Chapter 1 - EMS Systems
Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training? A. Oral glucose for hypoglycemia B. Automated external defibrillation C. Intranasal medication administration D. Use of a manually triggered ventilator
B. Automated external defibrillation
An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n): A. EMT. B. paramedic. C. advanced EMT (AEMT). D. EMR.
B. paramedic.
Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: A. EMT. B. paramedic. C. AEMT. D. EMR.
B. paramedic.
If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should: A. avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic. B. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives. C. purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer's claim. D. determine which device the American Heart Association suggests.
B. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives.
EMRs such as firefighters, law enforcement officers, and park rangers are an integral part of the EMS system because: A. they are usually trained to assist paramedics with certain procedures. B. they often arrive at the scene before the ambulance and EMTs. C. the average response time for the EMT crew is approximately 15 minutes. D. they can initiate certain ALS procedures before EMS arrival.
B. they often arrive at the scene before the ambulance and EMTs.
Why are prehospital emergency care guidelines updated on a regular basis? A. Statistical data indicate that an increasing number of people are being diagnosed with a particular illness. B. EMS providers should be encouraged to actively participate in research and become familiar with data analysis. C. Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed. D. The federal government requires that changes be made to existing emergency care protocols at least every 5 years.
C. Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed.
Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct? A. The ADA applies only to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability. B. The minimum number of hours required to successfully complete an EMT course is less for candidates who are disabled. C. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled. D. According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam.
C. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled.
What is the major goal of continuous quality improvement? A. To perform quarterly audits of the EMS system. B. To verify EMTs have received BLS/CPR training. C. To ensure the public receives the highest standard of care. D. To verify the proper information is received in the billing department.
C. To ensure the public receives the highest standard of care.
Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure? A. An EMT gives the correct drug to a patient, although his protocols clearly state that he is not authorized to do so. B. Due to an improperly applied cervical collar, a patient's spinal injury is aggravated and he is permanently disabled. C. A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first. D. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug.
D. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug.
EMT training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the: A. National Registry of EMTs. B. Individual state's EMS protocols. C. National Association of EMTs. D. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA).
D. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA).
Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: A. Individual EMT. B. State Bureau of EMS. C. EMS training officer. D. EMS medical director.
A. Individual EMT.
Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? A. Radio B. Online C. Off-line D. Direct
C. Off-line
EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of: A. The Emergency Medical Services Act. B. The Department of Transportation's White Paper: Death and Dying. C. Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured. D. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.
D. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.
Which of the following statements regarding the EMS medical director and an EMT's scope of practice is correct? A. The EMS medical director can expand the EMT's scope of practice but cannot limit it without state approval. B. The EMS medical director can expand or limit an individual EMT's scope of practice without state approval. C. An EMT's scope of practice is exclusively regulated by the state EMS office, not the EMS medical director. D. An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval.
D. An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval.
If an EMT candidate has been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor, he or she should: A. wait at least 24 months before taking another state-approved EMT class. B. send an official request to the National Registry of EMTs (NREMT) to seek approval to take the EMT exam. C. recognize that any such conviction will disqualify him or her from EMT licensure. D. contact the state EMS office and provide its staff with the required documentation.
D. contact the state EMS office and provide its staff with the required documentation.
Which of the following involves federal legislation concerning patient confidentiality? A. HIPAA B. NAACS C. EMTALA D. FLCPC
A. HIPAA
An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: A. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful. B. demand that the patient to be quiet and cooperative during transport. C. ignore the patient's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint. D. reassure the patient that everything will be all right, even if it will not be.
A. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.
What year was the white paper, (Accidental Death and Disability) The Neglected Disease of Modern Society published? A. 1966 B. 1970 C. 1984 D. 1992
A. 1966
Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS? A. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device B. A 53-year-old patient who is assisted with his prescribed nitroglycerin C. A 61-year-old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen D. A 64-year-old patient who is given aspirin for suspected cardiac chest pain
A. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device
Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy? A. Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving B. The construction of a guardrail on a dangerous curve following a fatal motor vehicle crash C. Protecting a patient's spine from further injury after a fall from a significant height D. Teaching a group of new parents how to perform one- and two-rescuer infant CPR
A. Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving
The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on: A. EMS research. B. local protocols. C. the lead EMT's decision. D. regional trauma guidelines.
A. EMS research.
According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to: A. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications. B. insert a peripheral IV line and infuse fluids. C. administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route. D. interpret a basic (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly.
A. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.
The ____________ deals with the well-being of the EMT, career progression, and EMT compensation. A. human resources department B. office of the medical director C. EMS administrator or chief D. local public health department
A. human resources department
According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office to: A. insert a peripheral intravenous catheter. B. apply and interpret data from a pulse oximeter. C. use an automatic transport ventilator. D. give aspirin to a patient with chest pain.
A. insert a peripheral intravenous catheter.
The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the: A. state office of EMS. B. regional trauma center. C. American Heart Association. D. National Registry of EMTs.
A. state office of EMS.
Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? A. A vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting B. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured C. A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients D. A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients
B. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured
Which of the following skills would a layperson MOST likely be trained to perform before arrival of EMS? A. Obtaining a manual blood pressure B. Bleeding control using a tourniquet C. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway D. Administration of supplemental oxygen
B. Bleeding control using a tourniquet
Which of the following is true of medical control? A. It is determined by the dispatcher. B. It may be written or "standing orders." C. It requires online radio or phone consultation. D. It only affects ALS providers.
B. It may be written or "standing orders."
Which of the following is a specific example of the Mobile Integrated Healthcare (MIH) model? A. EMTs assess a patient whose lung disease is "acting up" B. The paramedic administers a patient's flu vaccination C. EMTs respond to a woman who complains of high fever D. Paramedics pick up a patient from an acute care clinic
B. The paramedic administers a patient's flu vaccination
The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to: A. administer punitive actions to EMTs who do not follow local protocols. B. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed. C. ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office. D. focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient.
B. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.
Continuing education in EMS serves to: A. confirm research and statistical findings in prehospital care. B. maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills. C. enforce mandatory attendance at agency-specific training. D. provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system.
B. maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills.
As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: A. the patient's condition. B. medical director approval. C. an order from a paramedic. D. the transport time to the hospital.
B. medical director approval.
The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the: A. shift supervisor. B. medical director. C. EMS administrator. D. field training officer.
B. medical director.
The criteria to be licensed and employed as an EMT include: A. demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds. B. proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases. C. a minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care. D. successful completion of a recognized bystander CPR course.
B. proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases.
Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? A. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs. B. EMS training standards are regulated by the NREMT. C. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs. D. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.
D. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.
What is the purpose for providing Mobile Integrated Healthcare? A. To allow paramedics to function beyond the scope of practice. B. To allow EMS agencies to respond to emergencies faster. C. To educate the community on public health issues. D. To facilitate improved access to health care at an affordable price.
D. To facilitate improved access to health care at an affordable price.
The EMT certification exam is designed to: A. rank EMTs based on performance on the certification exam. B. identify those EMTs who are prepared for advanced levels of training. C. provide EMTs with the best possible wage once certification is achieved. D. ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills.
D. ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills.
