CH 31
A client is taking isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol for tuberculosis. The client calls to report visual changes, including blurred vision and reduced visual fields. Which medication may be causing these changes? Ethambutol Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Rifampin
A Ethambutol can cause optic neuritis, leading to blindness at high doses. When discovered early and the drug is stopped, problems can usually be reversed. Both isoniazid and pyrazinamide may cause liver failure; side effects of major concern include jaundice, bleeding, and abdominal pain. Rifampin will cause the urine and all other secretions to have a yellowish-orange color; this is harmless. Contact lenses will also be stained and oral contraceptives will be less effective.
The medical-surgical unit has one negative-airflow room. Which of these four clients who have just arrived on the unit should the charge nurse admit to this room? Client with bacterial pneumonia and a cough productive of green sputum Client with neutropenia and pneumonia caused by Candida albicans Client with possible pulmonary tuberculosis who currently has hemoptysis Client with right empyema who has a chest tube and a fever of 103.2° F
C A client with possible tuberculosis should be admitted to the negative-airflow room to prevent airborne transmission of tuberculosis. A client with bacterial pneumonia does not require a negative-airflow room but should be placed in Droplet Precautions. A client with neutropenia should be in a room with positive airflow. The client with a right empyema who also has a chest tube and a fever should be placed in Contact Precautions but does not require a negative-airflow room.
An older adult resident in a long-term-care facility becomes confused and agitated, telling the nurse, "Get out of here! You're going to kill me!" Which action will the nurse take first? Check the resident's oxygen saturation. Do a complete neurologic assessment. Give the prescribed PRN lorazepam (Ativan). Notify the resident's primary care provider.
A A common reason for sudden confusion in older clients is hypoxemia caused by undiagnosed pneumonia. The nurse's first action should be to assess oxygenation by checking the pulse oximetry. Determining the cause of the confusion is the primary goal of the RN. A complete neurologic examination may give the RN other indicators of the cause for the client's confusion and agitation; this will take several minutes to complete. Administering lorazepam may make the client more confused and agitated because antianxiety drugs may cause a paradoxical reaction, or opposite effect, in some older clients. Depending on the results of the client's pulse oximetry and neurologic examination, notifying the primary care provider may be an appropriate next step.
A client is being admitted for pneumonia. The sputum culture is positive for streptococcus, and the client asks about the length of the treatment. On what does the nurse base the answer? The client will be treated for 5 to 7 days. The client will require IV antibiotics for 7 to 10 days. The client will complete 6 days of therapy. The client must be afebrile for 24 hours.
A Anti-infectives usually are used for 5 to 7 days in uncomplicated community-acquired pneumonia, and for up to 21 days in an immunocompromised client or one with hospital-acquired pneumonia. A client may become afebrile early in the course of treatment with anti-infective medications; this may cause many clients to fail to complete their course of treatment.
The community health nurse is planning tuberculosis treatment for a client who is homeless and heroin-addicted. Which action will be most effective in ensuring that the client completes treatment? Arrange for a health care worker to watch the client take the medication. Give the client written instructions about how to take prescribed medications. Have the client repeat medication names and side effects. Instruct the client about the possible consequences of nonadherence.
A Because this client is unlikely to adhere to long-term treatment unless directly supervised while taking medications, the best option is to arrange for directly observed therapy. Giving a client who is homeless and addicted to heroin written instructions on how to take prescribed medications is placing too much responsibility on the client to follow through. Also, the question does not indicate whether the client can read. The fact that the client can state the names and side effects of medications does not mean that the client understands what the medications are and why he or she needs to take them. A client who is homeless may be more concerned with obtaining shelter and food than with properly taking his or her medication.
A 70-year-old client has a complicated medical history, including chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which client statement indicates the need for further teaching about the disease? "I am here to receive the yearly pneumonia shot again." "I am here to get my yearly flu shot again." "I should avoid large gatherings during cold and flu season." "I should cough into my upper sleeve instead of my hand."
A Clients 65 years and older, as well as those who have chronic health problems, should be encouraged to receive the pneumonia vaccine, which is not given annually but only once. Older clients are encouraged to receive a flu shot annually because the vaccine changes, depending on anticipated strains for the upcoming year. It is a good idea to avoid large gatherings during cold and flu season. New recommendations from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for controlling the spread of flu include coughing or sneezing into the upper sleeve rather than into the hand.
A client who has been homeless and has spent the past 6 months living in shelters has been diagnosed with confirmed tuberculosis (TB). Which medications does the nurse expect to be ordered for the client? Isoniazid (INH), rifampin (Rifadin), pyrazinamide (Zinamide), ethambutol (Myambutol) Metronidazole (Flagyl), acyclovir (Zovirax), flunisolide (AeroBid), rifampin (Rifadin) Prednisone (Prednisone), guaifenesin (Organidin), ketorolac (Toradol), pyrazinamide (Zinamide) Salmeterol (Serevent), cromolyn sodium (Intal), dexamethasone (Decadron), isoniazid (INH)
A The combination of isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol is used to treat TB. Metronidazole is used to treat anaerobic bacteria and some parasites, but is not effective against TB. Acyclovir is used to treat viral infection. Flunisolide is a corticosteroid that is useful in asthma or other airway disease to prevent wheezing. Prednisone is a steroid. Guaifenesin is a mucolytic. Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is used for short-term pain relief. Salmeterol and cromolyn sodium would most likely be given to clients with respiratory difficulties such as poorly controlled asthma from allergic sources. Dexamethasone is a steroid.
A client has recently been released from prison and has just tested positive for tuberculosis (TB). What teaching points does the community health nurse want to stress for this client regarding medications? (Select all that apply.) Not taking the medication could lead to an infection that is difficult to treat or to total drug resistance. The medications may cause nausea. The client should take them at bedtime. The client is generally not contagious after 2 to 3 consecutive weeks of treatment. These medications must be taken for 2 years. These medications may cause kidney failure.
AB Not taking the medication as prescribed could lead to an infection that is difficult to treat or to total drug resistance. The medications may cause nausea and are best taken at bedtime to prevent this. The client is generally not contagious after 2 to 3 weeks of consecutive treatment and improvement in the condition has been observed. The combination regimen for treatment of TB has decreased treatment time from 6 to 12 months to 6 months. TB medications may cause liver failure, not kidney failure.
A client with tuberculosis (TB) who is homeless and has been living in shelters for the past 6 months asks the nurse why he must take so many medications. What information will the nurse provide in answering this question? (Select all that apply.) Combination drug therapy is effective in preventing transmission. Combination drug therapy is the most effective method of treating TB. Combination drug therapy will decrease the length of required treatment to 2 months. Multiple drug regimens destroy organisms as quickly as possible. The use of multiple drugs reduces the emergence of drug-resistant organisms.
ABDE Combination drug therapy is the most effective method for treating TB and preventing transmission. Multiple drug regimens are able to destroy organisms as quickly as possible and reduce the emergence of drug-resistant organisms. Although combination drug therapy will decrease the required length of time for treatment, the length of treatment is decreased to 6 months from 6 to 12 months.
An older client presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of cough, pain on inspiration, shortness of breath, and dyspnea. The client never had a pneumococcal vaccine. The client's chest x-ray shows density in both bases. The client has wheezing upon auscultation of both lungs. Would a bronchodilator be beneficial for this client? It would not be beneficial for this client. It would help decrease the bronchospasm. It would clear up the density in the bases of the client's lungs. It would decrease the client's pain on inspiration.
B A bronchodilator would help decrease bronchospasm and would open up the airways, so it would be beneficial for this client. It would decrease dyspnea and feelings of shortness of breath. A bronchodilator would not be able to clear up the density in the bases of the client's lung. The cause of the density is unknown; however, an infection such as pneumonia is likely, which bronchodilators do not treat. Although a bronchodilator would help a client breathe easier, it does not have any analgesic properties.
A client with pneumonia caused by aspiration after alcohol intoxication has just been admitted. The client is febrile and agitated. Which health care provider order should the nurse implement first? Administer levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV. Draw aerobic and anaerobic blood cultures. Give lorazepam (Ativan) as needed for agitation. Refer to social worker for alcohol counseling.
B Obtaining aerobic and anaerobic cultures is the first action the nurse should perform and is standard procedure in a febrile client for whom antibiotics have been requested. Levofloxacin, an antibiotic, is important to administer, but blood cultures should be drawn before antibiotics are started. Unless this client is a danger to self or staff, giving lorazepam (Ativan) for agitation is not the first action; the question indicates that the client is agitated but does not indicate whether other attempts to control agitation have been tried, such as decreasing stimulation. A referral to social work for alcohol counseling will be initiated before the time of discharge; this client is febrile and agitated, and a referral is not the immediate concern.
Which symptom of pneumonia may present differently in the older adult than in the younger adult? Crackles on auscultation Fever Headache Wheezing
B Older adults may not have fever and may have a lower-than-normal temperature with pneumonia. Crackles on auscultation may be present in all age groups as the result of fluid in the lungs. All age ranges may have a headache with pneumonia. Wheezing is an indication of narrowed airways and can be found in all age groups.
A client is being discharged home with active tuberculosis. Which information does the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan? "You are not contagious unless you stop taking your medication." "You will not be contagious to the people you have been living with." "You will have to take these medications for at least 1 year." "Your sputum may turn a rust color as your condition gets better."
B The people the client has been living with have already been exposed and need to be tested. They cannot be re-exposed simply because the diagnosis has now been confirmed. The client with active tuberculosis is contagious, even while taking medication. The length of time for treatment is 6 months. Fluid from the pulmonary capillaries and red blood cells moving into the alveoli is a result of the inflammatory process. Rust-colored sputum is an indication that the tuberculosis is getting worse.
Which method is the best way to prevent outbreaks of pandemic influenza? Avoiding public gatherings at all times Early recognition and quarantine Vaccinating everyone with pneumonia vaccine Widespread distribution of antiviral drugs
B The recommended approach to disease prevention consists of early recognition of new cases and implementing community and personal quarantine to reduce exposure to the virus. Public gatherings should be avoided only if a widespread outbreak has occurred in a community. No vaccine is available for pandemic influenza. The pneumonia vaccine is recommended for high-risk populations because pneumonia may be a complication of influenza. The current influenza vaccine is updated, re-evaluated, and changed yearly to meet anticipated changes in the virus. When a cluster of cases is discovered in an area, the antiviral drugs oseltamivir (Tamiflu) and zanamivir (Relenza) should be widely distributed to help reduce the severity of the infection and to decrease mortality.
Which of these clients should the charge nurse assign to the LPN/LVN working on the medical-surgical unit? Client with group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal pharyngitis who has stridor Client with pulmonary tuberculosis who is receiving multiple medications Client with sinusitis who has just arrived after having endoscopic sinus surgery Client with tonsillitis who has a thick-sounding voice and difficulty swallowing
BThe LPN/LVN scope of practice includes medication administration, so a client receiving multiple medications can be managed appropriately by an LPN/LVN. Stridor is an indication of respiratory distress; this client needs to be managed by the RN. A client in the immediate postoperative period requires frequent assessments by the RN to watch for deterioration. A client with a thick-sounding voice and difficulty swallowing is at risk for deterioration and needs careful assessment and monitoring by the RN.
The nurse is preparing a client for discharge who has undergone percutaneous needle aspiration of a peritonsillar abscess. Which is most important to teach the client about follow-up care? Completing the antibiotic medication regimen Taking pain medications every 4 to 6 hours Contacting the provider if the throat feels more swollen Using warm saline gargles and irrigations
C Clients with peritonsillar abscess are at risk for airway obstruction due to swelling and should notify the provider if signs of obstruction occur, such as stridor or drooling. It is important to complete the antibiotics to treat the infection, and to adhere to comfort measures such as analgesic medications and saline gargles, but none of these is the most important thing to teach the client.
A client is admitted to the emergency department (ED) with a possible diagnosis of avian influenza ("bird flu"). Which of these actions included in the hospital protocol for avian influenza will the nurse take first? Ensure that ED staff members receive oseltamivir (Tamiflu). Obtain specimens for the H5 polymerase chain reaction test. Place the client in a negative air pressure room. Start an IV line and administer rehydration therapy.
C If a client is exhibiting symptoms of avian flu or any other pandemic influenza, he or she is assumed to be contagious until proven otherwise. Preventing the spread of disease to the community is the top priority, so placing the client in a negative air pressure room is the nurse's first action. If avian influenza is diagnosed, it is important that those exposed receive oseltamivir or zanamivir (Relenza) within 48 hours of contact with the client. Obtaining specimens will be important to determine whether the client has avian influenza; this test takes approximately 40 minutes to complete. A client with avian flu will become dehydrated because of diarrhea, so starting an IV to administer rehydration fluid is important, but is not the first priority.
A local hunter is admitted to the intensive care unit with a diagnosis of inhalation anthrax. Which medications does the RN anticipate the health care provider will order? Amoxicillin (Amoxil, Triamox) 500 mg orally every 8 hours Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 2 g IV every 8 hours Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 400 mg IV every 12 hours Pyrazinamide (Zinamide) 1000 to 2000 mg orally every day
C Intravenous ciprofloxacin (Cipro) is a first-line drug for treatment of inhaled anthrax. A dose of 400 mg IV every 12 hours is typically used for treatment of anthrax, while a dose of 500 mg orally twice daily is usually prescribed for anthrax prophylaxis. Oral doses of amoxicillin are used only as prophylaxis, not as treatment, for inhaled anthrax. Cephalosporins such as ceftriaxone are not used for treatment of anthrax. Pyrazinamide (Zinamide) is used for treatment of tuberculosis.
A client who has recently traveled to Vietnam comes to the emergency department with fatigue, lethargy, night sweats, and a low-grade fever. What is the nurse's first action? Contact the health care provider for tuberculosis (TB) medications. Perform a TB skin test. Place a respiratory mask on the client. Test all family members for TB.
C The concern is that this client has TB. A respiratory mask should be placed on the client immediately. Requesting medications for TB is not appropriate until the client has been evaluated and a diagnosis has been made. Performing a TB test will be important, but this is not the top priority. It is important to remember to let the client know that results will not be available for at least 48 hours after the test is administered. Further testing of this client needs to be completed and a diagnosis made before family members are tested.
A client comes to the emergency department with a sore throat. Examination reveals redness and swelling of the pharyngeal mucous membranes. Which diagnostic test does the nurse expect will be requested first? Chest x-ray Complete blood count (CBC) Tuberculosis (TB) skin test Throat culture
D A throat culture is important for distinguishing a viral infection from a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection. A chest x-ray or TB skin test is not indicated by the symptoms given. A CBC might be indicated to evaluate infection and dehydration, but would not be the first action.
The nurse notices a visitor walking into the room of a client on airborne isolation with no protective gear. What does the nurse do? Ensures that the client is wearing a mask Tells the visitor that the client cannot receive visitors at this time Provides a particulate air respirator to the visitor Provides a mask to the visitor
D Because the visitor is entering the client's isolation environment, the visitor must wear a mask. The client typically must wear a mask only when he or she is outside of an isolation environment. Turning the visitor away is inappropriate and unnecessary. It would not be necessary for the visitor to wear an air respirator.
The nurse is preparing to admit an adult client with pertussis. Which symptom does the nurse anticipate finding in this client? "Whooping" after a cough Hemoptysis Mild cold-like symptoms Post-cough emesis
D Clients with pertussis will have paroxysms of coughing often followed by changes in color and/or vomiting. Adults do not usually have the characteristic whooping sound associated with coughing that children with pertussis exhibit. Hemoptysis may occur after the acute phase when changes in the respiratory mucosa occur. Mild, cold-like symptoms occur in the initial stages of pertussis and generally do not require hospitalization.
Community health nurses are tasked with providing education on prevention of respiratory infection for diseases such as the flu. Which target audience is given the highest priority? Homeless people Hospital staff Politicians Prison staff and inmates
D High-risk groups for respiratory infection include those who live in crowded areas such as long-term care facilities, prisons, and mental health facilities. Although homeless people are a high priority, they are not the group at greatest risk of those listed. Education could be provided in shelters or during outreach activities. Hospital staff are at risk owing to their contact with ill clients and family members; however, they are already aware of how to prevent respiratory infection. Politicians are not at higher risk for respiratory infection than any other group with public exposure.
The nurse has taught a client about influenza infection control. Which client statement indicates the need for further teaching? "Handwashing is the best way to prevent transmission." "I should avoid kissing and shaking hands." "It is best to cough and sneeze into my upper sleeve." "The intranasal vaccine can be given to everybody in the family."
D The intranasal flu vaccine is approved for healthy clients ages 2 to 49 who are not pregnant. Washing hands frequently is the best way to prevent the spread of illnesses such as the flu. Avoiding kissing and shaking hands are two ways to prevent transmission of the flu. A new recommendation from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for controlling the spread of the flu is to sneeze or cough into the upper sleeve rather than into the hand.
The nurse is caring for a client with severe acute respiratory syndrome. What is the most important precaution the nurse should take when preparing to suction this client? Keeping the head of the bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees Performing oral care after suctioning the oropharynx Washing hands and donning gloves prior to the procedure Wearing a disposable particulate mask respirator and protective eyewear
D To protect health care workers during procedures that induce coughing or promote aerosolization of particles, nurses should wear a particulate mask respirator and protective eyewear to prevent the spread of infectious organisms. Keeping the head of the bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees is not the most important precaution. Performing oral care is a comfort measure. Washing hands and donning gloves is necessary, but not the most important measure.