CH 49 Assessment and Management of Patients With Hepatic Disorders

A client with liver and renal failure has severe ascites. On initial shift rounds, his primary nurse finds his indwelling urinary catheter collection bag too full to store more urine. The nurse empties more than 2,000 ml from the collection bag. One hour later, she finds the collection bag full again. The nurse notifies the physician, who suspects that a bladder rupture is allowing the drainage of peritoneal fluid. The physician orders a urinalysis to be obtained immediately. The presence of which substance is considered abnormal?

Albumin Explanation: Albumin is an abnormal finding in a routine urine specimen. Ascites present in liver failure contain albumin; therefore, if the bladder ruptured, ascites containing albumin would drain from the indwelling urinary catheter because the catheter is no longer contained in the bladder. Creatinine, urobilinogen, and chloride are normally found in urine.

A nurse is teaching a client about the types of chronic liver disease. The teaching is determined to be effective when the client correctly identifies which type of cirrhosis as being caused by scar tissue surrounding portal areas?

Alcoholic cirrhosis, in which the scar tissue characteristically surrounds the portal areas, is most frequently caused by chronic alcoholism and is the most common type of cirrhosis. In postnecrotic cirrhosis, there are broad bands of scar tissue, which are a late result of a previous acute viral hepatitis. In biliary cirrhosis, scarring occurs in the liver around the bile ducts. Compensated cirrhosis is a general term given to the state of liver disease in which the liver continues to be able to function effectively.

The single modality of pharmacologic therapy for chronic type B viral hepatitis is:

Alpha-interferon Explanation: Alpha-interferon is a biologic response modifier that is highly effective for treatment of hepatitis B. The other antiviral agents are effective but not the preferred single-agent therapy.

Which type of deficiency results in macrocytic anemia?

Folic acid Explanation: Folic acid deficiency results in macrocytic anemia. Vitamin C deficiency results in hemorrhagic lesions of scurvy. Vitamin A deficiency results in night blindness and eye and skin changes. Vitamin K deficiency results in hypoprothrombinemia, which is characterized by spontaneous bleeding and ecchymosis.

A nurse is preparing a presentation for a local community group about hepatitis. Which of the following would the nurse include?

Hepatitis C increases a person's risk for liver cancer. Explanation: Infection with hepatitis C increases the risk of a person developing hepatic (liver) cancer. Hepatitis A is transmitted primarily by the oral-fecal route; hepatitis B is frequently spread by sexual contact and infected blood. Hepatitis E is similar to hepatitis A whereas hepatitis G is similar to hepatitis C

After undergoing a liver biopsy, a client should be placed in which position?

Right lateral decubitus position Explanation: After a liver biopsy, the client is placed on the right side (right lateral decubitus position) to exert pressure on the liver and prevent bleeding. Semi-Fowler's position and the supine and prone positions wouldn't achieve this goal.

When assessing a client with obstructive jaundice, which of the following stool characteristics is the client likely to report?

Clay-colored or whitish Explanation: Many clients report passing clay-colored or whitish stools as a result of no bile in the gastrointestinal tract. The other stool colors would not be indicators of obstructive jaundice but may indicate other GI tract disorders.

While conducting a physical examination of a client, which of the following skin findings would alert the nurse to the liklihood of liver problems? Select all that apply.

Jaundice Petechiae Ecchymoses Explanation: The skin, mucosa, and sclerae are inspected for jaundice. The nurse observes the skin for petechiae or ecchymotic areas (bruises), spider angiomas, and palmar erythema. Cyanosis of the lips is indicative of a problem with respiratory or cardiovascular dysfunction. Aphthous stomatitis is a term for mouth ulcers and is a gastrointestinal abnormal finding.

The nurse is caring for a client with hepatitis. Which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect that the client is in the prodromal phase?

Rash Explanation: During the prodromal or preicteric phase, the following signs and symptoms would be noted: urticaria; nausea; vomiting; anorexia; fever; malaise; arthralgia; headache; right upper quadrant (RUQ) discomfort; enlargement of the spleen, liver, and lymph nodes; weight loss; and rash. Jaundice and clay-colored stools would be characteristic of the icteric phase. Liver function tests returning to normal would be noted in the posticteric phase.

A client with liver cirrhosis develops ascites. Which medication will the nurse prepare teaching for this client?

Spironolactone Explanation: The use of diuretic agents along with sodium restriction is successful in 90% of clients with ascites. Spironolactone, an aldosterone-blocking agent, is most often the first-line therapy in clients with ascites from cirrhosis. When used with other diuretic agents, spironolactone helps prevent potassium loss. Oral diuretic agents such as furosemide may be added but should be used cautiously because long-term use may induce severe hyponatremia (sodium depletion). Acetazolamide and ammonium chloride are contraindicated because of the possibility of precipitating hepatic encephalopathy and coma.

Gynecomastia is a common side effect of which of the following diuretics?

Spironolactone Explanation: Gynecomastia is a common side effect caused by spironolactone. Vasopressin is used for bleeding esophageal varices and is not a diuretic. Nitroglycerin (IV) may be used with vasopressin to counteract the effects of vasoconstriction from the vasopressin.

Which medication is used to decrease portal pressure, halting bleeding of esophageal varices?

Vasopressin Explanation: Vasopressin may be the initial therapy for esophageal varices because it constricts the splanchnic arterial bed and decreases portal hypertension. Nitroglycerin has been used to prevent the side effects of vasopressin. Spironolactone and cimetidine do not decrease portal hypertension.

A client with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following should a nurse administer to the client before surgery?

Vitamin K Explanation: Clients with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas typically require vitamin K before surgery to correct a prothrombin deficiency. Potassium would be given only if the client's serum potassium levels were low. Oral bile acids are not prescribed for a client with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas; they are given to dissolve gallstones. Vitamin B has no implications in the surgery.

Which of the following is the most effective strategy to prevent hepatitis B infection?

Vaccine Explanation: The most effective strategy to prevent hepatitis B infection is through vaccination. Recommendations to prevent transmission of hepatitis B include vaccination of sexual contacts of individuals with chronic hepatitis, use of barrier protection during sexual intercourse, avoidance of sharing toothbrushes, razors with others, and covering open sores or skin lesions

A client is admitted for suspected GI disease. Assessment data reveal muscle wasting, a decrease in chest and axillary hair, and increased bleeding tendency. The nurse suspects the client has:

Muscle wasting, a decrease in chest and axillary hair, and increased bleeding tendencies are all symptoms of cirrhosis. The client may also have mild fever, edema, abdominal pain, and an enlarged liver. Clients with peptic ulcer disease complain of a dull, gnawing epigastric pain that's relieved by eating. Appendicitis is characterized by a periumbilical pain that moves to the right lower quadrant and rebound tenderness. Cholelithiasis is characterized by severe abdominal pain that presents several hours after a large meal.

A patient who had a recent myocardial infarction was brought to the emergency department with bleeding esophageal varices and is presently receiving fluid resuscitation. What first-line pharmacologic therapy does the nurse anticipate administering to control the bleeding from the varices?

Octreotide (Sandostatin) Explanation: Octreotide (Sandostatin), a synthetic analogue of the hormone somatostatin, is effective in decreasing bleeding from esophageal varices, and lacks the vasoconstrictive effects of vasopressin. Because of this safety and efficacy profile, octreotide is considered the preferred treatment regimen for immediate control of variceal bleeding.

What is the recommended dietary treatment for a client with chronic cholecystitis?

low-fat diet Explanation: The bile secreted from the gallbladder helps the body absorb and break down dietary fats. If the gallbladder is not functioning properly, then it will not secrete enough bile to help digest the dietary fat. This can lead to further complications; therefore, a diet low in fat can be used to prevent complications.

A client with acute liver failure exhibits confusion, a declining level of consciousness, and slowed respirations. The nurse finds him very difficult to arouse. The diagnostic information which best explains the client's behavior is:

In acute liver failure, serum ammonia levels increase because the liver can't adequately detoxify the ammonia produced in the GI tract. In addition, serum glucose levels decline because the liver isn't capable of releasing stored glucose. Elevated serum ammonia and subnormal serum glucose levels depress the level of a client's consciousness. Elevated liver enzymes, low serum protein level, subnormal clotting factors and platelet count, elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatine levels, and hyperglycemia aren't as directly related to the client's level of consciousness.

A client has undergone a liver biopsy. After the procedure, the nurse should place the client in which position?

On the right side Explanation: Immediately after the biopsy, assist the client to turn on to the right side; place a pillow under the costal margin, and caution the client to remain in this position. In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest wall, and the escape of blood or bile through the perforation made for the biopsy is impeded. Positioning the client on the left side is not indicated. Positioning the client in the Trendelenburg position may be indicated if the client is in shock, but it is not the position designed for the client after liver biopsy. The high Fowler position is not indicated for the client after liver biopsy.

The nurse is caring for a patient with ascites due to cirrhosis of the liver. What position does the nurse understand will activate the renin-angiotensin aldosterone and sympathetic nervous system and decrease responsiveness to diuretic therapy?

Upright Explanation: In patients with ascites, an upright posture is associated with activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and sympathetic nervous system (Porth & Matfin, 2009). This causes reduced renal glomerular filtration and sodium excretion and a decreased response to loop diuretics.

A nurse is assessing a postoperative client for hemorrhage. What responses associated with the compensatory stage of shock should be reported to the healthcare provider?

tachycardia and tachypnea Explanation: The compensatory stage is the first stage of shock. During this stage, the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) is activated due to changes in blood volume and blood pressure. The SNS stimulates the cardiovascular system, causing tachycardia, and the respiratory system, causing tachypnea. Thus, tachycardia (not bradycardia) and tachypnea (not bradypnea) occur with the compensatory stage of shock.