liquids also provides some energy for patients when normal food consumption must be interrupted. Several types of enemas may be used depending on the situation.

Providing care in an emergency situation is intended to 1. prepare the injured patient for surgery. 2. prevent further harm to the patient. 3. preserve life. 4. place the patient into a sedated state for transport. 5. stabilize the patient until the appropriate medical assistance arrives. a. 3, 4, and 5 only b. 1, 4, and 5 only c. 1, 3, 4, and 5 only d. 2, 3, and 5 only

d. 2, 3, and 5 only An emergency is a situation in which the condition of a patient or a sudden change in medical status requires immediate action. Emergency actions on the part of the radiologic technologist generally have the objectives of preserving life, avoiding further harm to the patient, and obtaining appropriate medical assistance as quickly as possible.

Post-procedural care for patients who have had a colon examination should include a. instructions for maintaining hydration. b. an increase in fluid intake and dietary fiber for a few days after the examination. c. an awareness of the change in stool color to an ashen gray color and the importance of eliminating the barium during defecation. d. All of the above

d. All of the above Post-procedural instructions to the patient are extremely important after a barium enema because barium retention can cause fecal impaction or intestinal obstruction. Barium has hydroscopic qualities, which means that it will absorb fluid from the bowel. Extreme dehydration as a result of preparation for the examination is another possible post-procedural complication. Stools are typically white or light-colored until all of the barium is expelled. The patient should increase fluid intake and dietary fiber for several days unless medically contraindicated and should be instructed to rest after the examination.

In preparation for any emergent situation, the professional technologist should become familiar with a. the location of and access to the crash cart. b. automatic external defibrillator (AED) operation. c. institutional numbers for emergency code announcements. d. All of the above

d. All of the above Radiologic technologists should never underestimate their ability to contribute to a patient's survival and well-being through quick thinking and appropriate action. The technologist should keep in mind the location of a crash cart, AED and its operation and emergency paging procedures, as well as remaining vigilant.

Symptoms of a head injury include a. respiratory distress. b. change in state of consciousness. c. patient is lethargic. d. All of the above

d. All of the above The technologist should quickly assess a patient with a head injury to note if his or her level of consciousness deteriorates. Findings in an alert or drowsy patient that can signify a deteriorating head injury include irritability, lethargy, slowing pulse rate, and slowing respiratory rate.

CPR can be stopped when a. the rescuer is physically exhausted. b. a physician says it's time to stop CPR. c. the patient responds and shows signs of recovery. d. All of the above are correct.

d. All of the above are correct. After it is begun, basic life support should (and for legal reasons, must) be continued until the victim resumes spontaneous respiration and circulation, a physician or other responsible health care professional calls a halt or the rescuer is too exhausted to continue.

What is the first thing you should do if a patient who is standing turns pale and says he feels dizzy? a. Quickly take the exposure and get an emesis basin. b. Have the patient lean against the radiographic table. c. Have the patient inhale ammonia. d. Have the patient lie down.

d. Have the patient lie down. A patient who experiences vertigo should be assisted to a seated or recumbent position, which prevents injury from falling as a result of problems with equilibrium.

The use of a water-soluble contrast agent such as Gastrografin for a colon examination is warranted for patients with a. pancreatitis. b. an intussusception. c. diverticulosis. d. a possible bowel perforation.

d. a possible bowel perforation. When perforation of the bowel is suspected, water-soluble iodine compounds, such as Gastrografin, are the only acceptable contrast media. These compounds also are used in a variety of other cases in which administration of barium sulfate can prove hazardous.

When a barium examination of an ostomy patient is performed, a. glucagon is never given to such patients. b. the patient is imaged in the prone position. c. a larger volume of barium is used to allow for leakage around the stoma site. d. allow the patient to insert the enema cone-tip into the stoma orifice.

d. allow the patient to insert the enema cone-tip into the stoma orifice. The procedure for administering a barium enema to a patient with a colostomy differs somewhat from that for the regular examination because of the lack of a sphincter. The main problem with barium administration through a colostomy is trying to prevent leakage without damaging the colostomy. A cone-shaped tip with a long drainage bag that attaches to it is frequently preferred. The radiologic technologist typically lubricates the tip of the cone and hands it to the patient for insertion. If the patient is unable to perform the insertion, the radiologist, who also tapes the device in place, performs the task.

To diagnose the condition of colitis, a. double-contrast colon studies are recommended without fluoroscopic assessment. b. single-contrast barium enema studies are considered the "gold-standard." c. patients are heavily sedated to prevent motion and bowel motility. d. colonoscopy is the preferred diagnostic study.

d. colonoscopy is the preferred diagnostic study. Today, colonoscopy, virtual colonoscopy, and magnetic resonance imaging are performed most often due to their overall effectiveness, especially in the identification of polyps, cancers, and detecting colitis.

In preparation for a barium examination of a colostomy patient, it is important to a. tell the patient to not take their bismuth anti-odor tablets before the examination. b. understand the sensitivity of these patients to their condition and lifestyle change. c. irrigate the stoma the night before and morning of the examination. d. do all of the above.

d. do all of the above. A patient with a colostomy needs special instructions for adequate preparation. In most patients, the stoma is irrigated the night before and the morning of the examination. Dietary and laxative preparations also vary depending on the ostomy. The patient with a colostomy must be instructed, for example, not to take bismuth subgallate tablets—as he or she may normally do to control odor—because these are radiopaque.

When transporting a patient with a NG tube to medical imaging, a. confirm the suction pressure before disconnecting the tube. b. make sure the NG tube is secured to the patient's nose. c. confirm the allowable time for suction interruption. d. do all of the abov

d. do all of the above. If a patient is to be transferred, then the radiologic technologist must first confirm that the physician has given an order allowing the transfer and interruption of suctioning. The length of time that suction can be interrupted safely also must be known as well as the level of suction pressure required.

CPR performed on an infant a. uses a ventilation depth comparable to an adult. b. requires chest compressions of 1 to 2 inches. c. is done at a higher rate with more ventilations because of a higher respiratory and cardiac rate for infants. d. is the same as on an adult but adjusted based on patient size.

d. is the same as on an adult but adjusted based on patient size. The CPR procedure for infants and children is basically the same as that for adults, with adjustments made in the volume of air delivered during artificial breathing, the placement of the hands, and the depth of depression of the sternum during external chest compressions.

NG tubes are inserted through the patient's _____ with the end of the tube placed in the _____. a. mouth; ileum b. mouth; duodenum c. oropharynx; stomach d. nasopharynx; stomach

d. nasopharynx; stomach NG tubes are plastic or rubber tubes inserted through the nasopharynx into the stomach. The primary use of an NG tube is for administration of medications and gastric decompression or removal of flatus and fluids from the stomach after intestinal obstruction or major trauma.

The most common type of nasogastric tube used for stomach decompression is the a. peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). b. Swan-Ganz catheter. c. double-lumen valvular Clevis tube. d. single-lumen Levin tube.

d. single-lumen Levin tube. The most common NG tube used for gastric decompression is the Levin tube, which is a single-lumen tube with several holes near its tip.

For a single-contrast barium enema, a. a post-evacuation image is taken 24 hours later to assess emptying. b. air or carbon dioxide is used as a contrast agent. c. approximately 500 mL of barium is used for an adult. d. spot images of the cecum, hepatic flexure, splenic flexure, and sigmoid are taken.

d. spot images of the cecum, hepatic flexure, splenic flexure, and sigmoid are taken. In a typical single-contrast barium enema, the suspension is run in slowly with compression applied to the abdomen. Approximately 1500 mL of barium is required for the average adult barium enema, and spot views of the cecum, flexures, and sigmoid colon are taken.

When working with a nonambulatory male patient who needs to void, a. ask the patient how much assistance he feels he needs and allow him to use a urinal. b. after the patient has voided, record the volume of urine in the patient's chart if documentation is required. c. dispose of the urine in the toilet and rinse the urinal with cold water. d. remove your disposable gloves, wash your hands, and place the soiled urinal in a receptacle for resterilization. e. do all of the above.

e. do all of the above. If the patient is able to help himself, the imaging professional simply hands him an aseptic urinal and allows him to use it, providing privacy whenever possible. When he has finished, the radiologic technologist should put on clean disposable gloves, remove the urinal, empty it, and rinse it with cold water. If the patient's urinary output needs to be documented, note the level of urine indicated by the measurement scale on the side of the urinal and record it in the patient's chart. The urinal is then placed with the soiled supplies to be resterilized.