Chapter 1-10

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Another term for the lateral recumbent position is: A. recovery. B. prone. C. supine. D. Trendelenburg.

Any patient who is unresponsive and has no spinal injury should be placed on the cot in which position? A. Recovery B. Fowler's C. Supine D. Trendelenburg

A 16-year-old patient presents with labored breathing and increased respiratory rate, increased heart rate, and leaning forward with his hands on his knees. His skin is pink and his accurate pulse oximetry is 96. This patient is suffering from respiratory: A. distress. B. arrest. C. failure. D. hypoxia.

Cells make up tissues, tissues make up organs, and organs make up: A. systems. B. organelles. C. groups. D. sections.

Certain blood vessels that contain specialized sensors that detect the level of internal pressure and transmit messages to the nervous system, which then triggers the smooth muscle in the vessel walls to make any needed size adjustments, are called: A. pressure receptors. B. volume receptors. C. chemoreceptors. D. stretch receptors.

Not all inspired air reaches the alveoli; 150 mL is stopped in the airway leading to the alveoli. This is called: A. dead air space. B. tidal volume. C. vital capacity. D. bronchial air

Patients in late adulthood are likely to face which of the following challenges? A. Self-worth B. Tax burden C. Hygiene D. All of the above

The metabolism that creates large amounts of carbon dioxide and lactic acid but generates little energy is called: A. anaerobic. B. homeostatic. C. hyperoxic. D. aerobic.

To help reduce the emotional burden of the dying patient, you should: A. listen empathetically to the patient and honor the patient's requests. B. use a firm tone of voice to let the patient and family know that you are in charge. C. give the patient assurances, even if they are false. D. not touch the patient or allow the family to touch or hold the patient.

To preserve evidence at a crime scene, which of the following actions will be most helpful? A. Stay in the area where patient care is taking place. B. Use the redial button on the phone to determine whether the patient called 911. C. Cut through clothing, leaving no more than three inches from any hole. D. Focus on the patient and pay no attention to the actions of others.

Under which of the following circumstances would it be appropriate to share personally identifiable information about a patient's medical condition? A. When giving a hand-off report to a nurse at the receiving hospital B. When lecturing to a group of EMT students C. When talking to anyone who would be unlikely to know or be related to the patient D. When asked over the phone by an attorney who says that she is representing the patient

What are body mechanics? A. The proper use of your body to prevent injury and facilitate lifting and moving B. Research into how to minimize back pain while maximizing the weight that you can lift and carry in an emergency C. The ability to use mechanical lift devices to help you carry heavier loads D. The process by which you package the patient and carry him or her to the ambulance

What is the largest bone of the lower leg? A. Tibia B. Patella C. Fibula D. Femur

What is the normal minute volume in the adult male? A. 5,000 to 6,000 ml. B. 12,000 to 14,000 ml. C. 3,000 to 4,000 ml. D. 250 to 500 ml.

What is the primary reason for an EMT to use specific and proper medical terminology? A. Medical communication needs to be exact and consistent. B. It will make patients and family members trust in the EMT's abilities more. C. People may think that an EMT is not intelligent or professional unless she uses medical terms. D. EMS providers can't bill for services unless the correct terminology is used in all documentation.

What may interfere with an EMT's ability to care for a patient at a crime scene? A. The police want to interview the patient. B. The patient is bleeding from a wrist laceration. C. The patient has multiple injuries. D. The EMT's name badge contains improper credentials.

"-ist" refers to: A. one who specializes in. B. above normal. C. pertaining to. D. below normal.

Fever, tachypnea, and excessive sweating would likely lead to: A. disruption of the body's fluid balance. B. pulmonary edema. C. increased urinary output. D. increased blood pressure and decreased pulse.

Typically, at what age will a child begin developing "magical thinking" and engage in play acting? A. 24 to 36 months B. 12 months C. 18 to 24 months D. 3 to 4 years

During the depression stage of dying, the patient may: A. become silent, distant, sad, and despondent. B. target the EMT with anger. C. appear to be relieved and look forward to "passing on." D. appear to accept death, though not be happy about it.

A. become silent, distant, sad, and despondent.

A permanent surgical opening in the neck is a: A. stoma. B. cricothyrotomy. C. colostomy. D. cricoid ring.

A. stoma. A stoma is a surgical opening into the neck and trachea.

What test can detect whether an EMT has been exposed to tuberculosis? A. TST B. MMR C. PPE D. TBA

A. TST

Personal protective equipment is used as a barrier against: A. infection. B. sanitization. C. immunization. D. fertilization.

A. infection

A cell's internally created fuel that is responsible for powering all the other cellular functions is: A. AMP. B. ATP. C. ACL. D. ADP.

Techniques for moving a patient experiencing an immediate life threat are called: A. physical restraint. B. urgent moves. C. the Heimlich maneuver. D. the power grip.

What is the danger that an altered mental status can pose to a patient's breathing? A. Depressed alveolar function B. Loss of muscle tone and airway collapse C. Bronchospasms D. Hyperoxia

You are transporting a victim from a motor vehicle collision, and the patient's condition is deteriorating rapidly. From your experience, you do not think this patient will survive transport. You noticed on the patient's driver's license that the patient is an organ donor. You can help to facilitate the patient's wishes by: A. trying to contact a family member of the patient to discuss the patient's wishes so that you can alert the hospital when you arrive. B. notifying medical direction of the patient's organ donor status. C. withholding CPR until the patient's donor status is confirmed. D. transporting the patient to facility other than the trauma center to which you are going.

A pressure regulator must be connected to an oxygen cylinder to provide a safe working pressure of: A. 12 to 15 psi. B. 30 to 70 psi. C. 2,000 to 2,200 psi. D. 12 to 20 psi.

B. 30 to 70 psi.

Which of the following procedures carries the highest risk of spreading TB to the EMT? A. Oral airway placement B. Endotracheal suctioning C. Modified jaw thrust D. Bag-valve-mask breathing

B. Endotracheal suctioning

Dead air space is found in the: A. diaphragm. B. trachea and bronchi. C. bloodstream. D. alveoli.

B. trachea and bronchi.

The NREMT is involved in: A. making reciprocity difficult. B. EMS curriculum development. C. rules and regulations for EMTs. D. establishing local EMS protocols.

B. EMS curriculum development.

The level of training previously known as EMT-B is now known as: A. EMR. B. EMT. C. Paramedic. D. AEMT.

B. EMT.

What is the bone on the thumb side of the forearm? A. Ulna B. Fibula C. Radius D. Acromion

What type of muscles control the size of the bronchioles in the lungs? A. Skeletal B. Striated C. Smooth D. Voluntary

You document on your run sheet that your patient with altered mental status is "just another drunk." This would likely be considered: A. slander. B. a HIPAA violation. C. libel. D. negligence.

Your partner is telling others that you are having sexual relations with another person of the same sex. You are not. You could bring your partner up on charges of: A. confidentiality. B. libel. C. slander. D. tort.

Which patient is breathing adequately? A. A patient in respiratory arrest B. A patient in respiratory failure C. A patient in respiratory distress D. A patient in respiratory arrest or distress

C. A patient in respiratory distress

Which of the following is LEAST likely to contain hazardous materials? A. Warehouses B. Trucks C. Schools D. Trains

C. Schools

The modern EMS system in the United States began in the: A. 1950s. B. 1980s. C. 1960s. D. 2000s.

C. 1960s.

An EMT who demonstrates ideal conduct when treating patients is displaying good: A. clinical judgment. B. critical thinking. C. discipline. D. ethics.

The term lateral is best defined as: A. under the arms. B. to the back of. C. toward the middle of. D. to the side.

Which of the following terms describes the heart muscle's ability to generate its own electrical impulses? A. Irritability B. Conductivity C. Contractility D. Automaticity

You are called to a kindergarten class where a boy has fallen while climbing on playground equipment. The teacher saw him fall and hit his stomach on a step. He is sobbing and holding his abdomen. As you assess him, you find his skin cool and clammy, his pulse is 132, respiratory is 28. Why is the boy acting this way? A. He possibly has wet his pants and does not want anyone to know. B. He is embarrassed and is afraid that the other students will make fun of him. C. He is really upset and wants his mother. D. He possibly has internal injuries and is in shock.

You are on the scene of a cardiac arrest. You have begun resuscitation as family members arrive and present you with a valid DNR order. You should: A. notify the family that once CPR has been initiated, you are required to transport the patient. B. complete two more rounds of CPR and then check for a pulse. If there is no pulse, you should stop resuscitation. C. have your partner contact the communications center to send law enforcement to the scene, as this is now a legal issue and the officer will make the decision. D. follow your local protocols and contact medical direction if unsure how to proceed.

You are on the scene with a 72-year-old male patient with chest pain. The patient is complaining of shortness of breath but also refuses to go to the hospital, even after multiple attempts urging him to go. Which of the following should you do next? A. Contact medical direction for orders to restrain the patient. B. Stay with the patient until he loses consciousness. C. Inform the patient that he is having a "heart attack" and must be taken to the hospital for evaluation. D. Fully inform the patient about his situation and the implications of refusing care.

You are providing care to a 54-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. The patient asks to speak to you privately. He tells you he is taking CialisSuperscript ®® for erectile dysfunction and his wife does not know he is taking it. He does not want his wife to find out. As you are putting the EMS bags back in the ambulance, the wife corners you and insists that you tell her what her husband said. What should you do? A. You should tell her. He may be having an affair without her knowledge and she needs to be tested for sexually transmitted diseases. B. You should tell her. As his spouse, she is legally entitled to know his medical information. C. You should not tell her. There is no reason to humiliate your patient by disclosing his embarrassing condition. D. You should not tell her. By law, your conversation with your patient is confidential.

You are treating a patient who has a productive cough and who reports weight loss, loss of appetite, weakness, night sweats, and fever. Which of the following diseases is most likely the cause of these signs and symptoms? A. Pneumonia B. Hepatitis B C. AIDS D. Tuberculosis

You are treating an elderly male patient in the back of your ambulance. En route, the patient becomes unresponsive. Upon arrival, the ED nurse asks you several questions about his condition. What should you do? A. You should not disclose the information because HIPAA laws only allow you to provide the information to the emergency department physician. B. You should disclose the information, as it is not protected by law. C. You should not disclose the information to the nurse because it is protected confidential information and the patient did not sign a release authorizing you to discuss his condition. D. You should answer her questions because you may legally share the patient's medical condition with other pertinent health care providers.

Your overdose patient has just vomited, and now you hear gurgling as he tries to breathe. You should immediately: A. place an advanced airway. B. insert a nasopharyngeal airway. C. tilt his head back. D. suction the airway.

The optimum flow rate of oxygen delivered via nonrebreather mask is: A. 10 to 12 liters a minute. B. 12 to 20 liters a minute. C. 15 to 30 liters a minute. D. 12 to 15 liters a minute.

D. 12 to 15 liters a minute.

The safest and MOST efficient methods for using one's body to facilitate lifting and moving are called: A. lifting techniques B. body structures C. lifting mechanics D. body mechanics

D. Body Mechanics

A clot cannot form without which of the following blood components? A. Platelets B. White blood cells C. Corpuscles D. Plasma

A condition that reduces the number of oxygen-carrying red blood cells is: A. anemia. B. erythropoiesis. C. leukopenia. D. polycythemia.

A family member who keeps pleading with a deceased loved one to "wake up" is experiencing which reaction to death and dying? A. Denial B. Anger C. Rejection D. Projection

A patient fell from the roof of a house while doing repair work. The patient is alert and oriented and has no injuries. The patient wants to refuse transport. The EMT should: A. perform an assessment, let the patient know the findings and recommendations, and try to persuade the patient to be transported because of the mechanism of injury. B. obtain a signature on the refusal form and advise the patient that he should drive himself to the ED if he experiences any changes over the next four hours. C. obtain a signature of refusal and return to service. D. have law enforcement respond to the scene so that they can witness the refusal.

A patient is injured but refuses to be transported by ambulance. He is competent to make decisions, and you have exhausted all avenues to convince him to be transported, so you have him sign a refusal of treatment form. You are demonstrating the ethical principle of: A. a patient's right to self-determination. B. beneficence. C. avoiding a conflict of interest. D. full disclosure.

A patient who called 911 is now refusing transport. You should: A. assess the patient, advise the patient of the risks of refusal, and clearly document everything in the patient care report. B. direct the patient to contact his or her primary care physician for instructions on whether or not to go to the hospital. C. make sure there is a law enforcement officer to act as a witness on the scene of every patient refusal. D. make sure that there is an immediate family member on scene who can sign as a witness to the refusal.

A postal worker has been attacked by a dog during her mail delivery route. The patient is a 54-year-old female with several dog bites on her lower extremities and left arm. The worst of these bites is located on the back of her right leg just above the ankle. How can you explain the location of this injury using anatomical landmarks? A. The bite is located on the posterior aspect of the calf distal to the knee. B. The bite is located on the anterior aspect of the calf just distal to the knee. C. The bite is located on the anterior aspect of the calf just proximal to the knee. D. The bite is located on the posterior aspect of the calf just proximal to the knee.

A state of exhaustion and irritability that can markedly decrease one's effectiveness in delivering emergency medical care is referred to as: A. burnout. B. stress. C. anguish. D. eustress.

Abnormal lung sounds, such as wheezing, snoring, or stridor, are signs of: A. airway or breathing compromise. B. an unresponsive patient. C. respiratory arrest. D. an abnormal respiratory rate.

According to Dr. Hans Selye, the third stage of the "Stress Triad" is known as the ________ stage. A. exhaustion B. alarm C. cumulative D. resistance

According to HIPAA, in which situation is the EMT NOT allowed to share protected health information about a patient? A. A family member pulls the EMT aside at the scene and asks what is going on with the patient. B. The information is required for billing purposes. C. There is a court order compelling the release of information. D. The patient consents, in writing, for his information to be released to a third party.

Alcohol-based hand cleaners are effective at: A. helping to kill microorganisms. B. reducing the risk of contracting TB. C. removing visible contaminants. D. killing anthrax.

An EMT fails to properly care for a patient despite having a duty to act. The EMT is most likely guilty of: A. negligence. B. psychological abuse. C. domestic abuse. D. child endangerment.

An abnormally low amount of water in the body is termed: A. dehydration. B. hypertension. C. edema. D. euvolemia.

An ambulance that is specially equipped to handle obese patients is called: A. a bariatric ambulance. B. a medium-duty ambulance. C. a critical care ambulance. D. an MICU ambulance.

An efficient way of transferring a patient from your wheeled stretcher to a hospital bed is called the: A. draw sheet method. B. extremity lift. C. direct ground lift. D. direct carry method.

An emergency move would be permitted in order to change a patient's position so that you could: A. perform CPR. B. dress a wound. C. splint an open fracture. D. apply a cervical spine collar.

An example of a suffix that would be added to a medical root word to portray a reduction in the size would be: A. "-ole." B. " -ac." C. "-ritic." D. "-retic."

A 26-month-old toddler is reported to have fallen and lacerated his chin. His mother did not witness the fall. As you proceed through your assessment, your partner reports that she's concerned about his heart rate, which she measures as 64. She's checked it twice. Your knowledge of normal vital signs for a patient this age suggests that his pulse rate is: A. too slow. B. not reliable. C. within normal range. D. too fast.

Before applying a nonrebreather mask, the EMT should take what action? A. Inflate the reservoir bag and make sure the bag does not deflate during inspiration. B. Make sure the oxygen supply has greater than 2,000 psi in the tank. C. Insert a properly sized oropharyngeal airway. D. Connect the mask to a humidified oxygen source and wait for the patient's heart rate to slow.

Besides performing a thorough patient assessment, what skill will the EMT use on MOST patient encounters? A. Lifting the patient or equipment B. Checking the blood sugar level C. Applying the automated external defibrillator D. Talking to the receiving hospital physician

Diseases are caused by microorganisms such as bacteria and viruses, known as: A. pathogens. B. secretions. C. germs. D. droplets.

EMS is called to a scene where a patient with a terminal illness is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction to peanuts. The family presents the EMS crew with a valid DNR form. The EMS crew should: A. provide full treatment to the patient as in any anaphylactic reaction because the DNR is for resuscitation wishes only. B. provide oxygen via blow-by and wait on scene to see whether the patient improves. C. transport the patient to the hospital but withhold any treatment during transport. D. withhold all treatment and transport the patient only if the family chooses.

EMS is on the scene of the cardiac arrest of a terminally ill cancer patient. The family states that the patient has a valid DNR but they are unable to locate it. The family is upset and adamant that the patient does not want resuscitation. The EMS crew should: A. begin resuscitation and consider establishing online medical direction. B. verify that the family on scene is related to the patient by asking for identification. If a family member is immediate family, that person can make health care decisions for the patient. C. provide the family with a blank DNR and have them fill it out. D. withhold resuscitation. It is clear the patient is terminally ill, and the family is on scene instructing to withhold care.

Early in this stage of development, the person begins to recognize familiar faces. A. Infant B. Adolescent C. Toddler D. Neonate

Failure of the liver would result in which of the following? A. Inability to detoxify harmful substances in the bloodstream B. Inability to filter out old and damaged blood cells C. Inability to secrete insulin D. None of the above

For adequate function, cells must have an adequate supply of oxygen, glucose, and: A. water. B. nitrogen. C. lactic acid. D. lysosomes.

For which disease is vaccination still not available to the public? A. AIDS B. Pneumonia C. Hepatitis B D. Influenza

For which of the following conditions would a bariatric stretcher be indicated? A. Morbid obesity B. Multiple angulated fractures C. Severe burns D. Cervical injury

For which of the following situations would the EMT NOT be allowed to share protected health information about a patient? A. A news reporter pulls you aside and starts to ask you questions about the people involved in a school bus accident. B. The patient consents, in writing, for his information to be released to a third party. C. There is a court order compelling the release of information. D. The information is required for billing purposes.

Good Samaritan laws are based on: A. providing care in good faith. B. having no formal training. C. the patient having no serious injuries. D. being a volunteer EMT.

If they discovered that a seriously injured patient is an organ donor, the emergency care providers should: A. treat the patient the same as a nondonor. B. confirm with the family that this was the patient's decision. C. transport the patient to a donor harvesting site. D. ignore a DNR order and perform CPR.

Immediately after birth, the infant's heart rate should be: A. 140 to 160 beats per minute. B. 100 to 120 beats per minute. C. 150 to 170 beats per minute. D. 130 to 150 beats per minute.

In assessing a patient's breathing, what is your first question? A. Is he breathing? B. Is he big sick or little sick? C. Is his breathing adequate or inadequate? D. Is he alive or dead?

In normal exhalation, the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax to contract the chest, which creates a positive pressure. This is what type of process? A. Passive B. Inspiration C. Active D. Respiration

In the normal drive to breathe, chemoreceptors are stimulated by: A. high carbon dioxide. B. low carbon dioxide. C. high oxygen. D. diffusion.

In what maneuver is blockage of the airway by the tongue corrected by tilting the patient's head back and lifting the chin? A. Head-tilt, chin-lift B. Modified jaw thrust C. Jaw lift D. Jaw thrust

In which of the following situations is it legal to share information about treatment you provided to a patient? A. The triage nurse at the emergency department asks about the care you provided to the patient. B. You are asked by a coworker who knows the patient. C. The patient gives verbal consent to release information to a friend. D. The patient's lawyer requests the information over the phone.

Infancy is defined as the stage of life from birth to: A. 12 months. B. 9 months. C. 15 months. D. 18 months.

Injuries to the brain and spinal cord, sepsis, and severe allergic reactions can cause what similar cardiovascular problem? A. Loss of tone B. Increased SVR C. Permeability D. Hypertension

Laws that have been developed by states to minimize the risk of individuals being held liable for providing emergency care to victims of illness or injury are called: A. Good Samaritan laws. B. advance directives. C. immunity proclamations. D. protocols.

Laws that have been developed by states to minimize the risk of individuals being held liable for providing emergency care to victims of illness or injury are called: A. Good Samaritan laws. B. immunity proclamations. C. advance directives. D. protocols.

Loss of sensation and paralysis are indications of possible: A. neurological impairment. B. severe infection. C. lung damage. D. cardiac dysfunction.

Nasal flaring and retractions are signs of: A. an inadequate airway. B. tachypnea. C. apnea. D. an adequate airway.

Post-traumatic stress disorder may be described as a(n): A. delayed stress reaction. B. severe stress reaction. C. cumulative stress reaction. D. acute stress reaction

Sepsis is caused by: A. a severe systemic infection. B. poor cardiac function. C. injury to the central nervous system. D. loss of fluid volume.

Shock occurs as a result of which of the following? A. Inadequate perfusion B. Adequate perfusion C. C/Q match D. V/Q match

Short backboards (vest or KED) are usually used to: A. immobilize sitting patients before moving them. B. secure patients with possible spinal injuries but without neurological deficits. C. immobilize supine patients before transport. D. assist in lifting patients up steep terrain.

The CDC recommends using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer in all except which of the following situation(s)? A. The provider's hands come into contact with fecal matter. B. The provider is not vaccinated against hepatitis B. C. The patient has a respiratory illness. D. The patient has a bloodborne communicable disease

The MOST effective protection against a lawsuit is to: A. provide the best emergency care that you can. B. purchase malpractice insurance. C. subscribe to a prepaid legal service. D. have the patient sign a general release.

The abdominal quadrants include all of the following except the: A. right medial. B. left upper. C. right upper. D. left lower.

The actions that an EMT is legally allowed to perform while caring for an injured or ill patient are known as: A. the scope of practice. B. medical direction. C. the standard of practice. D. the standard of care.

The basic nutrient of the cell and the building block for energy is: A. glucose. B. water. C. oxygen. D. protein.

The bone most commonly fractured with a "broken hip" is the: A. femur. B. tibia. C. ilium. D. fibula.

The disruption of lung tissue by mechanical forces or medical problems can upset diffusion, which is defined as: A. the process of gas exchange between the alveoli and the capillaries. B. the ability of the lungs to expand equally during inspiration. C. maintaining enough positive pressure in the pleural space to keep the lungs from collapsing. D. the exchange of gases in the bronchi.

The document that is MOST often used to cover general health care issues, including the use of long-term life support equipment, is called a: A. living will. B. health care proxy. C. modified support order. D. DNR order.

The human body is made up of ________ % water. A. 60 B. 17.5 C. 75 D. 7.5

The lower jaw bone is also known as the: A. mandible. B. maxillae. C. orbit. D. manubrium.

The medical term that is used to refer to the sole of the foot is: A. plantar. B. inferior. C. distal. D. solar.

The pressure that is created when the heart pushes the blood throughout the circulatory system is called: A. hydrostatic pressure. B. osmotic pressure. C. hyperstatic pressure. D. oncotic pressure.

The pulse palpated on the top of the foot is called the ________ pulse. A. dorsalis pedis B. phalanx proximalis C. tibialis posterior D. suprametatarsal

The safest and MOST efficient methods for using one's body to facilitate lifting and moving are called: A. body mechanics B. lifting mechanics C. body structures D. lifting techniques

The scope of practice is governed by: A. the state in which the EMT is providing care. B. the state EMS medical director. C. the National Association of EMTs. D. the National Registry of EMTs.

The study of the body's structures is referred to as: A. anatomy. B. pathophysiology. C. physiology. D. polyintegration.

The tuberculin skin test (TST), formerly known as the purified protein derivative (PPD) test, is used to: A. detect a person's exposure to tuberculosis. B. determine if a person has infected others with TB. C. inoculate healthcare workers against TB infections. D. prevent tuberculosis from spreading following an exposure.

The use of a vacuum device to remove blood, vomitus, and other secretions or foreign materials from the airway is called: A. suctioning. B. clearing. C. ventilating. D. aspirating.

The warning signs of stress include: A. loss of sexual desire or interest. B. intense concentration on work. C. increased appetite. D. the need for interaction with family and friends.

Unresponsive patients with no suspected spinal injury should be placed: A. in the recovery position. B. in the semi-sitting position. C. in the supine position. D. in the prone position.

What are the two most easily injured portions of the spine? A. Cervical and lumbar B. Lumbar and sacral C. Cervical and thoracic D. Sacral and coccygeal

What element does the cell need in order to NOT dehydrate and die? A. Water B. Glucose C. Proteins D. Oxygen

What is an EMT's primary ethical consideration? A. Making patient care and the patient's well-being a priority B. Making the company bottom line a priority C. Making efficiency a priority D. Making partner relations a priority

What is the ideal position in which to place your patient to suction the airway? A. Turn the patient's head or entire body to the side. B. Position the patient in a seated position. C. Place the patient on his or her stomach. D. Place the patient flat with legs elevated.

What is the name of the heart dysfunction caused by an electrical source that causes the heart to beat too fast? A. Tachycardia B. Trauma C. Bradycardia D. Heart attack

What is the name of the large leaflike structure that protects the glottic opening? A. Epiglottis B. Tongue C. Vocal cords D. Uvula

What is the term for placing a person in fear of bodily harm? A. Assault B. Slander C. Libel D. Battery

What is the term for the cellular function of converting glucose into energy (ATP)? A. Metabolism B. Minute volume C. Anabolism D. Hydrostatic pressure

What is the type of metabolism that occurs when energy is created with a balance of adequate oxygen and nutrients? A. Aerobic B. Anaerobic C. Hypoxic D. Homeostatic

What mode of transmission most accurately describes the route of spreading hepatitis A? A. Fecal-oral B. Bloodborne C. Respiratory droplet D. Unprotected sex

What system is a group of organs and glands designed for the specific purpose of reproduction? A. Reproduction system B. Lymphatic system C. Renal system D. Respiratory system

What test can detect whether an EMT has been exposed to tuberculosis? A. TST B. PPE C. TBA D. MMR

What type of precautions should an EMT take when caring for an intoxicated female who is trying to spit on the EMS crew? A. Gloves, eye protection, and a mask B. Gloves only C. Gloves and eye protection D. Gloves and a mask

What would be the primary reason for an EMT to change gloves between contact with different patients? A. To prevent spreading infection to the next patient B. To minimize the amount of time the EMT's hands are spent in gloves C. To ensure soiled gloves are changed as soon as possible D. To protect the EMT from becoming infected

When a patient develops hypoperfusion, the skin will be: A. pale. B. pink. C. flushed. D. jaundiced.

When discussing left and right in terms of anatomic locations, what do they refer to? A. Left and right from the patient's perspective. B. Anatomic left and right refer to the provider's left and right orientation when facing a patient in the anatomic position. C. What left and right refer to anatomically is dependent on the patient's positioning when care is provided. D. Whoever is speaking about the anatomic location determines left and right orientation.

When inserting an oropharyngeal airway, how many degrees do you need to rotate the airway so the tip is pointing down into the patient's pharynx? A. 180 B. 45 C. 90 D. 270

When lifting a stretcher or backboard, it is best to use how many people? A. 4 B. 3 C. 7 D. 5

When pushing or pulling, you should: A. keep the line of pull through the center of your body. B. reach and twist at the same time. C. keep your back in a bent position for flexibility. D. push or pull overhead whenever possible.

When talking to a patient or family members, what does the EMT need to remember to do? A. Speak in lay terms about the patient's condition. B. Try to convince the family that there is no reason to go to the ED. C. Explain everything once so that transport is not delayed. D. Use abbreviations whenever appropriate.

When the alveoli are supplied with enough air and the air in the alveoli is matched with sufficient blood in the pulmonary capillaries to permit optimum exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide, this is known as a: A. V/Q match. B. V/Q mismatch. C. Fick principle. D. Starling's law.

When lifting, keep the weight: A. as close to your body as possible. B. not more than 8 inches from your body. C. at least 6 inches from your body. D. at arm's length from your body.

Which of the following BEST describes inadequate breathing? A. The minute volume is less than normal. B. The respiratory rate is faster than normal. C. The respiratory rate is slower than normal. D. The minute volume is greater than normal.

Which of the following are the abdominal regions created by drawing two imaginary lines intersecting at the navel? A. Abdominal quadrants B. Abdominal sextants C. Abdominal regions D. Abdominal planes

Which of the following describes Fowler's position? A. Sitting upright with the legs straight B. Lying flat on the back C. Lying on the side D. Lying on the stomach

Which of the following descriptions BEST defines the term pathogen? A. An organism that causes infection and disease B. A study of the origins of infection and disease C. An immunity developed after an exposure D. A medication with a harmful effect

Which of the following is MOST clearly a HIPAA violation? A. You provide a personal injury attorney with a copy of a patient care report. B. You provide a copy of the patient care report to a Paramedic who is assuming care of your patient at the scene. C. Your agency receives a subpoena authorizing the release of a copy of a patient care report to a plaintiff's attorney. D. You provide certain health information on the billing copy of the patient care report.

Which of the following is NOT a way in which fluid could be lost from the body? A. Tachycardia B. Rapid breathing C. Diaphoresis D. Major burns

Which of the following is NOT part of the lower extremity? A. Carpals B. Patella C. Femur D. Pelvis

Which of the following is TRUE about organ donation? A. A donor must complete a legal document registering as an organ donor. B. EMS providers are required to perform CPR on all organ donors. C. EMS providers can make a patient an organ donor if the family approves. D. Organ donation is automatic once a person turns 18 years age.

Which of the following is TRUE about respiratory anatomy in infants and children? A. The tongue of an infant or child takes up proportionally more space than an adult's. B. The nose of an infant is proportionally larger than that of an adult. C. The ribs are less pliable in infants than in adults. D. Infants and children rely less on the diaphragm to breathe than adults do.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of oropharyngeal airways (OPAs)? A. They cannot be used in a patient with a gag reflex. B. They require the use of a water-soluble lubricant. C. They cannot be used in patients with a suspected skull fracture. D. They do not come in pediatric sizes.

Which of the following is acceptable for maintaining a seal between an oxygen cylinder and regulator? A. Gasket B. Medical grade adhesive tape C. Grease plug D. Pop-off valve

Which of the following is considered a high-risk situation in which the EMT should be cautious about the use of abbreviations and acronyms? A. During a patient hand-off report B. While preparing for a recertification exam C. When making study flashcards D. During conversations with fellow EMTs

Which of the following is part of the cranium? A. Occiput B. Ischium C. Patella D. Olecranon

Which of the following is recommended in moving something heavy? A. Pushing B. Reaching C. Leaning D. Pulling

Which of the following is responsible for converting glucose and other nutrients into energy within a cell? A. Mitochondria B. Nucleus C. Lysosomes D. Endoplasmic reticulum

Which of the following is the EMT's primary responsibility at a secured crime scene? A. Providing patient care B. Preserving evidence C. Identifying any potential suspects encountered at the scene D. Taking notes that may be needed during court testimony

Which of the following is true regarding proper hand cleaning? A. If the EMT's hands are visibly dirty, an alcohol-based hand cleaner is not sufficient. B. Soap and water should be used following any patient contact if the EMT does not wear gloves. C. Following patient contact, the EMT should soak his hands in warm soapy water for at least 30 seconds and then shake them vigorously. D. In cases where soap and water and alcohol-based hand cleaners are not immediately available, bleach wipes should be used.

Which of the following is used to help establish an EMT's standard of care? A. Local protocols B. Investigative journalism C. Trade journals D. EMT preference

Which of the following makes up more than half of the volume of blood in the body? A. Plasma B. Platelets C. Red blood cells D. White corpuscles

Which of the following organs functions as a reservoir for blood that can be used in case of blood loss? A. Spleen B. Liver C. Heart D. Thyroid gland

Which of the following patients should NOT have their airway opened using a head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver? A. A homeless person of undetermined age found lying unresponsive in an alley with no bystanders. B. A 50-year-old woman who choked on a piece of food while dining in a restaurant and was lowered to the floor by a waiter. C. A 35-year-old diabetic woman who is in the driver's seat of the car in her driveway, who becomes unresponsive while speaking to her husband. D. A 25-year-old man who is still unresponsive after a grand mal seizure.

Which of the following refers to the care that would be expected to be provided by an EMT with similar training when caring for a patient in a similar situation? A. Standard of care B. Professional standards C. Protocols and standing orders D. Scope of practice

Which of the following requires training, policies, and procedures related to storing, accessing, and sharing patient information? A. HIPAA B. COBRA C. HIAPA D. EMTALA

Which of the following statements is true concerning protection by Good Samaritan laws? A. The purpose of Good Samaritan laws is to protect people who are trying to help in an emergency. B. A Good Samaritan law allows an EMT to exceed the scope of practice, if necessary, when providing emergency care off-duty. C. An EMT is expected to act as a lay person when providing emergency care off-duty. D. An EMT cannot be sued for negligence if the state in which he works has a Good Samaritan law.

Which of the following structures do NOT form part of the thorax? A. Ischium B. 8th through 19th vertebrae C. Sternum D. Ribs

Which of the following structures is found in the lower airway? A. Bronchi B. Tonsils C. Pharynx D. Uvula

Which of the following structures receives deoxygenated blood from the body via the vena cavae? A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left ventricle

Which of the following technique is used by power weight lifters? A. Power lift B. Knee-chest lift C. Clean-and-jerk lift D. Squat thrust

Which of the following terms refers to a positive form of stress that helps people work when under pressure and respond effectively? A. Eustress B. Prostress C. Unstress D. Distress

Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime scene? A. Blood spatter B. Mouthwash C. Mail coupons D. Time of day

Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime scene? A. The position in which the patient is found B. The homeowner's pet C. The refrigerator icemaker D. Clean napkins in a drawer

Which of the following would be a normal set of vitals for a 4-year-old male patient? A. Heart rate 110/minute, respiratory rate 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg B. Heart rate 100/minute, respiratory rate 34/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg C. Heart rate 60/minute, respiratory rate 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg D. Heart rate 140/minute, respiratory rate 30/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 60 mmHg

Which of the following would most likely lead to shock? A. Diarrhea B. Headache C. Hypertension D. Tachycardia

Which of these patients would require a tracheostomy mask for supplemental oxygen administration? A. A patient with a stoma B. A patient with quadriplegia C. A patient with chronic bronchitis D. A patient with upper airway inflammation

Which organ secretes insulin after a person eats a large meal? A. Pancreas B. Spleen C. Liver D. Gallbladder

While documenting a call, you add a false statement that was made about a local doctor. This could constitute which of the following? A. Libel B. Degradation of character C. Slander D. HIPAA violation

While transporting a patient with a traumatic wound to the back, you call in report to the receiving hospital over the radio. Due to radio static and background noise in the Emergency Department, the physician has had to ask you twice to repeat if the wound was superior or inferior. Why would this distinction be important? A. The location of the wound is important in determining which types of resources to have available when the patient arrives. B. It is a triage question to determine if the patient is critical or not so the hospital can prioritize. C. The answer is not necessarily important. The physician is just focusing on getting her standard questions answered while dealing with an inadequate radio system. D. The physician is just trying to determine if the wound is deep or not so she knows what to prepare for.

Who is responsible for overseeing HIPAA issues at an EMS agency? A. The privacy officer B. The billing officer C. The highest-ranking EMS provider D. The EMS supervisor

Why is inhalation described as an active process? A. It requires chest muscles to contract and use energy to move, creating a negative pressure. B. It uses oxygen to assist chest muscles to contract, creating a negative pressure. C. It requires the diaphragm to relax and use energy to move, creating a positive pressure. D. It requires chest muscles to relax and use energy to move, creating a positive pressure.

You are attempting to replace the oxygen cylinder in your truck. After removing the regulator from the old cylinder, removing the old cylinder, and placing the new cylinder in the oxygen compartment, you attempt to connect the regulator. The new cylinder has a yellow stripe around it instead of a green one but was stored with the green cylinders. You are unable to get the regulator to seat properly and it will not turn. You should: A. remove the cylinder and get a green cylinder. B. replace the oxygen regulator with a new one. C. attempt to force the regulator onto the cylinder. D. put the old cylinder back on the truck.

You are caring for a patient who was stabbed. During your assessment, you find a small knife impaled in one of the stab wounds. You should: A. treat the wound as usual, but notify police that you must transport the weapon with the patient. B. have a police officer remove the knife before you transport. C. remove the knife and place it in an evidence bag. D. ask the police officer whether it is acceptable for you to leave the knife in place for transport.

You are caring for a 25-year-old male patient that has been shot once in the head. The patient is in extremis (near the point of death) with a noticeable breathing pattern that alternates between no breathing and fast breathing. Your understanding of pathophysiology leads you to believe the breathing pattern may be due to damage to the section of his brain responsible for respiratory control, also known as the: A. medulla oblongata. B. thalamus. C. frontal lobe. D. cerebellum.

You are caring for a 4-month-old male patient who is reported to have vomited five times today. His parents describe no other associated symptoms or complaints. The patient is lying on the couch with a pacifier in his mouth, smiling at you. Developmentally, you would expect a patient of this age to be able to: A. drool without swallowing. B. say the word "no." C. have attachment anxiety or fear strangers. D. sit up without assistance.

You are dispatched to a female with altered mental status. Once inside the home, you find a female who appears to have been beaten unconscious. A man, who smells of alcohol, says that she is his wife and that he does not know what happened: "I just found her this way!" The husband is behaving suspiciously, appears paranoid, and is pacing erratically around the room. What would be the safest course of action? A. Leave the house and call for law enforcement. B. Continue to question the man and begin treating the patient. C. Have your partner call for help while you stay with the patient. D. Evacuate the patient and begin treatment.

You are dispatched to a "man down" with no further information. As your unit arrives on-scene, you see a crowd of bystanders looking at a man lying in an alleyway. The bystanders begin screaming to you, "Help him, he's been shot! He's bleeding real bad!" What would be the best course of action? A. Dispatch law enforcement and wait until the scene is secure. B. Move bystanders aside since the patient will die without treatment. C. Tell law enforcement investigators to meet your unit at the ER. D. Load and go, because you're already on-scene.

You are off duty and on your way to the grocery store when you witness a car accident in front of the store entrance. You stop to render assistance and identify yourself as an EMT to the occupants of the vehicles. The patient in the first car denies the need for assistance, but the second driver is complaining of neck pain. She tells you that she thinks she will be okay but would like to get checked out. You are in a hurry, as you have an appointment and want to get your shopping done first. You should: A. stay with the patient until someone with an equal or higher care level of training or certification assumes care. B. assure the patient that EMS is on the way and go shopping. C. leave the patient because she is conscious and alert. D. leave the patient because she has only minor injuries.

You are on the scene of a motor vehicle collision where a patient's car struck a utility pole. Witnesses reported to you that the patient was unconscious after the impact. However, the patient is now conscious, alert and oriented, and refusing care and transport. You should: A. inform the patient of your concern and try to persuade her to go to the ED and receive treatment. B. have the law enforcement officer place the patient under arrest, as she is obviously in danger. C. use informed consent and tell the patient that since she was unconscious, she is not allowed to refuse. D. leave after having the patient sign the refusal form.

You are on the scene with a patient who is complaining of chest pain, and you have administered medication. Your partner brings in the stretcher, and the patient tells you that she does not want to be transported to the ED. You should: A. contact medical direction for a consult. B. explain to the patient that she cannot refuse, since you have already begun treatment. C. leave after telling the patient that it's not appropriate to abuse the EMS system. D. tell the patient that she can refuse transport, but because you gave her a medication, she has to see a doctor within 24 hours.

You are transporting a patient from a doctor's office and see that the patient has not been well cared for. On your documentation, you write that the doctor seemed to be "a quack." This comment could be viewed as: A. libelous. B. slanderous. C. a confidentiality issue. D. a professional opinion.

You are ventilating a cardiac arrest patient when he begins to vomit copious amounts of large pieces of undigested food. Which of the following would be most effective in clearing the airway? A. Using large bore suction tubing without a tip or catheter attached B. Irrigating the mouth with sterile water to dilute the material before suctioning C. Using a rigid pharyngeal suction tip D. Using a 14 French suction catheter

You are working a shift with a new EMT who just finished school. As you tell him about emergencies to which you responded in the past, which one would be MOST likely to stress out the new EMT? A. A two-year-old female who was physically abused and died B. A 32-year-old male who was shot and killed by a psychotic patient C. A 17-year-old male who was killed when he was riding his bike and was struck by a car D. An 89-year-old grandmother who suffered cardiac arrest at a family picnic

You have arrived at the scene of a call for a "man down." As you enter the residence you note that your patient is a male in his mid-60s who is awake but does not seem to acknowledge your presence. He is perspiring profusely, has cyanosis of his ears and lips, and has rapid, shallow respirations. Which of the following should you do first? A. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask and supplemental oxygen. B. Obtain the patient's medical history. C. Listen to his lung sounds. D. Check for a radial pulse.

You have just arrived at the station to start your shift, and you notice that your partner is asleep in a chair. You proceed to check out your ambulance. Your partner comes in drinking a cup of coffee, and you notice that she has a strong alcohol smell on her breath. Your duty as an EMT is to: A. notify dispatch that you are out of service and have your supervisor come to meet you. B. tell your partner to go get some rest before you get a call. C. see whether someone from the night shift can hold over until your partner can sober up. D. tell dispatch that you will be out of service for maintenance.

You have just returned to the station after completing a call in which you transported an elderly female patient to the hospital for nausea and vomiting. Upon exiting the ambulance, you are approached by an adult male who indicates that the patient you just transported was his mother and he wants to know the details of the run. You should: A. advise him that you can take his information and pass it along to the privacy officer at your department, who will contact him with instructions for accessing the information he requests. B. ask to see his driver's license to verify last names and, if they match, give him the information. C. give the patient the information he is requesting, as he is the patient's son. D. allow him to read the patient care report, as that is public information.

You have just worked a cardiac arrest call on a 48-year-old father of three. Despite your best efforts, the patient died in the emergency department. As you are getting your ambulance in service, the patient's wife rushes out of the emergency department. She finds you and begins screaming at you that her husband's death is your fault. She blames you for not getting on the scene fast enough, taking too long at the house, and not shocking her husband back to life like she has seen on television. What response should you have to her anger? A. Listen empathetically to all of her complaints and let her know she can contact you for any additional assistance. B. Correct her misconceptions and remind her that television shows are fiction, so she will not sue you in the future. C. Recognize that she is in the denial stage of grief and interrupt her hysterical behavior pattern by getting her attention and helping her calm down. D. Reassure her that you did everything you could and that everything will be okay.

You have performed a head tilt-chin lift maneuver on a 17-month-old boy and are attempting to ventilate him with a bag-valve mask. You are experiencing a lot of resistance with each breath and the chest is barely rising. Prior to attempting ventilations again, you should: A. perform chest thrusts. B. ease the head forward a little. C. tilt the head back further. D. finger sweep the airway.

You proceed to treat a patient who has consented to care, but you have NOT explained the risks and benefits of what you are going to do. This is MOST likely a violation of: A. informed consent. B. objectivity. C. justice. D. nonmalfeasance.

You respond to a patient who is choking. The victim is suffering from the most common of airway obstructions. This would indicate that the problem is in the ________ airway. A. upper B. alveoli C. lower D. bronchial

You respond to the scene of an automobile accident where a patient has an obvious fractured femur. You ask your partner to get the traction splint from the ambulance. Your partner returns and tells you there is no traction splint in the ambulance. The EMTs could be guilty of: A. negligence. B. tort law. C. ethical oath. D. failure of duty to act.

Your patient is a 40-year-old known diabetic who was found unconscious at work by a coworker. What type of consent allows you to treat this patient? A. Implied consent B. Consent for treatment of minor emergencies C. Consent for mentally incompetent adults D. Expressed consent

"Dys" refers to: A. difficulty. B. in excess. C. between. D. before.

A(n) ________ is a situation that may lead to an acute stress reaction. A. injury of a coworker B. abuse of alcohol C. routine call D. ongoing night shift

A flexible device that is used to help immobilize the spine of an adult patient in confined spaces, such as a bucket seat of a car, is a: A. vest-type extrication device. B. Reeves stretcher. C. Pedi-Mate backboard. D. scoop stretcher.

A A widely used vest-style immobilization device is the Kendrick Extrication Device (KED).

Which of the following patients can safely be transported in the Fowler's or semi-Fowler's position? A. A patient with chest pain B. An unresponsive patient C. An apneic patient D. A patient with spinal trauma

A Patients with decreased LOC, apnea, cardiac arrest, or spinal trauma cannot be transported in Fowler's or semi-Fowler's position.

You are on the scene of a car crash where the patient is sitting in the driver's seat with a potential spine injury. There is a small fire in the engine compartment, and smoke is coming out from under the hood of the car. What should you do? A. Use the rapid extrication technique. B. Direct the patient to exit the vehicle. C. Instruct the patient to stay in the car. D. Apply the KED quickly.

A Rapid extrication is an urgent move technique that is used when (1) the patient's condition is so unstable that you need to move and transport the patient immediately, (2) the scene is not safe, or (3) the patient blocks your access to a second, more seriously injured patient.

What is normally the maximum flow setting for oxygen delivery with a nonrebreather mask? A. 15 lpm B. 12 lpm C. 6 lpm D. 60 lpm

A. 15 lpm

Which of the following patients is at risk for failure of the cardiopulmonary system? A. A patient who was trapped in an enclosed area during a fire B. A patient who has had a tongue piercing C. A patient who was golfing on a summer day in June D. A patient who was choking but has expelled the object

A. A patient who was trapped in an enclosed area during a fire A patient who is trapped in an enclosed area during a fire inhales hot gas that can cause swelling of the upper airway soft tissues and low tidal volume. This can lead to hypoxia, which then can put the patient at risk for failure of the cardiopulmonary system.

Which of the following findings is MOST indicative of inadequate breathing? A. Abnormal breath sounds B. Flushed skin C. Clear bilateral lung sounds D. Pulse oximetry of 99%

A. Abnormal breath sounds Abnormal breath sounds are a sign of inadequate breathing.

Which of the following is a type of stress that the EMT will likely experience on the job? A. Acute stress B. Repetitive stress C. Habitual stress D. Compound stress

A. Acute stress

Which of the choices BEST describes the difference between airflow into the lungs in spontaneous breathing and in artificial ventilation? A. Air flows into the lungs under negative pressure in spontaneous breathing, while air flows into the lungs under positive pressure with artificial ventilation. B. Air flows into the lungs under negative pressure in both situations. C. Air flows into and out of the lungs under positive pressure with spontaneous breathing. D. Air flows into the lungs under negative pressure and exits the lungs under positive pressure with artificial ventilation.

A. Air flows into the lungs under negative pressure in spontaneous breathing, while air flows into the lungs under positive pressure with artificial ventilation. In normal spontaneous ventilation, the negative pressure created by increasing the size of the thorax draws air into the lungs. In artificial ventilation, air is forced into the lungs through positive pressure, regardless of the pressure changes in the thorax.

Which of the following has historically caused the most EMS provider deaths? A. Air medical crashes B. Stroke C. Assault D. Accidental needlestick

A. Air medical crashes

In what structure does the oxygen/carbon dioxide exchange take place before the carbon dioxide is exhaled into the environment? A. Alveoli B. Bronchi C. Alveolar ducts D. Bronchioles

A. Alveoli After gas exchange occurs in the alveoli, the carbon dioxide is loaded into the alveoli, where it is then exhaled; with the next inhalation, fresh air with a higher oxygen content is breathed in.

Which of the following patients would be the MOST likely to receive humidified oxygen? A. An asthma patient who is being transferred to a pulmonary center in another part of the state B. A stroke patient C. A patient who is en route to the hospital after resuscitation from sudden cardiac arrest D. A patient who is complaining of leg pain

A. An asthma patient who is being transferred to a pulmonary center in another part of the state

You are ventilating a patient at the proper rate with a manually triggered ventilator. Why is it important to watch the patient's chest closely? A. Because overinflation is dangerous. B. To decide whether the patient will need a greater oxygen concentration. C. To be sure that there is plenty of volume going into the lungs. D. Because the chest should be hyperinflated with each breath.

A. Because overinflation is dangerous. Be careful to ventilate only until you see the chest rise and not to overventilate. Overventilation can cause high pressure in the airway, gastric distention, and regurgitation.

Your patient is very sweaty, speaking only in sentences of one or two words. What would you expect could happen to this patient without intervention? A. Becomes sleepy and unarousable B. Begins speaking 3dash-4 word sentences C. Increasing anxiety D. Becomes visibly short of breath

A. Becomes sleepy and unarousable

For a person experiencing an asthma attack, which of the following statements is TRUE, assuming a fixed respiratory rate? A. Both tidal volume and minute volume are decreased from normal during the asthma attack. B. Tidal volume increases but minute volume remains constant during the asthma attack. C. Only tidal volume is decreased from normal during the asthma attack. D. Only minute volume is decreased from normal during the asthma attack.

A. Both tidal volume and minute volume are decreased from normal during the asthma attack.

Which of the following is a sign of inadequate breathing? A. Breathing limited to abdominal movement B. Equal expansion of both sides of the chest C. Air moving out of the nose and mouth D. Absence of blue or gray skin coloration

A. Breathing limited to abdominal movement Patients with inadequate breathing and/or an airway that is not patent often have breathing limited to abdominal movement, especially adults at rest or children.

Which of the following is a complication of using an FROPVD on an adult patient? A. Decreased cardiac output can occur. B. The risk of hyperventilation is eliminated. C. It requires multiple rescuers. D. The patient receives high-concentration oxygen.

A. Decreased cardiac output can occur.

Which of the following must the EMT perform on each and every emergency call? A. Ensure that the scene is safe before entering. B. Wear a HEPA or N95 mask. C. Contact the receiving facility with a patient report. D. Immediately assess all patients on arrival at the scene.

A. Ensure that the scene is safe before entering.

You are working feverishly to extricate a farmer who is pinned under his overturned tractor. The family members are on scene and are yelling at you to hurry up and move the tractor. How should you respond to this anger from the family? A. If the family is expressing anger, allow them to do so, but watch for escalation to violence. B. Ask the patient to tell the family to leave the scene so that you can focus on the injuries the patient has sustained. C. Tell the family that if they do not back down, you will be unable to care for their family member. D. Call the police and have the family placed in protective custody.

A. If the family is expressing anger, allow them to do so, but watch for escalation to violence.

Which of the following poses the greatest risk of exposure to TB? A. Institutions such as nursing homes B. Places with domestic animals C. Private residences D. Gyms and fitness centers

A. Institutions such as nursing homes

What is the purpose of a pressure regulator on an oxygen tank? A. It provides a safe working pressure of oxygen administration. B. It will monitor the patient's oxygen saturation status. C. It will increase the oxygen pressure the patient will receive. D. It eliminates the risk of combustion during oxygen administration.

A. It provides a safe working pressure of oxygen administration. An oxygen tank has too much pressure for a patient. The regulator reduces the tank pressure to safe levels for oxygen administration.

Your patient is complaining of chest pain. He has an oxygen saturation reading of 98% on room air. He has no signs of respiratory distress or hypoxia. What is the most appropriate oxygen delivery device? A. No supplemental oxygen is recommended. B. FROPVD C. Nonrebreather mask D. Simple face mask

A. No supplemental oxygen is recommended. No supplemental oxygen is recommended in this scenario, on the basis of current AHA guidelines.

Which of the following is a factor that contributes to helping an EMT cope with stress? A. Overall mental health B. Minimal education C. Atrophy of lymph nodes D. Smaller adrenal glands

A. Overall mental health

In what stage of the general adaptation syndrome is an EMT who has adapted to a stimulus such it no longer produces stress for him or her? A. Resistance B. Exhaustion C. Recovery D. Alarm

A. Resistance

The standard against infection that assumes that all blood and body fluids are infectious and requires all emergency workers to practice a strict form of infection control is called: A. Standard Precautions. B. sterilization. C. Universal Precautions. D. infection prevention.

A. Standard Precautions.

Which of the following is appropriate for an EMT to perform on the scene of a hazardous material incident? A. Taking initial actions for your personal safety B. Putting on a special SCBA suit and retrieving patients C. Containing the hazard D. Setting up a decon shower in the hot zone

A. Taking initial actions for your personal safety

You notice the apneic patient's abdomen getting larger during artificial ventilation. What could have been done to prevent this? A. Use an airway adjunct when ventilating. B. Decrease the oxygen concentration. C. Increase the positive pressure volume. D. Increase the rate of ventilation.

A. Use an airway adjunct when ventilating.

Which of the following strategies for dealing with stress is the LEAST effective? A. Use of sedative drugs B. Decrease in the number of hours worked per week C. Use of mental imagery D. Increase in exercise activity

A. Use of sedative drugs

A situation that often produces an extreme level of stress for the EMT is: A. an emergency involving infants and children. B. an emergency response with a law enforcement agency. C. transport of a terminally ill patient. D. a medical emergency involving an elderly person.

A. an emergency involving infants and children.

In caring for the dying patient, it is important to: A. be honest about the situation and allow the family access to the patient. B. keep the family away from the patient to avoid any emotional stress. C. tell the patient that "everything will be all right." D. avoid telling the family how serious the patient's condition is.

A. be honest about the situation and allow the family access to the patient.

The patient whose breathing is adequate will have: A. breath sounds that are clear and equal bilaterally. B. "see-saw" breathing. C. an irregular rhythm. D. a respiratory rate of 8 to 10 per minute.

A. breath sounds that are clear and equal bilaterally. Regardless of your interpretation of the patient's chest wall movement, the respiratory rate, and the rhythm, if there are no breath sounds in the bases of the lungs (i.e., alveolar ventilation), the patient is breathing inadequately.

The amount of tidal volume that does NOT reach the alveoli is called: A. dead space. B. the mucous membranes. C. unperfused space. D. nonperfused space.

A. dead space. Dead air space consists of anatomical areas in the respiratory tract where air collects during inhalation, that is, areas where no gas exchange occurs.

For a patient with rapid ventilations, you should: A. deliver ventilations at the same time as the patient's inhalations. B. deliver ventilations as the patient exhales. C. decrease the volume of the breaths you deliver. D. disregard chest rise and fall.

A. deliver ventilations at the same time as the patient's inhalations.

Positive changes in your work environment can help you manage job-related stress. These changes include: A. getting some exercise, such as aerobics, at the station. B. criticizing coworkers or making negative comments whenever possible. C. requesting additional or overtime shifts and burying yourself in your work. D. rotating to a busier station or duty assignment.

A. getting some exercise, such as aerobics, at the station.

A patient begins vomiting during positive pressure ventilation using a bag-valve mask. You should: A. immediately stop ventilation and suction the airway. B. continue with the current rate of ventilation. C. increase the rate of ventilation. D. switch to mouth-to-mouth ventilation.

A. immediately stop ventilation and suction the airway.

When the diaphragm contracts, the patient: A. inhales. B. exhales. C. relaxes the chest. D. pushes air out.

A. inhales.

A partial rebreather mask is different from a nonrebreather mask because it: A. lacks a one-way valve in the opening to the reservoir bag. B. prevents the patient from rebreathing exhaled air. C. it delivers 100 percent oxygen. D. delivers oxygen at 12dash-15 liters per minute.

A. lacks a one-way valve in the opening to the reservoir bag.

To help reduce the emotional burden of the dying patient, you should: A. listen empathetically to the patient and honor the patient's requests. B. not touch the patient or allow the family to touch or hold the patient. C. give the patient assurances, even if they are false. D. use a firm tone of voice to let the patient and family know that you are in charge.

A. listen empathetically to the patient and honor the patient's requests.

An important key to preventing injury while lifting or moving is: A. not compensating when lifting with one hand. B. extending or flexing the wrists and knees to prevent injury to the extremities. C. maintaining an outward curve of the back to reduce the potential for spinal injury. D. using manual force instead of equipment when possible.

A. not compensating when lifting with one hand.

Eye protection, protective gloves, gowns, and masks are known as: A. personal protective equipment. B. infection protection. C. infection control devices. D. Universal Precautions.

A. personal protective equipment.

Alveolar ventilation relies primarily on: A. tidal volume. B. patient size. C. temperature. D. heart rate.

A. tidal volume. Alveolar ventilation depends very much on tidal volume.

The best way for an EMT to prevent the spread of infection is by: A. vigorous hand washing. B. avoiding contact with infected patients. C. applying alcohol-based hand cleaner often. D. always wearing a surgical-type mask.

A. vigorous hand washing.

The mechanics of breathing would be disrupted in a patient: A. who sustains painful chest wall injuries. B. with diffusion problems. C. with hemoglobin problems. D. without enough blood.

A. who sustains painful chest wall injuries.

You MOST likely should administer oxygen by NRB mask to a patient: A. with present and equal breath sounds. B. whose breathing is very shallow, deep, or labored. C. whose skin is cyanotic. D. who is unable to speak.

A. with present and equal breath sounds.

Your patient is in cardiac arrest. What is the most appropriate oxygen-delivery device? A. Bag-valve mask B. Nasal cannula C. Simple mask D. Venturi mask

A. Bag-valve mask Of the choices listed, the BVM is the only ventilatory device. The other choices require that the patient have adequate breathing.

How many sets of gloves should the EMT carry at any time? A. 2 B. 1 C. 3 D. 0

A. 2

For which disease is vaccination still not available to the public? A. AIDS B. Hepatitis B C. Pneumonia D. Influenza

A. AIDS

Which of the following could have an incubation period of several years? A. AIDS B. Tuberculosis C. Mumps D. Pneumonia

A. AIDS

Which of the following patients would MOST likely be transported to the closest emergency department rather than a specialty facility for initial management, assuming that all the facilities were within the EMT's jurisdiction? A. An unresponsive overdose patient with airway complications B. A high-risk obstetric patient C. A pediatric patient who ingested a poison D. A multisystem trauma victim

A. An unresponsive overdose patient with airway complications

What is one mode of transmission for HIV? A. Blood transfusion B. Sneezing or coughing C. Kissing or talking D. Shaking someone's hand

A. Blood transfusion

Where is the headquarters for the National Registry of EMTs located? A. Columbus, Ohio B. Columbus, Georgia C. Columbus, Iowa D. Columbus, Texas

A. Columbus, Ohio

The refusal of the patient to accept the possibility of death occurs during which emotional stage of dying? A. Denial B. Bargaining C. Anger D. Relief

A. Denial

In which of the following quality improvement activities does the EMT participate MOST often? A. Documentation B. Writing new protocols C. Teaching EMS classes D. Deposition

A. Documentation

Which step in the evidence-based medicine process deals with the concept of deciding what aspect of emergency medicine to investigate? A. Formulate a hypothesis B. Changing of protocol on the basis of the research outcome C. Searching medical literature D. Appraising evidence for validity and reliability

A. Formulate a hypothesis

Which of the following is the MOST important reason why documentation is an important part of any CQI program? A. It allows for better interpretation of the care that was rendered. B. The law requires it. C. It permits the CQI team to upload required statistics to the state trauma registry. D. It eliminates the risk of lawsuits.

A. It allows for better interpretation of the care that was rendered.

You notice that your EMT certification will expire in the next year. What is one way to stay current and renew your card? A. Participating in continuing education B. Doing a research project C. Performing community service D. Just working your regular shift

A. Participating in continuing education

What is the term for a lift from a squatting position with weight to be lifted close to the body, feet apart and flat on the ground, body weight on or just behind the balls of the feet, and the back locked in? A. Power lift B. Emergency move C. Nonurgent move D. Urgent move

A. Power lift

Your CQI officer sends you a request for additional information about a patient you had six months ago who subsequently died. How should you respond to this request? A. Respond to this request to the best of your ability, given your memory of the call. B. Respond to this request, but do so in a way that is not incriminating to yourself. C. Contact a lawyer before responding to this request. D. Ignore this request because the law does not require it.

A. Respond to this request to the best of your ability, given your memory of the call.

After World War II, who was the person who usually provided ambulance transport? A. The local undertaker B. The local doctor's office C. The local National Guard D. The local police service

A. The local undertaker

For evidence-based research to be MOST applicable to the prehospital environment, which of the following conditions is important? A. The research should be conducted in the prehospital environment. B. The research should be approved by the NREMT or NAEMT. C. One of the researchers should be a certified EMT. D. A board of EMT providers must supervise the research.

A. The research should be conducted in the prehospital environment.

If a coworker is starting to experience more stress, what should you suggest to your coworker to help him or her manage this stress? A. Try to exercise more at home and between calls at work. B. Release some anger by yelling at patients or supervisors. C. Take sedatives before coming to work. D. On your day off, go to a tavern and have a few drinks.

A. Try to exercise more at home and between calls at work.

Which of the following EMS activities falls under public health and prevention? A. Vaccination programs B. Emergency driving C. Vehicle inspection D. Documentation

A. Vaccination programs

You respond to a domestic violence call with your partner and the local volunteer fire department. If you are all threatened by the patient, who should you make sure is safe first? A. Yourself B. The patient C. Your partner D. The firefighters

A. Yourself

A state of exhaustion and irritability that can markedly decrease one's effectiveness in delivering emergency medical care is referred to as: A. burnout. B. stress. C. anguish. D. eustress.

A. burnout

A state of exhaustion, irritability, and fatigue that is brought about by work-related problems and results in the inability to perform one's duties effectively as an EMT is known as: A. burnout. B. stressout. C. serious fatigue. D. critical incident stress.

A. burnout

Which of the following core components of well-being relates to physical fitness? A. Cardiovascular endurance B. Emotional stability C. Memory skills D. Diversity awareness

A. cardiovascular endurance

A 911 system that allows the call taker to automatically view the caller's location and phone number is known as: A. enhanced 911. B. localized 911. C. GPS 911. D. rapid 911.

A. enhanced 911 (E-911)

A term for treatments backed by research that proves that the interventions have positive effects in patient care is: A. evidence-based medicine. B. traditional approach. C. early goal-directed therapy. D. authority-based treatment.

A. evidence-based medicine.

Treatment decisions based on research are called: A. evidence-based. B. off-line protocols. C. standard of care. D. higher medical authority.

A. evidence-based.

A teachable moment during a call when a patient is advised to wear his seat belt next time he drives a car is an example of an EMT's role in: A. injury prevention. B. stress prevention. C. crisis intervention. D. crime prevention.

A. injury prevention.

A physician who is legally responsible for the clinical and patient care aspects of an EMS system is known as the system's: A. medical director. B. chief medical officer. C. clinical manager. D. operations director.

A. medical director.

In addition to good lifting techniques, what factors play a role in long-term well-being in EMS? A. Nutrition and physical fitness B. Vacationing C. Rest between EMS calls D. Low call volume

A. nutrition and physical fitness

Maintaining current knowledge, skills and EMT certification or licensure is: A. part of your role as an EMS professional. B. the responsibility of your service medical director. C. the role of your regional EMT training council. D. the responsibility of your service training officer.

A. part of your role as an EMS professional.

One aspect of quality improvement in which every EMT can participate is: A. participating in continuing education. B. rewriting agency protocols. C. developing standing orders. D. ignoring controversial local statutes.

A. participating in continuing education

The system by which the medical community oversees the basic health of a population is known as: A. the public health system. B. emergency medical services. C. best clinical practices. D. hospital-based care system.

A. the public health system.

Between calls, you have been reading over the state's local traffic laws and ordinances. This is an example of: A. the responsibility of the EMT to improve his or her knowledge base. B. a stress-relieving activity to help the time pass. C. job requirements for the EMT. D. course requirements to take the recertification exam

A. the responsibility of the EMT to improve his or her knowledge base.

Which of the following terms is the description of medical techniques or practices that are supported by scientific evidence confirming their safety and efficacy? A. Evidence-based B. Quality improvement C. Patient outcomes D. Injury prevention

A. Evidence-based

The decision to abandon a particular EMS intervention secondary to the discovery that it does NOT contribute to a positive patient outcome would be an example of: A. evidence-based research. B. quantitative research. C. intervention-based research. D. qualitative research.

A. evidence-based research.

A legal document allowing the health care provider to withhold resuscitation from a chronically or terminally ill patient is the known as the: A. termination of resuscitation B. advance directive C. health care proxy D. standard of care

A patient is suing an EMT for failing to administer oxygen for a heart attack. The patient is alleging that the EMT was negligent. This case would be considered a: A. criminal case. B. civil case. C. mediation case. D. adjudication case.

A patient with bilateral femur fractures would have which of the following? A. A femur fracture in which the bone ends have punctured the muscle and skin of the thigh B. Fractures of both femurs C. Two fractures in the same femur D. A femur fracture occurring with little or no trauma

A stair chair should be used in which of the following circumstances? A. When the patient has a suspected spinal injury B. When traversing narrow corridors and doorways C. When the patient has altered mental status D. When the patient has a lower-extremity injury

Accidents are a leading cause of death in which stage of life? A. Middle adulthood B. Early adulthood C. Adolescence D. Late adulthood

An adult patient's consent may be obtained through expressed consent or: A. directed consent. B. implied consent. C. emergency consent. D. indirect consent.

An ambulance that is specially equipped to handle obese patients is called: A. a critical care ambulance. B. a bariatric ambulance. C. a medium-duty ambulance. D. an MICU ambulance.

An efficient way of transferring a patient from your wheeled stretcher to a hospital bed is called the: A. direct carry method. B. draw sheet method. C. extremity lift. D. direct ground lift.

An infection of the brain is called: A. multiple sclerosis. B. encephalitis. C. meningitis. D. rhinitis.

At a crime scene, which of the following is the first priority of the EMT? A. Evidence preservation B. Patient care and transport C. Critiquing the scene D. Working with police

At what age is a child considered to be an adolescent? A. 6 to 12 years B. 13 to 18 years C. 1 to 5 years D. 19 to 23 years

At which of the following stages is toilet-training most likely to begin? A. Infant B. Toddler C. Preschool age D. School age

A 21-year-old patient presents with labored breathing and audible wheezes, heart rate of 124, respiration 36; he has significantly altered mentation. What is the best treatment for this patient? A. Give mouth-to-mouth breathing with a nasal cannula, providing the patient with an increase of oxygen. B. Ventilate with a bag-valve mask with high oxygen or FROPVD. C. Supplement the breaths with high-concentration oxygen through a nonrebreather mask. D. Use a pocket mask, which will provide adequate oxygen to improve the patient's condition.

Bending all fingers at the same angle and placing the hands ten inches apart are two key elements of the: A. power lift. B. power grip. C. traction lift. D. stretcher operation.

Carbon dioxide is transported back to the lungs in two ways: via the red blood cells and: A. white blood cells. B. plasma. C. oncotic pressure. D. hydrostatic pressure.

Compared to adults, the infant's ribs are: A. larger. B. more flexible. C. more brittle. D. prone to fracture more easily.

Concerning the use of humidified oxygen, which of the following is true? A. The water reservoir should be changed on a weekly basis. B. It is not of great benefit during short transports but can make the patient more comfortable. C. The water in the reservoir should be treated with chlorine tablets to prevent the growth of bacteria. D. It should only be used when assisting ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device.

Death and dying are inherent parts of emergency medical care. Which of the following is one of the five emotional stages experienced by a dying patient? A. Defeat B. Bargaining C. Relief D. Euphoria

Disruption of nervous system communication is likely caused by: A. hypotension. B. spinal cord injury. C. myocardial damage. D. fluid loss.

Documents signed by a patient that communicate his or her wishes regarding medical care are called: A. automated care orders. B. advance directives. C. physician orders. D. extended patient directives.

During shock states, cells often receive less oxygen. This is referred to as: A. lactic acid production. B. hypoperfusion. C. aerobic metabolism. D. edema development.

During which of these situations would the EMT be least likely to experience a body substance exposure? A. Childbirth B. Splinting a sprained ankle C. Bandaging a laceration D. Glucometry

EMS is called to a cardiac arrest. The family states that the patient does NOT want resuscitative efforts to be made. To withhold resuscitation, which of the following valid documents would the EMS crew would need to have supplied to them? A. Health care instructions B. DNR order C. Health care designation form D. Vial of life

Exam gloves should be latex free because: A. latex gloves are more expensive. B. exposure to latex increases the risk of developing a latex allergy. C. use of latex gloves is not allowed by OSHA. D. latex gloves are not compatible with oxygen.

For the last few days, your regular EMT partner has been having trouble sleeping, has been on edge, and has trouble concentrating on his job during EMS calls. Luckily, your call volume has been low with no serious calls since the infant cardiac arrest you both worked last month. You ask him if anything is bothering him and he states he is fine in every way. He states that he has been going to the bars lately to relax and invites you to come along for some drinks after work. Choose the best answer for this situation. A. Your partner is suffering from acute stress reaction and you should recommend to him that he seek professional counseling. B. Your partner is suffering from a delayed stress reaction and you should recommend that he seek professional counseling. C. Your partner is suffering from a cumulative stress reaction. This is a natural response and he should be fine in a few days. D. Your partner is suffering from post-traumatic stress disorder and you should go to the bar with him to provide moral support and talk with him.

How many fontanelles does a neonate have, and when do they close? A. Three, all of which close between the ages of 9 and 18 months B. Two, both of which are closed by 18 months of age at the latest C. Three, which close by two months of age D. Two, which close shortly after delivery

If an EMT were to release information about how intoxicated a patient was onto a social networking site, this could be considered: A. slander. B. libel. C. breach of faith. D. battery.

If the patient experiences a drop in the respiratory rate as a result of a drug overdose, what will be the effect on the patient's minute volume? A. There will be no change in the minute volume. B. The minute volume will decrease. C. The minute volume will increase. D. The minute volume will initially increase, then drop.

If you stop providing care to a patient without ensuring that equivalent or better care will be provided, you could be legally liable for: A. negligence. B. abandonment. C. gross negligence. D. violating standard of care.

In most states, an off-duty EMT: A. cannot be guilty of abandonment. B. has no legal obligation to provide care. C. is not allowed to render aid. D. has a duty to act.

In moving a patient on a stretcher, what is the safest level at which to do so? A. Mid-elevated from the ground B. Closest to the ground C. The reclined position D. A fully elevated position

In the absence of oxygen at the cellular level, what happens to ATP production? A. It increases. B. It decreases. C. It stops. D. It stays the same.

In what age group do concerns about health and mortality often come to mind? A. Early adulthood B. Late adulthood C. Adolescence D. Middle adulthood

In what stage of the general adaptation syndrome is an EMT who has adapted to a stimulus such it no longer produces stress for him or her? A. Alarm B. Resistance C. Exhaustion D. Recovery

In which age group do you anticipate seeing patients who have less efficient cardiovascular systems and a reduction of previous blood volume? A. Early adulthood B. Late adulthood C. Infancy D. Middle adulthood

In which of the following situations should an EMT withhold resuscitative measures from a patient in cardiac arrest? A. Family members request that nothing be done. B. The patient's caregiver presents a DNR order signed by the patient and his physician. C. The EMT's religious beliefs permit withholding resuscitation, and the caregiver presents documentation of the patient's wishes. D. All of the above

Inadequate circulation of blood throughout the body is known as: A. conduction. B. shock. C. hypertension. D. hypoxia.

In reaching, what should be done every time? A. Reach more than fifteen inches. B. Have a locked-in back. C. Twist. D. Prolong the reach.

Janie is having difficulty breathing. Her current tidal volume is 350 mL, and she is breathing at 28 times per minute. What would be her minute volume? A. 378 mL B. 9,800 mL C. 12.5 mL D. 342 mL

Middle adulthood is the stage of life from ________ to ________ years. A. 35; 55 B. 41; 60 C. 35; 65 D. 31; 60

Of the three types of oxygen flowmeters, which one can only be used upright? A. Constant flow selector valve B. Pressure-compensated flowmeter C. Hudson gauge flowmeter D. Bourdon gauge flowmeter

Patients in which age group tend to be very concerned with body image? A. Middle adulthood B. Adolescence C. Early adulthood D. School age

Perhaps the simplest way to determine if a patient has a patent airway is to: A. check for adequate chest rise. B. say "hello." C. auscultate for breath sounds. D. determine a respiratory rate.

Placing your body behind an object that can hide you from view is called: A. cowardly. B. concealment. C. cowering. D. cover.

Plasma oncotic pressure is created by the movement of which of the following? A. Constriction of the vessels B. Large proteins C. Dilation of the vessels D. Contraction of the heart

Question Help If a full-term newborn weighs 2.5 kg at birth, this weight would be considered: A. high for gestational age. B. low for gestational age. C. inappropriate to interpret as normal or not without knowing the baby's height. D. normal for gestational age.

Question Help Study of the function of the living body and its parts, or how the body works, is called: A. psychology. B. physiology. C. anatomy. D. sociology.

Safe patient lifting and moving techniques include: A. using as few people as possible to assist with the lifting to avoid injuries. B. using the easiest recommended moves and equipment. C. having patients walk to the ambulance. D. carrying as much equipment as you can at one time to minimize on-scene time.

Sharing information about a patient's medical history with your neighbor after you hear a call on a radio scanner would constitute which of the following? A. Negligence B. Breach of confidentiality C. Slander D. Libel

Since EMS personnel are often exposed to both acute and chronic stressors, ________ management may be helpful to cope with on-the-job experiences. A. stress prevention B. critical incident stress C. crisis intervention D. chronic stress

Steps in using the squat lift include: A. squatting down about halfway, then bending at your hips until you can grasp the cot. B. raising your upper body before your hips. C. placing your weaker leg slightly to the back. D. raising your hips just slightly ahead of your upper body.

The actions and care that are legally allowed for the EMT are called the: A. standard of care. B. scope of practice. C. Good Samaritan law. D. standing orders.

The care that would be expected to be provided to the same patient under the same circumstances by another EMT who had received the same training is called the: A. duty to act. B. standard of care. C. protocol. D. scope of practice.

The clothes drag, incline drag, and shoulder drag are examples of: A. a two-rescuer emergency move. B. a one-rescuer emergency move. C. a two-rescuer non-emergency move. D. a one-rescuer non-emergency move.

The flap of tissue that is responsible for protecting the windpipe during swallowing is called the: A. carina. B. epiglottis. C. uvula. D. bronchi.

The inability of the body to adequately circulate blood to the body's cells and supply them with oxygen and nutrients is known as: A. V/Q mismatch. B. hypoperfusion. C. apoptosis. D. hyperperfusion.

The most vulnerable part of the cell is the: A. DNA. B. membrane. C. nucleus. D. mitochondria.

The normal volume that an adult inspires during ventilation is approximately: A. 750 ml. B. 500 ml. C. 250 ml. D. 1,000 ml.

The oxygen flow rate for a nasal cannula should not exceed ________ liters per minute. A. 2 B. 6 C. 8 D. 4

The person who is legally designated to make health care decisions for the patient if the patient is unable to do so is called: A. attorney of record. B. a health care proxy. C. a patient advocate. D. the executor of the estate.

The potential space between the lung and chest wall is called the: A. carina space. B. pleural space. C. dead space. D. lung space.

The restriction of airflow that is related to the diameter of the airways is called the: A. dead air space. B. airway resistance. C. alveolar ventilation. D. pulmonary circulation.

The stage of development from one month of age to one year of age is referred to as: A. toddlerhood. B. infancy. C. adolescence. D. childhood.

The standard against infection that assumes that all blood and body fluids are infectious and requires all emergency workers to practice a strict form of infection control is called: A. sterilization. B. Standard Precautions. C. Universal Precautions. D. infection prevention.

The sympathetic nervous response causes which of the following to occur? A. Breathe slower and deeper, blood vessels to dilate, heart to beat stronger and faster, skin to sweat, pupils to constrict, and skin to become pale B. Breathe faster and deeper, blood vessels to constrict, heart to beat stronger and faster, skin to sweat, pupils to dilate, and skin to become pale C. Breathe faster and deeper, blood vessels to constrict, heart to beat stronger and faster, skin to sweat, pupils to constrict, and skin to become warm D. Breathe faster and deeper, blood vessels to dilate, heart to beat stronger and slower, skin to sweat, pupils to dilate, and skin to become pale

The term burnout is also known as a(n) ________ stress reaction. A. delayed B. cumulative C. acute D. post-traumatic

The term "pathophysiology" means the study of: A. the effect of normal metabolic activity on maintaining the body's systems. B. changes in normal physiology due to disease or injury. C. the pathway of normal metabolism in the body. D. the effects of cancer on the body.

The transition from childhood to adulthood is known as which of the following? A. Early adulthood B. Adolescence C. Transitional D. Young adult

The volume of air that is breathed in and out with each breath is called the: A. alveolar volume. B. tidal volume. C. minute volume. D. dead space.

The volume of air that is moved in and out of the chest in a normal breath cycle is called: A. expiration. B. tidal volume. C. inspiration. D. vital capacity.

The wrist is ________ to the elbow. A. dorsal B. distal C. inferior D. medial

There are two types of spine boards, one of which is the: A. pediatric spine board. B. long spine board. C. padded spine board. D. pneumatic spine board.

The "fight-or-flight" response is activated by the: A. endocrine system. B. sympathetic nervous system. C. renal system. D. parasympathetic nervous system.

The jaw-thrust maneuver is the only _______ airway procedure for an unconscious patient with possible head, neck, or spine injury or unknown mechanism of injury. A. forbidden B. recommended C. required D. prohibited

This is said to occur when care has been initiated and an EMT then leaves a patient without ensuring that the patient has been turned over to someone with an equal or greater level of medical training. A. Proximate cause B. Abandonment C. Negligence D. Duty to act

To be effective, a suction unit must be able to generate air flow of ________ liters per minute and create a vacuum of ________ mmHg. A. 30; 30 B. 30; 300 C. 300; 30 D. 300; 330

To check the distal pulse of a patient with an injury to the forearm, the EMT would check for a pulse in which location? A. Armpit B. Wrist C. Throat D. Upper arm

To ensure adequate breathing, the patient must have both an adequate rate of ventilations and an adequate: A. supply of nitrogen. B. tidal volume. C. level of consciousness. D. number of platelets.

To minimize or prevent aggravation of a spinal injury during an emergency move, the EMT should move the patient in the direction of the: A. lateral axis of the body. B. long axis of the body. C. vertical axis of the body. D. short axis of the body.

What are some signs and symptoms that a coworker may be experiencing delayed stress reaction (PTSD)? A. Headaches, stomach ailments, and a chronic cough B. Flashbacks, nightmares, and feelings of detachment C. Excessive sleeping, loss of appetite, and distractibility D. Suspicion of friends, family, coworkers, or patients

What are the minimum Standard Precautions an EMT should take when transporting a patient infected with Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)? A. Gloves and N-95 mask B. Gloves, N-95 mask, goggles, and gown C. Gloves, N-95 mask, and goggles D. Gloves

What are the signs of hypoxia? A. Warm dry skin, with difficulty in breathing, and hypertension B. Commonly seen as blue or gray skin, deterioration of patient's mental status like confusion or restlessness C. Shock caused from the lack of blood flowing to the vital organs like the brain and heart that is irreversible D. Disease process that robs the patient of adequate breathing and perfusion

What are the small bones that make up the wrist called? A. Tarsals B. Carpals C. Metatarsals D. Metacarpals

What causes the "seesaw" breathing pattern of young children? A. The cricoid cartilage and trachea are both more flexible than in adults, making breathing more difficult. B. They rely more on the diaphragm during breathing difficulty. C. The size of their tongues in proportion to their mouths. D. The pronounced inward curvature at the bottom of the ribcage.

What device becomes rigid and conforming when air is withdrawn and naturally pads voids for greater comfort? A. Basket stretcher B. Vacuum mattress C. Scoop stretcher D. Flexible stretcher

What happens during normal perfusion? A. Blood from the left ventricle exerts pressure on arterial walls. B. Oxygen and nutrients are delivered; carbon dioxide and wastes are picked up. C. The diaphragm descends and the rib cage lifts to create a relative vacuum, causing air to rush into the lungs. D. Vessels constrict to maintain the blood pressure.

What is FiO2? A. The concentration of gases in our expired air, which is referred to as the fraction of used oxygen B. The concentration of oxygen in our inhaled air, which is referred to as the fraction of inspired oxygen C. The amount of oxygen delivered via an airway adjunct in liters per minute D. The flow rate of gases provided to the patient by mask or nasal cannula

What is NOT one of the primary organs for the female reproductive system? A. Uterus B. Urethra C. Vagina D. Ovaries

What is a patent airway? A. A rigid suction device used to remove fluid and foreign objects from the pharynx to secure the airway B. A term used by EMS practitioners to indicate that the patient has a secured and opened airway necessary for life C. An airway that is in need of securing via an oral or nasal pharyngeal airway D. The condition of the patient's airway at the start of a lifesaving intervention

What is a potential harmful side effect of suctioning an airway? A. Eupnea B. Hypoxia C. Hypovolemia D. Hypercarbia

What is another name for the eye socket? A. Odontoid process B. Orbit C. Zygomatic arch D. Parietal bone

What is another name for the shoulder blade? A. Patella B. Scapula C. Clavicle D. Pharynx

What is another term for the frontal aspect of the body? A. Dorsal B. Anterior C. Posterior D. Caudal

What is an EMT's primary ethical consideration? A. Making efficiency a priority B. Making patient care and the patient's well-being a priority C. Making partner relations a priority D. Making the company bottom line a priority

What is the BEST way to transport a patient securely who is suspected of having a spinal injury? A. Sitting the captain's chair with the lap and shoulder belt on B. Fully immobilized with necessary spinal precautions C. Supine on the cot D. Semi-Fowler's on the cot with the five-point harness attached

What is the MOST important reason EMTs should have a good grasp on the proper use of medical terminology? A. It is necessary to use in order to speak to physicians. B. It allows clear communication with other health care providers. C. It shows the patient that EMTs are well educated. D. The profession requires it.

What is the best description of the chest's mechanical functions? A. With the chest being an airtight space, the act of breathing occurs when the muscles of the diaphragm and intercostal relax, which causes the lungs to expand and air to flow into the lungs. B. The chest is a closed space with only one opening; the trachea, to inspire air; the diaphragm contracts down and the intercostal muscles expand the ribs, causing a negative pressure that fills the lungs with air. C. The diaphragm contracts, causing the intercostal muscles that are attached to the lungs to also contract, which moves the air into the lungs. D. The chest is a closed space, and the pleural space surrounds the lungs; when the diaphragm contracts and the intercostals expand, the chest and lungs move outward and downward, allowing expiration and gas exchange in the lungs.

What is the correct order of air flow from the nose to the alveoli in the lungs? A. Nose, hyperpharynx, pharynx, hypopharynx, trachea, mainstem bronchi, bronchi, alveoli B. Nose, nasopharynx, pharynx, hypopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli C. Nose, pharynx, hypopharynx, epiglottis, trachea, crania, mainstem bronchi, alveoli D. Mouth, pharynx, epiglottis, hypopharynx, trachea, mainstem bronchi, crania, alveoli

What is the long bone of the upper portion of the arm? A. Scapula B. Humerus C. Ulna D. Radius

What is the mode of transmission for Ebola? A. Respiratory droplets. B. Blood and body fluids. C. Airborne droplets. D. Nasal secretions.

What is the name of the federal act that mandates a procedure by which emergency healthcare providers can find out if they have been exposed to potentially life-threatening diseases while on the job? A. Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Act B. Ryan White CARE Act C. EMS Personnel Health Protection Act of 1991 D. Communicable Disease Notification Act

What is the normal respiratory rate for a newborn immediately after birth? A. 30 to 50 breaths per minute B. 40 to 60 breaths per minute C. 20 to 30 breaths per minute D. 10 to 20 breaths per minute

What muscle groups should NOT be utilized in preparing to lift a heavy patient from the ground? A. Gluteal muscles B. Back muscles C. Hip muscles D. Leg muscles

What signs and symptoms would indicate inadequate breathing in a patient? A. Decreased depth of respiration, decreased rate of breathing, hot clammy skin, normal mental status B. Increased effort to breathe, cyanosis, cool clammy skin, altered mental status C. Increased effort to breathe, increased depth of respiration, pink dry skin, normal mental status D. Rapid breathing, pale skin, and a normal mental status

What structure in the musculoskeletal system is designed to connect a bone to another bone? A. Acromion. B. Ligament. C. Tendon. D. Cartilage.

What type of blood vessels surround the alveoli? A. Veins B. Capillaries C. Arterioles D. Arteries

What word would be used to refer to a patient's rapid breathing? A. Dyspnea B. Tachypnea C. Tachycardia D. Dyseffusion

When a patient is unable to make a rational decision about consenting to emergency care, the EMT may care for the patient on the basis of: A. informed consent. B. implied consent. C. expressed consent. D. minor consent.

When performing a one-rescuer drag down stairs, you should: A. drag the patient feet first. B. drag the patient head first. C. push, not pull, the patient. D. straddle the patient.

When suctioning a child's airway, the EMT must take care not to: A. use a rigid-tip catheter. B. touch the back of the airway. C. suction on the way out. D. suction for less than 10 seconds.

When you care for a patient at a crime scene, you should: A. remain by the ambulance and have the patient brought to you. B. remember everything you touch and let law enforcement know. C. put everything back where you found it before you leave. D. have your partner record video of your actions at the scene to protect you.

When you enter a child's room, you hear him wheezing on exhalation and see intercostal retractions and nasal flaring. What is his airway status? A. His airway is open and patent. B. He has an inadequate airway. C. His airway is normal for a child. D. He has no obstruction to airflow.

When your pupils dilate, your heart rate increases, your bronchial passages dilate, and your blood sugar increases, what stage of stress response is this? A. Resistance B. Alarm C. Resolution D. Exhaustion

Which of the choices is a CORRECT statement when transferring a patient from his or her bed to the stair chair? A. Do not use the straps that restrain the legs while carrying the patient. B. Do not use the device for unresponsive patients. C. Do not use the device if the patient is not critical. D. Do not cover the stair chair cushions with a sheet or towel.

Which of the following BEST describes the anatomic position? A. Standing in profile with the hands on the hips B. Standing, facing forward, with arms at the side, palms forward C. Standing, facing forward, with arms raised above the head D. Supine with arms crossed over the chest and knees slightly bent

Which of the following BEST describes the location of the mid-axillary line? A. A line drawn diagonally from the outer end of the clavicle to the navel B. A line from the center of the armpit, extending vertically down the side of the chest C. A line drawn horizontally from one armpit to the other, across the front of the body D. A line drawn vertically from the xiphoid process to the pubic bone

Which of the following are the components of the nervous system? A. Spinal cord and motor nerves B. Brain, spinal cord, and nerves C. Brain and autonomic nerves D. Spinal cord and sensory nerves

Which of the following behaviors would be considered a common sign of stress rather than an acute psychological problem? A. Increased speeding and reckless driving B. Irritability with friends, family, coworkers, or patients C. Failure to use PPE appropriately on a regular basis D. Flashbacks, nightmares, and feelings of detachment

Which of the following colors identifies an oxygen cylinder? A. Blue and yellow B. Green and white C. Orange and red D. Black and tan

Which of the following communication techniques will better improve the quality and safety of a lifting technique using multiple EMTs? A. Do not discuss the planned lifting technique with the patient so that the patient will be unaware if a mistake is made. B. Communicate throughout the lifting process. C. Use verbal commands that the EMTs would know but the patient would not. D. Remain silent during the procedure so as not to scare the patient.

Which of the following does NOT govern the practice of an EMT? A. Ethical guidelines B. Social guidelines C. Medical guidelines D. Legal guidelines

Which of the following helps to prevent injury from lifting and carrying a patient? A. Keep the weight away from your body. B. Use your leg muscles. C. Keep your knees locked. D. Lift with both palms down.

Which of the following incidents is the EMT legally required to report to law enforcement? A. Your patient is a 12-year-old male who fell from his bicycle, breaking his left arm, and tells you his parents are at work. B. Your patient has facial and head injuries and states that her husband beat her with a telephone receiver. C. Your patient is an 18-year-old college student who has been consuming large amounts of alcohol at a fraternity party. D. You suspect the wife of the patient you are treating for chest pain has been smoking marijuana.

Which of the following is NOT necessary in attempting to prove negligence? A. Duty to act B. Malice C. Breach of duty D. Damages

Which of the following is a legal term that is used to describe an obligation to provide emergency care to a patient? A. Proximate cause B. Duty to act C. Standard of care D. Advance directive

Which of the following is a physiologic effect of the "Stress Triad" as described by the physician Hans Selye? A. Hypertrophy of the lymph nodes B. Bleeding gastric ulcers C. Atrophy of the adrenal glands D. Amnesia for stressful events

Which of the following is a sign that a patient's nervous system has become impaired? A. Coordinated smile when asked to do so B. Inability to speak clearly C. Verbalizing complete sentences D. Speaking in the patient's native language

Which of the following is a situation in which urgent moves are necessary? A. You have another call holding. B. The patient's airway is compromised. C. The patient is restless. D. You are late for shift change.

Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding tuberculosis (TB)? A. TB is not spread through surface contamination. B. A tuberculin skin test can detect TB exposure. C. The TB pathogen only affects lung tissue. D. The incubation period of TB is from 1 to 7 days.

Which of the following is good technique in pulling or pushing? A. Keep the weight fifteen inches from your body. B. Avoid pushing or pulling overhead. C. Keep your elbows locked and your arms apart. D. Pull, rather than push, if at all possible.

Which of the following is most likely to cause an endocrine disorder? A. Severe infection. B. A hormone deficiency. C. Abnormal vital signs. D. cardiac dysfunction.

Which of the following is most likely to lead to dehydration? A. Drowning B. Vomiting C. Aerobic activity D. Bradycardia

Which of the following is necessary to deliver oxygen to patients at a safe pressure? A. Flowmeter B. Regulator C. Float ball D. Filter

Which of the following is often part of an employment physical? A. HIV test B. TB test C. Chest x-ray D. Hepatitis C test

Which of the following is part of the body's initial response to hypovolemic shock? A. Peripheral vasodilation. B. Peripheral vasoconstriction. C. Bradycardia. D. Bradypnea.

Which of the following is the best device to deliver high-concentration oxygen to a breathing patient? A. Simple face mask B. Nonrebreather mask C. Oropharyngeal airway D. Nasal cannula

Which of the following is the correct method of suctioning? A. Suction continuously, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter. B. Insert the catheter or tip to the desired depth prior to applying suction. C. Begin suctioning as you insert the suction tip or catheter into the mouth. D. Suction intermittently, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter.

Which of the following is the most comfortable method when the EMT moves the patient from the ambulance stretcher to the hospital stretcher? A. Direct carry B. Draw sheet C. Log roll D. Extremity carry

Which of the following is true concerning the procedure for inserting a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)? A. The length of the device is not as important as it is with oropharyngeal airways. B. The bevel should be turned toward the nasal septum. C. If a water-soluble lubricant is not available, a silicon spray can be substituted. D. It can only be placed in the right nostril.

Which of the following must be avoided in lifting? A. Use of the abdominal muscles B. Twisting C. Moving the patient quickly D. Use of the large muscles of your legs

Which of the following oxygen cylinders would normally run out after 50 minutes when flowing at 10 liters per minute? A. D tank B. E tank C. M tank D. G tank

Which of the following pathogens can live in dried blood for days and should be a major concern for EMS providers even while cleaning contaminated equipment? A. AIDS B. Hepatitis B C. Tuberculosis D. Hepatitis A

Which of the following patients does NOT require the administration of supplemental oxygen? A. A 31-year-old male who is unresponsive due to an overdose of narcotics B. A 24-year-old woman who is breathing 28 times per minute after being in an argument with her husband C. A 60-year-old woman with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who can speak two or three words at a time without a breath D. A 6-year-old male with a history of asthma whose breath sounds are silent and who is drowsy

Which of the following patients is MOST at risk for further airway compromise? A. A child who was struck by a car and is awake and crying B. A child who is audibly wheezing on inspiration and exhalation with intercostal retractions C. A child with a seal-bark cough that starts to disappear after the child is given a cold drink D. A patient who burned the roof of his mouth with hot coffee but is talking clearly

Which of the following procedures carries the highest risk of spreading TB to the EMT? A. Modified jaw thrust B. Endotracheal suctioning C. Oral airway placement D. Bag-valve-mask breathing

Which of the following refers to the set of regulations that defines the legal actions expected and limitations placed on the EMT? A. Protocols and standing orders B. Scope of practice C. Legal standards of practice D. Professional standards

Which of the following respiratory processes requires the active use of muscles? A. Exhalation B. Inhalation C. Gas exchange D. Bifurcation

Which of the following should be kept in mind when assessing and managing the airway of a pediatric patient? A. Due to their short necks, pediatric patients require a greater degree of hyperextension to open the airway than do adults. B. The trachea is easily obstructed by swelling. C. The tongue is not as likely to obstruct the airway as in an adult. D. Gastric distention is unlikely.

Which of the following statements BEST describes the exchange of gas in the alveoli? A. Air moves into the airway, blood arrives via the pulmonary veins, and osmosis occurs. B. Air moves into the alveoli, blood is transported by the pulmonary capillaries, and diffusion occurs. C. Blood moves by way of the pulmonary capillaries, air arrives at the alveoli, and osmosis occurs. D. Blood moves from the left heart to the lungs, air arrives in the alveoli sacks, and diffusion occurs.

Which of the following statements provides reasons for the disruption of respiratory control? A. Mechanical failure, soft-tissue damage, obstruction, and lack of perfusion will interrupt this control. B. Medical reasons, infections, trauma, toxins, and drugs, along with neurologic disorders, can interrupt this control. C. A structural reason that has caused collapse of the upper and lower airways to block the flow of oxygen to the alveoli can interrupt this control. D. A medical, structural, and mechanical failure that has initiated the cascade of life-threatening problems will interrupt this control.

Which of the following steps is CORRECT in using the jaw-thrust maneuver to open a patient's airway? A. Apply gentle pressure to the patient's forehead. B. Stabilize the patient's head. C. Place the patient on his or her side. D. Tilt the patient's head back by applying pressure to the forehead.

Which of the following techniques will NOT contribute to the safe and efficient movement of a patient from an upstairs bedroom to the ambulance? A. Being aware of the physical abilities and limitations of each team member B. Calling for assistance only if you find that you and your partner cannot lift the patient C. Sizing up the scene accurately D. Using the most appropriate equipment for the job

Which of the following terms means "in place of the parents"? A. Parental transfer B. In loco parentis C. Minor consent D. Quid pro quo

Which of the following types of blood vessels allow the exchange of substances directly between the blood and the cells of the body? A. Alveoli B. Capillaries C. Veins D. Arterioles

Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime scene? A. A paper towel roll B. Footprints C. A child's toy D. Movies on DVD

Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime scene? A. Patient advocacy B. Fingerprints C. Family pictures D. Medical care by an EMT

Which of the following would MOST likely have a negative effect on the V/Q ratio? A. Increased heart rate B. Minute volume problems C. Endocrine gland problems D. Kidney dysfunction

Which organ is the principal organ of the renal system? A. Bladder B. Kidney C. Ureter D. Urethra

Which three "Rs" are essential for the EMT to practice when reacting to danger? A. Ricochet, recover, re-entry B. Retreat, radio, reevaluate C. Realize, react, reassess D. Remember, respect, respond

Which type of consent must be used by the EMT when seeking to treat a mentally competent adult? A. Implied consent B. Expressed consent C. Unconditional consent D. Conscious consenT

Who is responsible for overseeing HIPAA issues at an EMS agency? A. The EMS supervisor B. The privacy officer C. The highest-ranking EMS provider D. The billing officer

Why does an EMT need to understand medical terminology? A. To communicate at a physician's level of care B. To read a patient's chart and understand a medical history C. To use complex terms and emphasize the EMT's level of training D. To be able to appear educated to a patient and gain the patient's trust

You and your EMT partner are preparing to ventilate an elderly non-trauma patient who has a stoma. Your partner performs the head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver and you ask him to return the patient's head to a neutral position. "Why? This is not a pediatric patient!" your partner protests. What would you say? A. Stoma breathers should only have their airways positioned after placement of the ventilation device. B. It is not necessary to position the airway of a stoma breather when providing ventilations. C. Using the head-tilt, chin-lift prior to clearing any mucus plugs from the stoma can cause airway occlusion. D. Elderly patients should never have their heads tilted back because spinal curvatures are common and can prevent airway positioning.

You and your partner have arrived on the scene of a person injured as a result of a gunshot wound during a burglary. It is unclear whether the shooter is still on the scene. You should: A. ask the patient to identify the person who shot him. B. request law enforcement immediately. C. quickly stabilize and transport the patient. D. locate the shooter and restrain him or her.

You are assessing a female patient with depression. She tells you that her psychologist said that she is dealing with "empty-nest syndrome." What age group is this associated with? A. Late adulthood B. Middle adulthood C. School age D. Early adulthood

You are at the dinner table with your crew and mention to everyone that a coworker on the opposite shift is moving up the administration chain quickly, probably because she's sleeping with the company CEO. This comment could be considered: A. a HIPAA violation. B. slander. C. res ipsa loquitur. D. libel.

You are at the scene of a patient with obvious signs of traumatic death. Your duty as an EMT is to notify: A. the district attorney's office. B. law enforcement. C. medical direction. D. your EMS chief.

You are called to an assault on a homeless male. Dried blood from the trauma is visible around the patient's mouth and nose. During assessment, you note the patient has a productive cough. The patient says, "Don't worry, I'm not contagious. I've had this cough for a year." Describe the best approach regarding respiratory isolation. A. Use gloves for PPE, as that's all that's needed. B. Mask yourself and the patient. C. Isolate the patient with a nonrebreather mask. D. Mask yourself only.

You are called to an obviously deceased patient with a stab wound to the lower abdomen. You should: A. begin documenting evidence. B. notify law enforcement. C. release the scene to the victim's family. D. have dispatch send an EMS supervisor to the scene.

You are caring for a 47-year-old male patient with classical chest pain suggestive of a myocardial infarction. Based on your understanding of the cardiovascular system, you know he could be suffering from damage, narrowing, or blockage of what arteries? A. Femoral arteries B. Coronary arteries C. Brachial arteries D. Pulmonary arteries

You are dispatched to the staging area of a terrorist-related chemical exposure. The incident commander asks you to stand by while hazmat personnel bring patients to the cold zone. As an EMT on-board an ambulance, what statement BEST describes your role? A. Triage patients to be decontaminated. B. Transport decontaminated patients. C. Coordinate hazmat response. D. Transport patients to be decontaminated.

You are first on the scene for a patient who has been injured in a motor vehicle collision. The patient has definitive signs of death. You should: A. ask fire personnel what to do. B. notify law enforcement. C. begin resuscitation to comfort the family. D. transport the patient to the ED anyway.

You are first on the scene of a vehicle collision where a vehicle has gone off a bridge and is partially submerged. You are told that a person is still trapped in the vehicle. Your partner starts to take off his shoes and prepares to go in to save the victim. You stop your partner and tell him it is too dangerous. He tells you he is prepared to die to save a life. What is the best response to him? A. His family will not receive any benefits if he is not trained in rescue and dies while attempting a rescue. B. He is not only putting his life at risk, but also placing the lives of the professional rescuers unnecessarily at risk. C. He will force additional fire units to come to his aid unnecessarily and waste taxpayer money. D. The patient's family may sue him if he is not successful in rescuing him.

You are transporting a patient who drank too much alcohol at a party and is now unresponsive and vomiting profusely. You have been using your on-board suction unit to keep the patient's airway clear, but the suction unit has suddenly stopped working. What should you do? A. Stop suctioning the patient until you arrive at the emergency department. B. Grab your portable suctioning unit and resume patient care. C. Call for backup ambulance so that you can use their suctioning unit. D. Insert an OPA or NPA so that no more vomitus will enter the airway.

You are transporting a 44-year-old female with chest pain and sudden respiratory distress. She is agitated, anxious, and refuses to have a nonrebreather mask applied. Which of the following is the best option? A. Consult with medical control about restraining the patient. B. Use a nasal cannula instead. C. Have her breathe into a paper bag to control her hyperventilation. D. Do not make further attempts to administer oxygen as it will only agitate the patient further.

You are ventilating an adult patient with a bag-valve mask when you notice that his abdomen is getting bigger. You should: A. decrease the flow of oxygen. B. reduce the force and volume of ventilations. C. apply pressure to the abdomen. D. suction the airway.

You arrive at a restaurant, where the 58-year-old male patient is sitting at a table. As you approach, you note that he appears to be panicked and is laboring to breathe. As you get closer, you note audible stridor, and the patient is cyanotic. You feel very little movement of air from his mouth or nose when you are close to him. Your initial impression should be: A. asthma. B. upper airway obstruction. C. apnea. D. mild dyspnea.

You arrive at the scene of a cardiac arrest, and your defibrillator has a dead battery. As an EMT, you can be charged with: A. liable. B. negligence. C. criminally. D. punitive cause.

You overhear an EMT talking to your partner about a well-known personality whom the other EMT recently treated. This is an example of a: A. professional consultation. B. violation of professional ethics. C. duty to act. D. moral decision

You respond to a middle school for a 12-year-old male patient who has been hit by a car. You get consent to treat the patient from the school principal. What concept allows the principal to speak for the parents? A. Res ipsa loquitur B. In loco parentis C. Informed consent D. Healthcare proxy

You respond to the report of an unconscious female patient. You can acquire important medical information about the patient through which of the following? A. Medical history identifier B. Medical identification device C. Driver's license D. On-call Medical Director

You should use common terminology instead of medical terms or acronyms when communicating with: A. physicians. B. the patient. C. fellow EMTs. D. nurses.

Your partner asks why EMTs should avoid use of medical terminology when communicating with most patients. What should you tell her? A. You should say that you are an experienced EMT and since she is new, she should just take your advice and apply it. B. Tell her that the point of communicating with patients and other providers is so there is clear understanding; using medical terms when not necessary can cause confusion. C. Explain that using large words and medical terms can be seen as being egotistical, which can alienate both patients and other providers. D. Tell her that the general public isn't smart enough to understand medical terminology and that all communication must be "dumbed down" when talking to patients.

Your patient has several stab wounds to his anterior torso. You must quickly remove his shirt to access the wounds. The BEST way to remove the shirt from this patient would be to: A. cut up both sides of the shirt from the bottom to the sleeves and on each side from the neck down the arms. B. avoid cutting through any holes in the shirt. C. cut straight up the front of the front of the shirt, even if it means cutting through a hole in it. D. sit the patient up and pull the shirt over his head.

Your patient is a 22-year-old female that accidentally ate some shellfish and is now having a severe reaction. She tells you that the last time she ate shellfish, "they had to put a breathing tube in my throat and I almost died." Her face is starting to swell up and you can hear audible wheezing when she breathes. The chemical that produces edema and narrowing of the airways during hypersensitivity reactions like this is called: A. serotonin. B. histamine. C. insulin. D. acetylcholine.

Your patient is a 45-year-old man who is suffering from chest pain. Upon arrival, the patient is pale, sweaty, and seems short of breath. The patient is angry with his daughter for calling 911. He says that he had some spicy sausage for breakfast and has indigestion. Which of the following is an appropriate means of getting the patient the care he needs? A. Tell the patient that his chest pain is most likely caused by his diet, have him take an antacid, and go to bed. B. Try to find out why the patient does not want to go to the hospital. C. Call the patient's neighbors and tell them that you have been called to the patient's house but he is now refusing care. D. Inform the patient that if he does not agree to treatment, you will have to take him against his will because he has a potentially life-threatening problem.

Your patient is a 55-year-old man with a history of chronic bronchitis. You have been called to his home today because of an increase in his level of respiratory distress. The patient is on 2 liters per minute of oxygen by nasal cannula at home. Your assessment reveals difficulty speaking due to shortness of breath, leaning forward to breathe, a productive cough, and a respiratory rate of 32 per minute. Which of the following is true concerning the best course of action for this patient? A. You should increase the patient's oxygen flow rate until his respiratory rate decreases and then resume oxygen administration at 2 liters per minute. B. You should increase the patient's oxygen flow rate to deliver adequate amounts of oxygen to his tissues. If his respiratory rate decreases, you can assist him with a bag-valve-mask device. C. Because increased blood levels of carbon dioxide are the primary stimulus to breathe, you should encourage the patient to rebreathe his exhaled air from a paper bag. D. You should not increase the patient's oxygen flow rate because of his likely dependence on a hypoxic drive to stimulate breathing.

Your patient is a 65-year-old male with a history of COPD. He is sitting up and complaining of a severe shortness of breath. You should: A. administer 4 lpm of oxygen via nasal cannula. B. apply a nonrebreather mask giving 15 lpm of oxygen. C. insert a nasal airway and ventilate. D. suction the airway with a rigid suction catheter.

Your patient is breathing 4 shallow breaths per minute due to overdosing on his pain medication but he has a palpable radial pulse. He vomited prior to your arrival and is choking. You should: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate. B. roll him over onto his side to clear the airway. C. move the patient to the ambulance and suction. D. perform chest thrusts to clear the lungs.

Your 79-year-old female patient appears to show all signs and symptoms of a stroke. Her level of consciousness has rapidly deteriorated, she is now unconscious, and she can no longer control her own airway. While you intervene to manage her airway, the best position in which to keep fluid or vomitus from occluding her airway would be the: A. Trendelenburg position. B. recovery position. C. prone position. D. Fowler position.

"Gastro" refers to: A. the lungs. B. the stomach. C. the kidneys. D. the heart.

Bending all fingers at the same angle and placing the hands ten inches apart are two key elements of the: A. stretcher operation. B. power grip. C. traction lift. D. power lift.

B *****

You are treating a patient who has a fever and a cough. He is bringing up red-tinged frothy sputum with each coughing spell. What specific infection control PPE is MOST appropriate? A. A TyvekSuperscript ®® suit B. A HEPA or N-95 mask on the rescuer C. A level A suit D. A surgical mask or NRB on the rescuer

B. A HEPA or N-95 mask on the rescuer

Which of the following will most likely cause inadequate breathing in an adult? A. Tachycardia B. A respiratory rate of 60 C. Eupnea D. A respiratory rate of 10

B. A respiratory rate of 60 A respiratory rate of 60 is very high and will likely lead to inadequate breathing. A respiratory rate of 10 is slower than normal for an adult but is much closer to normal than 60 is.

Which of the following is found in birds but can be fatal to humans? A. Pertussis B. Avian flu C. Meningitis D. SARS

B. Avian flu

Which patient would MOST likely benefit from a humidifier on an oxygen cylinder? A. A thirty-seven-year-old patient B. A seven-year-old patient C. A fifty-five-year-old patient D. A ninety-year-old patient

B. A seven-year-old patient

You are working a shift with a new EMT who just finished school. As you tell him about emergencies to which you responded in the past, which one would be MOST likely to stress out the new EMT? A. A 17-year-old male who was killed when he was riding his bike and was struck by a car B. A two-year-old female who was physically abused and died C. A 32-year-old male who was shot and killed by a psychotic patient D. An 89-year-old grandmother who suffered cardiac arrest at a family picnic

B. A two-year-old female who was physically abused and died

How can a faster than normal breathing rate decrease tidal volume? A. By increasing the amount of time the lungs have to fill B. By limiting the amount of time the lungs have to fill C. By tiring out the diaphragm and intercostal muscles D. Faster rates cause a release of histamine, which causes bronchoconstriction

B. By limiting the amount of time the lungs have to fill A faster than normal breathing rate decreases tidal volume by limiting the amount of time the lungs have to fill.

Which of the following complications related to bag-valve-mask ventilation is MOST likely? A. Damage to the trachea B. Hyperventilation C. Providing ventilations too slowly D. Rupture of the bag during ventilation

B. Hyperventilation Hyperventilation is a common problem with manual PPV, even with experienced rescuers.

How should you position the head of a patient with a stoma during BVM ventilation? A. Hyperextend the head forward. B. Leave the head in a neutral position. C. Turn the head to the side. D. Hyperflex the head backward.

B. Leave the head in a neutral position. It is unnecessary to position the airway of a patient with a stoma, so leave the head in a neutral position.

How do you know that the ventilations you are providing are effective? A. You do not hear a leak in the mask seal. B. Oxygen saturation returns to normal. C. The heart rate remains over 100 per minute. D. You are using high-flow oxygen.

B. Oxygen saturation returns to normal. Normal oxygen saturation (at least 94%) is a likely indication of adequate artificial ventilations.

When ventilating with a bag-mask device, what is one action you would take with suspected spinal injury that you would not do otherwise? A. Place the mask over the patient's face. B. Place the thumb sides of your hands along the mask to hold it firmly in place. C. Open the airway. D. Insert an appropriately sized airway if there is no gag reflex.

B. Place the thumb sides of your hands along the mask to hold it firmly in place.

What is the older term for the tuberculin skin test? A. Permanent positive d-dimer test B. Purified protein derivative test C. Positive protein descriptor test D. Pure protection defense test

B. Purified protein derivative test

What is one work-related adjustment that an EMT could attempt to make to help manage the stress of working as an EMT? A. Request to work at a busier station or area so that the day goes by faster until you get home. B. Request a work schedule that gives you more time with family and friends. C. Take sleeping pills after work to help unwind and get a sound sleep. D. Ask whether your spouse could do a ride-along one day to find out what it's really like to be an EMT.

B. Request a work schedule that gives you more time with family and friends.

Assuming no change in tidal volume, what is the effect on minute volume if a patient who was breathing 16 times per minute suddenly slows his rate to 8 times per minute? A. There is no effect on the minute volume. B. The minute volume is reduced. C. The minute volume is eliminated. D. The minute volume is increased.

B. The minute volume is reduced. A reduction in respiratory rate without an increase in tidal volume would cause the minute volume to decrease.

A number of different oxygen cylinders are available. Which of the following is TRUE? A. Oil has nonreactive properties when mixed with oxygen. B. The oxygen used in emergency care is stored under pressure. C. Oxygen is highly flammable and causes combustion easily. D. Towels, sheets, and clothing are impermeable to oxygen.

B. The oxygen used in emergency care is stored under pressure.

During a CISD, who is usually involved in a defusing session? A. Everyone who was a part of the case, regardless of his or her direct or indirect involvement in the incident B. The people who were directly involved with the most stressful aspects of the incident C. Only the personnel who seem to be the most unaffected by the events of the incident D. Just the team of trained peer counselors and mental health professionals

B. The people who were directly involved with the most stressful aspects of the incident

What is the device that is designed to be placed over a stoma or tracheostomy tube to provide supplemental oxygen? A. Partial-rebreather mask B. Tracheostomy mask C. Venturi mask D. Pediatric nonrebreather mask

B. Tracheostomy mask A tracheostomy mask is designed to be placed over a stoma or tracheostomy tube to provide oxygen.

The National Highway Safety Act charged which government entity with developing an EMS system and upgrading prehospital emergency care? A. American Red Cross B. U.S. Department of Transportation C. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services D. State EMS agencies

B. U.S. Department of Transportation

Which of the following governmental departments was responsible for developing EMS standards and assisting states to upgrade the quality of their prehospital emergency care? A. National EMS Council B. U.S. Department of Transportation C. National Highway Traffic Safety Council D. National Registry of EMTs

B. U.S. Department of Transportation

When should the EMT consider humidifying oxygen for a patient? A. Whenever high-concentration oxygen is administered B. When the oxygen will be administered over a long period of time C. Only if the patient requests it D. Whenever oxygen is administered by nasal cannula

B. When the oxygen will be administered over a long period of time

A situation that causes you to experience emotions that are unusually strong and may interfere with your ability to function is called: A. a traumatic incident. B. a critical incident. C. an emotional incident. D. a stress incident.

B. a critical incident.

You are starting to experience symptoms of stress months after an extremely stressful situation. This is known as: A. an acute stress reaction. B. a delayed stress reaction. C. a cumulative stress reaction. D. a chronic stress reaction.

B. a delayed stress reaction.

When inspirations are prolonged, this indicates: A. abdominal breathing. B. an upper airway obstruction. C. a lower airway obstruction. D. adequate breathing.

B. an upper airway obstruction.

When there are two rescuers to dedicate to the airway, the MOST appropriate device to use on a nonbreathing patient would be: A. a nonrebreather mask. B. a bag-mask device. C. a partial-rebreather mask. D. CPAP.

B. a bag-mask device. Of the devices listed, the bag-mask device is the only appropriate device to use on the nonbreathing patient. It is strongly recommended that BVM ventilation be performed by two rescuers.

When dealing with the patient and family who are confronted with death or dying, the EMT should: A. discourage the patient from sharing feelings and needs. B. be tolerant of angry reactions. C. assure the patient that "Everything will be okay." D. avoid talking directly to the patient.

B. be tolerant of angry reactions.

Your patient has an alert mental status, a normal skin color, and a pulse oximetry reading within normal limits. This patient is: A. in respiratory distress. B. breathing adequately. C. is respiratory failure. D. in respiratory arrest.

B. breathing adequately.

After using a disposable bag-valve-mask (BVM) device to ventilate a patient, the EMT should: A. wrap the BVM back up, as it can be used again as long as it is not visibly soiled. B. dispose of the BVM according to hospital or EMS service policy. C. turn the BVM in for gas or heat sterilization. D. wash the BVM out with soap and return it to service.

B. dispose of the BVM according to hospital or EMS service

A 911 system that allows the call taker to automatically view the caller's location and phone number is known as: A. GPS 911. B. enhanced 911. C. rapid 911. D. localized 911.

B. enhanced 911.

A general release of a harmful substance into the environment is called a: A. terrorist incident. B. hazardous material incident. C. decontamination incident. D. mass-casualty incident.

B. hazardous material incident.

Alcohol-based hand cleaners are effective at: A. reducing the risk of contracting TB. B. helping to kill microorganisms. C. killing anthrax. D. removing visible contaminants.

B. helping to kill microorganisms.

Recommended immunizations for active-duty EMTs include: A. rabies vaccine. B. hepatitis B vaccine. C. hepatitis C vaccine. D. gamma globulin annually.

B. hepatitis B vaccine. The following immunizations are recommended for active-duty EMTs: PPD tuberculin test (annually), tetanus prophylaxis (every 10 years), hepatitis B vaccine, influenza vaccine (annually), polio immunization (if needed), rubella (German measles) vaccine, measles vaccine (if needed), mumps vaccine (if needed), and varicella vaccine (if needed).

A 35-year-old female patient is alert and calm, and although she is experiencing increased breathing effort, she can speak in full sentences. This patient should receive: A. assisted ventilations with a FROPVD. B. oxygen via nonrebreather mask or nasal cannula. C. artificial ventilations via ATV. D. assisted ventilations with a pocket face mask or bag-valve mask.

B. oxygen via nonrebreather mask or nasal cannula.

When working in traffic, EMTs should have: A. a level A suit. B. reflective clothing or vest. C. a hard hat. D. full turnout gear.

B. reflective clothing or vest.

Disentangling victims from fires, auto collisions, explosions, or electrocutions is known as: A. terrorist operations. B. rescue operations. C. hazmat incidents. D. multiple-casualty incidents.

B. rescue operations.

Increased work of breathing or a sensation of shortness of breath is: A. respiratory failure. B. respiratory distress. C. respiratory arrest. D. inadequate breathing.

B. respiratory distress.

Maintaining physical fitness and use of proper lifting and moving techniques by EMTs is of utmost importance because: A. if you drop a patient, you will be sued. B. the process of lifting and moving patients is one skill that is used on almost every patient. C. you should always make sure you are stronger than your partner. D. you will have to call for a lift assist more often than is appropriate.

B. the process of lifting and moving patients is one skill that is used on almost every patient.

What percentage of oxygen does a partial rebreather mask deliver? A. 20% to 40% B. 40% to 60% C. 60% to 80% D. 80% to 100%

B. 40% to 60% A partial rebreather mask delivers 40% to 60% oxygen.

Which of the following MOST likely indicates hypoxia? A. Pale skin B. Blue-gray skin C. Flushed skin D. Jaundiced skin

B. Blue-gray skin

In what year was the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians established? A. 1973 B. 1970 C. 1940 D. 1966

B. 1970

Which of the following will help to prevent errors that may jeopardize the patient's safety? A. Use intuition and judgment rather than protocols. B. Ask for assistance if you need it. C. Always go with your first instinct. D. Never admit that you do not know what to do.

B. Ask for assistance if you need it.

Which of the following should you do to improve the quality of your documentation skills? A. Ask the patient to read your encounter form. B. Ask your partner to read your encounter form. C. Ask any physician to read your encounter form. D. Ask your supervisor to read your encounter form.

B. Ask your partner to read your encounter form.

Death and dying are inherent parts of emergency medical care. Which of the following is one of the five emotional stages experienced by a dying patient? A. Euphoria B. Bargaining C. Defeat D. Relief

B. Bargaining

Which of the following diseases is transmitted by airborne droplets? A. AIDS B. Chicken pox C. Hepatitis D. Staph infections

B. Chicken pox

Which of the following is a personal trait that is expected of the EMT? A. Summoning law enforcement to witness care if the patient is a minor B. Communicating effectively both verbally and in writing C. Deciding whether or not the patient should be transported to the hospital D. Following up on patients after they have gone home

B. Communicating effectively both verbally and in writing

In which of the following quality improvement activities does the EMT participate MOST often? A. Writing new protocols B. Documentation C. Deposition D. Teaching EMS classes

B. Documentation

Which of the following is a positive form of stress? A. Compound stress B. Eustress C. Cumulative stress D. Distress

B. Eustress

How many nationally recognized levels of EMS practitioner are there? A. Five B. Four C. Two D. Three

B. Four There are four nationally recognized levels: EMR, EMT, AEMT, and Paramedic.

What is the MOST important reason for an EMT to practice the skills of driving an emergency vehicle? A. You will learn routes to the hospital and the scene. B. It may help to reduce the potential for crashes. C. It will enable you to arrive at the scene faster. D. It will enable you to get to the hospital faster.

B. It may help to reduce the potential for crashes.

Why would the failure of a CQI program to advise EMTs within the system about the system's overall performance pose a risk to future patients? A. It may lead to inaccurate reporting of issues to the state EMS office. B. It may lead to patient care errors from lack of knowledge about treatment protocols. C. It may result in inadequate data collection for billing purposes. D. It may result in "over-triage" of patients and the transport of patients to the hospital who should never have gone.

B. It may lead to patient care errors from lack of knowledge about treatment protocols.

Which of the following statements would BEST describe the beneficial effect to the CQI program when the EMT performs a maintenance check on the ambulance equipment before each shift? A. It will help to determine who will be awarded the CQI program's "EMT of the Month" award. B. It will identify whether any equipment is malfunctioning before its use in an actual patient emergency. C. It will have no beneficial effect for the CQI program. D. It will ensure that the EMT is doing the mandated morning checks of the ambulance.

B. It will identify whether any equipment is malfunctioning before its use in an actual patient emergency.

Which of the following is TRUE of EMTs? A. Most EMTs work for the fire department. B. Many EMTs are volunteer EMS providers. C. All EMTs are paid. D. EMTs must be municipal employees.

B. Many EMTs are volunteer EMS providers.

The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration provides a set of recommended standards for EMS systems called the Technical Assistance Program Assessment Standards. Which of the following is one of these ten standards? A. Personnel scheduling B. Medical direction C. Vehicle maintenance D. System access

B. Medical direction Each EMS system must have a physician as a medical director to provide medical oversight that includes overseeing patient care and delegating appropriate medical practices to EMTs and other EMS personnel.

What is the official name for the physician who assumes responsibility for all patient care aspects within a specific EMS system? A. Chief of staff B. Medical director C. Medical administrator D. Physician on call

B. Medical director

You are taking care of a patient who has been assigned to you during a mass-casualty incident. What should precede your emergency care? A. Communicating with law enforcement B. Patient assessment C. Leaving the scene D. Patient advocacy

B. Patient assessment

Why would positioning the ambulance properly on the scene of a one-car MVC help to prevent risks or injuries to the patient? A. Properly positioning the ambulance will keep the EMT out of legal trouble if a passing motorist runs into the crash scene. B. Properly positioning the ambulance will help to warn approaching drivers, prompting them to slow down. C. Properly positioning the ambulance will eliminate the need to keep the emergency lights illuminated. D. Properly positioning the ambulance will place resources for patient care at an appropriate distance.

B. Properly positioning the ambulance will help to warn approaching drivers, prompting them to slow down.

You have just become an EMS instructor, and now you are teaching a helmet safety awareness class for a local elementary school. This activity would be in support of which Technical Assistance Program Assessment Standard? A. Human resources and training B. Public information and education C. Regulation and policy D. Evaluation

B. Public information and education

Which of the following is often part of an employment physical? A. HIV test B. TB test C. Hepatitis C test D. Chest x-ray

B. TB test

Which of the following is the BEST reason for an EMT to advise parents that younger children should NOT play with older children's toys? A. To develop their sense of ownership B. To prevent choking hazards C. To reduce the spread of blood-borne pathogens D. To reduce the spread of TB

B. To prevent choking hazards

Neatness cleanliness, and professionalism should be demonstrated by your: A. voice. B. appearance. C. empathy. D. mannerisms.

B. appearance.

To receive the highest quality of care, some patients need to be transported to special facilities, such as patients who have: A. a diabetic emergency or altered mental status. B. been critically burned or had a stroke. C. broken a long bone. D. been exposed to extremes of cold or heat.

B. been critically burned or had a stroke. Examples of specialty facilities include trauma, burn, obstetrical, pediatric, poison, stroke, cardiac, hyperbaric, spine injury, and psychiatric centers.

When managing a 28-year-old male patient who has been vomiting blood and has a fever, the EMT should consider that the patient might have a: A. foodborne illness B. bloodborne illness C. noncontagious illness D. vector-borne illness

B. bloodborne illness

Which of the following is a good technique for coping with stress? A. Using alcohol moderately while off duty B. Committing to an exercise routine C. Requesting a sedative from your primary care physician D. Saying whatever is on your mind

B. committing to an exercise routine

You believe that your patient should be given nitroglycerin for his chest pain. You do not have off-line protocols for this, so you should: A. encourage the patient to self-administer the medication. B. contact medical direction. C. administer the medication and document accordingly. D. transport the patient.

B. contact medical direction.

The Technical Assistance Program Assessment Standard specifying that each patient must be transported in a timely manner to the closest appropriate medical facility is: A. human resources and training. B. facilities. C. regulation and policy. D. transportation.

B. facilities The assessment standard for "facilities" identifies that each seriously ill or injured patient must be delivered in a timely manner to the closest appropriate medical facility. The human resources and training standard deals with certification, transportation deals with safe and reliable transfer via air or ground, and the regulation and policy standard is concerned with the state rules governing EMS.

Which of the following is MOST likely to lead to medical errors and poor decision making? A. Poor diet B. Fatigue C. Personal problems D. Caffeine abuse

B. fatigue

Meeting the physical demands of the EMT profession includes: A. leadership ability. B. good eyesight and color vision. C. being able to make appropriate decisions quickly. D. good moral character.

B. good eyesight and color vision

An enhanced 911 system allows the emergency dispatcher to: A. respond to the scene of a medical incident much quicker. B. immediately access the phone number and address from which the call is being made. C. provide step-by-step CPR instructions to the caller. D. contact police, fire, and EMS personnel simultaneously.

B. immediately access the phone number and address from which the call is being made

Diseases are caused by microorganisms that may be spread through the air or by contact with blood or other body fluids and that are known as: A. antimicrobes. B. pathogens. C. histamines. D. antigens.

B. pathogens

The EMT's FIRST and MOST important priority is: A. the safety of other rescuers. B. personal safety. C. patient welfare. D. proper vehicle maintenance.

B. personal safety

What do many fire departments require of an employee? A. Cross-training as a firefighter B. Cross-training as an EMT C. Cross-training as a volunteer D. Cross-training as a policeman

B. Cross-training as an EMT

Direct contact with a physician, by telephone or radio, to obtain guidance in emergency care is called: A. protocol. B. on-line medical direction. C. off-line medical direction. D. direct medical control.

B. on-line medical direction.

A Good Samaritan law will most likely protect you from a lawsuit involving: A. criminal negligence. B. gross negligence. C. care provided in good faith. D. all civil suits related to patient care.

A legal document allowing the health care provider to withhold resuscitation from a chronically or terminally ill patient is the known as the: A. termination of resuscitation B. standard of care C. advance directive D. health care proxy

A legal document usually signed by the patient and his or her physician stating that the patient has a terminal illness and does not wish to prolong life through resuscitative efforts is a: A. termination order. B. standard of care. C. do not resuscitate order. D. discontinuation directive.

A patient is injured but refuses to be transported by ambulance. He is competent to make decisions, and you have exhausted all avenues to convince him to be transported, so you have him sign a refusal of treatment form. You are demonstrating the ethical principle of: A. avoiding a conflict of interest. B. beneficence. C. a patient's right to self-determination. D. full disclosure.

All of the following can result in upper airway obstructions, except: A. infections. B. burns. C. severe bronchoconstriction. D. facial trauma.

An EMT involved in an especially difficult call, such as one in which a coworker was killed, should be urged to: A. begin a course of psychiatric medications. B. conceal the problem because care may not be covered financially. C. seek help from a trained mental health professional. D. discuss the experience freely with coworkers.

An EMT who demonstrates ideal conduct when treating patients is displaying good: A. critical thinking. B. discipline. C. ethics. D. clinical judgment.

An ambulance company states that its competitor is jumping calls to get all the Medicare money they can, doesn't provide good-quality care, and never disinfects the insides of its ambulances. This statement could be seen as: A. a moral issue. B. an ethical issue. C. slander. D. libel.

An artery is a blood vessel that only: A. carries deoxygenated blood. B. returns blood to the heart. C. carries blood away from the heart. D. carries oxygenated blood.

An emergency move would be permitted in order to change a patient's position so that you could: A. dress a wound. B. apply a cervical spine collar. C. perform CPR. D. splint an open fracture.

An important key to preventing injury while lifting or moving is: A. using manual force instead of equipment when possible. B. maintaining an outward curve of the back to reduce the potential for spinal injury. C. not compensating when lifting with one hand. D. extending or flexing the wrists and knees to prevent injury to the extremities.

An off-duty EMT is driving down the road when she sees a major vehicle accident. There are no Emergency Medical Responders on the scene yet. There are only Good Samaritans. The EMT is late for a doctor's appointment so she decides that she will not stop and help. The driver of the vehicle dies before help arrives. One of the Good Samaritans notices her EMT license plates and writes them down as she passes by. The Good Samaritan is angry that the EMT did not stop and help and tries to get the EMT fired for not helping. Which of the following statements is true? A. The EMT is negligent for not stopping and helping. B. The EMT is negligent because the patient died. C. The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act. D. The EMT is not negligent because she had a doctor's appointment.

Applying the principles of right and wrong to your role as EMT is known as: A. beneficence. B. Good Samaritan laws. C. professional ethics. D. personal beliefs.

As you enter a hectic possible crime scene, you find that a coffee table is blocking your access to the patient. Which of the following is the BEST way to manage this situation? A. Wait until one of the police officers can move the table for you. B. Use the table as a place to set your equipment as you are working on the patient. C. Move the table as little as possible, wearing gloves; notify police on the scene; and document your actions precisely in your patient care report. D. Move the table and get on with your work of caring for the patient.

A 12-year-old female patient is having an asthma attack after participating in some strenuous activity during recess at school. She's taken several doses of her own bronchodilator with little relief. Your partner immediately administers oxygen. Providing supplemental oxygen will increase the amount of oxygen molecules carried by the ________ in her blood, helping oxygenate critical organs like the brain. A. albumin B. white blood cells C. hemoglobin D. plasma

A child's ________ takes up proportionally more space in the pharynx than does an adult's. A. epiglottis B. cricoid cartilage C. tongue D. trachea

Cardiac output is composed of: A. blood pressure. B. blood pressure and heart rate. C. stroke volume and heart rate. D. systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and heart rate.

Daniel has been performing landscaping on a hot, humid summer day when he suddenly becomes dizzy and feels like he might faint. This disruption of fluid balance is most likely caused by: A. hyperthermia. B. hypotension. C. dehydration. D. tachycardia.

During a CISD, who is usually involved in a defusing session? A. Just the team of trained peer counselors and mental health professionals B. Everyone who was a part of the case, regardless of his or her direct or indirect involvement in the incident C. The people who were directly involved with the most stressful aspects of the incident D. Only the personnel who seem to be the most unaffected by the events of the incident

During which age group is the body in peak physical condition? A. Adolescent B. Middle adult C. Early adult D. Preschool

EMTs can still be held liable and NOT protected by Good Samaritan laws if: A. the patient dies from the injuries. B. their actions cause embarrassment for the patient. C. their actions demonstrate gross negligence. D. their actions demonstrate poor clinical reasoning.

Exercising, eating a healthy diet, using relaxation techniques, and seeking professional counseling are all ways of managing: A. cancer. B. anorexia. C. stress. D. critical infections.

Fire and exposure to explosives or other hazardous materials are examples of immediate dangers that would warrant: A. an urgent move such as rapid extrication. B. a rapid move such as the FAST maneuver. C. an emergency move such as a clothes drag. D. an abbreviated move such as a two-person ground lift.

General guidelines for lifting include: A. challenging yourself physically. B. positioning your feet approximately six inches apart. C. considering the size and weight of the patient. D. minimizing verbal communication.

Good Samaritan laws were enacted to: A. protect EMS services from lawsuits. B. keep patients from suing ambulance companies for the actions of their employees. C. protect individuals who try to help people in emergencies. D. protect patients from poor health care delivered by health professionals.

Healthcare employers are required by law to provide a hepatitis B ________ available to employees free of charge. A. cure B. immunity C. vaccine D. prophylaxis

How should quality improvement be practiced? A. By providing care that wouldn't be expected of an EMT with similar training B. By doing what you should do, but never talking about how you should do it C. By maintaining the standards you would wish to have provided for your family D. By making patient care and well-being a priority, without personal sacrifice

If a hole is created in the chest wall, air could escape or be drawn in, or if bleeding develops within the chest, air and blood can accumulate in the pleural space. This would force the lung to: A. work harder with minimal problems. B. increase respirations. C. collapse. D. increase the minute volume.

If a patient feels that he received harmful care by an EMT, he would need to prove that: A. the injuries were due to gross negligence. B. there was intent to harm. C. the EMT had a duty to act. D. the patient suffered a permanent injury.

If oxygen is not present in sufficient supply, the body will shift to: A. aerobic metabolism. B. mitochondrial metabolism. C. anaerobic metabolism. D. differential metabolism.

If the weight to be lifted is below your waist level, what is the proper position? A. Push or pull from a squatting position. B. Push or pull from a bent-over position. C. Push or pull from a kneeling position. D. Push or pull from a standing position.

If you describe a patient's pulse as bradycardic, this means that the pulse is: A. weak. B. fast. C. slow. D. irregular.

If your patient has a severe burn injury, you should suspect: A. hypertension. B. decreased respirations. C. fluid loss. D. increased urinary output.

Imaginary straight line divisions of the body are called: A. geometric components. B. physiological divisions. C. anatomical planes. D. positional placements.

In caring for the dying patient, it is important to: A. keep the family away from the patient to avoid any emotional stress. B. tell the patient that "everything will be all right." C. be honest about the situation and allow the family access to the patient. D. avoid telling the family how serious the patient's condition is.

In lifting a patient-carrying device, such as a stair chair, the minimum number of rescuers used should be: A. four. B. one. C. two. D. three.

In moving a patient on a stretcher, what is the safest level at which to do so? A. Mid-elevated from the ground B. A fully elevated position C. Closest to the ground D. The reclined position

In relation to anatomy, the term topography means: A. blood pressure fluctuations. B. the study of the skin. C. external landmarks of body structures. D. key elements of the central nervous system.

In which of the following locations is the femoral pulse palpated? A. Behind the knee B. On the medial side of the upper arm C. At the groin D. On the medial side of the ankle, posterior to the tibia

In reaching, what should be done every time? A. Prolong the reach. B. Twist. C. Have a locked-in back. D. Reach more than fifteen inches.

Leaving a patient after initiating care and before the patient has been transferred to someone with equal or greater medical training is known as: A. res ipsa loquitur. B. in loco parentis. C. abandonment. D. negligence.

One's "cognitive ability" refers to his or her ability to do which of the following? A. Use fine motor skills B. Adapt to stress C. Think and solve problems D. Control his or her emotions

Our blood transports oxygen from the lungs to the cells and returns with what byproduct of metabolism? A. Lactic acid B. Carbon monoxide C. Carbon dioxide D. Carbolic acid

Shock due to uncontrolled dilation of the blood vessels is most likely caused by: A. severe bleeding. B. a heart attack. C. spinal cord injury. D. damage to the lungs.

Short backboards (vest or KED) are usually used to: A. assist in lifting patients up steep terrain. B. immobilize supine patients before transport. C. immobilize sitting patients before moving them. D. secure patients with possible spinal injuries but without neurological deficits.

Stroke volume depends on a series of factors: one is the force the myocardial muscle exerts to move the blood. This is known as: A. preload. B. automaticity. C. contractility. D. afterload.

The BEST defense for lawsuits relating to the care that has been provided a patient is to: A. wait for advanced life support personnel to provide care. B. allow the most senior EMT to provide the patient care. C. keep your patient's best interests in mind when rendering care. D. always contact on-line medical control before providing any care.

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA): A. allows you to provide specific patient information to the media without additional patient consent. B. allows you to discuss specific patient information with other personnel at the station. C. allows you to discuss patient-specific information only with individuals with whom it is medically necessary to do so. D. requires you to obtain the patient's signature acknowledging receipt of your agency's privacy policy before you perform any patient interventions.

The administration of oxygen and the application of spinal immobilization is part of which of the following for the EMT? A. Duty to act B. Standard of care C. Scope of practice D. None of the above

The advantages of using a wheeled stretcher to move a patient include that: A. it is good for use on stairways, narrow corridors, and small elevators. B. it is a good spinal immobilizer and can serve as a CPR surface. C. it enables movement without carrying, is mechanically simple, and is comfortable. D. it is good for traversing rough terrain and can be lifted with a flotation harness.

The anatomical differences between the pediatric and adult airways require that: A. EMTs notify medical direction before treating an infant for respiratory problems. B. only pediatric specialists treat children. C. specific considerations be taken in treating the infant for respiratory issues. D. treatment for respiratory problems be conducted the same for both children and adults.

The basic function of the pulmonary system that is known as ventilation involves: A. the exchange of gases across cellular and alveolar membranes. B. the monitoring of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C. the movement of air into and out of the lungs. D. the rate to which the patient is breathing.

The cardiac muscle receives its supply of oxygenated blood by which of the following mechanisms? A. Absorption of oxygen from the blood returning from the lungs B. Coronary veins that branch off the pulmonary vein as it returns oxygenated blood to the heart C. Coronary arteries that branch off the aorta D. None of the above

The cellular structure that is responsible for synthesizing proteins is: A. nucleus. B. sodium pump. C. endoplasmic reticulum. D. mitochondria.

The layer of covering that protects the nervous system is called the: A. skull. B. cerebrospinal fluid. C. meninges. D. spinal column.

The movement of ions across the cell membrane is needed to accomplish repolarization. What cell structure is used to prepare for depolarization? A. Mitochondria B. Nucleus C. Sodium potassium pump D. Endoplasmic reticulum

The movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and circulating blood is called: A. osmosis. B. internal respiration. C. pulmonary (external) respiration. D. cellular respiration.

The normal stimulus to breathe is stimulated by the chemoreceptors that measure the change of what two gases? A. Low hydrogen and high carbon monoxide B. High hydrogen and low carbon dioxide C. High carbon dioxide and low oxygen D. High carbon monoxide and low oxygen

The only movable part of the skull is the: A. orbit. B. nasal bone. C. mandible. D. maxilla.

The process by which glucose and other nutrients are converted into energy is called: A. respiration. B. catabolism. C. metabolism. D. depolarization.

The process of air moving in and out of the chest is called: A. tidal volume. B. inhalation. C. ventilation. D. respiration.

The proximal end of the ulna helps to form the: A. pelvis. B. knee. C. elbow. D. wrist.

The respiratory system moves air in and out; however, to ________ cells, the air that is inhaled must meet up with the circulatory system. A. defuse B. register C. perfuse D. hyperoxygenate

The safe residual for an oxygen cylinder is ________ psi. A. 1,000 B. 300 C. 200 D. 500

The seat of respiratory control is found in the: A. lungs. B. chest. C. medulla oblongata. D. nose.

The thyroid gland, adrenal glands, and gonads are part of the: A. urinary system. B. digestive system. C. endocrine system. D. reproductive system.

The word part "cardio" is considered a medical: A. prefix. B. definition. C. root. D. suffix.

The "Stress Triad," or the body's response to a stressful stimulation, is known as general ________ syndrome. A. incident B. reaction C. adaptation D. resistance

The EMT's obligation to provide care to a patient either as a formal or ethical responsibility is known as which of the following? A. Legal responsibility B. Scope of practice C. Duty to act D. Standard of care

This type of muscle is generally attached at one or both ends to a bone by tendons. A. Smooth B. Cardiac C. Skeletal D. Involuntary

To avoid injuries while lifting and moving an obese patient over a long distance, what must always be present among team members? A. Camaraderie B. Relationships C. Communication D. Cohesion

To use your legs instead of your back to lift, you must: A. lock both elbows straight. B. keep the weight at arm's length. C. keep the weight close to your body. D. place your palms downward.

To use your legs instead of your back to lift, you must: A. place your palms downward. B. lock both elbows straight. C. keep the weight close to your body. D. keep the weight at arm's length.

To which of the following situations do Good Samaritan laws generally apply? A. Emergency care personnel who commit gross negligence B. Only government employees C. Personnel who respond to an emergency when off duty D. Individuals who establish online medical direction

Two EMTs respond to the scene of a syncopal episode. A 50-year-old patient passed out and cut his lip. The EMTs talk the patient out of an expensive ambulance ride and suggest he will save money by driving himself to urgent care instead. The patient agrees and signs a refusal form. The patient dies from sudden cardiac arrest at home the following day. Which of the following statements is true? A. The EMTs are not negligent because the patient signed the refusal form. B. The EMTs are negligent because the patient died. C. The EMTs may be negligent if there is evidence of proximate cause. D. The EMTs are not negligent because the EMTs have no control over the patient's medical condition.

Typically, the burden of proof of negligence rests with the: A. defendant. B. respondent. C. plaintiff. D. prosecutor.

Venturi masks are designed to mix oxygen with: A. nitrogen. B. humidified air. C. inhaled air. D. carbon monoxide.

Water that is found in the space between cells and blood vessels is called: A. hydrostatic. B. intravascular. C. interstitial. D. intracellular.

What can be caused by a V/Q mismatch? A. Bradycardia. B. Improved oxygenation. C. Shock. D. Hyperglycemia.

What concept is developed from an orderly, predictable environment versus a disorderly, irregular environment? A. Temperament B. Scaffolding C. Trust versus mistrust D. Bonding

What device is made of canvas or some other rubberized or flexible material, often with wooden slats sewn into pockets, and has three carrying handles on each side? A. Power stretcher B. Scoop stretcher C. Flexible stretcher D. Basket stretcher

What device is used to perform mouth-to-mask ventilation? A. Bag-valve mask B. Automatic transport ventilator C. Pocket face mask D. Stoma

What effect does sympathetic nervous system stimulation of the heart have on cardiac output? A. The heart rate slows and the blood vessels constrict, decreasing cardiac output. B. The heart rate increases and the blood vessels dilate, increasing cardiac output. C. The heart rate and the strength of heart contraction increase, increasing cardiac output. D. The blood vessels dilate and the bronchial smooth muscle relaxes, decreasing cardiac output.

What generates the force that results in hydrostatic pressure? A. The effects of large proteins in the blood B. Blood flow through the lungs during breathing C. Contraction of the left ventricle D. Gravity flow of venous blood from the brain and upper extremities

What is NOT one of the basic parts of a bag-valve-mask system? A. Be nonrebreathing B. Non-jam valve C. 15/25 respiratory fitting D. Self-refilling shell

What is a normal heart rate for a school age child? A. 80-120/minute B. 140-160/minute C. 70-110/minue D. 80-130/minute

What is the age range for a child in the school-age stage of development? A. 0 to 1 years B. 1 to 3 years C. 6 to 12 years D. 3 to 5 years

What is the cartilage that forms the lower aspect of the larynx and provides structure to the superior trachea? A. Thyroid B. Tracheal C. Cricoid D. Hyoid

What is the most common digestive disorder? A. Flatus B. Irritable bowel and gastric esophageal disease C. Vomiting and diarrhea D. Diarrhea and gastric esophageal disease

What is the recommended airflow and vacuum amount for the mounted suction unit in the back of the ambulance? A. >40 lpm and >400 mmHg B. >50 lpm and >500 mmHg C. >30 lpm and >300 mmHg D. >20 lpm and >200 mmHg

What is the stage of development where there are several physiological and psychosocial changes, second only to infancy or adolescence? A. Preschool age B. Middle adulthood C. Late adulthood D. Toddler

What is the term for placing a person in fear of bodily harm? A. Slander B. Battery C. Assault D. Libel

What is the EMT's highest priority at the scene of a hazardous materials incident? A. Identification of hazardous materials B. Patient care C. Personal safety D. Safety of bystanders

What is the inferior-most portion of the sternum? A. Manubrium B. Sternal notch C. Xiphoid process D. Body

What is the large, wing-shaped bone on either side of the pelvis? A. Ischium B. Acetabulum C. Ilium D. Pubis

What reference provides important information regarding hazardous materials, emergency care, and procedures in case of accidental fire or release; supplies definitions of placard colors and identification numbers; and should be standard issue on-board all ambulances and rescue units? A. Accidental Exposure and Contamination Guide B. Emergency Preparedness and Response Plan C. Emergency Response Guidebook D. Safety Data Sheets

What two components are directly related to aerobic metabolism? A. Electrolytes and carbohydrates B. Exercise and water C. Oxygen and glucose D. Carbolic acid and air

What would be the most comfortable stretcher for an 800-pound patient? A. Scoop B. Power C. Bariatric D. Basket

What substances, when dissolved, separate into charged particles? A. ATP B. Ions C. Electrolytes D. Cations

Wheeling a non-emergency patient into the hospital emergency department, placing him in a bed, and leaving without transferring care directly to ED staff constitute: A. acceptable actions if you have an emergency call to respond to. B. acceptable actions if someone sees you do them. C. abandonment. D. acceptable actions if the ED is very busy.

When a patient is compensating for shock, you may see which of the following signs? A. Decreased pulses B. Constricted pupils C. Diaphoresis D. Hypotension

When a patient is lying on his or her back, this is referred to as: A. semi-Fowler's. B. Fowler's. C. supine. D. recumbent.

When assessing a patient, you quickly decide that it is in the patient's best interest for you to do an emergency move. Which of the following is NOT an indication for an emergency move? A. You are unable to gain access to other patients who need lifesaving care. B. You are unable to provide lifesaving care to the patient because of the patient's location. C. Dispatch is holding calls for your community. D. There is immediate danger to you.

When carbon dioxide is not exchanged, the net result is high carbon dioxide, a condition called ________, within the body. A. hyperemia B. hyperglycemia C. hypercapnia D. hyperthermia

When confronted with an issue regarding patient consent or restraining a patient, if issues are NOT clear, which of the following concepts should guide your decision making? A. Never transport a patient who does not want to be treated. B. Always transport patients who are making bad decisions. C. Always act in the patient's best interest. D. Always assume the least legal risk.

When managing a 28-year-old male patient who has been vomiting blood and has a fever, the EMT should consider that the patient might have a: A. foodborne illness B. vector-borne illness C. bloodborne illness D. noncontagious illness

When rescuers are working together as a team to lift a patient: A. all rescuers should hold their breath during the lift process. B. no rescuer should bend the knees more than 90 degrees. C. ensure that everyone understands the plan before lifting. D. all rescuers should lift and twist at the same time.

When responding to the scene of a patient who was discovered to be unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse, family members state that the patient has been suffering from cancer for several years. One of his sons is cursing at you and your partner, saying that you are not moving fast enough. Which stage of grief is the patient's son experiencing in response to his father's death? A. Denial B. Depression C. Anger D. Acceptance

When suctioning the airway, suction should never be applied for longer than ________ seconds. A. 45 B. 60 C. 10 D. 30

When the potential exists for exposure to exhaled air of a person with suspected or confirmed TB, a(n) ________ mask should be worn by the EMT. A. B-50 B. surgical C. N-95 D. nonrebreather

When the body's water moves from the bloodstream into the interstitial space, it is called: A. hydrostatic. B. dehydration. C. edema. D. hypovolemia.

When you are lifting and carrying equipment with one hand, it is important to keep your back in what position? A. Backward curved B. Flexible C. Locked D. Forward curved

When reaching, pushing, or pulling, the EMT should always: A. keep the elbows locked in B. keep the knees locked in C. keep the back locked in. D. keep the wrists locked in

Which chamber of the heart is the strongest, most muscular part of the heart and is primarily responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body? A. Right ventricle B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle D. Left atrium

Which component of blood is responsible for forming clotting factors to stop bleeding? A. White blood cells B. Red blood cells C. Platelets D. Plasma

Which glands produce the oil that collects on the surface of the skin? A. Epithelial B. Adipose C. Sebaceous D. Meissner's

Which hormone helps the body control stress, regulate metabolism, and influence an immune response? A. Immunoglobulin B. Epinephrine C. Cortisol D. Serotonin

Which of the following BEST defines adenosine triphosphate (ATP)? A. It is the form of energy that is produced in the mitochondria from glucose and DNA. B. It is the form of energy that is produced in the nucleus from glucose and other nutrients. C. It is the form of energy produced in the mitochondria and is the cell's engine responsible for all cell function. D. It is the form of energy produced in the endoplasmic reticulum and is the cell's engine responsible for all cell function.

Which of the following BEST describes the medical condition of shock? A. An extreme emotional reaction to a stressful event B. Delayed capillary refill C. A state of inadequate tissue perfusion D. Hypotension

Which of the following circumstances should be treated as a potential crime scene? A. Death of a terminally ill patient in a nursing home B. Any scene where a child is injured C. Unexplained death of a pediatric patient D. Any scene where an injury occurs

Which of the following could be a source of information to let the EMT know that a patient is an organ donor? A. A piece of notepaper stating that fact B. The statement of a bystander who is the patient's neighbor C. The patient's driver's license D. The on-line physician

Which of the following could have an incubation period of several years? A. Tuberculosis B. Pneumonia C. AIDS D. Mumps

Which of the following describes why fast respiration may decrease minute volume? A. The rate causes turbulence in the trachea that increases the friction and decreases the amount of air movement. B. It is due to the delay in the movement of the intercostal muscles and the pleural space. C. The lungs may not have the time to fill and exchange gas. D. The rate does not decrease minute volume; it actually increases.

Which of the following incidents is the EMT required to report? A. Fall injuries B. Accidental trauma C. Child abuse D. Organ donor status

Which of the following is NOT a common psychosocial challenge of late adulthood? A. Financial burdens B. Concern about death and dying C. Self-destructive behaviors D. Issues of self-worth

Which of the following is TRUE about medical terminology? A. EMTs are encouraged to know basic medical terminology, but it is not essential. B. EMTs should use complex medical terms whenever possible. C. EMTs are expected to know basic medical terminology. D. EMTs are not allowed to use or document medical terms.

Which of the following is TRUE about the scope of practice? A. The scope of practice is the same in all jurisdictions. B. It is governed solely by the EMT's employer. C. It is governed by many medical, legal, and ethical guidelines. D. Each EMT determines his or her own scope of practice.

Which of the following is TRUE about the use of the NPA? A. It allows the EMT to spend less time monitoring the patient's airway. B. It is more likely to stimulate vomiting than the oral airway. C. It should be lubricated with a water-based lubricant before insertion. D. It can be used only in patients without a gag reflex.

Which of the following is a likely cause of distributive shock? A. Heart attack B. Collapsed lung C. Severe allergic reaction D. Burn injury

Which of the following is a medical problem that can affect the nervous system but is not directly associated with its anatomy? A. Lou Gehrig's disease B. Stroke C. Hypoglycemia D. Meningitis

Which of the following is a serious complication of vomiting? A. Hypertension B. Tachycardia C. Dehydration D. Tachypnea

Which of the following is a sign that a patient's nervous system has become impaired? A. Equal grip strength bilaterally B. Round and briskly reactive pupils C. Visual or hearing impairment D. Light touch felt in both feet

Which of the following is an advantage of a vacuum mattress? A. It does not require a pump. B. The device is nonconforming C. It naturally pads voids for greater comfort. D. The cervical collar can be removed

Which of the following is an advantage of using a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)? A. It is ideal for patients with a suspected skull fracture. B. It eliminates the need for manual positioning of the patient's head to keep the airway open. C. It may be tolerated by many patients with a gag reflex. D. All of the above

Which of the following is an indication for an emergency move? A. The patient is yelling for you to "hurry up." B. Dispatch needs you to clear rapidly, as EMS calls are backing up. C. You are unable to gain access to other patients who need lifesaving care. D. You need to practice your lifting technique.

Which of the following is likely to be inscribed on a medical alert bracelet? A. Date of birth B. Emergency contact C. Allergies D. Hospital preference

Which of the following is most likely a sign of nervous system impairment? A. Equal and reactive pupils B. An elevated blood glucose level C. Loss of sensation on one side of the body D. Increased urinary output

Which of the following is the feeling infants get when they know all their needs will be met? A. Scaffolding B. Moro reflex C. Bonding D. Trust

Which of the following is the primary function of the stomach? A. Absorption of water from food products B. Production of bile C. Chemical breakdown of food by acidic secretions D. Absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream

Which of the following may be a cause of a sunken fontanel in an infant? A. increased intracranial pressure. B. shunt failure. C. dehydration. D. meningitis.

Which of the following must the EMT perform on each and every emergency call? A. Immediately assess all patients on arrival at the scene. B. Contact the receiving facility with a patient report. C. Ensure that the scene is safe before entering. D. Wear a HEPA or N95 mask.

Which of the following structures is part of the digestive system? A. Hypothalamus B. Kidney C. Gall bladder D. Bladder

Which of the following technique is used by power weight lifters? A. Clean-and-jerk lift B. Knee-chest lift C. Power lift D. Squat thrust

Which of the following uses a battery-powered hydraulic system to lift the patient? A. A manual stretcher B. A stair chair C. A power stretcher D. A scoop stretcher

Which of the following would you expect to see if a patient's body were compensating for impaired cardiopulmonary function? A. Hypotension B. Hot, dry skin C. Increased heart rate D. Decreased level of consciousness

Which one of these groups is at greatest risk of contracting and transmitting tuberculosis? A. Uranium mine workers B. Current and former smokers C. Healthcare practitioners D. Immunosuppressed patients

While on duty, you and your partner have just cleared the hospital and are on your way to finally take a lunch break when you see an accident scene. The scene appears safe, and you see two people standing outside of their cars. You elect to continue on to lunch without stopping. As on-duty EMTs, you could be held liable for violating the: A. ethical health law. B. scope of practice. C. duty to act. D. standard of care.

While providing patient care at a secured crime scene, you should: A. use the telephone to call in a report to medical control. B. pick up any evidence that you find and give it directly to a police officer. C. not cut through holes in clothing that might have been caused by bullets or stabbing. D. cover the deceased patient with a sheet and move the body to the ambulance.

Why should multiple EMTs who are preparing to lift a patient be positioned at optimal locations around the patient? A. To match up the newest EMTs together during the lift since they will be the least experienced B. To allow better communication to the patient explaining what is about to happen C. So that EMTs with similar height and strength can be matched on either side of the patient D. So that the patient knows the EMTs understand what to do

Why should the patient who is in shock be administered oxygen? A. Oxygen will help to lower the body temperature. B. Oxygen helps to increase the blood flow through the lungs. C. The patient may be hypoxic at the cellular level. D. The vessels in the brain are dilated.

With regard to anatomical locations, which of the following is NOT true? A. The foot is distal to the knee. B. The umbilicus is located on the ventral aspect of the body. C. The mouth is proximal to the nose. D. The ears are located on the lateral aspect of the head.

You and your EMT partner respond to a local shipping warehouse for a worker who was hit by a falling crate. Upon arrival, you find the man lying on the concrete floor of the facility, alert and oriented but unable to move or even feel his legs below the waist. Based on the mechanism of injury and the symptoms, which of the patient's body systems would you suspect has been impaired? A. Endocrine system B. Cardiopulmonary system C. Nervous system D. Immune system

You and your partner have arrived on the scene of a person injured as a result of a gunshot wound during a burglary. It is unclear whether the shooter is still on the scene. You should: A. locate the shooter and restrain him or her. B. ask the patient to identify the person who shot him. C. request law enforcement immediately. D. quickly stabilize and transport the patient.

You are assessing a 6-month-old female patient who, according to the parents, is not acting normally. At this stage of development, the patient should be able to do which of the following? A. Sit alone on the floor B. Respond to the word "no" C. Sit upright in a high chair D. Sleep

You are near the end of a 24-hour shift with your permanent partner. You have noticed that over the past two or three shifts, your partner has been very irritable, indecisive, and at time condescending to your patients. These findings are consistent with: A. inadvertent operation syndrome. B. cognitive dissonance. C. a stress reaction. D. social conversion.

You are on the scene of a motor vehicle collision where a patient's car struck a utility pole. Witnesses reported to you that the patient was unconscious after the impact. However, the patient is now conscious, alert and oriented, and refusing care and transport. You should: A. have the law enforcement officer place the patient under arrest, as she is obviously in danger. B. use informed consent and tell the patient that since she was unconscious, she is not allowed to refuse. C. inform the patient of your concern and try to persuade her to go to the ED and receive treatment. D. leave after having the patient sign the refusal form.

You are on the scene of an "unknown medical" call. The patient is a 26-year-old, 250-pound male patient who suddenly becomes violently angry. Everything you say to the patient only makes him angrier. Offended by your questions, he screams that he is going to "cut your tongue out" and hurries into the kitchen. What should you do? A. Radio for police and relay to dispatch important scene information until they arrive. B. Tackle the patient before he can get a kitchen knife to stab you. C. Leave immediately to a safe area and then call for police assistance. D. Radio for police and then calmly walk out of the house, being sure to take all of your medical equipment.

You are transporting a victim from a motor vehicle collision, and the patient's condition is deteriorating rapidly. From your experience, you do not think this patient will survive transport. You noticed on the patient's driver's license that the patient is an organ donor. You can help to facilitate the patient's wishes by: A. trying to contact a family member of the patient to discuss the patient's wishes so that you can alert the hospital when you arrive. B. withholding CPR until the patient's donor status is confirmed. C. notifying medical direction of the patient's organ donor status. D. transporting the patient to facility other than the trauma center to which you are going.

You are ventilating an 85-year-old male without difficulty. A nurse tells you that the patient has dentures. To ensure a good mask seal, you should: A. use an infant mask over the nose. B. remove the dentures. C. leave the dentures in place. D. tape the dentures in place.

You arrive at a residence for a patient who is in cardiac arrest. The patient has a valid DNR but is also an organ donor. Some family members demand that you transport the patient for organ donation, and others demand that you not start CPR. You should: A. apply the AED but withhold CPR. B. tell the family that they must leave. C. contact medical direction. D. transport the patient immediately.

You document on your run sheet that your patient with altered mental status is "just another drunk." This would likely be considered: A. negligence. B. a HIPAA violation. C. libel. D. slander.

You have been dispatched to a home where, upon entering, you note that there is smoke in the rear of the building. The patient is unconscious on the living room couch. You have about two to three minutes to get the patient out the front door. What type of move will this require? A. A nonurgent move will work in this case. B. Get the stair chair and wheel the patient out. C. An emergency move will be the most appropriate in this case. D. Use an urgent move to get the patient out.

You have been under a lot of family stress lately, and you have not been sleeping well. When you got to work this morning, you realized that you had forgotten to place your badge on your uniform shirt. You tell your partner that you cannot seem to think clearly. Your partner tells you that he is concerned about your well-being. After hearing this, you know that your duty as an EMT is to: A. quit talking about your problems at work, as you are worried what your crew members would say. B. go see your physician. C. take off work until you can straighten out your family problem and make sure that you are mentally prepared to work. D. tell your partner that you feel better after talking to him and go about your work.

You observe a coworker telling a terminal cancer patient and her family, "Everything will be okay." Making false reassurances is considered: A. caring and supportive. B. ambiguous and uncertain. C. naive and uncompassionate. D. professional and discreet.

You respond to a large concert venue where a number of spectators are reported to be severely intoxicated. You are directed to an area where several patients appear to be unconscious, lying face down on the ground. The position of these patients is described as: A. supine. B. anterior. C. prone. D. posterior.

Your patient is a motorcyclist who was ejected after striking a guard rail. The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli and is breathing shallowly six to eight times per minute. Which of the following should you do first? A. Apply a nonrebreather mask with an oxygen flow rate of 15 lpm. B. Perform a rapid trauma assessment. C. Use a bag-valve mask with supplemental oxygen. D. Apply a cervical collar.

Your patient is a 10-year-old boy who suffered a possible fractured arm while rollerblading at a friend's house. Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain consent for treatment? A. Get consent from the patient's 15-year-old sister, who is at the scene. B. Act on implied consent. C. Call the patient's mother at work. D. Allow the patient to consent as an emancipated minor.

Your patient is a 22-year-old female who was involved in a low-speed car crash. Her only complaint is some tenderness in her neck. What is the MOST appropriate way to care for her? A. Use the rapid extrication technique B. Use a long backboard to remove her from the vehicle C. Apply a short backboard (vest or KED) while she is seated in the car D. Ask her to sit on the long backboard on your stretcher, and strap her in

Your patient is conscious, has no trauma, and is complaining of dyspnea. Which of the following is most likely the BEST way to position the patient during transport? A. Left recumbent B. Lying flat C. Sitting upright D. Feet elevated

Your unit has arrived on the scene of a multiple vehicle collision where several vehicles have rear-ended each other. You are directed by the incident commander to care for a 23-year-old female in the first vehicle. The firefighter on-scene holding manual spinal immobilization indicates that her primary complaint is back pain from her head whipping back and forth from the impact. Your understanding of the anatomy of the spinal column and vertebrae suggests that this type of mechanism of injury results in frequent injuries to which part of the spinal column? A. Lumbar spine B. Thoracic spine C. Cervical spine D. Sacral spine

Your 4-month-old patient is reported to be irritable and lethargic after feeding poorly for two days. One method for assessing the patient's level of hydration is to gently palpate the soft spots on the surface of the skull. These soft spots are also known as the: A. carpals. B. mandibles. C. fontanelles. D. acromion process.

Your 89-year-old male patient has called for help because he almost passed out after bringing in his garbage cans from the curb. The patient lives alone and says that he became panicked when he started feeling so lightheaded and dizzy. Patients in this age group often undergo all of the following changes to their health, except: A. sleep-wake cycle disrupted. B. blood volume decreases. C. increased metabolism. D. deterioration of respiratory system.

Normally, respiratory drive is triggered by changing levels of: A. oxygen. B. glucose. C. carbon dioxide. D. pH.

You are on the scene of a patient who has had a seizure. The patient is now postictal and confused. The patient's husband is on scene and states that the patient usually is confused after a seizure and she will eventually come around. He states that he does not want her to be transported, as they cannot afford another ED bill. You should: A. stay on scene with the patient until she becomes alert and oriented to the point at which she can sign the refusal. B. contact medical direction to have them permit the husband to sign the refusal. C. treat and transport the patient to the ED. D. allow the husband to sign the refusal on behalf of the patient.

C If the patient is not conscious and alert/oriented, EMS cannot obtain a refusal. If the husband had the legal authority through documentation to sign on behalf of the patient, then he could do so. Waiting on scene for the patient to become alert is not an option, as it is unknown how long that would take or whether there is a primary problem, other than the seizure, for which the EMTs would delay care by waiting.

When assessing a patient, you quickly decide that it is in the patient's best interest for you to do an emergency move. Which of the following is NOT an indication for an emergency move? A. There is immediate danger to you. B. You are unable to provide lifesaving care to the patient because of the patient's location. C. Dispatch is holding calls for your community. D. You are unable to gain access to other patients who need lifesaving care.

C Indications for an emergency move include (1) immediate environmental danger to the patient or rescuer, (2) inability to gain access to other patients who need lifesaving care, and (3) inability to provide lifesaving care because of the patient's location or position.

What is the maximum oxygen flow rate when using a nasal cannula? A. 2 to 4 lpm. B. 6 to 8 lpm. C. 6 lpm. D. 8 to 10 lpm.

C. 6 lpm. The flow for the nasal cannula is 1 to 6 liters per minute. Higher flow rates are uncomfortable for the patient and will dry out the mucous membranes.

Which of the following patients is at risk for failure of the cardiopulmonary system? A. A patient who was poked in the rib B. A patient who was stabbed in the hand C. A patient who was shot in the chest D. A patient with a cut on the bottom of a foot

C. A patient who was shot in the chest A gunshot to the chest can damage the heart, lungs, and major blood vessels, all of which can put a patient at risk for failure of the cardiopulmonary system.

What is necessary for oxygen to diffuse from the alveoli to the bloodstream? A. Adequate platelets B. Adequate nitrogen C. Adequate perfusion D. Adequate glucose

C. Adequate perfusion Adequate ventilation, diffusion, and perfusion are necessary for oxygen to effectively diffuse from the alveoli to the bloodstream.

What is the primary route of transmission for influenza? A. Cross-contamination through contact with blood B. Exposure to contaminated fecal material C. Airborne droplets from coughing D. Contact with infected lesion

C. Airborne droplets from coughing

Which of the following situations would likely create the LEAST amount of stress in an experienced EMT? A. Industrial emergency in which your partner, overcome by toxic fumes, dies B. Physical and sexual abuse of a two-year-old female by her father C. Auto accident in which a critically injured patient dies D. MCI in which a commercial airliner has crashed

C. Auto accident in which a critically injured patient dies

Which of the following is found in poultry and can affect humans? A. ARDS B. H1N1 C. Avian flu D. West Nile virus

C. Avian flu

What is the mode of transmission for Ebola? A. Airborne droplets. B. Respiratory droplets. C. Blood and body fluids. D. Nasal secretions.

C. Blood and body fluids.

A car has struck an electrical pole, and there are live wires down on the car. A patient is trapped in the vehicle. What is the MOST appropriate action? A. Approach the car cautiously, and watch for gasoline leaks. B. Perform a rapid extrication, but do not touch the wires. C. Do not approach the car, and call the electric company. D. Have the fire department rescue the patient and bring him to you.

C. Do not approach the car, and call the electric company.

What protective measures should the EMT take for a patient who is known to be infected with a staphylococcal skin infection? A. Gloves only B. Hand washing only C. Gloves and hand washing D. Mask or eyewear

C. Gloves and hand washing

Why should a portable oxygen tank never be allowed to stand upright in the ambulance or in a patient's home? A. The oxygen regulator does not function properly if the tank is not lying on its side. B. The liter flow is unreliable when the tank is upright. C. It may fall, cracking the neck or breaking the valve. D. Not all the oxygen can be used when the tank is standing upright.

C. It may fall, cracking the neck or breaking the valve. Never stand an oxygen tank upright or in any position in which it may fall and possibly break off its valve. Lay the oxygen tank down next to the patient.

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a high-risk environment for catching TB? A. Correctional facility B. Long-term care center C. Local playground D. Homeless shelter

C. Local playground

What U.S. entity established guidelines that require certain precautions to be taken to prevent the transmission of disease through contact with body fluids? A. The Surgeon General B. Pathology and disease control C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration D. Transportation and highway safety

C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

Why is adhesive tape never used to protect an oxygen tank outlet or to mark or label any oxygen cylinders? A. Adhesive tape does provide the necessary protection. B. It will dissolve the seal between the tank and the flowmeter. C. Oxygen can react with the adhesive and cause a fire. D. It may cause the regulator to become greasy and sticky.

C. Oxygen can react with the adhesive and cause a fire.

Stress is: A. an abnormal reaction to a traumatizing event experienced by the EMT. B. a normal reaction that occurs very infrequently during the career of an EMT. C. a state of physical or psychological arousal to a stimulus. D. a disease process in which the EMT feels bad after a particularly difficult call.

C. a state of physical or psychological arousal to a stimulus.

You are near the end of a 24-hour shift with your permanent partner. You have noticed that over the past two or three shifts, your partner has been very irritable, indecisive, and at time condescending to your patients. These findings are consistent with: A. social conversion. B. inadvertent operation syndrome. C. a stress reaction. D. cognitive dissonance.

C. a stress reaction.

Both pulmonary and cellular respiration primarily involve: A. the alveoli and the circulating blood. B. the cells and the circulating blood. C. blood and the diffusion of oxygen. D. the diffusion of dead air space.

C. blood and the diffusion of oxygen.

For a patient with a stoma, the first step of artificial ventilation using a BVM is to: A. ventilate as though for a pediatric patient. B. use an adult-sized mask. C. clear any mucus or secretions from the stoma. D. position the airway prior to ventilations.

C. clear any mucus or secretions from the stoma.

When an EMT finds a position that both hides and protects his or her body from projectiles, it is called: A. cowering. B. concealment. C. cover. D. cowardly.

C. cover.

The Technical Assistance Program Assessment Standard specifying that each patient must be transported in a timely manner to the closest appropriate medical facility is: A. transportation. B. human resources and training. C. facilities. D. regulation and policy.

C. facilities.

Cyanosis is most likely a sign of: A. tachypnea. B. adequate breathing. C. inadequate breathing. D. shock.

C. inadequate breathing. Cyanosis is a sign of inadequate breathing.

The warning signs of stress include: A. long periods of uninterrupted sleep. B. a rigorous exercise regime. C. irritability with family, friends, and coworkers. D. increased interest in work.

C. irritability with family, friends, and coworkers.

Your patient has an altered mental status and is breathing 60 times per minute. You should: A. apply high-flow oxygen via nonrebreather mask. B. provide assisted ventilations at a rate of 60 per minute. C. provide assisted ventilations at 10 to 12 breaths per minute. D. coach the patient to slow his breathing.

C. provide assisted ventilations at 10 to 12 breaths per minute. When assisting ventilations with a patient spontaneously breathing, make every attempt to synchronize your PPV with the patient's inhalation. However, if the patient is breathing fast, attempt ventilation every other or every third breath at first.

When applying an alcohol-based hand cleaner, you should: A. allow your hands to air dry. B. use at least two ounces. C. rub your hands until they are dry. D. apply the cleaner to your face while your hands are still wet.

C. rub your hands until they are dry.

The majority of carbon dioxide in the body gets eliminated: A. through the renal system. B. through the vascular system. C. through the pulmonary system. D. through the pancreatic system.

C. through the pulmonary system. The largest amount of carbon dioxide is released through the pulmonary system via exhalation.

A TST test or PPD test is used to test for: A. mumps. B. hepatitis B. C. tuberculosis. D. smallpox.

C. tuberculosis.

If an oxygen humidifier is going to be used in the ambulance for a long trip, the EMT should: A. partially fill the reusable bottle with Betadine. B. completely fill the bottle with sterile saline. C. use fresh water in a clean reservoir. D. completely fill the bottle with rubbing alcohol.

C. use fresh water in a clean reservoir. The humidifier can easily provide a breeding ground for pathogens. Always use fresh water and a clean reservoir, preferably a sterile, single-patient use humidifier.

The CISD model is now: A. becoming more popular in EMS. B. mandated by most EMS agencies. C. used less frequently. D. guaranteed to accelerate the healing process.

C. used less frequently.

Safe patient lifting and moving techniques include: A. carrying as much equipment as you can at one time to minimize on-scene time. B. having patients walk to the ambulance. C. using the easiest recommended moves and equipment. D. using as few people as possible to assist with the lifting to avoid injuries.

C. using the easiest recommended moves and equipment.

Indications that an adult patient is being adequately ventilated include: A. ventilations are provided once every 12 seconds. B. capillary refill is greater than 3 seconds. C. visible chest rise. D. an increase in the patient's heart rate.

C. visible chest rise. Visible chest rise is a key indicator of effective ventilations.

What type of mask should you don if you suspect that the elderly patient for whom you are caring has tuberculosis? A. High-action particulate air (HAPA) mask B. No mask or face protection is necessary with a patient who is suspected of having TB. C. N-95 respirator D. Disposable surgical type face mask

C. N-95 respirator

What is a comprehensive system that includes education and resources to both prevent stress and deal with stress appropriately when it occurs? A. MICU B. MDMA C. CISM D. TNCC

C. CISM

Which of the following is LEAST likely to employ an EMT? A. Ambulance service B. Industrial setting C. Funeral home D. Fire department

C. Funeral home

Which of the following activities is most likely to lead to harm to the EMT or the patient if performed improperly?: A. Taking vital signs B. Communicating with the dispatcher C. Lifting and moving patients D. Conducting a patient history

C. Lifting and moving patients

You have just assessed a patient in her living room, and you notice the couch is in front of an open window. You are on the third floor, and the window has only a screen on it. If there are toddlers and preschoolers in the home, what would be good injury prevention advice for the family? A. Always keep the stairs free of clothing. B. Close the window, as children can easily get sick from exposure to outdoor air. C. Move the couch away from the window. D. Get an air conditioner instead of house fans.

C. Move the couch away from the window.

Which of the following is one of the two organizations that outlined the minimal standards for an EMT's scope of practice in the United States? A. World Health Organization B. World Centers for Disease Control C. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration D. U.S. Department of Labor

C. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration The minimum accepted standards are defined by the document National EMS Core Content, which was jointly developed by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) and the Health Resources and Services Administration.

Of the four levels of prehospital emergency medical training, which provides the most advanced level of prehospital care? A. Emergency Medical Technician level B. Advanced EMT level C. Paramedic level D. Emergency Medical Responder level

C. Paramedic level

What is the name of the program that EMS services should establish to better assess the ongoing efficiency of the care they are rendering to patients? A. Continuing education B. Enhanced 911 C. Quality improvement D. Trauma registry

C. Quality improvement system of internal and external reviews and audits of all aspects of an emergency medical system. To ensure that the public receives the highest-quality prehospital care, the goals of quality improvement are to identify the aspects of the system that can be improved and to implement plans and programs that will remedy any shortcomings.

Which of the following caused concern worldwide when it emerged and caused almost 800 deaths? A. AIDS B. TB C. SARS D. CHF

C. SARS

Which step in the evidence-based medicine process deals with the concept of determining what we already know about a particular intervention or situation? A. Appraising evidence for validity and reliability B. Changing of protocol on the basis of the research outcome C. Searching medical literature D. Formulating a question

C. Searching medical literature

You are charged with revising the destination protocol for trauma patients in your EMS system. Having this policy in place helps to fulfill which of the Technical Assistance Program Assessment Standards? A. Medical direction B. Transportation C. Trauma systems D. Facilities

C. Trauma systems Each state must develop a system of specialized care for trauma patients, including one or more trauma centers and rehabilitation programs plus systems for assigning and transporting patients to those facilities. The medical direction standard provides oversight; facilities deals with the transport of all patients (not just trauma); and transportation deals with the safe and reliable transfer of patients by air or ground.

The National Highway Safety Act charged which government entity with developing an EMS system and upgrading prehospital emergency care? A. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services B. State EMS agencies C. U.S. Department of Transportation D. American Red Cross

C. U.S. Department of Transportation

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an Advanced EMT should be trained to: A. initiate cardiac pacing. B. decompress a chest cavity. C. administer medications intravenously. D. perform a needle jet insufflation.

C. administer medications intravenously The AEMT provides all of the skills of the EMT with the addition of the use of advanced airway devices, monitoring of blood glucose levels, initiation of IV and IO infusions, and administration of a select number of medications via IV push.

As an EMT, your role in quality improvement includes: A. conducting follow-up interviews with patients. B. keeping your opinions and observations to yourself. C. carefully and thoroughly documenting each call. D. withholding important information from your CQI officer because it pertains to your partner.

C. carefully and thoroughly documenting each call.

Which of the following is one of the three actions required to respond to danger? A. Plan B. Attack C. Retreat D. Report

C. retreat

Off-line medical direction may be provided through: A. call review. B. medical direction by phone. C. standing orders. D. medical direction by radio.

C. standing orders.

EMS has a role in many public health issues, including: A. promoting safer vehicle design. B. enforcing the speeding laws. C. vaccination programs. D. regulating the number of work hours.

C. vaccination programs.

A car has struck an electrical pole, and there are live wires down on the car. A patient is trapped in the vehicle. What is the MOST appropriate action? A. Perform a rapid extrication, but do not touch the wires. B. Approach the car cautiously, and watch for gasoline leaks. C. Have the fire department rescue the patient and bring him to you. D. Do not approach the car, and call the electric company.

A condition that is caused by a decreased number of red blood cells is called: A. erythrocythemia. B. polycythemia. C. leukemia. D. anemia.

A disruption of the balance between oncotic pressure and hydrostatic pressure is critical to regulating: A. waste removal and urine. B. oxygenation and perfusion. C. perfusion and proper circulation to the tissues. D. blood pressure and cell hydration.

A disruption of the body's fluid balance due to dehydration would most likely cause: A. anaphylactic shock B. cardiogenic shock C. neurogenic shock D. hypovolemic shock

A gurgling sound in the upper airway indicates that: A. the patient has subdural edema. B. the airway is occluded by the tongue. C. the glottic opening is swelling shut. D. the airway is partially occluded by fluid.

A nonrebreather mask at 12 to 15 liters per minute will generally provide the patient what percentage of oxygen? A. 16-21 B. 90-100 C. 24-44 D. 80-100

A patient breathing in room air should be receiving ________ percent oxygen. A. 16 B. 5 C. 100 D. 21

A patient with pulmonary edema would suffer from: A. hyperoxia, causing free radical damage to healthy tissue B. slower and shallower respirations C. too much blood flow causes too much carbon dioxide removal D. inability to oxygenate the blood and remove carbon dioxide

A patient would see a cardiologist for a problem with the: A. stomach. B. bones. C. brain. D. heart.

A stair chair should be used in which of the following circumstances? A. When the patient has a suspected spinal injury B. When the patient has a lower-extremity injury C. When the patient has altered mental status D. When traversing narrow corridors and doorways

All of the following are ways that an EMT can increase both physical and mental well-being, except: A. following a regular walking regimen. B. eating a balanced diet. C. spending more time relaxing with friends and family. D. drinking moderate amounts of caffeine and alcohol.

Among the sources that are used to define the EMT's scope of practice is the: A. The U.S. Department of Transportation's Emergency Response Guidebook. B. The EMT textbook. C. The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians certification exam. D. The EMS system's medical director.

An EMS provider's standard of care represents and defines: A. specific care that is provided to patients once they reach a hospital. B. laws that define and govern the specific actions of EMTs. C. the national curriculum of care taught by EMT instructors. D. the care that would be expected to be provided on the basis of training.

An EMT fails to properly care for a patient despite having a duty to act. The EMT is most likely guilty of: A. domestic abuse. B. psychological abuse. C. child endangerment. D. negligence.

An EMT is confronted by an armed gunman who is threatening to kill the EMT and his partner. An elevation in the EMT's heart rate and blood pressure occurs in which stage of the body's response to stress? A. Response stage B. Exhaustion stage C. Resistance stage D. Alarm reaction stage

An EMT should consider wearing protective eyewear when caring for which of these patients? A. A trauma patient who is covered in dirt, rocks, and other foreign debris B. A patient with a difficult-to-visualize scalp laceration C. A patient who was sprayed with mace by police during arrest D. A patient who is actively coughing

An EMT who has a duty to act but does not provide the standard of care may be accused of: A. acting outside of his or her scope of practice. B. violating the public trust. C. breaking the Good Samaritan law. D. negligence.

An EMT who turns the care of a multisystem trauma patient over to a doctor of dermatology has likely: A. violated patient confidentiality laws. B. legally and appropriately transferred care. C. provided implied consent. D. abandoned the patient.

An advantage of knowing basic medical terminology is that: A. using medical terminology helps to distinguish the medical profession from all others. B. medical terminology shortens discussions with the ED so that the EMT can get back into service faster. C. medical terms bypass the need for an EMT to understand pathophysiology. D. a medical term can be used to encompass many symptoms to describe a particular patient.

An exaggerated response by the immune system to a particular substance is called: A. apoptosis. B. humoral immunity. C. cell-mediated immunity. D. hypersensitivity.

Any patient who is unresponsive and has no spinal injury should be placed on the cot in which position? A. Trendelenburg B. Fowler's C. Supine D. Recovery

An infant's primary means of communication is: A. grunting. B. babbling. C. grabbing. D. crying.

At which of the following locations could you palpate a malleolus? A. Elbow B. Spinal column C. Wrist D. Ankle

A 59-year-old male has suffered a severe laceration from a circular saw while cutting wood in his garage. Upon your arrival, you find the patient sitting on the floor in a pool of blood. He is extremely pale. Based on your knowledge of pathophysiology, you would expect his body to try to compensate for the blood loss in all of the following ways, except: A. increased respirations. B. sweaty skin. C. increased pulse. D. constricted pupils.

A ________ is not typically used in the prehospital setting for oxygen administration. A. tracheostomy mask B. nasal cannula C. regulator D. partial rebreather mask

Cells produce the MOST energy from: A. anaerobic metabolism. B. mitochondrial metabolism. C. differential metabolism. D. aerobic metabolism.

Concerns over health and mortality often come to mind in what stage of development? A. Early adulthood B. Adolescence C. Middle adulthood D. Late adulthood

Consent for treatment that is assumed from an unconscious patient is called: A. expressed consent. B. parental consent. C. applied consent. D. implied consent.

Critical Incident Stress Debriefings (CISDs): A. have been replaced with "defusings." B. must be held from 2 to 4 hours following an incident to be effective. C. are always recommended. D. are now less common than they once were.

Documents signed by a patient that communicate his or her wishes regarding medical care are called: A. extended patient directives. B. physician orders. C. automated care orders. D. advance directives.

Due to the high risk of an unstable work environment, EMTs responding to a motor vehicle crash may consider using ________ in addition to standard PPE. A. N-95 masks B. face shields C. Level B hazmat suits D. heavy-duty gloves

During the depression stage of dying, the patient may: A. appear to be relieved and look forward to "passing on." B. appear to accept death, though not be happy about it. C. target the EMT with anger. D. become silent, distant, sad, and despondent.

EMTs can still be held liable and NOT protected by Good Samaritan laws if: A. the patient dies from the injuries. B. their actions demonstrate poor clinical reasoning. C. their actions cause embarrassment for the patient. D. their actions demonstrate gross negligence.

Emergency moves may be necessary if: A. the patient is really screaming. B. additional calls are holding. C. There is a meeting later in the afternoon that you do not want to miss. D. there is a threat of fire or possible explosion.

Expressed consent: A. occurs when you assume that a patient who is unresponsive would consent to life-saving emergency care. B. is obtained from a parent or legal guardian. C. is obtained from a law enforcement officer who has placed the patient in custody. D. must be obtained from every conscious, mentally competent adult before treatment is started.

For many conscious patients, which of the following is the most comfortable position for transport? A. Fetal position B. Shock position C. Prone position D. Semi-sitting position.

Glucose is a building block for what form of energy in the cell? A. Electrolytes B. Mitochondria C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. ATP

How many rescuers are recommended in moving a patient with a stair chair? A. Two B. One C. Five D. Three

If a patient feels that he received harmful care by an EMT, he would need to prove that: A. the patient suffered a permanent injury. B. the injuries were due to gross negligence. C. there was intent to harm. D. the EMT had a duty to act.

If an EMT were to release information about how intoxicated a patient was onto a social networking site, this could be considered: A. slander. B. battery. C. breach of faith. D. libel.

If at all possible, what should be done with dentures? A. Remove them and leave them on scene. B. Take them out. C. Clean and replace them. D. Leave them in place.

If the EMT is in doubt as to whether a patient in cardiac arrest should be resuscitated, which of the following is the best decision? A. Consult with the patient's physician. B. Have the patient's family put their wishes in writing. C. Withhold resuscitative measures. D. Begin resuscitative measures.

If they discovered that a seriously injured patient is an organ donor, the emergency care providers should: A. ignore a DNR order and perform CPR. B. transport the patient to a donor harvesting site. C. confirm with the family that this was the patient's decision. D. treat the patient the same as a nondonor.

If your patient is lying face up on his or her back, the patient is said to be in what position? A. Prone B. Anatomical C. Lateral D. Supine

If your patient were in shock but her body's responses were able to maintain adequate perfusion, the patient would be in: A. irreversible shock. B. decompensated shock. C. progressive shock. D. compensated shock.

In the absence of a DNR order or physician's instructions, the EMT is obligated to: A. contact medical control before beginning resuscitation efforts. B. withhold resuscitation efforts until the patient's physician is contacted. C. comply with the wishes of the patient's family. D. begin full resuscitation immediately.

In what stage of adulthood is a person who is 45 years of age? A. Geriatric adulthood B. Early adulthood C. Late adulthood D. Middle adulthood

On which of the following types of calls should you bring your portable suction unit to the patient's side upon arrival on the scene? A. Cardiac arrest B. Seizure C. Motor vehicle collision D. All of the above

One of the byproducts of metabolism without oxygen is: A. urea. B. uric acid. C. creatinine. D. lactic acid.

Physiology is the study of: A. exercise and nutrition. B. body structures. C. muscles and movement. D. body systems.

Production of energy occurs in what part of the cell? A. Nucleus B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Potassium pump D. Mitochondria

Stress is: A. an abnormal reaction to a traumatizing event experienced by the EMT. B. a disease process in which the EMT feels bad after a particularly difficult call. C. a normal reaction that occurs very infrequently during the career of an EMT. D. a state of physical or psychological arousal to a stimulus.

Suctioning is used to correct: A. foreign body airway obstruction. B. large chunks of vomitus in the airway. C. bronchoconstriction. D. fluid in the upper airway.

The BEST defense for lawsuits relating to the care that has been provided a patient is to: A. always contact on-line medical control before providing any care. B. allow the most senior EMT to provide the patient care. C. wait for advanced life support personnel to provide care. D. keep your patient's best interests in mind when rendering care.

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA): A. allows you to discuss specific patient information with other personnel at the station. B. allows you to provide specific patient information to the media without additional patient consent. C. requires you to obtain the patient's signature acknowledging receipt of your agency's privacy policy before you perform any patient interventions. D. allows you to discuss patient-specific information only with individuals with whom it is medically necessary to do so.

The actions and care that are legally allowed for the EMT are called the: A. standing orders. B. Good Samaritan law. C. standard of care. D. scope of practice.

The cervical spine is formed by: A. five vertebrae in the lower back. B. five fused vertebrae at the pelvis. C. twelve vertebrae inferior to the neck. D. the first seven vertebrae.

The inside of a person's thigh is also known as its ________ aspect. A. lateral B. axillary C. inferior D. medial

The medical term that is used to refer to the palm of the hand is: A. distal. B. superior. C. plantar. D. palmar.

The movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide across the cell membranes from the capillaries is called: A. oxygenation. B. external respiration. C. dehydration. D. internal respiration.

The net result of respiratory challenges is low oxygen, also called ________, within the body. A. anoxia B. hypoglycemia C. anorexia D. hypoxia

The obligation of an EMT to provide care is called the: A. standard of care. B. scope of practice. C. Good Samaritan law. D. duty to act.

The pressure against the walls of the blood vessels as blood is ejected from the heart and circulates through the body is the ________ blood pressure. A. diastolic B. central venous C. mean arterial D. systolic

The study of how disease affects the functioning of the human body is called: A. physiology. B. anatomy. C. psychology. D. pathophysiology.

The technique of the power lift includes: A. placing your hands about three to four inches apart. B. turning your feet slightly inward for stability. C. keeping your feet close together. D. bending your knees to bring your center of gravity closer to the object.

The trachea branches off at the ________ and forms two mainstem bronchi. A. pleura B. alveoli C. bronchioles D. carina

The two major portions of the skull are the: A. manubrium and mandible. B. frontal bone and ilium. C. atlas and axis. D. cranium and face.

There are two types of spine boards, one of which is the: A. pediatric spine board. B. padded spine board. C. pneumatic spine board. D. long spine board.

The high-pitched sound caused by an upper airway obstruction is known as: A. rales. B. rhonchi. C. gurgling. D. stridor.

To calculate the minute volume, you need to multiply what two measurements? A. Tidal volume and dead space air B. Alveolar ventilation and respiratory rate C. Respiratory rate and bronchial dilation D. Tidal volume and respiratory rate

To minimize or prevent aggravation of a spinal injury during an emergency move, the EMT should move the patient in the direction of the: A. lateral axis of the body. B. vertical axis of the body. C. short axis of the body. D. long axis of the body.

To minimize your risk of serious back injury while lifting: A. use the muscles of your back. B. keep your head and shoulders level with your hips, and keep your hips above your feet. C. keep the weight of the object to be lifted away from your body. D. use the large muscles of your legs, hips, and buttocks.

Upon arrival, you discover a deceased patient who apparently committed suicide. You must first: A. contact a member of the immediate family. B. document the scene. C. begin taking statements from bystanders. D. notify law enforcement.

Vomiting is a: A. sign of hypoxia. B. result of dehydration. C. cause of sepsis. D. cause of dehydration.

What action does an organ undergo to best describe the term hypertrophy? A. Wasting B. Changing C. Absence D. Enlargement

What are the small sacs in the lungs called where the exchange of gases takes place? A. Epiglottis. B. Bronchus. C. Pharynx. D. Alveoli.

What condition of immediate concern results from a loss of red blood cells due to hemorrhage? A. Decreased production of carbon dioxide B. Decrease in pulse rate C. Decreased ability to fight infection D. Decreased oxygen delivery to the tissues

What division of the nervous system is activated when the body goes into shock? A. Somatic B. Parietal C. Parasympathetic D. Sympathetic

What do chemoreceptors found in the body and vascular system measure? A. Low oxygen and low carbon dioxide B. High oxygen and high carbon dioxide C. High oxygen and low carbon dioxide D. Low oxygen and high carbon dioxide

What is a common term used to describe the items needed for Standard Precautions or body substance isolation precautions? A. Harm-reduction strategy B. Infection-control plan C. Exposure-control plan D. Personal protective equipment

What is a set of regulations and ethical considerations that define the extent and limits of the EMT's job? A. Standard of care B. Res ipsa loquitur C. Tort D. Scope of practice

What is a set of regulations and ethical considerations that define the extent and limits of the EMT's job? A. Tort B. Res ipsa loquitur C. Standard of care D. Scope of practice

What is a simple step EMTs can perform to help prevent the spread of flu in the prehospital environment? A. Transport all patients with coughs to negative pressure rooms. B. Notify the CDC and local health department of flu cases. C. Encourage patients to get their H1N1 antivirals early in the flu season. D. Place a surgical mask on suspected flu patients.

What is a positive, healthy way to help deal with stress? A. Adding workload to a busy regular schedule B. Caffeine to "get up and go" C. Drinking alcohol to "unwind" D. Regular physical exercise

What is the BEST way to transport a patient securely who is suspected of having a spinal injury? A. Semi-Fowler's on the cot with the five-point harness attached B. Supine on the cot C. Sitting the captain's chair with the lap and shoulder belt on D. Fully immobilized with necessary spinal precautions

What is the MOST important thing you can do to prevent an injury to yourself when moving patients? A. Work with a strong partner. B. Let your partner lift the head of the wheeled cot. C. Always call for backup for any patient who weighs over 200 pounds. D. Know your limitations.

What is the distinction between anatomy and physiology? A. The terms are synonymous. B. Anatomy is the study of body components and systems, and physiology is the study of injuries and disease processes. C. Anatomy is the study of physical body structures, whereas physiology is the study of emotions and behavior. D. Anatomy is the study of body structures, and physiology is the study of body function.

What is the effect of oxygen in the body? A. It increases the action of anaerobic metabolism. B. It is the primary stimulus to breath. C. It causes hemoglobin to take on a bluish coloration. D. It allows the continuation of aerobic metabolism.

What is the meaning of the acronym "CPAP"? A. Combined pulmonary action potential B. Conductive paired alveolar perfusion C. Circulatory perfusion assistance power D. Continuous positive airway pressure

What is the overall purpose of a CISD event? A. To provide professional counseling for the emergency workers who participated in the event B. To provide a method of tracking MCI events and the types of human responses that occur both during and after the event C. To identify how to improve the emergency response system D. To provide a means to relieve the stress experienced by those who were involved in the incident

What is the percentage of oxygen provided by connecting a high flow of oxygen to the oxygen inlet found on a pocket mask? A. 21% B. 16% C. 100% D. 50%

What is the primary rule in dealing with a hazardous material incident? A. Always have the Emergency Response Guidebook available on your phone. B. Make sure your ambulance is equipped with binoculars for identifying placards. C. Immediately begin to care for your patients. D. Maintain a safe distance from the source of the hazardous material.

What is the relatively rare condition that can cause respiratory depression? A. Lungs can react unfavorably to oxygen when the concentration is too high for a long period of time and this can depress breathing. B. High concentration of oxygen can depress breathing when the patient has an allergic reaction from the oxygen. C. The eyes can develop scar tissue on the retina from a high concentration of oxygen. D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has changed the stimulus to breathe to the hypoxic drive and high concentration can depress breathing.

What is the sound of the soft tissue of the upper airway creating impedance or partial obstruction to the flow of air? A. Stridor B. Gurgling C. Hoarseness D. Snoring

What is the strongest and most muscular part of the heart? A. Right atrium B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Left ventricle

What is the type of patient-carrying device that transports a patient in a sitting position? A. Scoop stretcher B. Long backboard C. Wheeled stretcher D. Stair chair

What may interfere with an EMT's ability to care for a patient at a crime scene? A. The patient has multiple injuries. B. The EMT's name badge contains improper credentials. C. The patient is bleeding from a wrist laceration. D. The police want to interview the patient.What may interfere with an EMT's ability to care for a patient at a crime scene? A. The patient has multiple injuries. B. The EMT's name badge contains improper credentials. C. The patient is bleeding from a wrist laceration. D. The police want to interview the patient.

What system produces chemicals called hormones that help to regulate many body activities and functions? A. Lymphatic system B. Digestive system C. Respiratory system D. Endocrine system

What two body systems are critical for the life support chain? A. Cardiopulmonary and digestive systems B. Respiratory and endocrine systems C. Cardiovascular and lymphatic systems D. Respiratory and cardiovascular systems

What type of mask should you don if you suspect that the elderly patient for whom you are caring has tuberculosis? A. Disposable surgical type face mask B. High-action particulate air (HAPA) mask C. No mask or face protection is necessary with a patient who is suspected of having TB. D. N-95 respirator

What type of shock may be caused by hemorrhage or dehydration? A. Obstructive shock. B. Distributive shock. C. Cardiogenic shock. D. Hypovolemic shock.

What vessel carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs? A. Aorta B. Pulmonary veins C. Vena cavae D. Pulmonary artery

Wheeling a non-emergency patient into the hospital emergency department, placing him in a bed, and leaving without transferring care directly to ED staff constitute: A. acceptable actions if someone sees you do them. B. acceptable actions if the ED is very busy. C. acceptable actions if you have an emergency call to respond to. D. abandonment.

When a person has an exaggerated response to a body invader, the person is said to have: A. hyposensitivity. B. antibody reaction. C. histamine dump. D. hypersensitivity.

When an EMT takes the time to ask permission from a conscious adult to do an assessment and procedures, this is respecting the legal principle of: A. abandonment. B. implied consent. C. proximate cause. D. expressed consent.

When confronted with an issue regarding patient consent or restraining a patient, which of the following concepts should guide your decision making? A. Always assume the least legal risk. B. Never transport a patient who doesn't want to be treated. C. Always transport patients who are making bad decisions. D. Always act in the patient's best interest.

When covering a patient's mouth and nose with a mask of any kind, which of the following is the primary risk? A. Causing or exasperating respiratory illnesses B. Upsetting the patient because of the social stigma C. Interfering with patient communication D. Obstructing the ability to visualize and protect the airway

When determining negligence, the jury will consider what another ________ EMS provider would do in the same circumstances. A. paid B. professional C. veteran full-time D. similarly trained and experienced

When does respiratory distress change to respiratory failure? A. When the compensatory mechanism is no longer needed and the patient goes into arrest. B. When the respiratory challenge continues, the systems fail with the demand for oxygen, pupils dilate, and the skin becomes hot and dry. C. When the patient who is short of breath, with noisy respiration, presents in the tripod position but then suddenly has the condition clear up and return to normal. D. When the respiratory challenge continues, the systems cannot keep up with the demand, and skin color and mental status change.

When soap and water are available, what method of hand cleaning should be utilized? A. A quick rinse with warm water only B. Abrasive scrubbing pad C. Alcohol-based hand cleaner D. Vigorous hand washing

When working in traffic, EMTs should have: A. a hard hat. B. a level A suit. C. full turnout gear. D. reflective clothing or vest.

When you are inserting the rigid-tip catheter into the mouth of a patient, how far should it be inserted? A. The same distance as the distance from the tip of the nose to the tip of the ear B. No deeper than the glottic opening C. Until the tip hits something and stops D. No farther than the base of the tongue

When you place your finger in an infant's palm, she grasps it with her fingers. This is an example of which reflex? A. Rooting B. Sucking C. Moro D. Palmar

When you startle a 4-month-old, he throws his arms out, spreads his fingers, then grabs with his fingers and arms. The reaction is known as the: A. startle reflex. B. rooting reflex. C. scaffolding reflex. D. Moro reflex.

When you unexpectedly find yourself at a crime scene, you should immediately: A. request fire department personnel. B. handle it by yourself. C. request more EMTs to the scene. D. request law enforcement.

When you unexpectedly find yourself at a crime scene, you should immediately: A. request more EMTs to the scene. B. handle it by yourself. C. request fire department personnel. D. request law enforcement.

Where does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the respiratory system and the bloodstream take place? A. Nasopharynx B. Bronchioles C. Trachea D. Alveoli

Where does the lower airway begin? A. At the alveoli B. In the hypopharynx C. Above the glottis D. Below the larynx

Which layer of the skin is exposed to the environment? A. Adipose tissue B. Dermis C. Subcutaneous tissue D. Epidermis

Which of the choices would be a poor technique to use if you were about to lift a heavy patient? A. Keeping the weight close to your body B. "Stacking" your body and moving it as a unit C. Lifting with the muscles of your legs, buttocks, and hip D. Lifting the patient and twist while lowering to the stretcher

Which of the following acts can lead to criminal as well as civil legal action? A. Making false statements about a coworker or patient B. Slander C. Libel D. Sharing protected health information with your friends and family

Which of the following behaviors would demonstrate that an EMT understands reactions to death and dying? A. Giving a dying patient hope that a cure can be found before the patient dies B. Being firm with grieving family members and telling them they need to accept what has happened C. Providing spiritual guidance to patients who express anger at God D. Being tolerant of angry reactions by patients and family members

Which of the following body systems primarily produces hormones? A. Cardiovascular B. Exocrine C. Gastrointestinal D. Endocrine

Which of the following caused concern worldwide when it emerged and caused almost 800 deaths? A. CHF B. AIDS C. TB D. SARS

Which of the following core components of well-being relates to physical fitness? A. Diversity awareness B. Emotional stability C. Memory skills D. Cardiovascular endurance

Which of the following describes the midline of the body? A. An imaginary line dividing the body into a front and a back portion B. An imaginary line dividing the body into a top and bottom portion C. The intersection of two imaginary lines crossing at the umbilicus D. An imaginary line dividing the body into equal right and left halves

Which of the following has historically caused the most EMS provider deaths? A. Assault B. Stroke C. Accidental needlestick D. Air medical crashes

Which of the following information may be important to law enforcement officers investigating a crime scene? A. Your opinion of what happened before you arrived on-scene B. Your experience as an EMT C. What route you took when responding to the scene D. How you gained access to the scene

Which of the following is NOT part of the upper extremities? A. Carpals B. Scapula C. Clavicle D. Calcaneus

Which of the following is NOT required to prove a claim of negligence against an EMT? A. Proximate causation existed. B. The EMT failed to act according to the standard of care. C. The EMT had a duty to act. D. The patient was in fear of bodily harm at the time of the incident.

Which of the following is a best practice for an EMT? A. Always use medical terminology around patients you are treating. B. Explain medical procedures to a patient using acronyms. C. Know your anatomy and use its jargon when talking to family. D. Resist the urge to use complex medical terminology when a simple term will do.

Which of the following is a function of the skin? A. Protection from the environment B. Regulation of body temperature C. Balancing water in the body D. All of the above

Which of the following is a patient who could be transported on a stair chair? A. A patient with a neck or spine injury B. An unresponsive patient C. A patient with a need for airway care D. A patient who is having difficulty breathing

Which of the following is a sign of an inadequate airway? A. Regular chest movements B. Equal expansion of both sides of the chest when patient inhales C. Typical skin coloration D. Nasal flaring

Which of the following is a sign that a patient's nervous system has become impaired? A. Ability to stick out the tongue B. Excessive strength C. Ability to raise either leg on command D. Weakness on one side of the body

Which of the following is an indicator that a patient's nervous system has been impaired? A. General weakness B. Changes in pupil dilation C. Hearing disturbances D. All of the above

Which of the following is directly related to the endocrine system? A. Brain B. Kidneys C. Liver D. Pancreas

Which of the following is essential for efficient production of ATP? A. Carbon B. Argon C. Nitrogen D. Oxygen

Which of the following is recommended in moving something heavy? A. Reaching B. Leaning C. Pulling D. Pushing

Which of the following is the best way to reduce stress? A. Accept more responsibility at work. B. Spend time alone. C. Accept the challenge of an extreme diet. D. Devote time to relaxation.

Which of the following is the form of stress that can cause immediate and long-term problems with an EMT's health and well-being? A. Distress B. Hyperstress C. Megastress D. Eustress

Which of the following is the only movable bone of the face? A. Maxillae B. Manubrium C. Zygoma D. Mandible

Which of the following is the term used to describe an infant's reaction to his environment? A. Personality B. Bonding C. Attitude D. Temperament

Which of the following parts of the nervous system is responsible for the "fight or flight" response experienced in response to a stressor? A. Central nervous system B. Parasympathetic nervous system C. Peripheral nervous system D. Sympathetic nervous system

Which of the following pathogens is transmitted through contact with open wounds or sores? A. Rubella B. Pertussis C. Meningitis D. Staphylococcus

Which of the following patients has an open airway but is still at risk for airway compromise? A. A patient who is screaming in pain from an abscessed tooth B. A patient with pneumonia who complains of a fever and cough C. A patient who has shortness of breath after running a marathon D. A patient who is choking because of a partial upper airway obstruction

Which of the following poses the greatest risk of exposure to TB? A. Private residences B. Institutions such as nursing homes C. Places with domestic animals D. Gyms and fitness centers

Which of the following provides the greatest personal safety for an EMT working at a motor vehicle collision? A. Portable radio B. Nonslip footwear C. Flashlight D. Reflective outer clothing

Which of the following situations BEST illustrates the act of abandonment by the EMT? A. The EMT resuscitates a patient who has a DNR order signed by his physician. B. An EMT begins care of a patient, then turns the patient over to a paramedic. C. An EMT who is off-duty sees a motor vehicle collision with probable injuries but does not stop to help. D. An EMT transports a patient to the emergency department, leaves the patient in the waiting room, but does not advise the ED staff.

Which of the following situations is the EMT required to report? A. A fall injury at a nursing home B. A professional sporting injury C. A motor vehicle accident involving a child D. Suspected child abuse

Which of the following stages is commonly referred to as "the twilight years"? A. Adolescence B. Middle adulthood C. Early adulthood D. Late adulthood

Which of the following statements about HIV/AIDS is true? A. The HIV virus lives longer outside the body than hepatitis B. B. HIV positive needlesticks have a 30 percent infection rate. C. Drugs are not available that slow HIV from progressing into AIDS. D. HIV positive needlesticks have less than a 0.05 percent infection rate.

Which of the following structures allows food to move from the mouth to the stomach? A. Vena cavae B. Trachea C. Duodenum D. Esophagus

Which of the following structures closes over the trachea to protect it during swallowing? A. Diaphragm B. Cricoid cartilage C. Pharynx D. Epiglottis

Which of the following structures or tissues is NOT part of the musculoskeletal system? A. Acetabulum B. Tendons C. Ligaments D. Fat

Which of the following terms is best defined as "a state of physical and/or psychological arousal to a stimulus?" A. Homeostasis B. Eustress C. Distress D. Stress

Which of the following terms means "in place of the parents"? A. Minor consent B. Parental transfer C. Quid pro quo D. In loco parentis

Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime scene? A. A compass and protractor B. Ice cream wrappers C. Wall hangings and shadowboxes D. The condition of a patient's clothes

Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime scene? A. Clean napkins in a drawer B. The homeowner's pet C. The refrigerator icemaker D. The position in which the patient is found

Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime scene? A. Cleaned clothes B. Towels in a dryer C. New window drapes D. A weapon

Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime scene? A. Family pictures B. Medical care by an EMT C. Patient advocacy D. Fingerprints

While providing patient care at a secured crime scene, you should: A. cover the deceased patient with a sheet and move the body to the ambulance. B. use the telephone to call in a report to medical control. C. pick up any evidence that you find and give it directly to a police officer. D. not cut through holes in clothing that might have been caused by bullets or stabbing.

While transporting a patient to the hospital who has a history of terminal brain cancer, the patient says, "I know I'm going to die, but first I want to see my grandson graduate from high school." What stage of death and dying describes this patient's current condition? A. Depression B. Anger C. Denial D. Bargaining

While treating a patient involved in a shooting at the patient's vacation home, which of the following actions may interfere with the investigation of a crime scene? A. Moving the patient B. Using the bathroom C. Using the patient's phone D. All of the above

Why does a patient involved in an auto crash who has major internal abdominal bleeding require oxygen to maintain internal respiration? A. The red blood cells have a reduction of hemoglobin that reduces the amount of oxygen that can be transported. B. A lack of oxygen in the air decreases the oxygen diffused into the bloodstream, which creates an increase of carbon dioxide. C. The swelling of the abdominal space causes the diaphragm to be restricted, which will reduce the thorax space. D. A lack of circulating volume decreases the oxygen and carbon dioxide transport capability.`

Why does the EMT's scope of practice vary from state to state? A. EMT preference B. National standards C. Company insurance D. Local legislation

Why is it critical to manage swelling of the pediatric patient's airway? A. Because the child's tongue is unlikely to cause an airway obstruction B. Because of the rigidity of the pediatric patient's airway C. Because of reduced oxygen demand in children D. Because of the small diameter of the pediatric airway

Why should an EMT avoid the use of acronyms and abbreviations when communicating? A. The medical acronyms and abbreviations used by prehospital care providers and hospital staff are different. B. Using acronyms and abbreviations is considered unprofessional. C. They should only be avoided in verbal communications, where they can be misunderstood; they are expected in written patient care reports. D. There is a chance that they can lead to errors in continued care for the patient.

With regard to medical terminology, a prefix is: A. the foundation of a word or term. B. a modifier that indicates if a term is singular or plural. C. the combination of any two or more whole words. D. added to the beginnings of roots or words to modify or qualify their meaning.

You and your EMT partner are responding to a medical aid call in the rural West County area. The dispatcher advises that the caller is reporting the patient as having a history of "plegia." Why would it be beneficial to have the dispatcher clarify a prefix for the word plegia? A. A patient with plegia is potentially contagious, and the EMTs need to know what precautions are required. B. Because a dysplegiac patient generally requires an EMT-Paramedic level of care, and it may change the level of response. C. There is actually no need to clarify the word. D. Without a clarifying prefix, it is difficult for the EMTs to effectively prepare for the type of patient they may encounter.

You are aggressively ventilating an adult patient with a bag-valve mask when you notice that his previously strong pulse is getting weaker. You should: A. reduce the concentration of oxygen. B. begin chest compressions. C. increase the concentration of oxygen. D. reduce the volume of the ventilations.

You are approaching the scene of a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following would be the first way to safeguard your well-being as an EMT? A. Take personal protective equipment (PPE) precautions. B. Request additional resources. C. Utilize DOT-approved reflective safety clothing. D. Ensure scene safety.

You are assessing a 12-year-old male patient who has been involved in a bicycle accident. This patient would be classified as being in which stage of life? A. Junior school age B. Middle school age C. Adolescent D. School age

You are suctioning the oral cavity of a patient who is vomiting profusely. You are using a soft (French) catheter to help clear the oral cavity, but it keeps getting clogged. What should you do? A. Turn up the negative vacuum amount on the suction unit. B. Insert the catheter deeper into the airway. C. Tell the patient to start swallowing the vomit to keep it out of the airway. D. Switch to a rigid-tip catheter.

You arrive on the scene of a 55-year-old male patient. The patient's wife called 911 because he is having chest pains. The patient is very angry with his wife for calling 911 because he states he only has heartburn and adamantly refuses any treatment or transport. After signing the patient refusal form, the patient collapses and goes into sudden cardiac arrest. The wife is crying uncontrollably and begging you to do something. What should you do? A. Respect his legal right to not have any treatment, regardless of how much the wife begs you to help. B. Provide emergency care for the patient only if his wife signs a document stating they will not sue the EMS service. C. Explain to the wife that her husband signed a legal document refusing care, and if you intervened to help him now, you would be breaking the law. D. Provide emergency care under implied consent.

You have been called to a private residence where a 16-year-old female patient is reported by her parents to be "acting strangely" and possibly "on something." Upon your arrival, the patient is locked in her bedroom refusing to open the door. The patient refuses to speak to you and will only come out if her best friend is present. Your knowledge of life-span development indicates that the following characteristics are common with a patient of this age. A. Preoccupation with body image B. Self-destructive behaviors such as tobacco, alcohol, and drug use C. Depression and suicide D. All of the above

You have been dispatched to a shopping mall to assess a 1-month-old female patient that tumbled out of her stroller while her mother was shopping. Upon your arrival, the baby is awake, alert, and happily smiling and cooing at her mom. The mother reports that the child did not appear to suffer any injuries as a result of the fall. As you assess the patient and place your finger in her hand, she grasps it tightly. This is known as the: A. sucking reflex. B. rooting reflex. C. Moro reflex. D. palmar reflex.

You have been under a lot of family stress lately, and you have not been sleeping well. When you got to work this morning, you realized that you had forgotten to place your badge on your uniform shirt. You tell your partner that you cannot seem to think clearly. Your partner tells you that he is concerned about your well-being. After hearing this, you know that your duty as an EMT is to: A. quit talking about your problems at work, as you are worried what your crew members would say. B. go see your physician. C. tell your partner that you feel better after talking to him and go about your work. D. take off work until you can straighten out your family problem and make sure that you are mentally prepared to work.

You have just arrived at the station to start your shift, and you notice that your partner is asleep in a chair. You proceed to check out your ambulance. Your partner comes in drinking a cup of coffee, and you notice that she has a strong alcohol smell on her breath. Your duty as an EMT is to: A. tell dispatch that you will be out of service for maintenance. B. tell your partner to go get some rest before you get a call. C. see whether someone from the night shift can hold over until your partner can sober up. D. notify dispatch that you are out of service and have your supervisor come to meet you.

You respond to a bus accident with multiple patients. As you arrive at the scene, you are approached by a local politician who states that his wife has been involved. He tells you that if you will take care of her first, he will ensure that you get the promotion you are up for. This becomes what type of decision for you as an EMT? A. Legal B. Medical C. Financial D. Ethical

You respond to a laceration call. When you arrive on-scene, you walk into the house and find a person suffering from a severe wrist laceration from a broken window. Without thinking, you immediately grab the wrist and apply direct pressure to the wound. You then realize that, in your hurry to save a life, you forgot to put on your gloves. You look down to see your hand is covered in blood. When practical, your next action should be A. If your hands had no open wounds, it is not required to report the exposure as there is no risk of infection, and you could get in trouble at work for failure to follow policy. B. Report the exposure incident because it is the law and you could be fined a large sum of money for failing to report the exposure. C. Report the exposure. Failure to report the exposure may result in you not receiving financial compensation for a potential line-of-duty injury. D. Wash your hands and report the exposure.

You suspect that a pediatric patient is being abused. You decide not to report this to the appropriate authorities because the parent is very upset and remorseful. This is: A. a reasonable judgment call. B. an ethical violation but definitely not a crime. C. a violation of policy but not an ethical violation. D. a violation of professional ethics and possibly a crime.

Your patient is an 86-year-old male with congestive heart failure. He called for help tonight because he cannot breathe and feels like he is "drowning in his own lungs." The patient has had several heart attacks in the past and he tells you his "heart is shot." The patient's cardiac output is likely diminished because: A. the pressure in the system against which the heart must pump is increased (afterload is increased). B. less blood fills his heart with each contraction (preload is diminished). C. the heart's force of contraction is reduced (contractility is diminished). D. All of the above are true.

Your patient is conscious, has no trauma, and is complaining of dyspnea. Which of the following is most likely the BEST way to position the patient during transport? A. Lying flat B. Feet elevated C. Left recumbent D. Sitting upright

Your patient presents with burns to the face, nose, and mouth and with noticeable soot in his mouth. This patient is predisposed to: A. inner ear swelling. B. blindness. C. gastric ulceration. D. airway obstruction.

Your patient was found unconscious at the bottom of a dark stairway. The BEST method to use to open her airway would be the: A. neck-lift, head-tilt maneuver. B. head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver. C. modified chin-lift maneuver. D. jaw-thrust maneuver.

________ blood returns to the right side of the heart. A. Red B. Anemic C. Oxygenated D. Deoxygenated

A CISD meeting usually takes place: A. about one week after the incident. B. before the end of shift. C. immediately after the incident. D. 24 to 72 hours after the incident.

D. 24 to 72 hours after the incident.

What is the approximate amount of oxygen in a portable D cylinder? A. 250 liters B. 550 liters C. 450 liters D. 350 liters

D. 350 liters

What is the maximum flow rate that you would administer by nasal cannula? A. 4 lpm B. 10 lpm C. 2 lpm D. 6 lpm

D. 6 lpm A nasal cannula will deliver about 44% percent concentration at 6 lpm. Flows above 6 lpm can dry and break down the nasal mucous membranes. For flows above 6 lpm, an alternative delivery device is indicated.

What is the approximate amount of oxygen in a portable E cylinder? A. 700 liters B. 450 liters C. 575 liters D. 625 liters

D. 625 liters The following are sizes and related volumes of oxygen cylinders used in emergency medical care: D cylinder—350 liters; E cylinder—625 liters; M cylinder—3,000 liters; G cylinder—5,300 liters; H cylinder—6,900 liters.

You are ventilating a patient manually. Which of the following changes is a negative side effect of positive pressure ventilation? A. A drop in the oxygen saturation reading B. Gradual dilation of the pupils C. A drop in heart rate D. A decrease in the blood pressure

D. A decrease in the blood pressure During positive pressure ventilation, the thorax becomes positive during the inhalation phase as air is forced into the lungs. The loss of negative pressure can decrease preload, which in turn reduces cardiac output, blood pressure, and perfusion.

To which of the following patients should you administer supplemental oxygen? A. Any patient with external bleeding B. Any patient with a respiratory rate over 20 per minute C. A patient with adequate breathing and a pulse ox of 96% D. A patient with inadequate breathing and a pulse ox of 88%

D. A patient with inadequate breathing and a pulse ox of 88% Inadequate breathing and a low pulse oximeter reading are both indications for supplemental oxygen. Because the breathing is inadequate the oxygen should be administered by a bag valve mask.

Which of the following patients is at risk for failure of the cardiopulmonary system? A. A patient with PTSD B. A patient drawing air in and out through the glottic opening C. A patient experiencing diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide D. A patient with severe asthma or COPD

D. A patient with severe asthma or COPD

Which of the following has the MOST significant impact on regulation of breathing? A. Nitrogen levels B. Blood glucose levels C. Hydrogen levels D. Carbon dioxide levels

D. Carbon dioxide levels

Which of the following is the best way to reduce stress? A. Accept more responsibility at work. B. Spend time alone. C. Accept the challenge of an extreme diet. D. Devote time to relaxation.

D. Devote time to relaxation.

What is the universal color for medical grade oxygen tanks? A. Black B. Orange C. Silver D. Green

D. Green

What is the greatest hazard of using a humidifier in delivering oxygen to a patient? A. Oversaturation B. Exacerbation of COPD C. Soft tissue edema D. Infection

D. Infection Infection is the greatest hazard of using a humidifier in delivering oxygen.

Which of the following is a critical component of the standard, Title 29 Code of Federal Regulation 1910.1030? A. Hepatitis C vaccination B. SCBA training C. Documentation standards D. Infection exposure control plan

D. Infection exposure control plan

What is the active part of breathing? A. Dyspnea B. Apnea C. Exhalation D. Inhalation

D. Inhalation Inhalation is an active process. Exhalation is a passive process.

What is the MOST important thing you can do to prevent an injury to yourself when moving patients? A. Let your partner lift the head of the wheeled cot. B. Work with a strong partner. C. Always call for backup for any patient who weighs over 200 pounds. D. Know your limitations.

D. Know your limitations.

What is the primary rule in dealing with a hazardous material incident? A. Make sure your ambulance is equipped with binoculars for identifying placards. B. Always have the Emergency Response Guidebook available on your phone. C. Immediately begin to care for your patients. D. Maintain a safe distance from the source of the hazardous material.

D. Maintain a safe distance from the source of the hazardous material.

Why does air enter the lungs during inhalation? A. Positive pressure is created inside the lungs. B. Positive pressure is created in the lower airway. C. Negative pressure is created in the upper airway. D. Negative pressure is created inside the lungs.

D. Negative pressure is created inside the lungs.

You are treating a patient who has taken too much of her pain-relieving narcotic. She is breathing very slowly with minimal chest rise. Which device would NOT be appropriate to administer oxygen to this patient? A. Bag-valve mask B. FROPVD C. Pocket face mask D. Nonrebreather mask or nasal cannula

D. Nonrebreather mask or nasal cannula

Your patient is apneic and has a stoma. How should you ventilate this patient? A. Gently insert an appropriately sized and lubricated endotracheal tube into the stoma, inflate the cuff, and begin ventilations. B. Perform a surgical cricothyrotomy above the stoma site, insert an appropriately sized and lubricated endotracheal tube, and ventilate. C. Place a pediatric NRB over the stoma, and apply oxygen at 15 lpm. D. Place a pediatric mask on the adult BVM, place the mask over the stoma, and ventilate.

D. Place a pediatric mask on the adult BVM, place the mask over the stoma, and ventilate. For a patient with a stoma, use a pediatric mask on an adult BVM so that you can give the correct tidal volume yet have a mask that will accommodate the smaller opening in the neck. Although placing a small ET tube into the stoma site can be done, it is a skill for the Paramedic, as is doing a surgical cricothyrotomy.

Which of the following is the best way to handle job related stress? A. Do not talk about the stressors of the job to anyone other than a professional counselor. B. Avoid stressful types of patient contacts or situations. C. Always keep prescription anti-anxiety medications available. D. Recognize the signs of stress when they develop.

D. Recognize the signs of stress when they develop.

What establishes procedures by which emergency response workers may find out whether they have been exposed to life-threatening infectious diseases? A. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration C. Department of Labor and Statistics D. Ryan White CARE Act

D. Ryan White CARE Act

Why is it important to ensure that you attend to your mental health as much as to your physical health? A. Stress from the job can result in feelings of superiority. B. Stress from the job can cause you to be more empathetic to homeless people. C. Stress from the job can affect your professional life. D. Stress from the job can affect your personal and professional life.

D. Stress from the job can affect your personal and professional life.

You are treating a patient who needs supplemental oxygen but will not tolerate the nonrebreather mask that you would like to use. What should you do? A. Switch to a FROPVD. B. Switch to a bag-valve mask. C. Switch to a pocket face mask. D. Switch to a nasal cannula.

D. Switch to a nasal cannula.

What is the overall purpose of a CISD event? A. To identify how to improve the emergency response system B. To provide a method of tracking MCI events and the types of human responses that occur both during and after the event C. To provide professional counseling for the emergency workers who participated in the event D. To provide a means to relieve the stress experienced by those who were involved in the incident

D. To provide a means to relieve the stress experienced by those who were involved in the incident

What oxygen delivery device can provide precise concentrations of oxygen? A. Simple face mask B. Nonrebreather mask C. Partial rebreather mask D. Venturi mask

D. Venturi mask

D. Vigorous hand washing

A person breathing too slowly will have: A. a decreased tidal volume. B. an increased tidal volume. C. an increased minute volume. D. a decreased minute volume.

D. a decreased minute volume

An incident involving intentional disbursement of a chemical agent is likely: A. a domestic dispute. B. a multivehicle accident. C. an industrial accident. D. a terrorism incident.

D. a terrorism incident.

In a patient in respiratory distress who is breathing adequately, you would expect: A. quiet breathing with no unusual sounds. B. absent breath sounds. C. unconsciousness. D. an elevated rate of breathing but adequate minute volume.

D. an elevated rate of breathing but adequate minute volume.

Ventilation is: A. opening the airway. B. the amount of air in one breath. C. the number of breaths per minute. D. breathing in and out.

D. breathing in and out.

Placing your body behind an object that can hide you from view is called: A. cover. B. cowardly. C. cowering. D. concealment.

D. concealment.

A negative side effect of positive pressure ventilation is: A. that it can be administered via several devices. B. exerting the opposite force from what the body normally uses. C. forcing air into the lungs. D. decreasing cardiac output.

D. decreasing cardiac output.

If there was damage to the patient's alveoli, you would expect the patient to experience: A. a drop in heart rate. B. a severe headache or double vision. C. an increase in urinary output. D. difficulty in breathing.

D. difficulty in breathing. If there was damage or disease to the alveoli, the patient would likely have trouble oxygenating the blood and eliminating carbon dioxide, which would eventually lead to respiratory distress.

The movement of gases from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration is called: A. hypoxia. B. pulmonary exchange. C. respiration. D. diffusion.

D. diffusion. Diffusion is the movement of gases from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration.

Exam gloves should be latex free because: A. latex gloves are more expensive. B. latex gloves are not compatible with oxygen. C. use of latex gloves is not allowed by OSHA. D. exposure to latex increases the risk of developing a latex allergy.

D. exposure to latex increases the risk of developing a latex allergy.

As an EMT who is looking for ways to improve your personal wellness and ability to resist job-related stress, you should focus on: A. increasing your coffee and tea intake. B. watching more TV and playing more video games. C. considering taking medication to help manage stressful times. D. increasing the amount of exercise you get in your day

D. increasing the amount of exercise you get in your day

The warning signs of stress include: A. intense concentration on work. B. increased appetite. C. the need for interaction with family and friends. D. loss of sexual desire or interest.

D. loss of sexual desire or interest.

The product of tidal volume and ventilation rate is: A. pulmonary respiration. B. dead space air. C. alveolar volume. D. minute volume.

D. minute volume.

Diseases are caused by microorganisms such as bacteria and viruses, known as: A. secretions. B. germs. C. droplets. D. pathogens.

D. pathogens.

When compensation for increasing oxygen demand fails and the body's metabolic needs are not met, hypoxia becomes profound, carbon dioxide builds to dangerous levels, and the muscles used for increased respiration begin to tire. This state is called: A. respiratory arrest. B. respiratory distress. C. alveolar ventilation. D. respiratory failure.

D. respiratory failure.

The rate of artificial ventilations through a stoma is based on: A. the EMT's preference. B. the patient's pulse rate. C. the patient's oxygen saturation. D. the patient's age.

D. the patient's age.

Your patient has a tidal volume of 2 to 4 ml/kg. This would be considered: A. too high. B. apneic. C. normal. D. too low.

D. too low. Normal tidal volume is 5 to 7 ml per kilogram of body weight.

To reduce the risk of illness, the EMT should: A. avoid all contact with febrile patients. B. have your partner provide primary care for ill patients. C. wash your hands only at the beginning and end of your shift. D. use Standard Precautions during each patient contact.

D. use Standard Precautions during each patient contact.

What protective measures should the EMT take for a patient who is known to be infected with tuberculosis? A. Gloves and surgical mask B. Gloves C. Gloves and gown D. Gloves, eyewear, and HEPA mask

D. Gloves, eyewear, and HEPA mask

What protective measures should the EMT take for a patient who is known to be infected with hepatitis B or C? A. Gloves and eyewear B. Gloves and hand washing C. Gloves D. Gloves, eyewear, and hand washing

D. Gloves, eyewear, and hand washing

What type of precautions should an EMT take when caring for an intoxicated female who is trying to spit on the EMS crew? A. Gloves only B. Gloves and a mask C. Gloves and eye protection D. Gloves, eye protection, and a mask

D. Gloves, eye protection, and a mask

As an EMT, what do you NEVER want to do while lifting a patient? A. Position your feet shoulder width apart. B. Keep the weight close to your body. C. Use your legs. D. Turn or twist.

D. Turn or twist

Which of the following BEST describes the professional EMT? A. A person with a sarcastic sense of humor B. A nervous person who does not like to improvise C. A person who demands respect D. A person with a calm and reassuring personality

D. A person with a calm and reassuring personality Personal traits the effective EMT should have include a calm and reassuring personality, leadership ability, good judgment, good moral character, stability and adaptability, the ability to listen, resourcefulness and the ability to improvise, and cooperation.

When your pupils dilate, your heart rate increases, your bronchial passages dilate, and your blood sugar increases, what stage of stress response is this? A. Resistance B. Resolution C. Exhaustion D. Alarm

D. Alarm

Which of the following settings would MOST likely have an EMT available for emergency assistance? A. DOT interstate construction crew B. A large supermarket chain store C. The local U.S. Postal Service branch D. An oil rig in the Gulf of Mexico

D. An oil rig in the Gulf of Mexico

You have just read an EMS article stating that the use of a backboard is not necessary for a patient with neck pain if the cervical vertebrae were cleared with an X-ray. Why is this research NOT applicable to your EMS system? A. Because none of the researchers was a certified EMT B. Because the research was not done in your EMS system C. Because your medical director has not read it yet D. Because EMS does not have access to X-ray findings when determining when to immobilize a patient

D. Because EMS does not have access to X-ray findings when determining when to immobilize a patient

What is one way in which an EMT can work toward high-quality care? A. By limiting his or her education to core requirements B. By writing run reports after a shift C. By advising against the QI process D. By checking and maintaining the equipment

D. By checking and maintaining the equipment

Which of the following is a role of EMS in public health? A. Supplying clean water B. Cleaning sewer systems C. Providing prenatal screening D. Conducting public vaccination programs

D. Conducting public vaccination programs

Which of the following is an example of a local public health emergency? A. A multiple-residence structural fire B. CO poisoning of a household C. A school bus crash D. Contaminated water supply due to flooding

D. Contaminated water supply due to flooding

The emotional stage of dying that is characterized by a patient who becomes silent, distant, sad, and despairing is referred to as: A. anger. B. denial. C. acceptance. D. depression.

D. Depression

You are out with friends eight hours before your next ambulance shift. Which of the following should you NOT do? A. Smoke a cigarette B. Fly in an airplane C. Go to a nightclub D. Drink alcohol

D. Drink alcohol

Which of the following is a certification level established by the National Registry of EMTs? A. Critical care nurse B. AMR C. Flight paramedic D. EMR

D. EMR

😀You are confronted with a situation in which your BEST option to move the patient will be to quickly use a blanket drag, shirt drag, or armpit-forearm drag. These maneuvers are referred to as: A. urgent moves. B. direct ground moves. C. nonurgent moves. D. emergency moves.

D. Emergency moves ***

What stage of the general adaptation syndrome involves an individual who has lost the ability to resist or adapt to a stressor and may become seriously ill as a consequence? A. Alarm B. Termination C. Resistance D. Exhaustion

D. Exhaustion

Which of the following statements about an EMS system's CQI program is FALSE? A. Continuing education will better prepare the EMTs, which in turn will improve how well they perform during CQI audits. B. Periodic reviews of each EMT in the system should be performed. C. Quality documentation will strengthen the CQI program. D. Feedback for the CQI process should be gathered only from the EMTs and the receiving facility.

D. Feedback for the CQI process should be gathered only from the EMTs and the receiving facility.

Holding an NREMT certification may help you in which of the following situations? A. Passing an EMT examination B. Establishing protocols C. Providing prehospital care D. Gaining reciprocity

D. Gaining reciprocity

What is the MOST common destination facility to which an EMT will be transporting patients? A. Hospital cardiac, medical, or trauma intensive-care units B. Freestanding emergency care facility C. Private physician's office D. Hospital emergency department

D. Hospital emergency department

How is proper documentation on the patient care report important to the quality improvement process? A. If your service has sloppy PCRs, it will not get grants. B. The medical director's only view of the EMTs' skills is based on reading PCRs. C. The QI process is based solely on documentation. D. It is difficult to make generalizations about the quality of care when documentation is poor.

D. It is difficult to make generalizations about the quality of care when documentation is poor.

Which of the following statements best describes protocols? A. A process of continuous self-review with the purpose of identifying and correcting aspects of the system that require improvement B. A policy or protocol issued by a medical director that authorizes EMTs and others to perform particular skills in certain situations C. Oversight of the patient-care aspects of an EMS system by the medical director D. Lists of steps, such as assessments and interventions, to be taken in different situations

D. Lists of steps, such as assessments and interventions, to be taken in different situations

When you are lifting and carrying equipment with one hand, it is important to keep your back in what position? A. Backward curved B. Flexible C. Forward curved D. Locked

D. Locked

Which of the following are you most likely to do for every patient transport? A. Use lights and siren to minimize transport time. B. Obtain the patient's insurance information. C. Allow family members to ride in the patient compartment. D. Notify the receiving facility of the nature and extent of injuries.

D. Notify the receiving facility of the nature and extent of injuries.

You have arrived on scene as a backup unit. Another EMT tells you that the patient is an unresponsive 12-year-old boy who was found floating face down in a swimming pool. The patient has already been loaded into the transporting ambulance. Your EMT coworker asks you to drive to the hospital using lights and sirens. Given this information, what facility would MOST likely be your destination? A. Stroke center B. Cardiac center C. Spine injury center D. Pediatric center

D. Pediatric center

Which of the following stress reactions is more physiological than psychological? A. Loss of motivation B. Forgetfulness C. Depression D. Pounding heart

D. Pounding heart

Which of the following is one of the "Rs" in reacting to a dangerous situation? A. Recover B. React C. Redirect D. Reevaluate

D. Reevaluate The three Rs are retreat, radio, and reevaluate.

Exercising, eating a healthy diet, using relaxation techniques, and seeking professional counseling are all ways of managing: A. critical infections. B. anorexia. C. cancer. D. stress.

D. Stress

Which of the following governmental departments was responsible for developing EMS standards and assisting states to upgrade the quality of their prehospital emergency care? A. National Highway Traffic Safety Council B. National Registry of EMTs C. National EMS Council D. U.S. Department of Transportation

D. U.S. Department of Transportation The Highway Safety Act of 1966 required each state to establish a highway safety program that met prescribed federal standards and included emergency services. The U.S. Department of Transportation, through its National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), took a leadership role in the development of emergency medical services. The NREMT is not a government entity.

Refresher courses for EMTs are required: A. annually. B. as determined by each employer. C. only if the EMT's skills are poor. D. at 2- to 4-year intervals.

D. at 2- to 4-year intervals.

The EMT's first priority during a call is to protect: A. innocent bystanders. B. the patient's family. C. the patient. D. himself or herself.

D. himself or herself.

The EMT is on the scene treating a patient, and the patient's physician is on scene ordering the EMT to transport the patient to somewhere other than the closest appropriate facility. The BEST person the EMT could contact would be: A. the EMS chief. B. the EMS supervisor on duty. C. law enforcement. D. medical direction.

D. medical direction.

The EMT gains the authority to render care from the: A. supervisor. B. base hospital. C. NHTSA. D. medical director.

D. medical director.

Confidence and initiative are examples of a good EMT's: A. knowledge and skills. B. patient care advocacy. C. physical demands. D. personal traits.

D. personal traits.

One of your roles and responsibilities as an EMT is patient advocacy. This means that as an emergency care provider, you are responsible for: A. ensuring scene safety. B. gaining access to the patient. C. providing emergency care. D. protecting the patient's rights.

D. protecting the patient's rights.

Mumps is transmitted by: A. blood. B. feces. C. semen. D. saliva.

D. saiva

Off-line medical control for an EMT is provided by a physician through: A. radio contact. B. in-person direction. C. telephone contact. D. standing orders.

D. standing orders.

When applying for a new job as an EMT, you had to watch a videotaped scenario and then complete a prehospital care report and give an oral patient hand-off report. This activity was designed to assess: A. your tolerance for an order from management. B. your empathy for the patient in the mock scenario. C. your ability to be polite and considerate in a stressful situation. D. the expected ability to maintain good verbal and written communication skills.

D. the expected ability to maintain good verbal and written communication skills.

Which of the following is found in poultry and can affect humans? A. Avian flu B. H1N1 C. West Nile virus D. ARDS

Positive changes in your work environment can help you manage job-related stress. These changes include: A. criticizing coworkers or making negative comments whenever possible. B. requesting additional or overtime shifts and burying yourself in your work. C. getting some exercise, such as aerobics, at the station. D. rotating to a busier station or duty assignment.

What U.S. entity established guidelines that require certain precautions to be taken to prevent the transmission of disease through contact with body fluids? A. The Surgeon General B. Transportation and highway safety C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration D. Pathology and disease control

Which of the following is LEAST likely to contain hazardous materials? A. Trains B. Warehouses C. Trucks D. Schools

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