Ch. 6 Success Bacteriology (360 q.)

25. The production of H2S is one characteris- tic used to differentiate which of the aerobic gram-positive bacilli? A. Corynebacterium B. Erysipelothrix C. Lactobacillus D. Nocardia

B. Erysipelothrix

87. Campylobacter spp. are associated most frequently with cases of A. Osteomyelitis B. Gastroenteritis C. Endocarditis D. Appendicitis

B. Gastroenteritis

24. When an infection due to Streptomyces is suspected, isolates can be separated from most other bacteria by A. Heat shocking the culture B. Incubating the culture at 25°C C. Incubating the culture at greater than 37°C D. Drying the specimen before inoculat- ing the culture media

B. Incubating the culture at 25°C

98. Acinetobacter baumannii A. Requires cysteine B. Is oxidase negative C. Ferments glucose D. Does not grow on MacConkey agar

B. Is oxidase negative

67. The majority of clinical isolates of Klebsiella are A. K. ozaenae B. K.pneumoniae C. K.aerogenes D. K. oxytoca

B. K.pneumoniae

21. Streptococci obtain all their energy from the fermentation of sugars to A. Formic acid B. Lactic acid C. Succinic acid D. Valeric acid

B. Lactic acid

95. Neisseria lactamica closely resembles Neisseria meningitidis but can be differentiated from it by its ability to metabolize A. Maltose B. Lactose C. Glucose D. Sucrose

B. Lactose

6.1. Which of the following is associated with infections in humans often linked to deli meats and improperly pasteurized dairy products? A. Bacillus subtilis B. Listeria monocytogenes C. Leuconostoc D. Streptococcus agalactiae

B. Listeria monocytogenes

60. The etiologic agent of the majority of adult joint infections is A. Abiotrophia sp. B. Leuconostoc sp. C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

C. Staphylococcus aureus

52. The most common etiologic agent of infections associated with the surgical insertion of prosthetic devices such as artificial heart valves and cerebrospinal fluid shunts is A. Corynebacterium urealyticum B. Staphylococcus capitis C. Staphylococcus epidermidis D. Streptococcus mutans

C. Staphylococcus epidermidis

43. Rust-colored sputum in cases of lobar pneumonia is characteristic of which of the following possible etiologic agents? A. Corynebacterium jeikeium B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Streptococcus pyogenes

C. Streptococcus pneumoniae

81. . The species of Vibrio closely associated with rapidly progressing wound infections seen in patients with underlying liver disease is A. V.alginolyticus B. V. cholerae C. V. vulnificus D. V.parahaemolyticus

C. V. vulnificus

41. Cultures of the posterior pharynx are most commonly submitted to the clinical laboratory for the detection of A. Coiynebacterium diphtheriae B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Streptococcus pyogenes

D. Streptococcus pyogenes

42. Streptococcus sanguis, a viridans streptococcus, is most commonly associated with which of the following clinical conditions? A. Otitis media B. Pharyngitis C. Relapsing fever D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

D. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

11. Staphylococcus saprophyticus, a recog- nized pathogen, is a cause of A. Furuncles B. Impetigo C. Otitis media D. Urinary tract infections

D. Urinary tract infections

31. A negative PYR (L-pyrolidonyl-a- naphthylamide) test is demonstrated by A. Enterococcusfaecalis B. Enterococcus faecium C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Viridans streptococci

D. Viridans streptococci

20. A common member of the normal flora of the upper respiratory tract is A. Corynebacteriumjeikeium B. Lactobacillus C. Staphylococcus epidermidis D. Viridans streptococcus

D. Viridans streptococcus

46. The pulmonary form of anthrax is known as A. Valleyfever B. Walkingpneumonia C. Farmers'lung D. Woolsorters disease

D. Woolsorters disease

96. A causative agent of the form of conjunc- tivitis known as pinkeye is A. Haemophilus aegyptius B. Moraxella lacunata C. Chlamydia trachomatis D. Klebsiella ozaenae

A. Haemophilus aegyptius

75. The K antigen of the family Enterobacteriaceae is A. Heat labile B. The somatic antigen C. Located on the flagellum D. The antigen used to group Shigella

A. Heat labile

84. Salmonella Typhi exhibits a characteristic biochemical pattern, whichdifferentiates it from the other salmonellae. Which of the following is not characteristic of S. Typhi? A. Large amounts of H2S are produced in TSI agar. B. Agglutination in Vi grouping serum C. Lysine decarboxylase positive D. Citrate negative

A. Large amounts of H2S are produced in TSI agar.

37. Which of the following is not associated with Staphylococcus aureus? A. Endotoxin production B. Clumping factor production C. Deoxyribonuclease production D. Hemolysin production

A. Endotoxin production

62. Bacillus cereus has been implicated as the etiologic agent in cases of A. Food poisoning B. Impetigo C. Pelvic inflammatory disease D. Toxic shock syndrome

A. Food poisoning

73. A fermentative gram-negative bacillus that is oxidase positive, motile, and grows well on MacConkey agar is A. Aeromonas hydrophila B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia D. Yersinia enterocolitica

A. Aeromonas hydrophila

53. The description of "Medusa head" colonies on solid agar is most characteris- tic of A. Bacillus anthracis B. Enterococcusfaecalis C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Streptococcus agalactiae

A. Bacillus anthracis

63. The causative agent of "malignant pustule" is A. Bacillus anthracis B. Cojjnebacterium ulcerans C. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae D. Listeria monocytogenes

A. Bacillus anthracis

28. Which one of the following is not appropriate when describing Streptococcus pneumoniae? A. Bile-resistant B. Alpha-hemolytic C. Lancet-shaped, gram-positive diplococcus D. Virulent strains are encapsulated.

A. Bile-resistant

66. In suspected cases of brucellosis, the optimal specimen to be collected for the isolation of the etiologic agent is A. Blood B. Urine C. Cerebrospinal fluid D. Nasopharyngeal exudates

A. Blood

100. In suspected cases of brucellosis, what is the most sensitive specimen to submit for culture? A. Bone marrow B. Nasopharyngeal swab C. Sputum D. Stool

A. Bone marrow

89. The etiologic agent of whooping cough is A. Bordetella pertussis B. Brucella suis C. Francisella tularensis D. Haemophilus ducreyi

A. Bordetella pertussis

80. A fastidious gram-negative bacillus was isolated from a case of periodontal disease, which upon darkfield examination was noted to have gliding motility. The most likely identification of this etiologic agent would be A. Capnocytophaga B. Chromobacterium C. Kingella D. Plesiomonas

A. Capnocytophaga

22. Streptococci are unable to synthesize the enzyme A. Catalase B. Kinase C. Hyaluronidase D. Lipase

A. Catalase

85. The sexually acquired disease character- ized by genital ulcers and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy, which is caused by a small, gram-negative bacillus, is known as A. Chancroid B. Bacterial vaginosis C. Syphilis D. Trachoma

A. Chancroid

71. An environmental sampling study of respiratory therapy equipment produced cultures of a yellow, nonfermentative (at 48 hours), gram-negative bacillus from several of the nebulizers, which would most likely be species of A. Chryseobacterium B. Pseudomonas C. Alcaligenes D. Moraxella

A. Chryseobacterium

45. . Cystine-tellurite blood agar plates are recommended for the isolation of A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Streptococcus agalaciae C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Group D streptococci

A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

70. Which of the following is not true of Shigella sonnei? A. Large numbers of organisms must be ingested to produce disease. B. The organism produces an inflammatory condition in the large intestine with bloody diarrhea. C. The organism produces disease most commonly in the pediatric population. D. The organism is a delayed lactose fermenter.

A. Large numbers of organisms must be ingested to produce disease.

12. Color Plate 26 • shows the Gram stain of a blood culture on a 23-year-old pregnant woman who presented with fever and flulike symptoms in her ninth month. The isolate on blood agar produced small, translucent beta-hemolytic colonies. Which of the following is the most likely etiologic agent in this case? A. Listeria monocytogenes B. Propionibacterium acnes C. Streptococcus agalactiae D. Streptococcus pyogenes

A. Listeria monocytogenes

7. A gram-positive coccus that is catalase positive, nonmotile, lysostaphin resistant, and modified oxidase positive is best identified as a member of the genus A. Micrococcus B. Lactococcus C. Pediococcus D. Staphylococcus

A. Micrococcus

92. A gram-negative, "kidney bean" cellular morphology is a distinguishing characteristic of A. Neisseria meningitidis B. Yersinia pestis C. Bartonella spp. D. Actinobacter spp.

A. Neisseria meningitidis

6. Streptococcus pyogenes can be presump- tively identified using a(an) A. PYR disk B. ONPG disk C. SPS disk D. Optochin disk

A. PYR disk

9. Erysipelothrix infections in humans characteristically produce A. Pathology at the point of entrance of the organism B. Central nervous system pathology C. Pathology in the lower respiratory tract D. The formation of abscesses in visceral organs

A. Pathology at the point of entrance of the organism

10. In the CAMP test, a single streak of a beta-hemolytic Streptococcus is placed perpendicular to a streak of beta-lysin- producing Staphylococcus aureus. After incubation, a zone of increased lysis in the shape of an arrowhead is noted; this indicates the presumptive identification of A. S. agalactiae B. S. bovis C. S. equinus D. S. pyogenes

A. S. agalactiae

44. A urine culture from a 23-year-old female grew a catalase-positive gram-positive coccus ( > 100,000 cfu/mL), which would most likely be A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus B. Enterococcus faecalis C. Streptococcus bovis group D. Streptococcus viridans

A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

68. The enterotoxins of both Vibrio cholerae Ol and noninvasive (toxigenic) strains of Escherichia coli produce serious diarrhea by what mechanism? A. Stimulation of adenylate cyclase, which gives rise to excessive fluid secretion by the cells of the small intestine B. Penetration of the bowel mucosa C. Stimulation of colicin production D. Elaboration of a dermonecrotizing toxin

A. Stimulation of adenylate cyclase, which gives rise to excessive fluid secretion by the cells of the small intestine

13. The etiologic agent most commonly associated with septicemia and meningitis of newborns is A. Streptococcus agalactiae B. Streptococcus bovis group C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Streptococcus pyogenes

A. Streptococcus agalactiae

35. Which of the following organisms is able to hydrolyze sodium hippurate to benzoic acid and glycine? A. Streptococcus agalactiae B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Listeria monocytogenes D. Enterococcusfaecalis

A. Streptococcus agalactiae

97. The single species in the genus Hafiiia is A. alvei B. gergoviae C. ruckeri D. tarda

A. alvei

30. Enterococcus faecium is characteristically A. Inhibited by the presence of bile in culture media B. Able to grow in the presence of high concentrations of salt C. PYR negative D. Beta-hemolytic

B. Able to grow in the presence of high

90. An important characteristic of Neisseria gonorrhoeae or the infection it produces is A. A Gram stain of the organism reveals gram-negative bacilli. B. Asymptomatic infections are common in females. C. Produces disease in humans and domestic animals D. The bacteria survive long periods outside the host's body.

B. Asymptomatic infections are common in females.

14. Which of the following is the most commonly isolated species of Bacillus in opportunistic infections such as bacteremia, post-traumatic infections of the eye, and endocarditis? A. B. circulans B. B. cereus C. B. licheniformis D. B. subtilis

B. B. cereus

76. The causative agent of melioidosis is A. Burkholderia cepacia B. Burkholderia pseudomallei C. Moraxella catarrhalis D. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

B. Burkholderia pseudomallei

36. Which of the following is not characteristic of Listeria monocytogenes? A. CAMP test postive B. Catalase negative C. Esculin hydrolysispositive D. Motile

B. Catalase negative

15. Loeffler's serum medium is recommended for the cultivation of A. Abiotrophia sp. B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae C. Leuconostoc sp. D. Streptococcus agalactiae

B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

59. Tellurite reduction is used for the presumptive identification of A. Bacillus anthracis B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae C. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

48. An aerobic gram-positive rod known to cause bacteremia in hospitalized imrnuno- compromised patients is A. Bacillus anthracis B. Corynebacterium jeikeium C. Corynebacterium ulcerans D. Corynebacterium urealyticum

B. Corynebacterium jeikeium

8. Nocardia asteroides infections in humans characteristically produce A. Carbuncles B. Draining cutaneous sinuses C. Septic shock D. Serous effusions

B. Draining cutaneous sinuses

17. Precipitates of diphtheria toxin and antitoxin formed in agar gels are an in vitro means for detecting toxigenic strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae. The name of this test procedure is the A. D-test B. Elek test C. Hodge test D. Nagler test

B. Elek test

65. A catalase-negative gram-positive coccus is isolated from a urine sample of a hospitalized patient. The bacterium produced a black pigment on bile-esculin agar and formed acid from glucose in the presence of 6.5% NaCl. What is the most likely identification of this bacterium? A. Abiotrophia sp. B. Enterococcus faecalis C. Group B streptococci D. Group D streptococci

B. Enterococcus faecalis

3. Enterotoxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for causing A. Carbuncles B. Enterocolitis C. Impetigo D. Scalded skin syndrome

B. Enterocolitis

49. A bone marrow transplant patient on immunosuppressive therapy developed a pulmonary abscess with symptoms of neurologic involvement. A brain abscess was detected by MRI, and aspirated material grew an aerobic, filamentous, branching gram-positive organism, which stained weakly acid-fast. The most likely etiologic agent in this case would be A. Actinomyces israelii B. Nocardia asteroides C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Propionibacterium acnes

B. Nocardia asteroides

19. Staphylococcus aureus, when present, could most likely be recovered from a stool sample if the primary plating medium included A. Bismuth sulfite B. Phenylethyl alcohol C. Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose D. Xylose-lysine-desoxycholate

B. Phenylethyl alcohol

99. Legionella pneumophila is the etiologic agent of both Legionnaires disease and A. Swine fever B. Pontiac fever C. Rift Valley fever D. SanJoaquinValleyfever

B. Pontiac fever

4. Abiotrophia, formerly known as nutrition- ally variant streptococci, will not grow on routine blood or chocolate agars because they are deficient in A. Hemin B. Pyridoxal C. Vitamin B12 D. Thiophene-2-carboxylic hydrazide

B. Pyridoxal

83. The Haemophilus influenzas vaccine protects against which serotype? A. Serotype a B. Serotype b C. Serotype c D. Serotype d

B. Serotype b

64. An infant was hospitalized with a severe, tender erythema. The child's epidermis was loose, and large areas of skin could be peeled off. The condition described is most consistent with a clinical syndrome associated with A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Bacillus anthracis D. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

B. Staphylococcus aureus

51. Colonies of Listeria monocytogenes on a sheep blood agar plate most closely resemble colonies of A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Streptococcus agalactiae C. Streptococcus bovis group D. Rhodococcus equi

B. Streptococcus agalactiae

74. Fecal cultures are inoculated on thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose agar specifically for the isolation of A. Shigella B. Vibrio C. Campylobacter D. Salmonella

B. Vibrio

32. A Gram stain of a sputum specimen from a patient with a suspected case of lobar pneumonia reveals many white blood cells and many gram-positive cocci, which are primarily diplococci. Which of the following statements would be appropri- ate, given these findings? A. A PYR test should be performed on the culture isolate. B. An Elek test should be performed on the culture isolate. C. An optochin test should be performed on the culture isolate. D. A hippurate hydrolysis test should be performed on the culture isolate.

C. An optochin test should be performed on the culture isolate.

39. Which of the following species of Bacillus is nonmotile? A. B. cereus B. B. subtilis C. B. anthracis D. B. thuringiensis

C. B. anthracis

16. On Tinsdale agar, colonies of Corynebacterium diphtheriae are characterized by the observance of A. Liquefaction of the agar surrounding the colonies on the medium B. Opalescent colonies with a white precipitate in the surrounding agar C. Black colonies on the culture medium surrounded by brown halos D. Pitting of the agar medium surround- ing the colonies

C. Black colonies on the culture medium surrounded by brown halos

93. Which of the following nonfermenters is rarely isolated in the U.S.? A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia C. Burkholderia mallei D. Burkholderia cepacia

C. Burkholderia mallei

69. Colonies of Neisseria sp. turn color when a redox reagent is applied. The color change is indicative of the activity of the bacterial enzyme A. Beta-galactosidase B. Urease C. Cytochrome oxidase D. Phenylalanine deaminase

C. Cytochrome oxidase

1. A test for the hydrolysis of esculin in the presence of bile is especially useful in identifying species of the genus A. Abiotrophia B. Corynebacterium C. Enterococcus D. Staphylococcus

C. Enterococcus

77. Which microorganism will grow only on culture media supplemented with either cysteine or cystine? A. Actinobacillus lignieresii B. Bartonella bacilliformis C. Francisella tularensis D. Kingella kingae

C. Francisella tularensis

38. Which of the following is a characteristic of staphylococci that would help in their isolation from clinical specimens? A. Bile resistance B. Growth at 55°C C. High salt tolerance D. Resistance to novobiocin

C. High salt tolerance

50. Which of the following is catalase negative? A. Bacillus B. Corynebacterium C. Leuconostoc D. Listeria

C. Leuconostoc

34. An identifying characteristic of Staphylococcus aureus is A. DNase negative B. Coagulase negative C. Mannitol fermentation postive D. Growth inhibition in presence of increased salt

C. Mannitol fermentation postive

5. Exfoliatin produced by Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for causing A. Enterocolitis B. Toxic shock syndrome C. Scalded skin syndrome D. Staphylococcal pneumonia

C. Scalded skin syndrome

54. Which of the following is most likely to be isolated in cultures from the anterior nares of healthcare workers? A. Bacillus cereus B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

C. Staphylococcus aureus

2. The organism associated with a disease characterized by the presence of a pseudomembrane in the throat and the production of an exotoxin that is absorbed into the bloodstream with a lethal effect is A. Arcanobacterium haemolyticum B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

47. Pleomorphic gram-positive bacilli in a Gram stain best describes A. Bacillus anthmcis B. Bacillus subtilis C. Listeria monocytogenes D. Corynebacterium pseudodiph- theriticum

D. Corynebacterium pseudodiph- theriticum

26. Growth in a 48-hour semisolid agar stab culture at room temperature reveals lateral filamentous growth away from the stab near the top of the medium. This observa- tion is most characteristic of which organism? A. Rhodococcus sp. B. Corynebacterium urealyticum C. Enterococcusfaecalis D. Listeria monocytogenes

D. Listeria monocytogenes

94. Erythromycin eye drops are routinely administered to infants to prevent infections by A. E. coli B. Haemophilus influenzae C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

82. Severe disseminated intravascular coagulation often complicates cases of septicemia caused by A. Acinetobactersp. B. Moraxella sp. C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. Neisseria meningitidis

D. Neisseria meningitidis

29. Nocardia can be differentiated from Actinomyces based on A. Nocardia being an obligate anaerobe B. The partial-acid fast staining reaction of Actinomyces C. The production of sulfur granules in cases of nocardiosis D. Nocardia being catalase positive

D. Nocardia being catalase positive

79. An example of an oxidase-positive, glucose nonfermenting organism is A. Aeromonas hydrophila B. Escherichia coli C. Klebsiellapneumoniae D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

86. Which of the following diseases is most likely to be acquired from a hot tub or whirlpool? A. Q fever B. Erysipelas C. Acinetobacter cellulitis D. Pseudomonas dermatitis

D. Pseudomonas dermatitis

27. A former species of Corynebacterium pathogenic for swine, horses, and cattle is also known to cause disease in compro- mised hosts. This organism when grown on culture media produces pale pink colonies that help to presumptively identify it as A. Arcanobacterium hemolyticum B. Actinomyces naeslundii C. Gardnerella vaginalis D. Rhodococcus equi

D. Rhodococcus equi

23. The beta-hemolysis produced by group A Streptococcus seen on the surface of a sheep blood agar plate is primarily the result of streptolysin A. H B. M C. O D. S

D. S

91. Which of the following organisms would most likely produce the biochemical reactionsshown in Color Plate27•? A. Citrobacter freundii B. Proteus mirabilis C. Providencia rettgeri D. Salmonella

D. Salmonella

40. Which one of the following diseases involves erythrogenic toxin? A. Cutaneous anthrax B. Diphtheria C. Impetigo D. Scarlet fever

D. Scarlet fever

88. An organism occasionally misidentified as an enteric pathogen because it produces a large amount of H2S is A. Burkholderia cepacia B. Burkholderia pseudomallei C. Pseudomonas putida D. Shewanella putrefaciens

D. Shewanella putrefaciens

72. The characteristics of being lactose negative, citrate negative, urease negative, lysine decarboxylase negative, and nonmotile best describe which organism? A. Proteus vulgaris B. Yersinia pestis C. Salmonella enterica D. Shigella dysenteriae

D. Shigella dysenteriae

57. Family members attending a picnic became ill about 2 hours after eating. The illness was characterized by rapid onset of violent vomiting. The most likely bacterial cause of such symptoms would be food poisoning caused by A. Enterococcusfaecium B. Bacillus subtilis C. Listeria monocytogenes D. Staphylococcus aureus

D. Staphylococcus aureus

58. The novobiocin susceptibility test is used for the identification of A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

56. Solubility in the presence of sodium desoxycholate is characteristic of A. Enterococcusfaecalis 62. B. Streptococcus agalactiae C. Streptococcus mutatis D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

55. Ethylhydrocupreine HC1susceptibility is a presumptive test for the identification of A. Viridans streptococci B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Streptococcus agalactiae D. Streptococcus pneumonias

D. Streptococcus pneumonias

18. The etiologic agent of the disease erysipelas is A. Staphyloccus aureus B. Streptobacillus moniliformis C. Streptococcus agalactiae D. Streptococcus pyogenes

D. Streptococcus pyogenes

33. A child presented in August at the pediatric clinic with a superficial skin infection of the neck. The large, itchy lesions were cultured, and the diagnosis of impetigo was made. One of the etiologic agents of this clinical condition is A. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Streptococcus pyogenes

D. Streptococcus pyogenes