Ch. 6 Practice Questions

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28) Which of the following fontanels is found at the junctions between the squamous suture and the coronal suture? A) sphenoidal B) anterior C) lambdoid D) mastoid E) posterior

A) sphenoidal

3) Being in a car accident may cause the steering wheel to hit the driver very forcefully in the chest. If the damage is severe enough, the ribs may break and puncture the thoracic cavity. What is such an injury called? What symptoms and the anatomical injuries would occur?

Answer: If broken ribs have punctured the pleural cavity of the lungs, it would result in the condition called pneumothorax, which is the entry of air into the chest cavity. This may lead to a collapsed lung, which would make respiration more difficult. If the lung on the side of the injury has sustained damage to a blood vessel or if the heart were damaged, it would cause bleeding into the thoracic cavity, a condition known as hemothorax. A hemothorax can also impair lung function because fluid may accumulate and compress a lung. Externally, bubbles would be observed at the site of the opening of the injury, and breathing would become labored. In real life, such an injury would require an immediate trip to a hospital emergency room. pneumothorax hemothorax

4) Which of the following sutures marks the boundary between the temporal bone and the parietal bone of each side of the skull? A) sagittal B) squamous C) frontonasal D) coronal E) lambdoid

B) squamous

33) The primary curves of the vertebral column are the ________. A) cervical and thoracic B) thoracic and sacral C) dorsal and ventral D) thoracic and coccygeal E) cervical, lumbar, and sacral

B) thoracic and sacral

39) Which of the following can be found on CERVICAL vertebrae only? A) facets B) transverse processes C) transverse foramina D) laminae E) spinous processes

B) transverse foramina

42) Ribs 1-10 articulate with the bodies of the thoracic vertebrae and facets on (the) ________. A) spinous processes of the lumbar vertebrae B) transverse processes of the thoracic vertebrae C) spinous processes of the thoracic vertebrae D) xiphoid process of the sternum E) None of the answers are correct.

B) transverse processes of the thoracic vertebrae

3) The temporal bone contains the foramen magnum and forms part of the wall of the jugular foramen.

false

5) The sphenoid bone has two condylar processes.

false mandible

6) The mandible is the upper jawbone.

false maxilla

7) The lacrimal bones form the cheekbones and some of the lateral wall of the orbit.

false maxilla

4) The most massive portion of the temporal bone is the squamous part, which surrounds and protects the sense organs of hearing and balance.

false should be petrous part

8) Which of the following is TRUE of the foramen magnum? A) It allows passage of the carotid arteries into the head. B) It is located between the parietal and occipital bones. C) It is located in the inferior surface of the occipital bone. D) It is the second largest foramen in the cranium. E) It primarily provides passage for the optic nerve.

C) It is located in the inferior surface of the occipital bone.

43) The true ribs ________. A) consist of twelve pairs B) are the only ribs that are unpaired C) attach to the sternum by separate cartilaginous extensions D) attach only to the vertebral column E) attach directly to the body of the sternum by bone to bone contact

C) attach to the sternum by separate cartilaginous extensions

15) In the normal adult, there are ________ distinct curvatures to the vertebral column. A) five B) three C) four D) seven E) six

C) four 2 primary, 2 secondary

10) The first cervical vertebra is the axis.

false

25) Which bone makes up most of the floor of the orbit? A) maxilla B) sphenoid C) frontal D) palatine E) ethmoid

A) maxilla

23) Which of the following bones forms most of the posterior wall of the orbit? A) frontal bone B) sphenoid bone C) ethmoid bone D) zygomatic bone E) maxilla

B) sphenoid bone

7) The small depression on the temporal bone with which the mandible articulates is called (the) ________. A) temporal fossa B) temporal foramen C) mandibular fossa D) mandibular foramen E) None of the answers are correct.

C) mandibular fossa

45) Which of the following organs is protected by the rib cage? A) lungs B) heart C) thymus D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.

D) All of the answers are correct.

1) The zygomatic process is part of the temporal bone.

true

11) A point of contact between the axial and appendicular skeletons is the manubrium.

true

13) In the condition called spina bifida, the most common neural tube defect (NTD), a portion of the spinal cord develops abnormally such that the adjacent ________ do not form. A) spinous processes B) pedicles C) vertebral arches D) transverse processes E) vertebral bodies

C) vertebral arches

46) The most inferior portion of the sternum to which the diaphragm and rectus abdominis muscles attach is called the ________. A) manubrium B) body C) xiphoid process D) sternal angle E) sternal groove

C) xiphoid process

2) The sphenoid bone contains the foramen rotundum and superior orbital fissure.

true

8) The inferior nasal conchae are paired scroll-like bones, each of which attach to the lateral walls of the nasal cavity on each side of the nasal septum.

true

9) The coccyx actually consists of three to five coccygeal vertebrae that have usually begun fusing by age 26.

true

34) The primary curvatures of the spine functions mainly in ________. A) accommodation of the thoracic and abdominopelvic viscera B) aligning the weight of the head over the legs C) shifting the weight of the trunk to the hips and lower extremities D) increasing the ability to extend the limbs E) taking weight off the hips

A) accommodation of the thoracic and abdominopelvic viscera

35) What event causes the cervical curve to begin development? A) an infant begins to lift his or her head B) walking begins C) intrauterine events D) the birth process E) None of the answers are correct.

A) an infant begins to lift his or her head

41) The posterior tubercle is a part of the ________. A) atlas B) vertebra prominens C) sacral promontory D) axis E) thoracic vertebra

A) atlas

31) Which region of the vertebral column forms interlocking vertebral bodies that permit a relatively greater degree of flexibility than do those of other regions? A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral E) coccygeal

A) cervical

3) The parietal, temporal, frontal, and occipital bones are part of (the) ________. A) cranium B) skull C) facial bones D) axial skeleton E) None of the answers are correct.

A) cranium

10) The ________ is/are the smallest bone(s) of the skull. A) lacrimal bones B) nasal bones C) vomer D) palatine bones E) inferior nasal conchae

A) lacrimal bones

29) An anterior exaggeration of the lumbar curve can lead to which of the following? A) lordosis B) scoliosis C) kyphosis D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.

A) lordosis

21) The spinous processes of the five fused sacral vertebrae form a series of elevations along the ________. A) median sacral crest B) lateral sacral tuberosity C) medial sacral hiatus D) medial sacral promontory E) lateral sacral cornua

A) median sacral crest

5) The lambdoid suture is the boundary between which bones? A) parietal and occipital B) frontal and nasal C) frontal and sphenoid D) parietal and temporal E) parietal and frontal

A) parietal and occipital

7) The convex anterior surface of the frontal bone is called the ________, or forehead, which functions as an attachment site for muscles of the scalp. A) squamous part B) frontal crest C) orbital part D) supra-orbital margin E) alveolar part

A) squamous part

12) Which of the following openings is found within the frontal bone? A) supra-orbital foramen B) foramen spinosum C) foramen lacerum D) optic canal E) foramen ovale

A) supra-orbital foramen

20) The ________, which is the interface between the cervical curve and the thoracic curve, has a long, slender spinous process that ends in a broad tubercle that can be felt beneath the skin at the base of the neck. A) vertebral prominens B) axis C) T1 vertebra D) atlas E) None of the answers are correct.

A) vertebral prominens

2) A person with a serious case of osteoporosis has developed kyphosis. What anatomic structures are involved in this condition, and what are the functional implications?

Answer: Kyphosis is the condition in which the normal thoracic curve is exaggerated posteriorly, producing a "round-back" appearance. This condition can be caused by three factors: (1) osteoporosis with compression fractures affecting the anterior portions of the bodies of T1-12 vertebrae; (2) chronic conditions in muscles that insert on the vertebrae; and (3) vertebral growth. Functional problems associated with this condition may involve the following: problems associated with the support of the head, neck, and upper limbs; a reduction in volume and a change in the shape of the thoracic cavity; compression of thoracic viscera; and perhaps contribute to circulatory and respiratory problems.

1) The skull of a newborn often appears to be deformed, but after a short period of time, the skull assumes normal shape. What happens during the birth process and why does this change occur?

Answer: Prior to birth, the brain enlarges rapidly. Although the bones of the skull are also growing, they fail to keep pace with the growing brain. At birth, the cranial bones are connected by areas of fibrous connective tissue called fontanels. These connections are quite flexible, and thus allow the skull to be distorted without damage. Such distortion is only temporary and normally occurs during the delivery and eases the passage of the infant through the birth canal.

16) The ________ arise at the junction between the vertebral pedicles and laminae, and are divided into a superior type, which projects cranially, and an inferior type, which projects caudally. A) costal processes B) articular processes C) vertebral bodies D) transverse processes E) spinous processes

B) articular processes

1) The divisions of the skeletal system include (the) ________. A) dorsal and ventral B) axial and appendicular C) proximal and distal D) cranial, caudal, and anterior E) None of the answers are correct.

B) axial and appendicular

22) The bony structure of the orbit is composed of which of the following? A) maxilla, zygomatic, lacrimal, and palatine only B) ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, lacrimal, maxilla, zygomatic, and palatine C) zygomatic, nasal, frontal, and sphenoid only D) zygomatic, nasal, frontal, sphenoid, palatine, lacrimal, and temporal E) None of the answers are correct.

B) ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, lacrimal, maxilla, zygomatic, and palatine

23) The broad, triangular ________ articulates with the clavicles of the appendicular skeleton and the costal cartilages of the first pair of ribs. A) xiphoid process B) manubrium C) sternal body D) jugular notch E) interarticular crest

B) manubrium

11) The point of attachment for muscles that extend and rotate the head is the ________. A) styloid process B) mastoid process C) posterior clinoid process D) articular tubercle E) external occipital protuberance

B) mastoid process just inferior to the ears, where the SCM attaches

14) Which of the following bones contains the infraorbital foramen? A) zygomatic B) maxilla C) frontal D) ethmoid E) sphenoid

B) maxilla

17) Which of the following lists includes only facial bones? A) frontals, nasals, parietals, and occipital B) maxillae, palatines, mandible, zygomatics, lacrimals C) sphenoid, ethmoid, maxillae, and mandible D) inferior conchae, vomer, ethmoid, nasal, lacrimals, and sphenoid E) None of the answers are correct.

B) maxillae, palatines, mandible, zygomatics, lacrimals

9) The anterior two-thirds of the bony palate is formed by the ________ of the maxillae. A) alveolar process B) palatine process C) frontal process D) orbital surface E) perpendicular plate

B) palatine process

4) The external surface of each ________ bone bears a pair of low ridges, which mark the attachment of the temporalis muscles. A) temporal B) parietal C) frontal D) occipital E) sphenoidal

B) parietal

8) The nasal conchae of the ethmoid ________. A) are perforated by foramina that allow passage of the branches of the olfactory nerves B) provide additional time for warming, humidifying, and dust removal before incoming air reaches more delicate portions of the respiratory tract C) form part of the nasal septum, a partition that also includes the vomer and a piece of hyaline cartilage D) separate the right and left sides of the cribriform plate E) stabilize the position of the brain

B) provide additional time for warming, humidifying, and dust removal before incoming air reaches more delicate portions of the respiratory tract

38) Which of the following structures can most easily be felt on the dorsum? A) transverse process B) spinous process C) vertebral body D) intervertebral disc E) pedicle

B) spinous process

11) The lateral edge of each nasal bone articulates with the ________. A) temporal process of a zygomatic bone B) nasal crest of a palatine bone C) frontal process of a maxilla D) orbital surface of a maxilla E) frontal crest of the frontal bone

C) frontal process of a maxilla

1) Bones of the axial skeleton form the ________ axis of the body. A) transverse B) coronal C) longitudinal D) horizontal E) diagonal

C) longitudinal

19) Vertebrae with large, oval-shaped bodies, triangular vertebral foramina, and stumpy spinous processes describe the ________ vertebrae. A) cervical B) sacral C) lumbar D) coccygeal E) thoracic

C) lumbar

30) Compression injury is most likely to occur in which of the following? A) coccygeal vertebrae B) cervical vertebra C) lumbar vertebra D) sacral vertebra E) thoracic vertebra

C) lumbar vertebra

2) The facial bones ________. A) enclose the cranial cavity B) consist of the frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, nasal, lacrimal, and zygomatic bones C) protect and support the entrances to the digestive and respiratory tracts D) form a specialized joint that stabilizes the positions of the cranium and vertebral column while permitting a considerable range of head movements E) comprise the "braincase" that surrounds and protects the brain

C) protect and support the entrances to the digestive and respiratory tracts

6) The ________ processes are vertical projections of the sphenoid bone that are important sites for attachment of muscles that move the lower jaw and soft palate. A) styloid B) anterior clinoid C) pterygoid D) posterior clinoid E) zygomatic

C) pterygoid

47) Which of the following organ systems would most likely be affected by a broken rib? A) endocrine B) digestive C) respiratory D) excretory E) All of the answers are correct.

C) respiratory

9) Which of the following contains the foramen ovale? A) frontal B) temporal C) sphenoid D) ethmoid E) maxillary

C) sphenoid

19) The temporal processes are part of which bone? A) occipital B) temporal C) zygomatic D) sphenoid E) maxilla

C) zygomatic

27) Fontanels on an infant's head ________. A) occur where the cranial bones have not yet fused B) allow the skull to be distorted without damage C) are areas of fibrous connective tissue D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers are correct.

D) All of the answers are correct.

13) Bones within the temporal bone that provide the sense of hearing are called ________. A) acoustic bones B) external acoustic meatus C) internal acoustic meatus D) auditory ossicles E) foramen lacerum

D) auditory ossicles

12) The ________ extends to the smooth articular surface of the head of the mandible. A) alveolar part B) mylohyoid line C) coronoid process D) condylar process E) mandibular fossa

D) condylar process means "knuckle-like" ("coronoid" means "hook-like")

44) Choose the correct combination matching the type of rib to its associated number of ribs. A) true ribs; 6 B) false ribs; 4 C) true ribs; 4 D) floating ribs; 4 E) true ribs; 10

D) floating ribs; 4

36) The vertebral arch ________. A) projects dorsally and often caudally from the midline B) is the part of the vertebra that transfers weight along the axis of the vertebral column C) arises at the junction between the pedicle and the lamina D) forms the lateral and posterior margins of the vertebral foramen E) are interconnected by ligaments and separated by pads of fibrous cartilage

D) forms the lateral and posterior margins of the vertebral foramen

26) Which bone is NOT in direct contact with any other bone of the skeleton? A) ethmoid B) sphenoid C) palatine D) hyoid E) zygomatic

D) hyoid

10) Which of the following features belongs to the occipital bone? A) mental foramen B) mandibular foramen C) coronoid process D) hypoglossal canal E) mylohyoid line

D) hypoglossal canal cranial nerves controlling the tongue pass through this canal p 143

5) The sphenoid, temporal, and parietal bones form the ________. A) posterior cranial fossa B) internal nares C) anterior cranial fossa D) middle cranial fossa E) crista galli

D) middle cranial fossa

17) The transverse foramina function in ________. A) permitting rotation of the head B) providing additional surface area for muscle attachment C) maintaining the cervical curvature without muscular effort D) protecting the vertebral arteries and vertebral veins, which are important blood vessels supplying the brain E) permitting nodding of the head but prevent twisting

D) protecting the vertebral arteries and vertebral veins, which are important blood vessels supplying the brain

37) The major function of the vertebral body is to ________. A) allow twisting motions B) provide support C) protect the spinal cord D) transfer weight along the axis of the vertebral column E) provide a passageway for nerves

D) transfer weight along the axis of the vertebral column

22) Ribs 8-10 are called ________ ribs. A) floating B) vertebrosternal C) true D) vertebrochondral E) tubercle

D) vertebrochondral

16) Bones of the skull that articulate with the zygomatic bone include (the) ________. A) temporal bone B) frontal bone C) maxillary bone D) sphenoid E) All of the answers are correct.